General Knowledge Mock Test - 1


120 Questions MCQ Test CDS ( Combined Defence Services ) Mock Test Series | General Knowledge Mock Test - 1


Description
This mock test of General Knowledge Mock Test - 1 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 120 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence General Knowledge Mock Test - 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this General Knowledge Mock Test - 1 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this General Knowledge Mock Test - 1 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other General Knowledge Mock Test - 1 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta period women and Sudras speak:

Solution:

In Sanskrit plays of Gupta period women and Sudras speak prakrit.

QUESTION: 2

The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to his inscriptions is:

Solution:

In the year 1915 near a village called Maski in Raichur District of Karnataka, a rock inscription was discovered on a hill. In this inscription for the first time the name of Ashoka was found with titles like Devanampriya and Priyadarshi. It was then certain that Devanampriya Priyadarshi was no other than Ashoka.

QUESTION: 3

The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by:

Solution:

Anuvrata was the five main teachings of Jainism- Ahimsa, Asateya, Aparigraha, Satya and Brahmacharya.

QUESTION: 4

The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

Solution:

The Words Satyameva Jayate came from Mundaka Upanishad, meaning ‘Truth Alone Triumphs’.

QUESTION: 5

Which one of the following monuments has a dome which is said to be one of the largest in the world?

Solution:

It is the Mausoleum of Muhammad Adil Shah Sur of Bijapur. This is the second largest dome in the world.

QUESTION: 6

Ashtapradhan was a council of ministers:

Solution:

It was constituted by Shivaji in Maratha administration.

QUESTION: 7

In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice- President of the Executive Council was:

Solution:

The Viceroy Executive Council served as the executive branch of interim government. Although it was originally headed by the Viceroy of India, it was transformed into a council of ministers with the powers of a Prime Minister bestowed on the vice president of the Council, a position held by Jawaharlal Nehru.

QUESTION: 8

Hooghly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal by:

Solution:

Hughly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bangal by the Portuguese.

QUESTION: 9

The 'Modi script' was employed in the documents of the:

Solution:

It was mainly used in maintaining the revenue and administrative records.

QUESTION: 10

Who among the following was the first European to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian princes with a view to acquire territories?

Solution:

He succeeded Dumas as the French governor of Pondicherry. His ambition now was to acquire for France vast territories in India, and for this purpose he entered into relations with the native princes, and adopted a style of oriental splendour in his dress and surroundings. He built an army of native troops, called sepoys, who were trained as infantrymen men in his service also included the famous Hyder Ali of Mysore. Colonial administrator and governor-general of the French territories in India, who nearly realized his dream of establishing a French empire in India.

QUESTION: 11

Consider the following landmarks in Indian education:
1. Hindu College, Calcutta
2. University of Calcutta
3. Adam's Report
4. Wood's Dispatch
The correct chronological order of these landmarks is:

Solution:

Hindu College, Calcutta - 1817; University of Calcutta - 1858; Adam’s Report – 1835-38; Wood’s Despatch - 1854

QUESTION: 12

Which one of the following is an important historical novel written during the latter half of the nineteenth century?

Solution:

Durgesh Nandini was written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in 1862-1864 in Bangla.

QUESTION: 13

Who among the following was associated with suppression of thugs?

Solution:

Captain William Sleeman was appointed by Lord William Bentick (1828-35) to suppress the thugs.

QUESTION: 14

The radical wing of the Congress Party with Jawaharlal Nehru as one of its main leaders, founded the Independence for India League in opposition to :

Solution:

When the Nehru Report came before the annual session of the Congress in Calcutta in December 1928, the left lashed it out on the fact that it did not want the complete Independence and wanted only a dominion status. Meanwhile in April 1928, the "Independence for India League" was formed with Jawaharlal Lal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose as Secretaries and S. Srinivasa Iyengar as President.

QUESTION: 15

Which one of the following was an ‘émigré’ communist journal of M.N. Roy?

Solution:

Communist Vanguard was an emigre Communist journal of M.N. Roy.

QUESTION: 16

What is the correct sequence of the following events?
1. The Lucknow Pact
2. The Introduction on Dyarchy
3. The Rowlatt Act
4. The Partition of Bengal
Codes:

Solution:

Lucknow Pact - 1916; Introduction of Diarchy under Montford Reforms (GIA 1919) - July 1918; Rowlatt Act - March 1919; Partition of Bengal - 1905. Answer could be 4123. But here best option is b.

QUESTION: 17

The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in:

Solution:

In 1908, Barrah Dacoity was organized by Dacca Anushilan under Pulin Das in East Bengal.

QUESTION: 18

In 1930, Mahatma Gandhi started Civil Disobedience Movement from:

Solution:

On 12 March, 1930, Gandhi started his civil disobedience movement by starting Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram in Gujarat and reached Dandi on 6 April 1930 and broke the salt law.

QUESTION: 19

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Solution:

Satya Sodhak Samaj was founded by Jyoti Ba Phule in 1873.

QUESTION: 20

The Sarabandi (no tax) campaign of 1922 was led by:

Solution:

It was led by Vallabh Bhai Patel in Gujarat.

QUESTION: 21

The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcasts is :

Solution:

It is a process in which the frequency of the carrier is varied in accordance with the instantaneous value of modulating voltage. In telecommunications and signal processing, frequency modulation (FM) conveys information over a carrier wave by varying its instantaneous frequency. FM is most commonly used for radio and television broadcasting.

QUESTION: 22

One astronomical unit is the average distance between:

Solution:

An astronomical unit is a unit of length equal to about 149,597,870.7 kilometers or approximately the mean Earth-Sun distance. The astronomical constant whose value is one astronomical unit is referred to as unit distance and is given by the symbol A.

QUESTION: 23

For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a:

Solution:

In compact disc digital data is scanned by laser beam for the reproduction of recorded sound.

QUESTION: 24

Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set?

Solution:

Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum longer than infrared light. Like all other electromagnetic waves, they travel at the speed of light. Artificially-generated radio waves are used for fixed and mobile radio communication, broadcasting, radar and other navigation systems, satellite communication, computer networks and innumerable other applications.

QUESTION: 25

Consider the following statements:
In a nuclear reactor, a self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because:
1. More neutrons are released in each of the fission reactions.
2. The neutrons immediately take part in the fission process.
3. The fast neutrons are slowed down by graphite.
4. Every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission.

Q. Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:

A nuclear reactor is a device to initiate and control a sustained nuclear chain reaction. The most common use of nuclear reactors is for the generation of electrical power and for the power in some ships. In every fission reaction in which uranium nuclei splits up to give smaller nuclei three more neutrons are produced which further results into splitting of heavy uranium nuclei and more number of neutrons will be produced. Thus, statement, 1 and 2 are correct. In nuclear reactor all the neutrons produced can not take part in fission reaction, else reaction can turn out extremely violent. Thus, graphite rods are used as a control rods to slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons. Thus, statement 3 is also correct.

QUESTION: 26

A hunter aims his gun at a point between the eyebrows of a monkey sitting on a branch of a tree. Just as he fires, the monkey jumps down. The bullet will:

Solution:

Monkey and bullet both fall under the same gravitational force, so bullet will hit exactly the same point it has been aimed.

QUESTION: 27

For which one of the following is capillarity not the reason?`

Solution:

Capillary action, or capillarity, is a phenomenon where liquid spontaneously rises in a narrow space such as a thin tube, or in porous materials such as paper or in some non-porous materials such as liquified carbon fibre. This effect can cause liquids to flow against the force of gravity or the magnetic field induction. In blotting of ink, spread of water drop on a cotton cloth and the rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage.

QUESTION: 28

Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars:

1. Radial tyres
2. Streamlined body
3. Multipoint fuel injection
4. Catalytic converter with exhaust

Q. Which of these features make the new models of motor cars more fuel-efficient?

Solution:

A "streamlined" design is one in which objects that move through a gas or liquid are shaped to match these lines, and therefore, reduce the energy required to produce that motion. Multi point fuel injection system injects fuel into individual cylinders, based on commands from the 'on board engine management system computer—popularly known as the Engine Control Unit/ECU. These techniques result not only in better 'power balance' amongst the cylinders but also in higher output from each one of them, along with faster throttle response. The other two options radial tyres and catalytic converter with exhaust do not contribute to make the car more fuel efficient.

QUESTION: 29

Assertion (A) : A man standing on a completely frictionless surface can propel himself by whistling.
Reason (R) : If no external force acts on a system, its momentum cannot change. Codes:

Solution:

First statement can be explained on the basis of laws of motion. First statement involves the use of Newton's third law of motion, "For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction". In first case while whistling a man uses his breathe as a propellant to propel himself. The second statement can be explained on the basis of law of conservation of linear momentum according to which the momentum of body remains conserved until any external force acts upon it.

QUESTION: 30

The mass of a body on earth is 100 kg (acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2. If acceleration due to gravity on the moon is ge / 6, then the mass of the body on the moon is:

Solution:

Mass is a universal constant. The mass of a body remains unchanged in any part of universe. Mass of a body does not change with respect to gravity. It is the weight that changes with gravity.

QUESTION: 31

Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma-emitting isotope or not?

Solution:

Scintillation counter (scintillometer): An instrument which measures gamma radiation. It is also used in airborne and ground radiometer surveys. This instrument utilizes the flash of light emitted when the atoms of a suitable ' phosphor' are energized by gamma rays. The scintillations are detected by a light sensitive cathode.

QUESTION: 32

Which one of the following pairs of materials serves as electrodes in chargeable batteries commonly used in devices such as torchlights, electric shaver etc?

Solution:

Ni-Cd batteries contain nickel hydroxide as positive electrode plate, a cadmium hydroxide as negative electrode plate, and an alkaline electrolyte as separator. The chemical reaction which occurs in Ni-Cd battery is2NiO (OH) + Cd + 2H2O ↔2Ni(OH)2 + Cd(OH)2

QUESTION: 33

‘Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling across border is

Solution:

Uranium oxide is smuggled across border in the form of yellow cake. Uranium oxide is produced by refining tons of dirt (ore) containing uranium to produce "Yellow cake". Typically yellow cake which contains 80% of uranium oxide, which melts at approximately 2878°C whereas modern yellow cakecontains 70 to 90% triuranium octaxide (U3O8) by weight. Yellow cake is used in the preparation of uranium fuel for nuclear reactor. Uranium obtained from yellow cake also used in making many types of illegal nuclear explosive which is very dangerous to mankind.

QUESTION: 34

The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb is that

Solution:

Nuclear fission is a perfect example of chain reaction. In case of nuclear fission a heavy atomic nucleus (such as that of uranium) disintegrates into two nearby equal fragments with release of large amount of energy when large number of nuclei are brought closer together. In such a case the neutrons released, when one nucleus splits, strikes other nuclei causing them to split and the process continues. Now atomic bomb and nuclear reactor both works on nuclear fission chain reaction but chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled by control rods, made up of metal cadmium or boron a neutron absorbing material, whereas in atomic bomb there is no neutron absorber. So chain reaction goes uncontrolled and is very violent.

QUESTION: 35

The alpha particle carries two positive charge. Its mass is very nearly equal to that of

Solution:

Each alpha particle contains two protons and two neutrons.
Total number of nucleons = Number of protons +
Number of neutrons
= 2 + 2 = 4
Total number of nucleons = Mass number of an
element
Thus mass number of alpha particle is 4 which is equal to molecular weight of helium atom.

QUESTION: 36

Match the names of outstanding Indian scientists given in List I with area of their specialized work given in List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Which one of the following elements is essential for the construction of nuclear reactors?

Solution:

Zirconium purified metal is primarily used by the nuclear industry to form the outer layer of fuel rods in nuclear reactors. Zirconium's major use is as cladding for nuclear reactors. It is ideal for this use, as it has a limited ability to capture neutrons, strength at elevated temperatures, considerable corrosion resistance, and satisfactory neutron damage resistance.

QUESTION: 38

Barium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an X-ray examination of the stomach, because

Solution:

Barium is given in adequate amount to patients before X-ray examination. The gut (gastrointestinal tract) does not show up very well on ordinary X-ray pictures. However, if you drink a white liquid that contains a chemical called barium sulphate, the outline of the upper parts of the gut (oesophagus, stomach and small intestines) shows up clearly on X- ray pictures. This is because X-rays do not pass through barium.

QUESTION: 39

Cobalt-60 is commonly used in radiation therapy because it emits

Solution:

Cobalt-60 is useful as a gamma ray source because it can be produced in predictable quantity and high activity by bombarding cobalt with neutrons. This is commonly used in radiation therapy for treatment of cancer.

QUESTION: 40

Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use chlorofluoro-carbons.
Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquefied at ambient temperature and low pressure.

Solution:

Ammonia is used as a large scale refrigerant because it has highest refrigerating capacity per pound of any refrigerant and a number of other excellent thermal properties that make it popular for a number of refrigeration applications in spite of its being toxic, explosive and flammable within certain conditions. Ammonia is used as refrigerant prominently in the refrigeration systems of food industry like dairies, ice creams plants, frozen food production plants, cold storage warehouses, processors of fish, meat and number of other applications. Comparatively chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) chemical, safer refrigerators were possible for home and consumer use.

QUESTION: 41

Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below—


Solution:

Vitamin A (retinol and beta-carotene) Pure vitamin A (retinol) is a lipid-soluble vitamin. It is primarily found in animal sources that contain fat. Pepsin is an enzyme -- specifically, it's a Protolithic enzyme, meaning it helps digest proteins. Fertility and menstruation are largely controlled by hormones, and one of these hormones is progesterone. Amino acid sequence of a progesterone-binding protein.

QUESTION: 42

Assertion A: Human diet should compulsorily contain glycine, serine and tyrosine.

Reasons R: Essential amino acid cannot be synthesized in human body.

Solution:

Essential amino acids are those you cannot manufacture. Because you lack the enzymes necessary to create them from other biological molecules, you must supply them from your diet each day. They include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan and valine.

QUESTION: 43

Match List-I (Disease) with List-II (Type of disease) and select the correct answer using code—

Solution:

Hemophilia, is a mostly inherited genetic disorder that impairs the body's ability to make blood clots, a process needed to stop bleeding. Diabetes occurs when the pancreas, a gland behind the stomach, does not produce enough of the hormone insulin, or the body can't use insulin properly.

QUESTION: 44

Which one of the following is considered as the drug of last resort for human being?

Solution:

A drug of last resort (DoLR) is a pharmaceutical drug that is tried after all other drug options, risk of irreversible, fatal aplastic anaemia and grey baby syndrome causes systemically administered chloramphenicol to be a drug of last resort.

QUESTION: 45

Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below—

Solution:

Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain. Severity is variable. Symptoms include headache, fever, confusion, a stiff neck, and vomiting. Leukemia is cancer of the body's blood-forming tissues, including the bone marrow and the lymphatic system.

QUESTION: 46

Which of the following elements are present in all protein—?
1. Carbon
2. Hydrogen
3. Oxygen
4. Nitrogen
Code–

Solution:

Proteins are composed of molecules called amino acids, and each amino acid contains four elements: hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and carbon.

QUESTION: 47

The major component of honey is —

Solution:

The major components of honey are Fructose: 38.2% Glucose: 31.3% Maltose: 7.1% Sucrose: 1.3% Water: 17.2% Higher sugars: 1.5% Ash: 0.2% Other/undetermined: 3.2%

QUESTION: 48

Which one of the following is responsible for blue baby Syndrome?

Solution:

Nitrates in drinking water. A sort of "blue baby syndrome" can also be caused by methemoglobinemia. It is widely believed to be caused by nitrate contamination in groundwater resulting in decreased oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin in babies leading to death.

QUESTION: 49

Which of the following disease is not caused by viruses?

Solution:

Cholera is an acute epidemic infectious disease. It is characterized by watery diarrhea, extreme loss of fluid and electrolytes, and severe dehydration. It is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholera (V. cholera).

QUESTION: 50

Where is the national institute of nutrition located?

Solution:

The National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) is an Indian Public health, Biotechnology and Translational research center located in Hyderabad, India The institute is one of the oldest research centers in India, and the largest center, under the Indian Council of Medical Research located in the vicinity of Osmania University

QUESTION: 51

Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda?

Solution:

Lake Victoria acts as the international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda. It is the largest lake in Africa and 2nd widest fresh water body in the world.

QUESTION: 52

A class of animals known as Marsupials is a characteristic feature of:

Solution:

Marsupials are a group of mammals commonly have pouches or pocket of skin, where the mother nurses their young. These marsupials are found in Australia. The common example of marsupials is Kangaroo and Koala.

QUESTION: 53

The above map is the Union Territory of :

Solution:

The given map is the union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli. In western India. The capital is at Silvasa and major language of this Union Territory is Guajarati.

QUESTION: 54

The waterfall 'Victoria' is associated with the river:

Solution:

Victoria waterfalls is associated with the river Zambezi which is situated in Africa.

QUESTION: 55

Consider the following statements:
1. In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are in a minority
2. In Kosovo, Serbians are in a majority Which of these statements is/are correct?

Solution:

In Macedonia, ethnic Albanian population is 23%, which is a good number in Macedonia. But in Kosovo 92% are Albanians and Serbians are in a minority.

QUESTION: 56

Israel has common borders with:

Solution:

Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt.

QUESTION: 57

Which one of the following countries does not border the Caspian Sea?

Solution:

Armenia is a land lock country.

QUESTION: 58

The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:

Solution:

Mekong is a major river in south eastern Asia. Mekong is known as the Lancang in China. It runs through Yunan province, China, forms the border between Myanmar and Laos and most of the border between Laos and Thailand and flows across Cambodia and Southern Vietnam before emptying to South China.

QUESTION: 59

Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

Solution:

Latvia does not share its border with Poland because it is located between Estonia, Russia, Belarus, Lithuania, Gulf of Riga and Baltic Sea.

QUESTION: 60

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Which one of the following does not border Panama?

Solution:

The Panama Canal joins Pacific Ocean, Atalantic Ocean, Colombia and Coast Rica.

QUESTION: 62

Consider the following statements:
1. Silent Valley National Park in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley's rainforests.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Silent Valley National Park is situated in Nilgiri Hills of Western Ghats. The park is bound by Attappadi reserved forest to the east and vested forest of Palaghat division and Nilamber division to the south-west respectively.

QUESTION: 63

Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania?

Solution:

Ukraine does not border Lithuania. The border countries to Lithuania are Latvia, Russia, Poland, Belarus. Baltic sea is located in the west.

QUESTION: 64

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of Pakistan while moving from the north towards the south?

Solution:

While moving from the North to South Pakistan, the correct sequence of the towns is Peshawar – Islamabad – Gujranwala – Multan.

QUESTION: 65

Consider the following sites /monuments :
1. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park
2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai
3. Mahallapuram
4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple)

Q. Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?

Solution:

All the monuments / sites are included in World Heritage list of UNESCO. Sun Temple of Orissa, group of monuments at Mahabalipuram were included in 1985. Champaner – Pavagadh Archeological Park of Gujrat and Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus of Maharastra are included in year 2004 in UNESCO list.

QUESTION: 66

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:


Codes:

Solution:

City River

A. Washington, D.C. 4. River Potomac

B. Berlin 3. River Spree

C. Paris 2. River Seine

D. Madrid 1. River Manzanares

QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements:
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom. .

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The total area of United Kingdom is 94, 226 sq miles (244, 044 sq km), where England covers 50, 344 sq miles (130, 365 sq km) i.e. less than 60 % of total land area of United Kingdom. Great Britain donot comprise of Northern Ireland.

QUESTION: 68

Itaipu Dam built on the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the world. Which of the following two countries have this as a joint project?

Solution:

Itaipu Dam is built on River Parana is the largest dam in the world. This is a joint project of Brazil – Paraguay.

QUESTION: 69

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth's land?

Solution:

The decreasing order of arrangement of continent according to the percentage of Earth's land is Africa (29800000 sq km), North America (21510000 sq km) South America (17598000 sq km) and Europe (9699550 sq km).

QUESTION: 70

Bermuda Triangle extends up to which of the following places?

1. Southern Florida
2. Puerto Rico
3. Hawaiian Islands

Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Bermuda Triangle is a strange and mysterious location in southern Atlantic Ocean. It is roughly in the shape of a triangle which extends upto South Florida, Pruto Rico and Bermuda Island.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?

1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. Inter-State Council

Codes

Solution:

Best answer is 1, 2 and 3. Because only Inter State Council is a constitutional body under article 263. So option 4 should not be included.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states?

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in the Parliament
3. Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council in a State

Codes:

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

Which of the following bodies’ does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils

Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

National Development council is not a constitutional body. It is an extra-constitutional body. Planning Commission is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It was created by the Govt. of India in 1950 bya resolution. Zonal councils have been recognized in the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

out of 52 items on the concurrent list, Economic and Social Planning is placed under Article 40 of the Constitution. Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government. Planning for economic development and social justice is one such power given to village panchayats.

QUESTION: 75

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

Solution:

The 52nd Amendment act of 1985, added 10th schedule to the Constitution. This is often referred to as anti-defection law.

QUESTION: 76

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?

Solution:

Elections in India are conducted according to the constitutional provisions, supplemented by laws made by Parliament. The major laws are Representation of the People Act, 1950, which mainly deals with the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 which deals, in detail, with all aspects of conduct of elections and post-election disputes.

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following are the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?

Solution:

In Gujarat and Maharashtra the Chief Ministers come under the ambit of Lok Ayukta Act.

QUESTION: 78

Which of the followings political parties is/are national political parties?

1. Muslim League
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers Party of India
Codes:

Solution:

All the parties mentioned are state level parties.

QUESTION: 79

If in an election to a State legislative assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that:

Solution:

A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit. When a very large number of candidates contest the election, due to distribution of votes, the winning candidate may get less than 1/6 th of valid voters.

QUESTION: 80

Under which of the following jurisdiction any individual whose fundamental right has been violated, can directly move the Supreme Court forremedy?

Solution:

Writ Jurisdiction is a constitutional remedy available to a person to bring his complaint or grievance against any administrative action to the notice of the court in case fundamental rights had been violated. Safeguard of fundamental rights and assurance of natural justice are the most important components of writ jurisdictions.

QUESTION: 81

Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time?

Solution:

Captain Charles Cunningham Boycott was a British land agent whose ostracism by the local community in Ireland as part of a campaign for agrarian tenants' rights in 1880 gave the English language the verb to boycott, meaning "to ostracise".

QUESTION: 82

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.

Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? 

Solution:

Both statements are correct but do not explain the assertion. At present, the Minorities Commission has a Statutory status. 103rd Constitutional Amendment Bill provides for granting constitutional status to the Minorities Commission. The bill has not passed by the Houses of Parliament.

QUESTION: 83

Article 41 of the Indian Constitution "Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases" deals with?

Solution:

Article 41 of the Indian Constitution "Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases" deals with the directive principles of state policy.

QUESTION: 84

In which one of the following country will the no- confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the simultaneously a majority to elect successor government?

Solution:

This process is followed in Germany and known as Constructive vote of a no-confidence motion.

QUESTION: 85

Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where:

Solution:

Political scientists speculate that proportional representation leads logically to multi-party systems, since it allows new parties to build a niche in the legislature.

QUESTION: 86

State funding of elections takes place in:

Solution:

Party funding in Austria has been subject to public regulation and public subsidies since 1975. Party finance in Germany is the subject of statutory reports, which up to 35 parties file annually with the administration of the German parliament.

QUESTION: 87

The concept of public Interest litigation originated in:

Solution:

PIL originated in USA. It seeks to protect and promote interest of the public at large.

QUESTION: 88

The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has:

Solution:

Judicial review is one big difference. In India, the judiciary system can take up an act passed by parliament and has the power to nullify it. In Britain, law passed by House of Commons can't be overturned.

QUESTION: 89

The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing international treaties:

Solution:

It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution.

QUESTION: 90

The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is:

Solution:

Madhya Pradesh is the state, where the largest number of seats are reserved for scheduled tribe in the Lok Sabha.

QUESTION: 91

Which one of the following Five Year Plans recognized human development as the core of all development efforts?

Solution:

The theme of the eighth Five Year Plan (1992- 1997) was “Plan with a human face”.

QUESTION: 92

Which of the following is among the non-plan expenditures of the Government of India?

1. Defence expenditure
2. Subsidies
3. All expenditures linked with the previous plan periods
4. Interest payment
Codes

Solution:

Non-plan expenditures include non- developmental expenditure (interest payment, subsidies, defence expenditure, civil administration), developmental expenditure and expenditure incurred on projects which remained unfinished in the earlier plans.

QUESTION: 93

What is the annual rate aimed in the Eighth Five Year Plan

Solution:

The targeted annual growth rate was 5.6% but the actual growth rate was 6.7%.

QUESTION: 94

The largest source of financing the public sector outlay of the Eighth Five Year Plan comes from:

Solution:

Under Deficit financing, the government spends more money than it collects as revenue, the difference being made up by borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India by issue of Promissory notes.

QUESTION: 95

The New Exim Policy announced in 1992, is for period of:

Solution:

The New Exim Policy was for five years (April 1, 1992 – March 31, 1997).

QUESTION: 96

A rise in the general level of prices may be caused by
1. An increase in the money supply
2. A decrease in the aggregate level of output
3. An increase in the effective demand

Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

General Price rise may be caused by an increase in the money supply as the real value of the money reduces. The higher aggregate price level will reduce the purchasing power subsequently reducing the consumer spending. Effective demand also increases when there is less purchasing power due to inflation.

QUESTION: 97

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

Solution:

Extremely high rates of inflation are generally associated with high rates of money growth. It is often the result of financing large deficits by printing money.

QUESTION: 98

Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be

Solution:

Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand. With increase in demand for money, people will deposit less money in banks. Hence, banks will increase rate of interest to attract people to deposit money in bank.

QUESTION: 99

Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if

Solution:

A country’s economic growth is reflected through capital formation, which in turn encourages private enterprises in enhancing the growth of a country’s economy.

QUESTION: 100

If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

Solution:

When interest rates decrease then investment expenditure by businesses on capital goods like factories and equipment increase in an economy.

QUESTION: 101

NASA recently announced to launch a robotic car-size spacecraft to study which body

Solution:

The US space agency NASA on July 20, 2018 announced to launch the Parker Solar Probe, a robotic car-size spacecraft, to study the Sun and reveal multiple mysteries behind the star.The spacecraft will be launched in August 2018 on the United Launch Alliance Delta IV Heavy from Cape Canaveral in Florida.

QUESTION: 102

Name the Indians who won the 2018 Ramon Magsaysay Award?

Solution:

Two Indians, namely, Bharat Vatwani and Sonam Wangchuk on July 26, 2018 won the 2018 Ramon Magsaysay Award, the Asian version of the Nobel Prize. Bharat Vatwani is a psychiatrist who works for the mentally-ill street persons, while, Sonam Wangchuk works to harness science and culture creatively for economic progress that has improved the lives of the Ladakhi youth.

QUESTION: 103

The Lok Sabha passed the Negotiable Instruments (Amendment) Bill, 2017 that seeks to amend the Negotiable Instruments Act. The Act was passed in which year?

Solution:

The Lok Sabha on July 23, 2018 passed the Negotiable Instruments (Amendment) Bill, 2017 that seeks to amend the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. The Act has amended to deal firmly with cheque bounce cases.

QUESTION: 104

The Union government constituted which high-level committee to check mob lynching?

Solution:

The Union government has constituted a high-level committee to suggest laws against mob lynching and violence. The high-level committee, headed by the Union Home Secretary Rajiv Gauba, will submit its suggestions to the Home ministry within 4 weeks.

QUESTION: 105

The LIC board has approved acquisition of up to 51 per cent stake in which bank

Solution:

Life Insurance Corporation of India's (LIC's) board has approved acquiring up to 51 per cent stake in the state-run IDBI Bank. Now LIC will approach markets regulator Sebi. Insurance regulator Irdai has already given its approval to the insurer for the stake purchase.

QUESTION: 106

Which rank does India occupy in the world level list of military spending as per a report released by Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) on 2nd May 2018?

Solution:

As per the SIPRI report, New Delhi's defence spending increased by 5.5 percent to $63.9 billion in 2017. Now it has surpassed France. Worldwide military spending increased to $1.73 trillion in 2017, which is nearly 2.2 percent of global gross domestic product. The list of the world's biggest military spenders is dominated by the US and China, which spent $610 billion and $228 billion respectively.

QUESTION: 107

Who has been appointed as Chairman of Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)?

Solution:

Subhash Chandra Khuntia is 1981-batch Karnataka-cadre Indian Administrative Services (IAS) officer.

QUESTION: 108

Asian Development Bank (ADB) has projected India’s growth as in Fiscal Year 2018 &____ in the next Fiscal?

Solution:

ADB’s Chief Economist Yasuyuki Sawada said that the India’s Growth in 2017 is low because the Introduction of Demonetization and he Further Continues that the growth Projection of India is high from the Previous year is because of the Implementation of GST, Foreign Direct Investment also helps in India’s growth & the Most Important Factor which boost the growth is the Governments Initiative of Ease of Doing Business.

QUESTION: 109

When did Department of Science & Technology (DST) celebrate its foundation day?

Solution:

DST is one of the three departments of the Ministry of Science & Technology. It was set up on 3rd May 1971.

QUESTION: 110

Where was the First workshop on Ayushman Bharat Program held on May 14, 2018?

Solution:

The workshop was addressed by Union Health Minister J P Nadda. A memorandum of understanding (MOU) was signed between Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Jammu and Kashmir and Chandigarh during the course of this workshop

QUESTION: 111

The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?

Solution:

The nitric acid in polar stratospheric clouds reacts with CFCs to form chlorine, which catalyzes the photochemical destruction of ozone.

QUESTION: 112

Two important rivers–one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha–merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?

Solution:

The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a mangrove wetland in India's Orissa state. The Bhitarkanika Mangroves cover an area of 650 km2 in the river delta of the Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.

QUESTION: 113

Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats, Sri Lanka and Indo Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity :

1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaption of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions

Q. Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

Solution:

To qualify as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5 percent of the world’s total) as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70 percent of its original habitat. So we choose Species richness as well as Endemism. Along with this Threat perception is necessary to take , because it makes the base of this concept. Adaptation of flora is an arbitrary option, Ethno-botanical importance does nothing with the Biodiversity Hotspot selection criteria, vegetation Density is also discarded.

QUESTION: 114

The Himalayan range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?

Solution:

Himalayas and its adjoining areas are marked as a confluence of several biogeographical realms. It has varity of forest type and is rich in zoo- biogeographic region.

QUESTION: 115

There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:

Algea multiply rapidly when nutrients are present there. So, discharge of nutrients favour algea growth from estuaries to sea. The run off the land during the monsoon bring salts which favours the growth of algea. Upwelling of the sea water from the sea flow brings the nutrients on tap level leading in fast algea multiplication.

QUESTION: 116

Consider the following:
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration.
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action. Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on earth ?

Solution:

Photosynthesis by plants removes about 120 billion tons of carbon from the air per year, but plant decomposition returns about the same amount. When the organic matter is oxidized through respiration, the reverse of photosynthesis takes place. Respiration releases CO2 into the atmosphere. Respiration and photosynthesis occur at nearly equal rates over one year. Volcanic eruptions and metamorphism releasegases into the atmosphere. Volcanic gases are primarily water vapor, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide.

QUESTION: 117

A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?

Solution:

The Indian wild ass are also called as ghudkhuer in local Gujrati language, is a subspecies of the onager native of South Asia. It is unknown how they disappeared though they have never been hunting target during any emperors in India. The history speaks that their number has been declining after due to diseases such as surra and horse sickness. The process related to salt activities has also been a reason behind it.

QUESTION: 118

Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways :
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

Biological diversity helps in the formation and maintenance of soil structure and the retention of moisture and nutrient levels. Biodiversity supports ecosystem services including air quality, climate water purification, pollination, and prevention of erosion.

QUESTION: 119

Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?

Solution:

Zoo and botanical gardens are the most conventional methods of ex-situ conservation, rest all options are natural habitats so are of in-situ conservation.

QUESTION: 120

The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

Solution:

The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots.

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