General Knowledge Mock Test - 2


120 Questions MCQ Test CDS ( Combined Defence Services ) Mock Test Series | General Knowledge Mock Test - 2


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This mock test of General Knowledge Mock Test - 2 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 120 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence General Knowledge Mock Test - 2 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this General Knowledge Mock Test - 2 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this General Knowledge Mock Test - 2 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other General Knowledge Mock Test - 2 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Among the following forest types in India, which one occupies the largest area?

Solution:

The Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100
200cm. These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes
of the Western Ghats and Odisha. Tropical moist deciduous forest covers around 37% of the total cover in
India which is the largest occupied area among 16 different forest types of the country.

QUESTION: 2

The National Forestry Action Plan aims to bring 33% of land area in India under tree cover by which year?

Solution:

The National Forestry Action Plan aims to bring 33% of land area in India under tree cover by 2012.

QUESTION: 3

The reservoir GB Pant Sagar is located on which river?

Solution:

Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar is on the Rihand River which is the tributary of the Son River.

QUESTION: 4

Which one of the following national parks is located near Chamoli?

Solution:

The Nanda Devi National Park is a national park situated around the peak of Nanda Devi (7, 816 m). Itis situated in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand.

QUESTION: 5

Which one of the following cities is located on the banks of the River St Lawrence?

Solution:

Montreal is Situated on the bank of river st. lowrence.

QUESTION: 6

Match the following

Solution:

1. Edmanton-Canada
2. Kimberley-South Africa
3. Cardiff-United Kingdom
4. Cairns-Australia.

QUESTION: 7

Which of the following straits is not in Asia?

Solution:

Bass Strait is a sea strait which separates Tasmania from the Australian mainland.

QUESTION: 8

What is the other name for the equatorial rain forests?

Solution:

Selvas is a tropical rain forest found in the Amazon basin of South America.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following seas/gulfs are connected by the Suez Canal?

Solution:

The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, It connects the Mediterranean Sea and theRed Sea. On November 17, 1869, the Suez Canal was opened to navigation.

QUESTION: 10

River Luni originates near Pushkar and drains into which one of the following?

Solution:

The Luni is a river of western Rajasthan state. It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Rangenear Ajmer and ends in Ram of Kutch in Gujarat.

QUESTION: 11

Among the following which Mughal Emperor introduced the policy of Sulh-i-kul?

Solution:

Akbar ruled with a social and religious toleration that was relative, not absolute, and was based onhis concept of sulh-i-kul (for the general good of all people) which built on his liberal views of religion.Akbar took the Sufi mystic notion of sulh-i-kul and transformed it to become a principle denoting amitywithin a culturally pluralistic India.

QUESTION: 12

The Sun Temple of Konark was built by Narasimhadeva I. To which dynasty did he belong to?

Solution:

Narasimhadeva I (AD 1238-1264) was the king of Ganga dynasty.

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements
1. At the time of independence, the Government of India followed the calender based on Saka era.
2. The National Calendar commenced on Chaitra 1 Saka, 1879 corresponding to March 22, 1957 AD.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Indian National Calendar, sometimes called the Saka calendar, is the official civil calendar in use
in India. Saka Calendar begins on 22 March every year except in leap years when it starts on 23 March.
The Kushana emperor Kanishka is credited with the initiation of the Saka era on his accession to the
throne in 78 AD.

QUESTION: 14

Who among the following was the Governor-General of India immediately preceding Chakravarthi Raja gopalachari?

Solution:

Lord Mountbatten was preceded by C Rajgopalachari. Lord Mountbatten was the last Viceroy of India
(1947) and the first Governor-General of the independent Dominion of India (1947-48).

QUESTION: 15

With which one of the following did the Civil Disobedience Movement in India commerce?

Solution:

Under the leadership of Gandhiji, the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in AD 1930. It
began with the Dandi March. On 12 March 1930, Gandhiji with some of his followers left the Sabarmati
Ashram at Ahmedabad and made their way towards Dandi, a village on the west coast of India. Here,
Gandhiji protested against the Salt Law (salt was a monopoly of the government and no one was allowed
to make salt) by making salt himself and throwing up a challenge to the British government.

QUESTION: 16

After 1857, which of the following announced, at a Darbar at Allahabad, the assumption of the Government of India by the Sovereign of Great Britain?

Solution:

After 1857 Lord Canning announced at a Darbar at Allahabad, the assumption of the Govt. of India by
the sovereign of great Britain.

QUESTION: 17

Arrange the following in correct chronological order
1. Third Carnatic War
2. First Burmese War
3. First Mysore War
4. Second Afghan War
Codes:

Solution:

1. Third Carnatic War (1756-1763)
2. The First Anglo-Mysore War – (1767-1769)
3. The First Anglo-Burmese War – (1824-1826)
4. The Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878-1880)

QUESTION: 18

Who among the following was the first Governor General of India?

Solution:

Lord William Bentinck was the first governor General of India.

QUESTION: 19

In which one of the following sessions was the Indian National Congress split into moderates and extremists?

Solution:

The 23rd Session (1907) of the Congress was held at Surat. In the session, there was an open clashbetween the Moderates and the Extremists and ultimately it led to a split in the Congress.

QUESTION: 20

In which one of the following cities, was the East India Association founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?

Solution:

The “Grand Old Man of India” Dadabhai Naoroji initiated establishment of East India Association atLondon.

QUESTION: 21

Which one of the following Indian scientists was elected as a fellow of the Royal Society of London for his contribution in the field of Plant Physiology and Physics?

Solution:

Jagdish Chandra Bose was elected as a fellow of the Royal Society of London for his contribution inthe field of Plant Physiology and Physics.

QUESTION: 22

Assertion (A): Steam is more harmful for human body than the boiling water in case of burn.
Reason (R) : Boiling water contains more heat than steam.

Solution:

Steam burns are more serious than burns from boiling water even though both are at 100°C because
when steam condenses it give up very high heat energy i.e. additional 22.6 × 〖10〗^6 joule of heat
(latent that of vapourisation) compared to boiling water.

QUESTION: 23

Why is it difficult to see through for?

Solution:

The rays of light are scattered by the fog droplets due to which it become difficult to see through fog.

QUESTION: 24

The density of water varies with temperature which helps the aquatic animals to live in cold water. At what temperature is the density of water maximum?

Solution:

Density of water is maximum at 4°C.

QUESTION: 25

Who gave the first evidence of the big-bang theory?

Solution:

Edwin Hubble gave the first evidence of the big-bang theory.

QUESTION: 26

A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle 30° with the normal at the point of incidence. The ray will be deviated from its incidence direction by what angle?

Solution:

By law of reflection, angle of incidence i is equal to angle of reflection rTotal deviation of ray = 30° + 30° = 60°

QUESTION: 27

What would be the best choice for window material to keep the outside heat away?

Solution:

To keep the outside heat away, windows of double-pane glass with air in between is the best choicebecause air is the bad conductor of heat.

QUESTION: 28

Bar is a unit of which one of the following?

Solution:

To keep the outside heat away, windows of double-pane glass with air in between is the best choicebecause air is the bad conductor of heat.

QUESTION: 29

On which one of the following conservative laws, does a rocket work?

Solution:

Rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum.

QUESTION: 30

Assertion (A) : In a pressure cooker food is cooked above boiling point.
Reason (R) : Boiling point of water increases as the pressure increases.

Solution:

In a pressure cooker while cooking pressure increases due to which boiling point of water alsoincreases as P ∝ T.

QUESTION: 31

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists.

Solution:

Limestone (caco3) is the main raw material used in the manufacture of cement. Copper is goodconductor of electricity hence, it is used in electrical goods.Bauxite is an ore of Al. It is used in manufacture of aeroplanes. Manganese is used in steel industry toform manganese steel.

QUESTION: 32

The flavour of apple is mainly due to which one of the following?

Solution:

The flavour of apples is mainly due to the ethanol (c2 H2 OH)

QUESTION: 33

Nail varnish remover generally contains which one of the following?

Solution:

Nail varnish remover generally contains acetone (CH3COCH3)

QUESTION: 34

In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different Nobel prizes?

Solution:

Marie Curie win her two different Noble prizes in two different category i.e., Physics and Chemistryfor the discovery of radium and polonium.

QUESTION: 35

‘Freon’ used as refrigerants is chemically known as

Solution:

Chlorofluoro carbon  is also known as Freon. It is used as refrigerants in refrigerators andair conditions. It is also used as propellant in aerosols and foams.

QUESTION: 36

German silver is an alloy of

Solution:

German silver is an alloy of copper (25-50%), zinc (25–35%) and nickel (10-35%). It is used inutensils and resistance wire.

QUESTION: 37

The tracking of people by trained dogs is based on the recognisation of which of the following compounds in the sweat from feet?

Solution:

The tracking of people by trained dogs is based on the recognisation of carboxylic acid in the sweatfrom feet.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following metals are present in haemoglobin and chlorophyll, respectively?

Solution:

Fe and Mg metals are present in haemoglobin and chlorophyll respectively.

QUESTION: 39

Which one of the following is involved for desalination of sea water?

Solution:

Reverse osmosis method is used to obtain pure water from water containing a salt or for desalinationof sea water.

QUESTION: 40

Which of the following isotopes of carbon is/are used in carbon dating?

Solution:

The isotope of carbon  is used in radio carbon dating.

QUESTION: 41

Consider the following
Enzymes and protein can be correlated with each other in the following ways
1. All proteins are enzyme.
2. All enzymes are protein.
3. All enzymes are not protein.
4. All proteins are not enzyme.

Q. Which of the above are correct?

Solution:

All enzymes are protein by composition but all proteins are not enzyme.

QUESTION: 42

Consider the following statements in respect of thyroid gland.
1. It is situated in the neck.
2. It is vital to maintain of normal body temperature.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Thyroid gland is one of the largest endocrine glands which is present in the neck. It is responsible tocontrol body’s metabolism, temperature, appetite and muscle strength, etc.

QUESTION: 43

Which one of the following is not a constituent of biogas?

Solution:

Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is not a component of biogas.

QUESTION: 44

A mother of blood group O has a group O child. What could be the blood group of father of the child?

Solution:

The blood group of father of the child could be A or B or O.

QUESTION: 45

What does sphygmomanometer measure?

Solution:

Sphygmomanometer is an instrument to measure the blood pressure. It is made up of an inflatableCut to restrict the blood flow and a mercury or manometer to measure pressure.

QUESTION: 46

What does water gas comprise of?

Solution:

Water gas is a synthetic gas, having CO and H2 The gas is produced by passing steam over a red hothydrocarbon fuel as coke.

QUESTION: 47

Which one of the following causes the chikungunya disease?

Solution:

Chikungunya is caused by chikungunya virus which is an insect borne virus of genus Alphavirus.
Symptoms show high fever, maculopapular rash, headache, etc.

QUESTION: 48

Which one of the following vitamins is abundant in guava fruits?

Solution:

Vitamin-C is enough in guava fruits. Vitamin-C helps in strengthening of immunity, serves as an
antioxidant and provides relief in hypertension too.

QUESTION: 49

Which one of the following vitamins helps in clotting of blood?

Solution:

Vitamin-K adds in blood clotting. Vitamin-K acts as an essential cofactor for factor-II, VII, IX, X and
also for proteins Z, C and S.

QUESTION: 50

Which one of the following glands in the human body stores iodine?

Solution:

Thyroid gland in human body contains iodine. Deficiency of iodine creates goitre disease, which isobserved by the enlargement of larynx.

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?

Solution:

Demands for Grants Committees are Departmentally Related Standing Committees. After the General
Discussion on the Budget is over, the House is adjourned for a fixed period. During this period, the
Demands for Grants of the Ministries/Departments are considered by the Committees. It is not a
parliamentary committee.

QUESTION: 52

Consider the following statements
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor amend it.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the
Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha (Council of States) Cannot reject or amend this bill. It can only recommend
amendments.

QUESTION: 53

Which one of the following statements in not correct?

Solution:

According to Article 67, a Vice-President may be of States passed by a majority of all the thenmembers of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People.

QUESTION: 54

Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1976?

Solution:

In India, “the Emergency” refers to a 21-month period in 1975-77 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhiunilaterally had a state of emergency declared across the country. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was thePresident at that time.

QUESTION: 55

The Sarkaria Commission Report deal with which one the following?

Solution:

Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of powerbetween state and central government.

QUESTION: 56

Assertion (A) The number of the Members of the Union Public Service Commission is preserved in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R) The Union Public Service Commission was constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India.
Codes

Solution:

A is false because the constitution without specifying the strength of the Commission has left thematter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. According to article 315, theUPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. Articles 315 to 323of Part XIV of the constitution provide for a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each state.

QUESTION: 57

Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime Minister of India?

Solution:

Gulzarilal Nanda became the Prime Minister of India for two short periods following the deaths ofJawaharlal Nehru in 1964 and Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1966.

QUESTION: 58

Which one of the following is the subject of the Narasimhan Committee Reports of years 1991 and 1998?

Solution:

Two expert committees were established under former RBI Governor M. Narasimhan in 1991 and1998 to look into all aspects of the financial system in India. The report of this committee hadcomprehensive recommendations for financial sector reforms including the banking sector and capitalmarkets.

QUESTION: 59

Consider the following statements
1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha in the same manner as any other Bill.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Appropriation Bill is intended to give authority to Government to incur expenditure from and out of the Consolidated Fund of India. The procedure for passing this Bill is the same as in the case of other money Bills. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.

QUESTION: 60

Who of the following constitutes a Finance Commission for a State in India?

Solution:

According to Article 243 (I) the governor of the state shall set up the Finance Commission within theperiod of one year. State Finance Commissions receive grants from the finance Commission that is set bythe central government.

QUESTION: 61

Which state government is host to the 2018 Krishi Kumbh International Conference and Exhibition?

Solution:

The 2018 Krishi Kumbh International Conference and Exhibition will be held at Indian Institute ofSugarcane Research (Telibagh) in Lucknow from October 26, which will be organized by the Governmentof Uttar Pradesh.

QUESTION: 62

What is the India’s GDP forecast for 2018, as per Moody’s Investors Service report “Global Macro Outlook for 2018-19”?

Solution:

Moody’s Investors Service has recently released its Global Macro Outlook for 2018-19. In it, theIndian economy is expected to grow by about 7.5% in 2018 and 2019 as it is largely resilient to externalpressures like those from higher oil prices.

QUESTION: 63

Under what law, the Internal Ombudsman (IO) scheme 2018 gives statutory powers to Internal Ombudsman?

Solution:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently introduced Internal Ombudsman (IO) scheme 2018 totighten internal grievance redressal system at Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs). In it, RBI has givenstatutory powers to Internal Ombudsman (IO) under section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

QUESTION: 64

Which of the following cities is the venue of the first round of the India-US ‘two-plus-two dialogue’?

Solution:

The first round of the ‘two-plus-two dialogue’ between India and the US will be held in New Delhi onSeptember 6. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj and Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman willhold talks with their counterparts US Secretary of State Michael R Pompeo and Defence Secretary JamesN Mattis.

QUESTION: 65

Who among the following had founded the Theosophical Society in the United States of America?

Solution:

The Theosophical Society was formed by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, WilliamQuan Judge and others in November 1875 in New York. The aim of the society was to promote spiritualprinciples and search for truth known as Theosophy.

QUESTION: 66

Who among the following was not a party to the coalition that fought against the English in the Battle of Buxar?

Solution:

It was a significant battle fought between the forces under the command of the British East IndiaCompany on the one side and the combined army of Mir Kasim, the Nawab of Bangal, Nawab of Awadhand Shah Alam II, the Mughal Emperor. Mir Jafar was a puppet of British East India Company.

QUESTION: 67

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the freedom movements of India?

Solution:

The Non-Cooperation Movement, 1920-22 Civil Disobedience Movement India, 1930-34) The QuitIndia Movement, 1942

QUESTION: 68

‘The Musalman’, the handwritten daily newspaper in circulation since 1927, is published from which one of the following places?

Solution:

The Musalman is the oldest Urdulanguage daily newspaper published from Chennai in India. Thenewspaper was founded by Syed Asmatullah in 1927. The Musalman is possibly the only handwrittennewspaper in the world.

QUESTION: 69

The ‘Arthasastra’ is a treatise on which one of the following?

Solution:

The Arthasastra is a treatise on Political philosophy. The book, written in Sanskrit, discusses theoriesand principles of governing a state. The meaning of Arthashastra is ‘Science of Polity’. It is written byKautilya.

QUESTION: 70

Arrange the following in chronological order

1. Partition of Bengal
2. Chauri-Chaura Incident
3. First Round Table Conference
Codes:

Solution:

The partition of Bangal took place on 16 October 1905. The Chauri Chaura incident occurred atChauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United Province, British India on 5 February 1922. Thefirst Round table conference was opened officially by King George V on November 12, 1930 in London.

QUESTION: 71

Who among the following was the Viceroy of India at the time of the formation of Indian National Congress?

Solution:

Lord Dufferin was the viceroy of India at the time of the formation of India national Congress.

QUESTION: 72

Separate electorate for Muslims in India was introduced by which one of the following Acts?

Solution:

Government of India Act 1909 introduced separate and discriminatory electorates for Muslims. Thiswas for the first time that, electorate for returning to the representatives to the councils was decided onthe basis of class & community. For the central council, one more category Muslims was added. This wasfor the first time that the seats in the legislative bodies were reserved on the basis of religion for Muslims.This is called Communal representation.

QUESTION: 73

Match the following

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

The Treaty of Amritsar was concluded between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and who of the following?

Solution:

The Treaty of Amritsar of 1809 was an agreement between the British East India Company and RanjitSingh, the Sikh leader who founded the Sikh empire. The treaty settled Indo-Sikh relations for ageneration. The immediate occasion was the French threat to northwestern India, following Napoleon’sTreaty of Tilsit with Russia (1807) and Ranjit Singh’s attempt to bring the Cis-Sutlej states under hiscontrol. The British wanted a defensive treaty against the French and control of Punjab to the SutlejRiver. Although this was not a defensive treaty, it did fix the frontier of lands controlled by Ranjit Singhbroadly along the line of the Sutlej River.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following schemes have been subsumed in the recently approved Ayushman Bharat – National Health Protection Mission (AB-NHPM)?

Solution:

Ayushman Bharat -National Health Protection Mission (AB-NHPM) is a centrally sponsored schemeunder Ayushman Bharat Mission. The scheme will provide insurance cover of Rs. 5 Lakh per family peryear. The scheme will benefit more than 10 crore families belonging to poor and vulnerable population.AB-NHPM will subsume the on-going centrally sponsored schemes –Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana(RSBY) and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS).

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following best defines a floating-rate bond?

Solution:

Floating rate bonds have variable interest rate and protect investors against a ri9se in interest rates(Which have an inverse relationship with bond prices). They also carry lower yields than fixednotes of the same maturity.

QUESTION: 77

Why the Indirect taxes are termed regressive taxing mechanisms?

Solution:

The indirect taxes like VAT etc are paid by everyone if they buy any product irrespective of financialconditions. Direct taxing is considered the most progressive taxing mechanisms because they justify theincome levels of the people.

QUESTION: 78

The joint military exercise ‘Maitree 2018’ has started between India and which country?

Solution:

The two week-long joint military exercise “Maitree 2018′ has started between Indian Army and RoyalThai Army in Thailand on August 6 with a focus on enhancing anti-terror cooperation between the twosides.

QUESTION: 79

The Berne convention was pioneer convention in the field of __?

Solution:

In 1886, copyright entered the international arena with the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works.

QUESTION: 80

Who was the first Indian in independent India to have won a medal in an individual Olympic event?

Solution:

Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav (1926-1984) won a bronze medal at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki in wrestling and was one of the first athletes from India to win a medal in the Olympics.

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements
1. The current Economic Census is the seventh in the series so far conducted in India.
2. The Economic Census in India is undertaken by the Department of Economic Affairs (Union Ministry of Finance).

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

In 1976, Government of India launched a plan scheme called “Economic Census and Surveys”. In 1977 Central Statistical Organisation conducted First economic census in collaboration with the Directorate of Economics & Statistics (DES) in the States/Union Territories. Current Economic Census is Sixth Economic Census held in 2013. The Central Statistics Office (CSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) conducted the Sixth Economic Census during January, 2013 to April, 2014 in collaboration with Directorates of Economics and Statistics in all the States and Union Territories.

QUESTION: 82

According to the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management [FRBM].
Act., 2003 and FRBM Rules, 2004, the Government is under obligation to present three statements before the parliament along with the Annual Budget. Which one of the following is not of them?

Solution:

The Act requires the government to lay before the parliament three policy statements in eachfinancial year namely Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement; Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement andMacroeconomic Framework Policy Statement.

QUESTION: 83

As per the Economic Survey 2007-2008, which one of the following is the largest source of revenue of the Government of India?

Solution:

As per economic survey 2007-2008 corporation tax is the largest source of revenue of theGovernment of India.

QUESTION: 84

The acronym SRO, being used in the capital market for various market participants, stands for which one of the following?

Solution:

A self-regulatory organization (SRO) is a non-governmental organization that has the power to createand enforce industry regulations and standards. The priority is to protect investors through theestablishment of rules that promote ethics and equality.

QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements
1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10th Five Year Plan.
2. The Planning commission in India is a constitutional body.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

According to The National Food for Work Programme, food subsidy should be better targetedthrough targeted public distribution system and specific programmes for the poor like Food for WorkProgramme. The National Food for Work Programme was launched on 14 November 2004 in 150 of themost backward districts of India with the objective of generating supplementary wage employment. ThePlanning commission is not a constitutional body.

QUESTION: 86

Which one of the following statements regarding Monitorable Socio-Economic target of the 11th Five Year Plan, under the head Environment, is not correct?

Solution:

Target of 11th Five Year Plan is to increase forest and tree cover by 5 percentage points.

QUESTION: 87

By which one of the following years does the 11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele-density in India from the present 1.9%?

Solution:

The aim of 11th Five Year Plan is to connect every village by telephone and provide broadbandconnectivity to all villages by 2012.

QUESTION: 88

The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which of the following?

1. Greater attention to land reforms.
2. Double the rate of growth of irrigated area.
3. Promote animal husbandry and fishery.
4. Interest free credit to the farmers.

Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

Consider the following statements
1. The current global economic crisis owes its genesis to the subprime crisis in the United States.
2. The Indian economy is showing a faster recovery from the economic crisis than its western counterparts.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The U.S. subprime mortgage crisis was a nationwide banking emergency that coincided with the U.S.recession of December 2007 – June 2009. It was triggered by a large decline in home prices, leading tomortgage delinquencies and foreclosures and the devaluation of housing-related securities. India has notonly shown greater resistance during financial crises but it was one of the countries showing the fastestrecovery too. This financial crisis displayed the robustness of Indian economy. It has also helped infurther fine-tuning our economic policies and changing the vision of various corporate.

QUESTION: 90

Which one of the following Public Sector Bank’s emblem figures a dog and the words ‘faithful friendly, in it?

Solution:

Syndicate Bank. The symbol of dog implies that Bank is trustworthy and a friend. Its slogan is : Yourfaithful and friendly financial partner.

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of India?
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He has the right to take part in the proceeding of the Parliament.
3. He has the right of audience in all courts in India.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(a) of theConstitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.

QUESTION: 92

Who among the following can be the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?

Solution:

The Human Right Commission consists of a chairman and other four members. The chairman shouldbe a retired chief justice of India.

QUESTION: 93

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of defection?

Solution:

The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is known as Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the52nd Amendment Act 1985 to the Constitution. It sets the provisions for disqualification of electedmembers on the grounds of defection to another political party.

QUESTION: 94

Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each State into territorial constituencies?

Solution:

According to article 82 of Indian Constitution, the parliament of India shall readjust the allocation ofseats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each state into territorial constituencies.

QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements
1. The maximum number of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India is prescribed in the Constitution of India.
2. The maximum number of the Members of the Union Public Service Commission is prescribed in the Constitution of India.

Solution:

Article 124 (a) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that “There shall be a Supreme Court of Indiaconstituting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of notmore than seven other Judges”. At present the Supreme Court consists of thirty one judges (one chiefjustice and thirty other judges).Under article 315 the UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president ofIndia. The constitution without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to thediscretion of the president, who determines its composition.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements
1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President of India, he performs simultaneously the functions of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The President, of India can promulgate ordinances at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are in session.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Article 65 of the Indian Constitution says that while acting as president or discharging the functionsof president, the Vice President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya sabha.Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law making powers to promulgate Ordianceswhen either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it is not possible to enact laws inthe Parliament.

QUESTION: 97

Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains the three lists that divide powers between the Union and the sates?

Solution:

7th Schedule gives allocation of powers and functions between Union & States. It contains 3 lists:
Union List (97 Subjects)
States List (66 subjects)
Concurrent List (52 subjects)

QUESTION: 98

What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment deal with?

Solution:

Parliament passed the 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill relating to the provision of reservation forsocially and educationally backward classes of citizen or for the SCs and STs related to admission ineducational institutions.

QUESTION: 99

Consider the following statements
1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head.
2. The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.
3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, and the Council of Ministers withthe Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President. He may, by writing under his handaddressed to the Vice-President, resign his office (article 61). According to article 52, executive power ofthe Union is vested in the President.

QUESTION: 100

Consider the following statements
1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitute Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The main purpose of these Committees are to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on polices and programmes of the Government.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs handles affairs relating to the Parliament of India and works as
a link between the two chambers, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It constitutes consultative
committees of members of Parliament and makes arrangements for holding their meetings, both during
and between sessions.

QUESTION: 101

Given below is a map of some countries which were parts of the erstwhile Soviet Union, with water bodies shown by shaded areas:

The countries marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are respectively:

Solution:

The marked countries in figure are :
‘1’ – Kazakhstan
‘2’ – Turkmenia
‘3’ – Uzbekistan
‘4’ – Kirgizia
‘5’ – Tajikistan

QUESTION: 102

The standard time of the following countries is ahead of or behind Greenwich Mean Time depending on whether they are East or West of the longitude passing through Greenwich.

1. Cuba
2. Greece
3. Iraq
4. Costa Rica
5. Japan

Q. Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind GMT?

Solution:

Greenwich Mean Time is the standard time for time assessment in different countries.
The countries which lies east of the Greenwich line is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time while the countries
which lies west of Greenwich has their standard time behind the Greenwich Mean Time. So, the correct
sequence of the countries are Japan, Iraq, Greece, Cuba and Costa Rica.

QUESTION: 103

The original home of the gypsies was :

Solution:

The ‘Gypsies’ are a group of people found in Central Asia. But, the original home of Gypsies was inIndia (Western Rajasthan and Punjab) area. ‘Gypsies’ are an ethnic group, which for unknown reasonstook to a wandering life style during the late middle ages.

QUESTION: 104

Which one of the following is the continent with the highest mean elevation in the world?

Solution:

The Continent Antarctica has the highest mean elevation in the world. This is because it is covered bya thick layer of ice, about 7,100 feet (2,200 m) thick.

QUESTION: 105

Consider the map given below indicating four places frequently figuring in the news:

Q. Which one of them is Chechenya? Choose the correct answer:

Solution:

Chechnya is situated in the Asian continent, Chechnya was in news due to its separatist movementfrom Russia.

QUESTION: 106

Which one of the following does not belong to biosphere reserves set-up so far?

Solution:

Great Nicobar, Sundarbans and Nanda Devi are biosphere reserves declared by Govt. of India. Gulf ofKutch is not a biosphere reserve, dry sandy plain.

QUESTION: 107

Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in :

Solution:

Arakan Yoma is located in western Myanmar. It is a part of eastern Himalayas. It includes the Nagahills, the Chin hills and the Patkai range which includes the Lushai hills.

QUESTION: 108

Consider the map given below :

Q. The dotted (broken) line in the map is the 

Solution:

The dotted (broken) line in the map represents Durand line, the boundary between India andAfghanistan. This line was demarcated by a commission headed by Durand.

QUESTION: 109

In the Indian context the term 'De-notified tribes' refers to:

Solution:

Denotified tribe in India refers to the tribes who where originally listed under the originally trible actof 1871. They are also known as Vimukta Jati.

QUESTION: 110

Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an 'ecological hot spot'?

Solution:

Western Ghat is known as an ecological hot spot in India notified under the Wild Life Act of 1972.

QUESTION: 111

The dispute over Shatt-al-Arab region gave way to which of the following wars in modern world history?

Solution:

Shatt-al-Arab region was the main issue of conflict in Iran-Iraq war.

QUESTION: 112

Which of the following countries is not a member of BIMSTEC?

Solution:

Members of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi- Sectoral Technical and Economic) areBangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal..

QUESTION: 113

Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?

Solution:

The lithium-ion batteries needed to power electric cars use lithium carbonate or lithium hydroxide.

QUESTION: 114

Frugal engineering is defined as the process of:

Solution:

Frugal Engineering is the process of reducing the complexity and cost of a good and its production. Itincludes removal of nonessential features from durable goods such as a car or phone, in order to sell itin developing countries to low income consumers.

QUESTION: 115

Which of the following statements is correct about the chairperson of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

Solution:

The Monetary Policy Committee consists of six Members. Three Members are from the RBI and theother three Members appointed by the Central Government. The Members appointed by the CentralGovernment hold the office for a period of four years. The Governor of RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson ofthe committee.

QUESTION: 116

The base year for the calculation of all-India Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is:

Solution:

The CSO had revised the base year of the IIP from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in May 2017 to capturestructural changes in economy and improves quality and representativeness of indices. The revised IIP(2011-12) reflects the changes in industrial sector and also aligns it with base year of othermacroeconomic indicators like Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

QUESTION: 117

Consider the following statements about National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR):

It works for the conservation and utilization of livestock and poultry genetic resources
It designs methodologies for ex situ and in situ conservation of farm animals

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

It was established on 21st September, 1984 at Bangalore in the form of twin institutes namelyNational Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources and National Institute of Animal Genetics and then shiftedto Karnal in 1985, the two institutes were merged to function as a single entity in the form of NationalBureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) in 1995.

QUESTION: 118

Stockholm Convention is a global treaty associated with which of the following?

Solution:

The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment frompersistent organic pollutants (POPs). POPs are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for longperiods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms andare toxic to humans and wildlife.

QUESTION: 119

Umiam Lake, also known as Barapani Lake, is located in which state?

Solution:

Umiam Lake is a reservoir located in the hills 15 km to the North of Shillong in the stateof Meghalaya, India. The lake serves as a major tourist attraction for the state of Meghalaya. It is also apopular destination for water sport and adventure facilities. Tourists visit this spot for kayaking, watercycling, scooting and boating

QUESTION: 120

At which of the following places, printing press of Reserve Bank of India is not present?

Solution:

 For printing of notes, the Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL), hasset up printing presses at Nashik, Maharashtra and Dewas, Madhya Pradesh. The Bharatiya Reserve BankNote Mudran Private Limited (BRBNMPL) has set up printing presses in Mysuru in Karnataka and Salboniin West Bengal. In all, there are four printing presses.

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