General Knowledge Mock Test - 5


120 Questions MCQ Test CDS ( Combined Defence Services ) Mock Test Series | General Knowledge Mock Test - 5


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This mock test of General Knowledge Mock Test - 5 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 120 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence General Knowledge Mock Test - 5 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this General Knowledge Mock Test - 5 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this General Knowledge Mock Test - 5 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other General Knowledge Mock Test - 5 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
I. The settlement at Chanhudaro was devoted to crafts, bead making and shell cutting.
II. Existence of a ploughed field was found at Banawali, in Haryana.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

The first statement is correct. The existence of a ploughed field was found at Kalibangan. In Banawali, terracotta ploughs were found. 

QUESTION: 2

With reference to Vedic literature, consider the following statements:
I. Krishna Veda and Shukla Veda form a part of Yajur Veda.
II. Gayatri Mantra is found in Yajur Veda.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

​Statements I is correct. Krishna Veda (Black) and Sulka Veda (White) are part of Yajur Veda. Gayatri Mantra is found in Rig Veda. 

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress (INC) sessions during the Indian freedom struggle: 
I. The Calcutta session (1906) passed four resolutions including Swaraj. 
II. The Belgaum session of 1924 was presided by C R Das. 
III. The Surat session of INC marked the reconciliation of moderates and extremists. 

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The first statement is correct. The Calcutta session (1906) saw 4 resolutions passed – Bengal Partition, Swaraj, Swadeshi and Boycott. The Belgaum session of INC (1924) was presided by M.K Gandhi. It was the only INC session presided by Gandhi. The Surat session (1907) saw the split of Extremists and the Moderates in the INC.

QUESTION: 4

With reference to Quit India Movement, consider the following statements:
I. Both Communist Party of India and Hindu Mahasabha supported the movement, whereas All India Muslim League opposed it.
II. Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted the flag at Gwalior tank maidan during the movement.
III. The failure of Cripps mission was the immediate reason for the movement.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

Solution:

Several political groups active during the Indian Independence Movement were opposed to the Quit India Movement. These included the Muslim League, the Hindu Mahasabha, the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, the Communist Party of India and the princely states as below:
The Cripps Mission had failed, and on August 1942, Gandhi made a call to Do or Die in his Quit India speech delivered in Bombay at the Gowalia Tank Maidan. Aruna Asaf Ali is widely remembered for hoisting the Indian National Congress flag at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay during the Quit India Movement, 1942.

QUESTION: 5

Nagara style of architecture possesses/ possess
I. Shikhara, a pyramidal tower over the garbhagriha
II. Common boundary walls and elaborate gateways
III. Amalaka, a disc like structure present at the top of Shikhara.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

The Shikhara is the curvilinear tower which is present over the garbagriha. The Nagara style does not possess any elaborate gateways or large boundary walls. Amalaka is the disc like structure present at the top of temples. 

QUESTION: 6

Regarding Amaravati art, consider the following statements:
I. It is highly influenced by Hellenistic art.
II. It followed a narrative style of artistic depiction.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

Both statement is correct. Amaravati art is influenced by Hellenistic art like Gandhara or Mathura art. It follows a narrative style of art. . 

QUESTION: 7

Ajanta, Ellora and Elephanta caves possess extraordinary artwork in their interior walls. Consider the following statements:
I. Images of Padmapani and Vajrapani Bodhisattva are common in Ajanta caves.
II. Maheshmurti sculpture is present in Elephanta caves.
III. Ellora caves consist of Brahmanical, Buddhist and Jain artistic works.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

All the statements are correct. Ajanta caves mainly has Buddhist works in nature. They contain the forms of Padmapani and Vajrapani Bodhisattva. Maheshmurti sculpture is present in Elephanta caves. Ellora caves consist of Brahmanical, Jain and Buddhist art forms. 

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following events:
I. Wavell Plan
II. Quit India Movement
III. Nehru Report
IV. Cripps Mission

Q. The correct chronological of these events is 

Solution:

​The Nehru Report was published in 1928, which was a draft Constitution regarding India’s self-governance. The Cripps mission of March, 1942 offered the proposal of dominion status to India after conclusion of the World War II. Quit India Movement started in August 1942, after the failure of Cripps mission to appease the Indian demand for freedom. Wavell Plan, was produced in Shimla conference of 1945, to break the deadlock between the Muslim League and the Indian National Congress. 

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following statements regarding Mauryan administration is/are correct?
I. Navadhyaksha is the superintendent of ships.
II. The Samaharta was the collector of revenue for the whole of the Mauryan Empire
III. Sannidhata was the officer-in-charge of the treasury and store.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

All the statements are correct. Navadhyaksha was the superintendent of ships. The Samaharta was the collector of revenue for the whole of the Mauryan Empire. Sannidhata was the officer-in-charge of the treasury and store. 

QUESTION: 10

With reference to Buddhist councils, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Sabakami was the presiding priest for the Second Buddhist council.
II. Buddhism was divided into Mahayana and Hinayana sects in the Fourth Buddhist council.
III. Third Buddhist council was conducted by Kalasoka.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​The Third Buddhist council was presided over by Mogaliputta Tissa at Pataliputra. 

QUESTION: 11

The Koppen Climate Classification System is based on:
I. Temperature
II. Precipitation
III. Vegetation
IV. Wind pattern

Q. Select the correct option from codes given below: 

Solution:

​The Koppen Climate Classification System is the most widely used system for classifying the world's climates. Its categories are based on the annual and monthly averages of temperature and precipitation. 

QUESTION: 12

Which of the following is/are feature/features of Savanna Climate Region?
I. A lengthy dry season and a relatively short wet season.
II. Hot and wet summers
III. Hot and dry winters
IV. Grassland with scattered trees

Q. Select the correct option from codes given below: 

Solution:

In the savanna climate there is a distinct dry season, which is in the winter. Savannas get all their rain in the summer months. There is an annual precipitation of 10 to 30 inches. In a Savanna the temperature does not change a lot during the year, but daily range is high during the winter season. 

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following:
I. Amir Khusro
II. Malik Muhammad Jayasi
III. Nizamuddin Auliya
IV. Moinuddin Chishti

Q. Who among the above were contemporary of Alauddin Khilji? 

Solution:

​Malik Muhammad Jayasi belonged to 16th century while Moinuddin Chisti was predecessor of Nizamuddin Aualiya and had died much before Khiljis. Khusro was his and his uncle's contemporary and was a student of Nizamuddin Aualia. 

QUESTION: 14

The deltas formed by which of the following rivers in south India are together called Rice Granary of South India?
I. Mahanadi
II. Godavari
III. Krishna

Q. Select the correct option from codes given below: 

Solution:

The delta formed by the Krishna River along with the delta formed by the Godavari River is called Rice Granary of South India. 

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements about Wood’s Despatch:
I. It proposed setting up of several vernacular primary schools in the villages
II. It encouraged privatization in the field of education
III. It encouraged developing practical and vocational skills of Indian people
IV. It recommended English as the language for higher education

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

Solution:

​All given statements are correct. Important points of the Wood’s despatch are:
(i) It wanted to educate Indian people in order to create a class of civil servants
(ii) It wanted to impart Western knowledge and information about Western Culture to the Indian people
(iii) An education department was to be set in every province
(iv) Universities on the model of the London University to be established in cities such as Bombay, Calcutta and Madras
(v) It proposed to establish at-least one government school in every district. 

QUESTION: 16

Which among the following foreign conquests were done by the Later Cholas?
I. Ceylon
II. Maldives
III. Sumatra

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​The Chola kingdom grew under Rajaraja into an extensive and well-knit empire, efficiently organized and administered and possessing a powerful standing army and navy. Rajaraja I began his conquests by attacking the confederation between the rulers of the Pandya and Kerala kingdoms and of Ceylon. Polonnaruva became the capital of Chola province in North Ceylon after the defeat of Mahinda V, the Ceylonese king. He also annexed the Maldives.

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following:
I. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
II. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
III. Indian Reforms Association

Q. Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above? 

Solution:

​Calcutta Unitarian Committee was establiished by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. On 24th January 1868 Keshab Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation. The Indian Reform Association was formed on 29 October 1870 with Keshub Chunder Sen as president. It represented the secular side of the Brahmo Samaj. 

QUESTION: 18

In the context of the history of India, consider the following pairs:

Q. Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

​Taniyur, is a large village under Chola administrative division and Eripatti, is name of a place in Tamilnadu. Ghatikas and Mathas were colleges/schools attached to temples.

QUESTION: 19

Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty? 

Solution:

Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitram is based on some events of the reign of Pushyamitra Shunga. The play tells the story of the love of Agnimitra, the Shunga Emperor at Vidisha. 

QUESTION: 20

Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
I. Dibang
II. Kameng
III. Lohit

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

All 3 are tributaries of Brahmaputra. All are major tributaries of Brahmaputra along with Subansiri.

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practicing drip irrigation?
I. Reduction in weed
II. Reduction in soil salinity
III. Reduction in soil erosion

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​Advantages and Disadvantages of Drip Irrigation: Maximum use of available water, No water being available to weeds, Maximum crop yield, High efficiency in the use of fertilizers, Less weed growth and restricts population of potential hosts, Low labour and relatively low operation cost, No soil erosion, Improved infiltration in soil of low intake, Ready adjustment to sophisticated automatic control, No runoff of fertilizers into ground water, Less evaporation losses of water as compared to surface irrigation, Improves seed germination, Decreased to tillage operations. 

QUESTION: 22

What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’ a breed found in India?
I. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in seawater.
II. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
III. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.

Q. Selected the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

Kharai camels found in the Kutch region are very unique. They can swim through deep sea waters and it feeds on mangroves and other saline plants. The breeders have meticulously followed the traditional grazing pattern in the coastal districts. They do not provide special housing or shelter to the camels. Given the breed’s ability to survive both on land and sea, the Kharai camel is one of the most preferred choices of graziers in the arid coastal region of Kachchh. People. It can be domesticated also – so its not wild. 

QUESTION: 23

With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
I. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
II. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

Red sanders is a tree of south India, and found in deciduous forest of India. It is used in traditional herbal medicine as an antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, anthelmintic, tonic, hemorrhage, dysentery, aphrodisiac, anti-hyperglycaemic and diaphoretic. 

QUESTION: 24

In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? 

Solution:

Great hornbills are found in the forests of Nepal, India, Mainland Southeast Asia and Indonesian Island of Sumatra. In South Asia they are found in a few forest areas in the Western Ghats and in the forests along the Himalayas. They occur in primary evergreen and moist deciduous forest, mainly in lowland forest, but they can be found up to 2,000 meters in some areas. In north-east India, they are generally not recorded above 1000 m. They are also seen in selectively logged forests and plantations close to larger forests.

QUESTION: 25

What is/are the importance/importance’s of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification?
I. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive inter-national partnerships.
II. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.
III. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

​Statement I and III are correct. UNFCCC deals with climate change and individual countries. United Nations program for overcoming desertification under the convention UNCCD. Africa has major focus under this. 

QUESTION: 26

In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?
I. Cambay Basin
II. Cauvery basin
III. Krishna-Godavari Basin

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

Identified shale-gas formations are spread over several sedimentary basins of the country, such as Cambay, Gondwana, Krishna Godavari Onland, and Cauvery. 

QUESTION: 27

In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?
I. Carbon dioxide
II. Carbon monoxide
III. Nitrogen dioxide
IV. Sulphur Dioxide
V. Methane

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

​Air quality index takes into account Particulate matter-10 and 2.5, nitrogen dioxide, sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide, ozone, Ammonia and Lead. National Ambient Air Quality by Ministry of Environment categorises air pollution into 6 categories by considering 8 pollutants. These pollutants are PM 10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and PB. Methane CH4 is not in list. These 8 pollutants are referred for measuring Air Quality Index in India. 

QUESTION: 28

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Viruses can infect
I. Bacteria
II. Fungi
III. Plants

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

​Viruses are can infect all living organisms plants animals and micro-organisms. 

QUESTION: 29

Two important rivers–one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha–merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?

Solution:

The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a mangrove wetland in India's Orissa state. The Bhitarkanika Mangroves cover an area of 650 km2 in the river delta of the Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.

QUESTION: 30

Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats, Sri Lanka and Indo Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:
I. Species richness
II. Vegetation density
III. Endemism
IV. Ethno-botanical importance
V. Threat perception
VI. Adaption of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions

Q. Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context? 

Solution:

To qualify as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5 percent of the world’s total) as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70 percent of its original habitat. So we choose Species richness as well as Endemism. Along with this Threat perception is necessary to take, because it makes the base of this concept. Adaptation of flora is an arbitrary option, Ethno-botanical importance does nothing with the Biodiversity Hotspot selection criteria, vegetation Density is also discarded. 

QUESTION: 31

The “Red Data Books’’ published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources (IUCN) contain lists of ?
I. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
II. Threatened plant and animal species.
III. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

Solution:

The red data book is contain only 8 lists of threatened plant and animal species.

QUESTION: 32

Consider the following statements :
I. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
II. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

Biodiversity is higher in the low latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes as the habitat tolerance level is very narrow at greater latitude. Mountains have high range of species at the low latitude as they can support larger number of species due to climatic condition. 

QUESTION: 33

With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:
I. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
II. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
III. Customs Act, 1962
IV. Indian Forest Act, 1927

Q. Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country? 

Solution:

There are 35 act of Indian Government which have relevance to Biodiversity conservation which includes all the four option given in this question. 

QUESTION: 34

 Consider the following pairs:
I. Dampa Tiger Reserve: Mizoram
II. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary: Sikkim
III. Saramati Peak : Nagaland

Q. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Dampa Tiger Reserve, the largest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram. Saramati peak is in Nagaland. It is located near Tuensang town with a height of 3,826m. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is famous wildlife reserve in Tripura. 

QUESTION: 35

With reference to conservation organization called “Wetlands International”, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
I. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
II. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

This organization is in partnership but not formed by Ramsar convention. The organization was formed in 1954 and Ramsar convention was signed in 1971. “Wetlands International”, It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the c ountries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. 

QUESTION: 36

Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?
I. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
II. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
III. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
IV. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​Statement 1, 3 and 4 are correct as per WWF and environment ministry. . 

QUESTION: 37

Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?
I. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
II. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

Brominated flame retardants used in many household products are highly resistant to degradation in the environment and they are able to accumulate in humans and animals. 

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following have coral reefs:
I. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
II. Gulf of Kachchh
III. Gulf of Mannar
IV. Sunderbans

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​Coral reefs are diverse underwater ecosystems held together by calcium carbonate structures secreted by corals. Andaman and Nicobar,Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Mannar have coral reefs. However Sunderbans do not have coral reef. 

QUESTION: 39

In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?
I. Terrace cultivation
II. Deforestation
III. Tropical climate

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with deforestataion. Terace cultivation helps in less erosion of soil. 

QUESTION: 40

The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of 

Solution:

Biosphere reserves are established under UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. 

QUESTION: 41

The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre- industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
I. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
II. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
III. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
IV. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​Rise in temperature by 3°C to that of pre- industrial leue would reverse the carbon cycle instead of absorbing CO2 vegetation and soil would start releasing it.

QUESTION: 42

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
I. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
II. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
III. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:
I. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
II. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
III. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

The Barbara rock cut caves are the oldest rock cut caves. They were originally made for the Ajivikas during the Mauryan period (322-185 BCE) by Asoka. The Ellora caves were built between 5th century and 10th century. There were 34 caves out of which 12 were Buddhist caves, 17 were Hindu caves and 5 were Jain caves. The proximity of the caves clearly demonstrates the religious harmony prevalent at that period of time. 

QUESTION: 44

Which one of the following is the best description of the term 'ecosystem'? 

Solution:

An ecosystem includes all of the living things (plants, animals and organisms) in a given area, interacting with each other, and also with their non- living environments (weather, earth, sun, soil, climate, atmosphere). 

QUESTION: 45

With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
II. It is a Non - Banking Financial Company.

Q.Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company which was established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987 under the administrative control of MNRE to promote, develop and extend financial assistance for renewable energy and energy efficiency/conservation projects with the motto: "ENERGY FOR EVER".

QUESTION: 46

Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity? 

Solution:

​The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park located in Manipur. It is 40 km in area and the only floating park in the world which is located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake. 

QUESTION: 47

Consider the following pairs: 

Q. Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? 

Solution:

States such as Champaka (Chamba), Durgara (Jammu), Trigarta (Jalandhar), Kuluta (Kulu), Kumaon and Garhwal managed to remain outside the main areas of conflict in the northern plains. 

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following: The arrival of Babur into India led to the
I. Introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
II. Introduction of the arch and dome in the region's architecture
III. Establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region .

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​In the fourteenth and fifteenth century gun powder was used for military purpose in India and even artillery in its rudimentary form was known. The Babur's first real expedition took place in India in 1519 when he captured Bhera. The Delhi Sultanate's greatest contribution to Indian fine arts was the introduction of Islam ic architectural features, including true domes and arches, and the integration of Indian and Islamic styles of architecture. The Timurid dynasty was a Sunni Muslim dynasty. Members of the Timurid dynasty were strongly influenced by the Persian culture and had established two well-known empires in history, namely the Timurid Empire (1370-1507) in Persia and Central Asia and the Mughal Empire (1526-1857) in the Indian subcontinent.

QUESTION: 49

Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong? 

Solution:

​Vijayanagara or "city of victory" was the name of both a city and an empire. The empire was founded in the fourteenth century. In its heyday it stretched from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the peninsula, (Krishna-Tungabhadra doab). It was founded by Harihara 1 and Bukka, in 1336. 

QUESTION: 50

With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report ?
I. Complete Independence for India.
II. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
III. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below 

Solution:

​Nehru Report did not provide for separate electorates for any community or weightage for minorities, but it talks of Joint electorates. It also talks for Bills of Rights.

QUESTION: 51

'Rakhine state’ of Myanmar borders which of the following countries? 
1. China 
2. India 
3. Bangladesh

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​Rakhine state is a state in Myanmar (Burma). Situated on the western coast, it is bordered by Chin State to the north, Magway Region, Bago Region and Ayeyarwady Region. 

QUESTION: 52

Which among the following panels/committee was constituted to give recommendation regarding wages paid under MGNREGA? 

Solution:

​Nagesh Singh panel gave recommendations regarding wages paid under MGNREGA. It recommended: There is no need to maintain parity in minimum wages paid by various states under MGNREGA. Divergence in pay: Disparity is found between the minimum wages and NREGA wages due to Minimum Wages which are fixed by the states which arbitrarily increased it without following any scientific principles. 

QUESTION: 53

ICGS Shaurya, recently commissioned in Indian Navy, is 

Solution:

Indian Coast Guard Ship Shaurya is an offshore patrol vessel designed and built indigenously by Goa Shipyard Ltd (GSL) 

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following is the purpose of e-Samiksha portal, launched recently by the Government of India? 

Solution:

​E-Samiksha is an online monitoring and compliance mechanism developed by Cabinet secretariat with Technical help from National Informatics Centre. Recently, Central government departments have been Asked to work out specific targets to be achieved by 2022 which will be monitored by PM under eSamiksha platform.

QUESTION: 55

T. K. Viswanathan committee, recently seen in news, was constituted for which of the following? 

Solution:

​Recently,T. K. Viswanathan committee, constituted by the Centre, on Hate speech, has recommended introducing stringent provisions for hate speech.

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the newly launched „Health of our Hospitals‟ index?
1. It aims to track the performance of secondary health care services of district hospitals.
2. It has been developed by NITI Aayog along with Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

​Niti Aayog along with the Health ministry has started ranking district hospitals through ‗Health of our Hospitals‘index. Its aims to provide comprehensive secondary health care services to the people in the District at an acceptable level of quality and to be responsive and sensitive to the needs of people andReferring centers. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is also correct. 

QUESTION: 57

The 2017 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine has been recently awarded for 

Solution:

​The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2017 has been awarded to three American molecular Biologists who used Drosophila melanogaster, the fruit fly, since the 1970s, in their work on the Circadian rhythm. 

QUESTION: 58

The term „Joint comprehensive plan of action‟ is used in the context of 

Solution:

​Joint comprehensive plan of action (JCPOA) referred to Iran nuclear deal which was signed in 2015 Between Iran and the P5+1 (the five permanent members of the U.N.S.C and Germany) in which Economic sanctions were removed against Iran. 

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following companies is not among the Maharatna companies of India? 

Solution:

At present, 7 undertakings have been designated as Maharatna companies. , These are: Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL),National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC),Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC),Indian Oil Corporation (IOC),Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL),Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) and Coal India Limited (CIL)

QUESTION: 60

With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements:
1. Either retired or acting Chief Justice of India can become Chairman of NHRC.
2. The chairman and members hold office for a term of five years or until they attain age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 

Solution:

Statement (1) is incorrect, because the chairman of NHRC is always a retired Chief Justice of India, and the statement (2) is also incorrect because the chairman and members hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. The NHRC is a statutory body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. This Act was amended in 2006. The Commission is the watch-dog of human rights in the country.

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following statement is/are true about ‘SAKAAR’?
1. It is an augmented reality (AR) application designed for android device.
2. It was developed by CSIR.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:

statement 1 is correct -‘Sakaar’ is an augmented reality (AR) application designed for Android devices.
statement 2- This is developed by ISRO not by CSIR. 

QUESTION: 62

Consider the following statements with respect to the Zika virus :
1. This virus is transmitted by Aedes mosquito.
2. Infection with this virus causes Microcephaly in females.
3. This virus can be transmitted from infected mother to the foetus and also by means of sexual intercourse.
4. India has been placed in High Risk Zone by World Health Organization due to rapid spread of this virus in India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

Solution:

Zika virus is transmitted by Aedes mosquito. This virus affects the pregnant women the most. Infection of this virus can cause ‘microcephaly’ disease in the infants, not in the women. So statement 2 is wrong. This virus can infect through several ways, such as- transfusion of infected blood, pregnant mother to her child in womb, sexual intercourse, and consuming milk of infected mother or animal. No case of infection by this virus has been registered in India so far. So the statement 4 is also wrong.

QUESTION: 63

Which among the Following is/are part of Electoral College for the election of President of India?
1. Elected and nominated MPs.
2. Elected and nominated MLAs.

Q. Choose the correct option: 

Solution:

The President of India is elected by members of Electoral College consisting of 
1. Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament. 
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states. 
3. Elected members of Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry. 

QUESTION: 64

Consider the following statements with reference to mechanism of election and democratic practices:
1. Elections are conducted only in “democratic 
Countries”.
2. Very populous states can have efficient direct democratic practices.

Q. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 

Solution:

Not all elections are democratic in nature. A large number of nondemocratic Countries also hold elections. In fact non-democratic rulers are very keen to present themselves as democratic. They do so by holding elections in such a way that it does not threaten their rule. In very populous states direct Democracy is not viable, where citizens directly participate in day to day decision making and in running the government. Therefore representatives are elected by citizens through election.

QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements with reference to Anti-Defection Law.
1. Anti-defection law is an instrument in the hand of parliament to regulate its own 
Affairs.
2. Presiding officer of the house is the final authority to decide on cases related with disqualification arising out of defection.

Q. Which of the above given statements is/are true? 

Solution:

Both options are correct 

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following comes under concurrent list? 

Solution:

​Education comes under the concurrent list.

QUESTION: 67

The concept of Public Interest Litigation is generally associated with which of the following? 

Solution:

​Public Interest Litigation is generally associated with Judicial Activism

QUESTION: 68

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1)As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
(2)The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliatory.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

​The Gram Nyayalayas have both civil and criminal jurisdiction. Social Workers at the village level having the integrity and necessary qualifications can be appointed as mediators.

QUESTION: 69

Why does the Government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture? 

Solution:

​Spraying urea with neem oil slows the release of nitrogen, by about 10 to 15 per cent, concomitantly reducing consumption of the fertiliser. According to recent research, the “sustained release” nature of neem-coated urea has seen rice yields jump per cent and wheat by 6.9 per cent. 

QUESTION: 70

Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? 

Solution:

The members of the Gulf Cooperation Council are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. Iran is not a member.

QUESTION: 71

Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1)It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers
(2)Only one member of a family can join the scheme
(3)Some amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after subscriber’s death. 

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

The only condition is that the beneficiary should have a savings bank account.

QUESTION: 72

India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? 

Solution:

​The ease of doing business index is an index created by the World Bank Group. 

QUESTION: 73

The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as 

Solution:

RCEP is a FTA between ASEAN and other countries (Australia,China, India, Japan, S.Korea and NewZealand) 

QUESTION: 74

What is/are the purpose of Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and Gold Monetization Scheme?
(1)To bring the idle gold lying with India households into the economy
(2)To promote FDI in the gold and jewelry sector
(3)To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports 

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below 

Solution:

Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) scheme was launched as an alternative to physical gold in Nov 2015. The aim of SGB is to reduce demand, including through imports, for physical gold, and in process reduce India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD). 

QUESTION: 75

Consider the following statement/s:
1. NABARD was established in 1982 with it’s headquarter in New Delhi.
2. It is the apex body for coordination of all Institution involved in Rural Financing process.
3. NABARD is the only sole agency responsible for Rural Financing.

Q. Choose the correct ones: 

Solution:

​NABARD was established in 1982 with it’s headquarter in Mumbai. It is the apex body for coordination of all institution involved in rural financing process. NABARD is not the only agency responsible for rural financing.

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following steps helps in increasing the efficiency of Public Sector Units (PSUs)?
1. More autonomy to PSUs in taking Managerial decisions.
2. Shedding of ownership by the Government.
3. Selling off part of equity of PSUs by theGovernment.

Q. Choose the correct ones:

Solution:

All the options are correct 

QUESTION: 77

Head Count Ratio is used in the measurement of: 

Solution:

​When the number of poor is estimated as the proportion of people below the poverty line, it is known as ‘Head Count Ratio’. 

QUESTION: 78

Transfer payments includes:
1. Remittances
2. Gifts
3. Grants

Q. Choose the correct ones:

Solution:

Transfer payments are receipts which the residents of a country receive ‘for free’, without 
having to make any present or future payments in return. They consist of remittances, gifts and grants. 
They could be official or private.

QUESTION: 79

Which among the followings falls under “Broad Money”?
1. National Savings Certificates
2. Net time deposits of Commercial Banks.
3. Net demand deposits held by Commercial Banks.
4. Currency (notes plus coins) held by the public

Q. Choose the correct ones:

Solution:

RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4. They are 
defined as follows 
M1 = CU + DD 
M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings
banks 
M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks 
M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings 
organisations (excluding National Savings 
Certificates)

QUESTION: 80

When RBI increases Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): 

Solution:

The Cash Reserve Ratio is the amount of funds that the banks are bound to keep with Reserve bank of India as a portion of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL). The objective of CRR is to ensure the liquidity and solvency of the Banks. The CRR is maintained fortnightly average basis. When RBI increases the CRR, fewer funds are available with banks as they have to keep larger portions of their cash in hand with RBI.

QUESTION: 81

Production of Goods and Services requires which of the following:
1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital
4. Entrepreneurship

Q. Choose the correct ones: 

Solution:

All options are correct 

QUESTION: 82

“Balance of Invisibles” is a part of Current account. What does it mean? 

Solution:

​Trade in services in balance of payment is denoted as invisible trade (because they are not seen to cross national borders) includes both factor income (net income from compensation of employees and net investment income, the latter equals, the interest, profits and dividends on our assets abroad minus the income foreigners earn on assets they own in India) and net non-factor income (shipping, banking, insurance, tourism, software services, etc.): 

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements -
(1)The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. 
(2)A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

​A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution (i.e., before the expiry of the full period of five years) shall continue only for the remainder of the period. 

QUESTION: 84

The dispute regarding the election of President of India can be decided by 

Solution:

​The Supreme Court of India decides the disputes regarding the election of president.

QUESTION: 85

Current Account Deficit has increased in 2017-18. Consider the following about Current Account Deficit
(1)India’s trade deficit has increased in 2017-18.
(2)India’s net service exports have decreased in 2017-18.

Q. Which of the above is correct? 

Solution:

The current account defcit has also widened in 2017-18 and is expected to average about 1.5-2 percent of GDP for the year as a whole. In the frst half of 2017-18, the oil and gold balance has improved (smaller defcit of $47 billion) but this has been offset by a higher trade defcit ($18 billion) and a reduced services surplus ($37 billion), the latter two reflecting a deterioration in the economy’s competitiveness.

QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements about India Health Fund (IHF)
(1)It is an initiative led by Tata Trusts, in collaboration with The Global Fund
(2)It supports innovations and technologies designed to combat public health challenges of tuberculosis (TB) and malaria in India

Q. Select the correct statements 

Solution:

The India Health Fund (IHF) – an initiative led by Tata Trusts, in collaboration with The 
Global Fund– serves as an engine for social investment to fight the grave public health 
challenges of tuberculosis (TB) and malaria in India.

QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements about Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council 
(PMEAC)
1. It is a statutory body
2. Bibek Debroy is the chairman of the current EAC

Q. Select the correct statements

Solution:

It is a non-constitutional and non-statutory, non-permanent and independent body, constituted with the prime and sole aim to analyse all critical issues, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the prime minister and advising him thereon. It is mandate to give advice to prime minister on economic matters such as inflation, GDP changes, export-import changes, creating supporting environment for increased trade and commerce. Currently PMEAC chairman post is held by Bibek Debroy. 

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements about ‘Darshak’ app
1. It allows real-time museum visitors gather all details about objects or artefacts 
simply by scanning a QR code placed near the object
2. It is developed by Centre for Development for Advanced Computing (C-DAC)

Q. Select the correct statements 

Solution:

​Centre for Development for Advanced Computing (C-DAC), has developed software named “Jatan” that is set to revolutionize museum experience. The latest technology will help online visitors get a 3-Dimensional (3D) view of hundreds of artefacts displayed at the museums. The software will enable virtual tours to museums. The group has developed “Darshak”, a mobile-based application, aimed at improving the museum visit experience among the differently-abled. It allows real-time museum visitors gather all details about objects or artefacts simply by scanning a QR code placed near the object. 

QUESTION: 89

‘Manganiyars’ are known for 

Solution:

​The Manganiyars are a 25,000 to 30,000-strong Muslim community of hereditary professional singers who have lived for centuries in western Rajasthan’s Thar Desert region. 

QUESTION: 90

Akshara Sagaram, an ambitious literacy programme for coastal areas is associated with which state? 

Solution:

​The project is being implemented by Kerala State Literacy Mission Authority (KSLMA) with financial assistance from the Fisheries Department.The primary objective of the project is to streamline the fourth, seventh and tenth standard equivalent programmes of KSLMA in coastal areas. 

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements about Minimum Age Convention, 1973
1. It is adopted by the International Labour Organization
2. India is yet to ratify the convention
3. It provides for the possibility of initially setting the general minimum age at 14 (12 for light work)

Q. where the economy and educational facilities are insufficiently developed.

Solution:

India has ratified the Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138) and Worst Forms of Child 
Labour Convention, 1999 (No. 182) of the International Labour Organization (ILO) Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138)-It provides for the possibility of initially setting the general minimum age at 14 (12for light work) where the economy and educational facilities are insufficiently 
developed. 

QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements about Disability-Adjusted Life Year (DALY)
1. It is the sum of years of potential life lost due to premature mortality and the years 
of productive life lost due to disability.
2. It was originally developed by Harvard University for the World Bank in 1990

Q. Select the correct statements 

Solution:

Both options are correct 

QUESTION: 93

Consider the following statements about Water fluoridation
1. Low levels of fluoride in drinking water (0.5 to 1 mg/l) protect against dental caries
2. High levels of fluoride in drinking water (above 1.5 mg/l) lead to dental and skeletal fluorosis

Q. Select the correct statements 

Solution:

Water fluoridation is the controlled addition of fluoride to a public water supply to reduce tooth decay. Fluoridated water contains fluoride at a level that is effective for preventing cavities; this can occur naturally or by adding fluoride. Fluoridated water operates on tooth surfaces: in the mouth, it creates low levels of fluoride in saliva, which reduces the rate at which tooth enamel demineralizes and increases the rate at which it remineralizes in the early stages of cavities.

QUESTION: 94

Mitra Shakti is a joint military exercise between India and 

Solution:

​Mitra Shakti is a joint exercise between India and Sri Lanka for military co-operation and Interoperability. 

QUESTION: 95

FAME India scheme is concerned with 

Solution:

FAME India (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric vehicles in India) scheme. 

QUESTION: 96

‘Sagar Vani’ was launched recently. It is concerned with 

Solution:

​The 'Sagar Vani' is a software platform where various dissemination modes are integrated on a single central server. The App has provisions of multi-lingual SMS, Voice Call, Audio Advisory, Social Media platforms (Facebook, Twitter, etc.) and Digital Display Boards for dissemination of information. 

QUESTION: 97

The First state in the country to draft its own internal security legislation is – 

Solution:

​Maharashtra is the First state in the country to draft its own internal security legislation. 

QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements about Shell Companies
1. Shell Company is a corporate entity without active business operations or significant 
assets.
2. Shell companies are illegal 

Q. Select the correct statements 

Solution:

Shell Company is a corporate entity without active business operations or significant assets.
They are often created to avoid taxes and many big companies create shell corporations to avoid taxes without attracting legal actions. It can’t be asserted that shell corporations are illegal. They are deliberate financial  arrangements to avoid taxes. Tax avoidance is not illegal, though it is not desirable. But many shell companies park black money, carryout illegal transactions and sometimes act as facilitators of money laundering. Often, shell companies remain untraceable and  happen to be the vehicle of choice for money launderers, bribe givers and takers, tax evaders and financiers of terrorism

QUESTION: 99

Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) framework is concerned with? 

Solution:

​Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) refers to tax avoidance strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations. Under the inclusive framework, over 100 countries and jurisdictions are collaborating to implement the BEPS measures and tackle BEPS.It is concerned with Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development 

QUESTION: 100

Consider the Following statements about TREAD schem
1. It is under the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
2. It denotes high quality manufacturing with a minimal negative impact on 
Environment.

Q. Select the correct statements 

Solution:

Trade Related Entrepreneurship Development Assistance Scheme (TREAD) envisages economic empowerment of women. There is a provision of Govt of India Grant upto 30% of Loan/credit sanctioned subject to maximum ceiling of 30 Lakhs to NGOs as appraised by Lending Institutes/Banks for undertaking capacity building activities such as Training, counselling, Participation in exhibitions, establishment of new SHGs etc and other components as approved by Bank/Steering Committee. 

QUESTION: 101

According to Finance Minister Arun Jaitley, Indian economy grew by ____________ in the first quarter (April-June) of the current fiscal, the highest in over two years. 

Solution:

​Indian economy grew by 8.2% in the first quarter (April-June) of the current fiscal, the highest in over two years. This announcement was made by Finance Minister, Arun Jaitley. The manufacturing sector grew by 13.5% which signals very good turnaround in the sector.

QUESTION: 102

The government of India has doubled the monetary limit to ___________ lakh rupees for filing loan recovery application in the DRT by banks and financial institutions. 

Solution:

​The government of India has doubled the monetary limit to 20 lakh rupees for filing loan recovery application in the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) by banks and financial institutions.

QUESTION: 103

India’s CAD widened to a four-quarter-high at 2.4% of gross domestic product (GDP) in April-June period. CAD stands for- 

Solution:

​India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD) widened to a four-quarter-high at 2.4% of gross domestic product (GDP) in April-June period on the back of rising crude oil prices, from 1.9% of GDP in the January-March quarter of 2017-18, according to data released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

QUESTION: 104

Name the Bank, which has announced that the Department of Financial Services report has rated it as number one state-owned bank in terms of digital transactions. 

Solution:

Punjab National Bank (PNB) has announced that the Department of Financial Services report has rated it as number one state-owned bank in terms of digital transactions. The Nirav Modi scam-hit bank is also rated as the sixth overall amongst all banks in India for digital performance.

QUESTION: 105

DBS Bank has been named the world's best bank by Global Finance magazine, in a reflection of its ability to invest in digital innovation while still maintaining stable operations for its customers. DBS Bank based in- 

Solution:

​DBS Bank has been named the world's best bank by Global Finance magazine, in a reflection of its ability to invest in digital innovation while still maintaining stable operations for its customers. DBS Bank is a multinational banking and financial services corporation headquartered in Marina Bay Financial Centre Tower 3 Marina Bay, Singapore.

QUESTION: 106

Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched a payments bank of the Department of Posts that will take banking to the doorstep of every citizen through an unmatched network of post offices and almost 3 lakh postmen and ‘Grameen Dak Sewaks’. Who is the Managing Director & CEO of IPPB? 

Solution:

​Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched a payments bank of the Department of Posts that will take banking to the doorstep of every citizen through an unmatched network of post offices and almost 3 lakh postmen and ‘Grameen Dak Sewaks’. Suresh Kumar Sethi is the Managing Director & CEO of IPPB.

QUESTION: 107

According to the data released by Central Statistics Office (CSO), IIP has grew at 6.6% in July on the back of good performance by the manufacturing sector and higher offtake of capital goods and consumer durables. What is the full form of IIP? 

Solution:

​According to the data released by Central Statistics Office (CSO), Index of Industrial production (IIP) grew at 6.6% in July on the back of good performance by the manufacturing sector and higher offtake of capital goods and consumer durables. 

QUESTION: 108

India’s overall exports (Merchandise and Services combined) in April-August 2018-19 (as per the RBI Press Release) are estimated to be USD ____________ Billion, exhibiting a positive growth of 20.70% over the same period last year. 

Solution:

​India’s overall exports (Merchandise and Services combined) in April-August 2018-19 (as per the RBI Press Release) are estimated to be USD 221.83 Billion, exhibiting a positive growth of 20.70% over the same period last year. Overall imports in April-August 2018-19 are estimated to be USD 269.54 Billion, exhibiting a positive growth of 21.01% over the same period last year.

QUESTION: 109

Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) at Talkatora Stadium in New Delhi. IPPB will offer __________ interest rate on savings accounts. 

Solution:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) at Talkatora Stadium in New Delhi. IPPB is the largest payments bank in the country by network size. IPPB will offer 4% interest rate on savings accounts.

QUESTION: 110

_____________________ is a measurement of a country's trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the goods and services it exports. 

Solution:

​The Current Account Deficit is a measurement of a country's trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the goods and services it exports. 

QUESTION: 111

With which of the following country, India has signed the Second Protocol amending the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement in New Delhi which will boost bilateral trade between the two countries? 

Solution:

India and Singapore have signed the Second Protocol amending the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement in New Delhi which will boost bilateral trade between the two countries. The Protocol was signed in New Delhi by Rajneesh, Joint Secretary, Ministry of Commerce and Industry and Francis Chong, Senior Director, Ministry of Trade and Industry, Government of Singapore.

QUESTION: 112

Exercise Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Peace Mission 2018, the latest in 'Peace Mission' series formally started in ___________. 

Solution:

Exercise Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Peace Mission 2018, the latest in 'Peace Mission' series formally started at Chebarkul, Russia. The opening ceremony was conducted in Chebarkul, Russia with military contingents of the all eight SCO member nations participating in this exercise. 

QUESTION: 113

Prasar Bharati and Mizzima Media Group of which of the following country has signed an MoU to realize cooperation and collaboration in broadcasting and content sharing? 

Solution:

Prasar Bharati and Mizzima Media Group of Myanmar signed an MoU to realize cooperation and collaboration in broadcasting and content sharing. The agreement was signed in the presence of Prasar Bharati CEO, Shashi Shekhar Vempati and Editor-in-chief and MD, Mizzima in New Delhi.

QUESTION: 114

Name the Indian women’s team player who has recently announced her retirement from T20 Cricket Internationals. 

Solution:

Indian women’s team fast bowler Jhulan Goswami announced her retirement from T20 Cricket Internationals. The veteran player played 68 T20 Internationals and took 56 wickets at an economy rate of 5.45. 

QUESTION: 115

Industry chamber Assocham appointed former bureaucrat ____________ as its new Secretary General. 

Solution:

​Industry chamber Assocham appointed former bureaucrat Uday Kumar Varma as its new Secretary General. He succeeds DS Rawat who held the position for nearly 14 years. 

QUESTION: 116

Which country launched the world’s first hydrogen-powered train, on 17th September 2018? 

Solution:

On 17th September 2018, Germany launched the world’s first hydrogen-powered train with costlier but eco-friendly technology.The two Coradia iLint trains were built by French train-maker firm Alstom. 

QUESTION: 117

NABARD All India Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS), conducted by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), was released by Dr. Rajiv Kumar, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog in New Delhi. As per the report, ____________ of the households reported having a bank account. 

Solution:

NABARD All India Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS), conducted by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), was released by Dr. Rajiv Kumar, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog in New Delhi. As per the report, 88.1% of the households reported having a bank account. 

QUESTION: 118

Subhash Sheoratan Mundra has been appointed as Independent Director on the Board of Indiabulls Housing Finance Ltd (IBHFL) for a period of three years. He was ____________. 

Solution:

​Subhash Sheoratan Mundra has been appointed as Independent Director on the Board of Indiabulls Housing Finance Ltd (IBHFL) for a period of three years. The former Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and senior banker is not replacing an existing member on the Board.

QUESTION: 119

India Banking Conclave 2018 was held in __________ which was organized by Centre for Economic Policy Research (CEPR). 

Solution:

India Banking Conclave 2018 was held in New Delhi. The India Banking Conclave 2018 was organized by Centre for Economic Policy Research (CEPR). Knowledge Partner of the conclave was NITI Aayog. The conclave focused on reforming the banking sector. 

QUESTION: 120

The government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a $375 million loan agreement to contribute to double farming incomes in _____________ by expanding irrigation networks and system efficiency. 

Solution:

​The government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a $375 million loan agreement to contribute to double farming incomes in Madhya Pradesh by expanding irrigation networks and system efficiency. 

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