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General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - CDS MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test CDS (Combined Defence Services) Mock Test Series 2024 - General Knowledge Mock Test - 4

General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 for CDS 2024 is part of CDS (Combined Defence Services) Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CDS exam syllabus.The General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for CDS 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 below.
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General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Which one among the following correctly represents the theme on which the interiors of the new Parliament Building is based?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

The correct answer is 2.
Key Points

  • The new Parliament building was inaugurated on May 28, 2023, replacing the old 85-year-old structure.
  • The old building faced challenges like space inadequacy, structural issues, and the need for heritage protection.
  • The new triangular building, covering approximately 65,000 sq m, optimizes space and features a Lok Sabha hall inspired by a peacock theme and a Rajya Sabha hall with a lotus theme.
  • It can accommodate 888 and 384 seats, respectively, and up to 1,272 seats for joint sessions.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi initiated the construction on December 10, 2020, with an estimated cost of ₹9.71 billion.

Additional Information

  • The first session in the new Parliament occurred on September 19, 2023.
  • The new Parliament building, designed by architect Bimal Patel, stands next to the old one built in 1927 by British architects Sir Edwin Lutyens and Sir Herbert Baker.
  • Influenced by Hindu Chausath Yogini Temple and resembling the Vijaya Temple of Vidisha, it has a hexagonal shape and is earthquake-resistant with a lifespan of over 150 years.
  • With a built-up area of 20,866 sq m, it accommodates 888 seats in the Lok Sabha chamber and 384 seats in the Rajya Sabha chamber.
  • Unlike the old building, it lacks a central hall.
  • The Parliament House has three entrances – Gyan Dwar, Shakti Dwar, and Karma Dwar – guarded by statues of Gaja, Ashwa, Garuda, Makar, Shardula, and Hams. A Foucault pendulum in the central foyer symbolizes India's cosmic integration.
  • The Lok Sabha chamber houses the Sengol, and the Shilp Deergha gallery showcases 255 crafts from 400 artisans, representing eight themes.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Which one of the following is a saprophyte ?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

The correct answer is Rhizopus.

Key Points

  • The organisms that live and feed on dead organic matter and obtain nutrition for their growth are called saprophytes.
    • Example- mucor, yeast. Saprophytes are mostly fungi and/or bacteria.
    • Saprophytes decompose dead plants and animals and convert complex molecules into simpler molecules.
  • Rhizopus is a fungus commonly found in soil.
    • It is a saprophyte, meaning it obtains nutrients by decomposing organic matter.
    • Rhizopus plays a role in the decomposition of dead plants and other organic material.

Additional Information

  • Cuscuta, commonly known as dodder, is a parasitic plant that lacks chlorophyll.
    • It attaches itself to a host plant and derives nutrients by tapping into the host's vascular system.
  • Spirogyra is a filamentous green algae.
    • It is an autotrophic organism, meaning it produces its food through photosynthesis.
    • Spirogyra contains chlorophyll and does not rely on external organic matter for nutrition.
  • Grass is a type of plant that is generally autotrophic, producing its own food through photosynthesis.
    • Grasses typically have chlorophyll and obtain nutrients through the process of photosynthesis.
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General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Sonic boom is produced when a source of sound travels at a speed:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

The correct answer is greater than the speed of sound.
Key Points
When a source of sound travels faster than the speed of sound, a shock wave is generated which gives rise to a sonic boom
.

  • These shock waves carry with them a huge amount of energy and pressure difference and those waves create a very loud and strong sound which is called sonic boom.
  • It generates huge amounts of sound energy. It almost feels like the sound of thunder.
  • The shock wave creates a cone of pressurized air molecules. As the cone spreads across the landscape along the flight path, it produces a continuous sonic boom along the entire width of the cone's base.
  • The rapid release of pressure following the build-up by the shock wave is heard as a sonic boom.
  • It is the sudden change in pressure (rate of change) that makes the sonic boom audible.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

In the following simplified diagram of at plant cell, five parts / organelles are marked from 1 to 5:

Which one of the following correctly represents the above parts / organelles?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

The correct answer is 1 - cell wall; 2 - cell membrane; 3 - endoplasmic reticulum; 4 - nucleus; 5 - vacuole.

Key Points

  • Cell membrane
    • Cell membrane is also called the plasma membrane.
    • It can be observed only through an electron microscope.
    • The plasma membrane is the outermost covering of the cell that separates the contents of the cell from its external environment.
  • Cell wall
    • Plant cells, in addition to the plasma membrane, have another rigid outer covering called the cell wall. The cell wall lies outside the plasma membrane.
    • The plant cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose. Cellulose is a complex substance and provides structural strength to plants.
  • Vacuoles
    • Empty structure in the cytoplasm is called vacuole.
    • Large vacuoles are common in plant cells. Vacuoles in animal cells are much smaller.
    • Vacuoles are storage sacs for solid or liquid contents.
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
    • The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a large network of membrane-bound tubes and sheets. It looks like long tubules or round or long bags (vesicles).
    • There are two types of ER ––
      • rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and
      • smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER).
  • Nucleus
    • It is an important component of the living cell.
    • Nucleus is separated from the cytoplasm by a double layered membrane called the nuclear membrane.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Other things remaining constant, the market supply for a good increases if:

1. its price increases.

2. price of its factors of production decreases.

3. price of other goods decreases.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

  • If the price of the good increases, producers are likely to supply more of it to take advantage of the higher prices. So, the market supply for the good will increase.
  • If the price of its factors of production decreases, the cost of producing the good will decrease. This would make it more profitable for producers to supply more of the good, hence increasing the market supply.
  • The price of other goods decreasing may or may not affect the market supply of the good.
    • For example, if the price of a substitute good decreases, producers might shift their resources to produce more of that substitute good, potentially decreasing the supply of the original good.
    • So, this statement is not universally true.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Which one of the following pairs of events and years is not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

The correct answer is Introduction of the World Wide Web (www) : 1995.
Key Points

  • The World Wide Web (www) was introduced to the public on August 6, 1991, by British computer scientist Tim Berners-Lee.
    • Therefore, the correct year for the introduction of the World Wide Web is 1991, not 1995.

Additional Information

  • The first communications satellite Launched on July 10, 1962, Telstar 1, developed by the American Telephone and Telegraph Company (AT&T), was the world's first active communications satellite. AT&T used the satellite to test communications infrastructure through space.
  • Construction of a continuous fiber-optic cable link around the world was completed in 1997.
  • SWIFT was founded by and for its users to support international finance and commerce.
    • By the time Swift went live in 1977, 518 institutions in 22 countries were connected to Swift's messaging services.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Which one among the following are the correct symbols for the elements gold, tin and lead, respectively?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

The correct answer is Au, Sn, Pb.
Key Points
Gold (Au):

  • Gold is a transition metal with the chemical symbol Au, which is derived from the Latin word "aurum".
  • Its atomic number in the periodic table is 79 and it is known for its distinctive yellow color, ductility and high conductivity.

Tin (Sn):

  • Tin is a transition metal with the chemical symbol Sn, which is derived from the Latin word "stannum".
  • Its atomic number is 50 and it is commonly used in the production of alloys such as bronze and solder.

Lead (Pb):

  • Lead is also a transition metal with the chemical symbol Pb, which is derived from the Latin word "plumbum".
  • Its atomic number is 82 and it is known for its dense and flexible properties.

Additional Information

  • Gallium
    • It has the symbol Ga.
    • Atomic number 31.
  • Astatine
    • It has the symbol At
    • Atomic number 85.
  • Antimony
    • It has the symbol Sb
    • Atomic number 51.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Shivaji sent an ambassador to Bombay to negotiate an agreement with the English.
2. His chief motive was to secure English aid against the Siddis of Danda - Rajpuri.
3. He wanted a supply of grenades, mortars and other ammunition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.
Key Points

  • Shivaji sent an ambassador to Bombay to negotiate with the British. He attempted to form alliances that could help him in his military campaigns.
  • His main objective was to secure English assistance against the Siddis of Danda-Rajpuri. Shivaji sought English assistance to counter the threat posed by the Siddis of Danda-Rajpuri.
  • Shivaji was interested in receiving military aid, including arms and ammunition, from the British.

Additional Information

  • Shivaji I was an Indian ruler and a member of the Bhonsle Maratha dynasty.
    • Shivaji carved out his independent kingdom from the declining Adilshahi Sultanate of Bijapur, giving rise to the Maratha Empire.
    • In 1674, he was formally crowned Chhatrapati of his kingdom at Raigad Fort.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

In which one of the following cities is the Heliopolis Commonwealth War Grave Cemetery located?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

The correct answer is Cairo.
Key Points
Heliopolis Memorial
Visit - June 24, 2023:

  • On June 24, 2023, the Prime Minister of India is scheduled to pay his respects at the Heliopolis (Port Tewfik) Memorial, situated within the Heliopolis War Cemetery in Cairo, Egypt.

About Heliopolis Memorial:

  • The Heliopolis Memorial is part of the larger Heliopolis Commonwealth War Graves Cemetery.
  • It commemorates the sacrifice of 3,727 Indian soldiers who lost their lives in various campaigns in Egypt and Palestine during the First World War.
  • The original Port Tewfik memorial, unveiled in 1926 at the entrance to the Suez Canal, was destroyed during the Israeli-Egyptian War of 1967.
  • In 1980, a new memorial was erected in the Heliopolis Commonwealth War Graves Cemetery.
  • Indian troops played a significant role in securing the Suez Canal in Egypt and participated in key battles in Palestine, including the Battle of Haifa. They also played a crucial role in Mesopotamia during the First World War.

Additional Information
Key Facts about Port Suez (formerly Port Tewfik):

  • Port Suez is situated along the northern coastline of the Gulf of Suez in Egypt.
  • It marks the southern terminus of the Suez Canal, a vital waterway that runs north-south through Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Gulf of Suez.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Which of the following are included in the definition of Narrow Money?

1. Currency with the public

2. Demand deposits

3. 'Other' deposits with Reserve Bank of India

4. Banker's deposits with Reserve Bank of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • Narrow money plays a vital role in facilitating day-to-day transactions and is an important indicator of the monetary health of the economy.
  • Narrow money is a type of money supply that consists of all real money held by a central bank, including coins and currency, demand deposits, and other liquid assets.
  • In India, narrow money is denoted by M1.
  • The high liquidity of narrow money allows for immediate spending, which impacts short-term economic health.
  • M1 = Currency with the Public + Demand Deposits with the Banking System + ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI
  • = Currency with the Public + Current Deposits with the Banking System + Demand Liabilities Portion of Savings Deposits with the Banking System + ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI
  • ‘Other’ deposits with RBI comprise mainly:
    • (i) deposits of quasi-government and other financial institutions including primary dealers,
    • (ii) balances in the accounts of foreign Central banks and Governments,
    • (iii) accounts of international agencies such as the International Monetary Fund, etc.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Which of the following is / are United Nations Sustainable Development Goal(s)?
1. Decent work and economic growth
2. Peace, justice and strong institutions
3. Responsible consumption and production
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.
Key Points
17 Goals for People, for Planet

  • World leaders came together in 2015 and made a historic promise to secure the rights and well-being of everyone on a healthy, thriving planet when they adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and its 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

The 17 goals under the Sustainable Development Goals are as mentioned below:

  • Goal 1: End poverty in all its forms
  • Goal 2: Zero Hunger
  • Goal 3: Health
  • Goal 4: Education
  • Goal 5: Gender equality and women’s empowerment
  • Goal 6: Water and Sanitation
  • Goal 7: Energy
  • Goal 8: Economic Growth
  • Goal 9: Infrastructure, industrialization
  • Goal 10: Inequality
  • Goal 11: Cities
  • Goal 12: Sustainable consumption and production
  • Goal 13: Climate Action
  • Goal 14: Oceans
  • Goal 15: Biodiversity, forests, desertification
  • Goal 16: Peace, justice and strong institutions
  • Goal 17: Partnerships

General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 12
The landmark Supreme Court judgment in the case Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) refers to which one of the following basic features of the Constitution of India?
Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

The correct answer is Judicial Review.Key Points

  • The landmark Supreme Court judgment in the case Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) refers to Judicial Review.
  • Supreme Court case Subhash Sharma v. U.O.I. (1991(1) Supp. SCC 594).
    • This case involved a reconsideration of the interpretation of the word "consultation" concerning the appointment of judges, particularly questioning the interpretation laid down in the case S.P. Gupta v. U.O.I. (1982 SC 149).
    • The court emphasizes that the word is used in the constitutional provision to acknowledge the status of the high constitutional dignitary involved in the appointment of judges.
    • The court suggests that interpreting the term without considering its constitutional background and purpose would be akin to a narrow and literal interpretation that fails to capture the constitutional essence of the term.
    • The judges in the Subhash Sharma case affirmed the significance of judicial review as an integral part of the basic constitutional structure and one of the basic features of the essential Indian constitutional policy.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

The correct answer is Japan.
Key Points
United Nations (UN):

  • The United Nations is an international organization founded in 1945 after World War II to promote peace, security, and cooperation among member countries.
  • The UN has various specialized agencies and bodies working on issues such as human rights, health, education, and international development.

UN Security Council (UNSC):

  • The UN Security Council is one of the principal organs of the UN, responsible for maintaining international peace and security.
  • It has 15 members, including five permanent members with veto power and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms.
  • Permanent Members (P5) with Veto Power:
    • United States
    • Russia (formerly the Soviet Union)
    • China
    • United Kingdom
    • France
  • Non-Permanent Members:
    • Ten non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms.
    • They do not possess veto power.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Which one of the following statements about plantation agriculture is not correct?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

The correct answer is 4.
Key Point
Plantation agriculture
refers to a type of commercial farming where crops are grown for sale, usually in large estates or plantations.

  • It involves the cultivation of a single crop on a large scale.
    • Characteristics:
      • Scientific Management: Plantation farm estates are scientifically managed with a focus on maximizing yields and profits.
      • Heavy Capital Outlay: Plantation farming requires a substantial capital investment for land, machinery, labor, and inputs.
      • Foreign Ownership and Local Labor: Historically, many plantation farm lands had foreign ownership, while local labor was employed for cultivation.
    • Types of Plantation Crops:
      • Tea Plantations: Found in regions like India (Assam, Darjeeling), China, Kenya, and Sri Lanka.
      • Coffee Plantations: Common in countries like Brazil, Colombia, Ethiopia, and Vietnam.
      • Rubber Plantations: Mainly in countries like Malaysia, Thailand, Indonesia, and India.
      • Banana Plantations: Cultivated in tropical regions like Ecuador, Philippines, and Costa Rica.
      • Sugar Plantations: Historic examples include sugarcane plantations in the Caribbean and Americas.
    • Global Plantation Names:
      • Haciendas: In Latin America, particularly associated with coffee and sugar plantations.
      • Sisal Plantations: Known for sisal fiber production, found in countries like Tanzania and Brazil.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 15
Which one of the following crops is not cultivated under dryland farming?
Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

The correct answer is Sugarcane.

Key Points

  • Sugarcane is a water-intensive crop and is typically not cultivated under dryland farming.
    • It requires a substantial amount of water for optimal growth, and hence, it is more commonly grown in areas with assured irrigation facilities.

Additional Information

  • Dryland farming refers to agricultural practices in regions where water availability for crop cultivation is limited, and the crops rely predominantly on rainfall. In such areas, farmers often face challenges related to water scarcity and must choose crops that are well-suited to these conditions.
    • Jowar (Sorghum): Jowar is a cereal crop that is well-suited for dryland farming. It is drought-tolerant and can thrive in regions with limited water availability.
    • Ragi (Finger Millet): Similar to Jowar, Ragi is a drought-tolerant cereal crop that is suitable for cultivation in dryland areas.
    • Groundnut (Peanut): Groundnut is often cultivated in dryland farming. While it is not as water-intensive as sugarcane, groundnut is adapted to arid and semi-arid conditions and is a common crop in regions with limited water resources.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Which one among the following substances is a compound?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

The correct answer is Sugar.
Key Points
Sugar is a compound made up of three atoms:

  • carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
  • Since these three atoms are chemically linked to each other, they form a compound in nature.
  • When sugar is added to water in the required amount it becomes a true solution, if excess sugar is added to water it leads to saturation.

We can classify the given substances as-

Additional Information

  • A substance that is made up of two or more elements and joined by bonds is a term compound.
  • A chemical compound is a chemical substance made up of many identical molecules containing atoms of more than one chemical element held together by chemical bonds.
    • Therefore, a molecule containing atoms of only one element is not a compound.
  • Mixture:
    • It is a compound made of one or more pure substances.
    • It is a homogenous and heterogenous mixture.
      • Homogenous: This mixture is one in which particles are evenly mixed.
      • Heterogeneous: This mixture is one in which particles are not evenly mixed.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 17
The term, Phyllotaxy refers to the pattern of:
Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

The correct answer is arrangement of leaves.

Key Points

  • Phyllotaxy refers to the pattern or arrangement of leaves on a plant's stem or branch.
    • The arrangement of leaves on the stem of a plant is phyllotaxy. A structure similar to a leaf is a leaflet.
    • Compound leaves come together to form several leaflets.
    • Stipules are leaf-like structures found at the base of the stalk.
    • The simple arrangement of leaves on a stem is opposite and alternating (also called a spiral).
    • If multiple leaves are visible or appear to be, the leaves may also be rooted from the same point on the stem (at the same node).

Additional Information

  • Phyllotaxy is of three types-
    • Opposite - In opposite leaf arrangement, each node has a pair of leaves opposite each other.
    • Alternate - In an alternate leaf arrangement, there is one leaf per plant node.
    • Whorled - In whorled leaf arrangement, a node has more than two leaves in the form of a whorl.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Which country has recently become the world's third-largest economy, following an unexpected recession in Japan in Feb 2024?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

The correct answer is Germany

In News

  • Germany has recently become the world's third-largest economy, following an unexpected recession in Japan in Feb 2024.

Key Points

  • Japan unexpectedly slipped into recession as its economy shrank by 0.4 percent in the last quarter of 2023, following a 3.3 percent decline in the previous quarter.
  • With Japan's recession, Germany has now become the world's third-largest economy, with a GDP of $4.5 trillion, trailing behind the United States and China.
  • Germany's economy contracted by 0.3 percent in 2023, attributed to factors such as rising interest rates and weakened domestic and foreign demand.
  • The International Monetary Fund had projected Germany's GDP to surpass that of Japan in 2024 due to the yen's depreciation against the dollar.
  • Although Germany has historically been Europe's largest economy, it last held the number three spot in 2007 before being overtaken by China.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 19
Chromosomes are composed of DNA and:
Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

The correct answer is proteins.

Key Points

  • In the nucleus of each cell, DNA molecules are packaged into thread-like structures called chromosomes. Each chromosome is made up of DNA tightly coiled around proteins called histones that support its structure.
  • Chromosomes are highly condensed forms of chromatin threads.
    • Chromosomes were first observed in pollen mother cells of Tradescantia by Hofmeister and Carl Naegeli.
    • The credit for the discovery of chromosomes goes to Strasburger as he was the first to describe the chromosome structure seen in the nucleus during cell division.
    • Typically, chromosomes are rod-shaped, elongated, or point-shaped ranging in size from 0.5 to 32 micrometers.

Additional Information

  • In humans, each cell normally has 23 pairs of chromosomes, a total of 46.
    • Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both men and women.
    • The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females.
    • Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Where is the Vikramkhol Cave located?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

The correct answer is Odisha.
Key Points
Vikramkhol Cave is located near Jharsuguda, Odisha
and is situated in the reserved forest of Belpahar Range at a distance of 12 km from Belpahar.

  • The inscriptions at Vikramkhol Cave are written using red ocher paint on an uneven rock surface in a natural rock shelter, which is then carved into the rock.
  • The inscriptions were discovered around 1930 and first studied by Dr. K.P. Jaiswal.

Additional Information
Monuments of Odisha:

  • Sun Temple, Konark
  • Sri Jagannath Puri Temple, Puri
  • Dhauli, Bhubaneswar, Odisha
  • Barabati Fort, Cuttack
  • Khandagiri Caves, Bhubaneswar
  • Brahmeshwara Temple, Bhubaneswar
  • Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneswar
  • Sambalpur, Odisha Sambalpur
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding poverty in India:

1. While determining poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement, clothing, footwear, fuel and light, educational and medical requirements, etc. are determined for subsistence.

2. The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • While determining the poverty line in India, the minimum level of requirement of food, clothing, shoes, fuel and light, educational and medical requirements, etc. for subsistence is determined.
    • Based on these calculations, for the year 2000, the poverty line for a person was fixed at Rs. 328 per month for the rural areas and Rs. 454 for the urban areas.
    • It means a person living in rural areas and earning less than Rs. 328 per month will be below the poverty line. In the same way, a person living in urban areas and earning less than Rs. 454 per month will be below the poverty line.
  • The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) recommends 2400 kcal per person per day for rural areas and 2100 kcal for urban areas.
  • The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) uses a common minimum required calorie norm of 1800 kcal per person per day for both rural and urban populations.
  • Despite low-calorie requirements, high prices for many essential products in urban centers have led to higher intakes for urban areas.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 22
Which among the following Fundamental Rights is not suspended when an Emergency is declared?
Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

The correct answer is 1.Key Points

  • Effects on Fundamental Rights:
    • During a National Emergency, Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a national emergency on the Fundamental Rights.
    • Article 358 deals with suspension of Rights guaranteed by Article 19.
    • Article 359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights except thode guaranteed by Article 20 and 21.
    • Hence, Article 20 which gives protection in respect of conviction for offences and Article 21 which gives protection of life and personal liberty cannot be suspended.

Additional Information

  • Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution:
    • Types of Emergencies:
      • National Emergency (Article 352): Declared when there is a threat to the security of India or a part thereof due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
      • State Emergency (Article 356): Imposed on a state if the President is satisfied that the government in the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
      • Financial Emergency (Article 360): Declared when the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Which one among the following is the highest mountain in Africa?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

The correct answer is Mount Kilimanjaro.
Key Points

  • Mount Kilimanjaro is located in Tanzania, Africa.
    • Mount Kilimanjaro is the highest peak on the African continent at 5,895 meters (19,340 ft).
    • The majestic mountain is a snow-covered volcano.
    • Mount Kilimanjaro is the highest mountain in Africa.
    • Also called a stratovolcano (a term for a very large volcano made of ash, lava, and rock), Kilimanjaro is made up of three cones: Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira. Kibo is the peak of the mountain.

Additional Information

General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Consider the following statements about some planets in the solar system:

1. Mercury has no atmosphere.

2. Venus has two moons.

3. There is no land on Jupiter.

4. Rings of Saturn are composed of lumps of ice and dust.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

The correct answer is: 1,3 and 4.Key Points

  • Mercury has no atmosphere.
    • This statement is correct.
    • Mercury has a very thin and virtually nonexistent atmosphere.
    • It lacks a significant atmosphere compared to other planets.
  • Venus has two moons.
    • This statement is incorrect.
    • Venus does not have any moons.
    • Venus is the second planet from the sun.
    • It is sixth in the solar system in size and mass.
    • It is similar in structure but slightly smaller than Earth (Earth’s Twin).
    • Venus has a thick and toxic atmosphere that consists primarily of carbon dioxide, with clouds of sulfuric acid droplets.
    • Venus is one of just two planets that rotate from east to west. Only Venus and Uranus have this “backward” rotation.
    • It is the hottest planet in the solar system because of the high concentration of carbon dioxide which works to produce an intense greenhouse effect.
  • There is no land on Jupiter.
    • This statement is correct.
    • Jupiter is a gas giant, and it does not have a solid surface.
    • The outer layers of Jupiter are composed mainly of hydrogen and helium.
    • Fifth in line from the Sun, Jupiter is, by far, the largest planet in the solar system – more than twice as massive as all the other planets combined.
    • Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called Jovian or Gas Giant Planets.
    • Jupiter rotates once about every 10 hours (a Jovian day), but takes about 12 Earth years to complete one orbit of the Sun (a Jovian year).
    • Jupiter has more than 95 moons as of 2023.
    • The planet Jupiter's four largest moons are called the Galilean satellites after Italian astronomer Galileo Galilei, who first observed them in 1610.
    • These large moons, named Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto, are each distinctive world.
  • Rings of Saturn are composed of lumps of ice and dust.
    • This statement is correct.
    • Saturn is the sixth planet from the Sun and the second largest planet in our solar system.
    • It is not the only planet to have rings—made of chunks of ice and rock—but none are as spectacular or as complicated as Saturn's.
    • Saturn has the highest number of satellites or moon, i.e., 146 as of 2023 in the solar system.
    • Like fellow gas giant Jupiter, Saturn is a massive ball made mostly of hydrogen and helium.

Additional Information

  • Formation and Composition of Planetary Rings
    • Rings are believed to be formed from debris left over from the formation of the planet or from objects such as moons that were broken apart by the planet's gravity.
    • Saturn's rings are the most extensive and complex; other gas giants like Jupiter, Uranus, and Neptune also have ring systems, though less prominent.
  • key natural satellites of the major planets in our solar system:
    • Earth has a single natural satellite, known simply as the Moon.
    • Mars is accompanied by two small moons, Phobos and Deimos.
    • Jupiter hosts a vast number of moons, four of which are particularly noteworthy: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
    • Saturn, famous for its rings, also has many moons, with Titan and Enceladus as the most remarkable.
    • Uranus possesses moons like Titania and Oberon.
    • Neptune’s most significant moon is Triton.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

The correct answer is 1.
Key Points

  • Dilip Mahalanabis (posthumous):
    • Category (List II): Medicine (औषधि)
    • Contribution: Dilip Mahalanabis was a renowned pediatrician and public health researcher.
    • He dedicated his life to addressing malnutrition in children and founded the non-governmental organization "Child in Need Institute" (CINI) in Kolkata.
  • Sudha Murthy:
    • Category (List II): Social Work (सामाजिक कार्य)
    • Contribution: Sudha Murthy is a social worker, author, and the chairperson of the Infosys Foundation.
  • S.M. Krishna:
    • Category (List II): Public Affairs (सार्वजनिक मामले)
    • Contribution: S.M. Krishna is a veteran politician and has served in various capacities in Indian politics. He has been a Chief Minister of Karnataka, Governor of Maharashtra, and has held several ministerial positions at the state and central levels.
  • S.L. Bhyrappa:
    • Category (List II): Literature & Education (साहित्य और शिक्षा)
    • Contribution: S.L. Bhyrappa is a celebrated Kannada novelist and scholar.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Which of the following pairs of revolution in agriculture sector and its production are correctly matched?

1. Pink revolution : Shrimp production

2. Yellow revolution : Oilseeds production

3. Black revolution : Biodiesel production

4. Golden revolution : Egg production

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.Key Points

  • Pink Revolution is associated with onion, shrimp, meat and poultry products. Hence, the statement 1 is true.
  • The Yellow Revolution is associated with oilseed production. Hence, the statement 2 is true.
  • The Black Revolution is associated with Biodiesel production. Hence, the statement 3 is true.
  • Silver Revolution is related to Egg Production. Hence, the statement 4 is false.

Additional Information

  • Some Agricultural revolutions with their production is given below -
    • Protein Revolution:
      • Type: Higher Production (Technology-driven 2nd Green Revolution).
      • Commodity: General agricultural production with a focus on protein-rich sources.
      • Father: Coined by Narendra Modi and Arun Jaitley.
    • Yellow Revolution:
      • Type: Oilseed Production (Especially Mustard and Sunflower).
      • Commodity: Mustard and Sunflower, Edible Oil Production.
      • Father: Sam Pitroda.
    • Blue Revolution:
      • Type: Fish Production.
      • Commodity: Fisheries, Aquaculture.
      • Father: Dr. Arun Krishnan.
    • Brown Revolution:
      • Type: Leather, Cocoa, Non-Conventional Products.
      • Commodity: Diversification in agricultural products.
    • Golden Fiber Revolution:
      • Type: Jute Production.
      • Commodity: Jute, Fiber Industry.
    • Golden Revolution:
      • Type: Fruits, Honey Production, Horticulture Development.
      • Commodity: Fruits, Honey, Horticultural Products.
      • Leader: Nirpakh Tutej.
    • Grey Revolution:
      • Type: Fertilizers.
      • Commodity: Fertilizer Production.
    • Pink Revolution:
      • Type: Meat and Onion Production.
      • Commodity: Onions and Meat.
      • Leader: Durgesh Patel.
    • Silver Revolution:
      • Type: Egg Production, Poultry Production.
      • Commodity: Eggs, Poultry.
      • Leader: Indira Gandhi (Mother of the Revolution).
    • Silver Fiber Revolution:
      • Type: Cotton.
      • Commodity: Cotton, Textile Industry.
    • Round Revolution:
      • Type: Potato.
      • Commodity: Potatoes.
    • White Revolution:
      • Type: Milk Production.
      • Commodity: Dairy, Milk.
      • Leader: Verghese Kurien.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 27
What does India's "Blue growth" refer to?
Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

The correct answer is 3.Key Points

  • India's "Blue growth" refers to a long-term strategy aimed at fostering sustainable growth in the marine and maritime sectors.
  • This encompasses initiatives and policies directed towards the responsible and balanced development of activities related to oceans, seas, and coastal areas.
  • The focus is on promoting economic opportunities while ensuring the conservation of marine ecosystems and biodiversity.
  • "Blue Growth" is a concept that revolves around the sustainable and responsible development of various economic sectors related to oceans, seas, and coastal areas.
  • It aims to harness the potential of these marine and maritime resources for economic growth while ensuring environmental conservation.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Arrange the following events associated with Shivaji in chronological order:
1. Attack on Afzal Khan
2. Capture of Torna
3. Attack on Shaista Khan
4. Annexation of Javli
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

The correct answer is 2, 4, 1, 3.
Key Points
Capture of Torna:

  • This incident happened in 1646 when Shivaji was only 16 years old.
  • Torna was the first fort captured by Shivaji, marking the beginning of his military campaigns to establish an independent Maratha Empire.

Merger of Javali:

  • Shivaji captured the Javali region around 1656.
  • This expansion was part of his efforts to consolidate his kingdom and expand Maratha's influence in the Western Ghats.

Attack on Afzal Khan:

  • In 1659, Shivaji faced Afzal Khan, a general of the Adil Shahi dynasty, in a famous encounter near Pratapgarh.
  • Shivaji's courage and strategic skills led to the successful assassination of Afzal Khan, which was a significant moment in Shivaji's rise to power.

Attack on Shaista Khan:

  • In 1663, Shivaji launched a daring night attack on the Mughal governor Shaista Khan in Pune.
  • Although Shivaji managed to wound Shaista Khan, the governor survived and this incident further increased tensions between the Marathas and the Mughals.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Which of the following pairs is / are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.Key Points

  • Abyssinian Plateau (Correct): Located in Africa, it's a tectonic plateau, also known as the Ethiopian Highlands.
  • Patagonian Plateau (Incorrect): Patagonia is a region in South America, not Australia. The Patagonian Plateau is part of the Andes mountain system.
  • Anatolian Plateau (Correct): Situated in Asia, it's a tectonic plateau in Turkey.
  • Iberian Plateau (Incorrect): The Iberian Plateau is in Europe, primarily in Spain and Portugal, not North America.

Additional Information

  • Plateau:
  • A plateau is a flat or gently sloping elevated area that rises sharply above the surrounding land on at least one side.
  • Plateaus can be extensive or limited in size, and they are characterized by their relatively high elevation.
  • They often result from tectonic activity, erosion, or volcanic activity.
  • Types of Plateaus:
    • Dissected Plateaus: Characterized by deep valleys and gorges due to erosion.
    • Volcanic Plateaus: Formed by volcanic activity, often displaying lava plateaus.
    • Tectonic Plateaus: Result from uplifted tectonic plates.
  • Some Plateaus Worldwide:
    • Colorado Plateau (North America): Located in the western United States.
    • Deccan Plateau (Asia): In India, a large volcanic plateau.
    • Tibetan Plateau (Asia): Often referred to as the "Roof of the World," it's the world's highest plateau.
    • Columbia Plateau (North America): In the U.S. Pacific Northwest.
    • Brazilian Highlands (South America): Comprising plateaus in Brazil.
General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 30
In ovules of Angiosperms, which one of the following is not a haploid cell?
Detailed Solution for General Knowledge Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

The correct answer is Nucellus.

Key Points

  • The only option that is not a haploid cell in the ovule of an angiosperm is the nucellus.
  • Nucellus: In angiosperms, the nucellus is diploid (2n).
    • It surrounds and nourishes the female gametophyte (embryo sac) within the ovule.

Additional Information

  • Synergid: These are two haploid (n) cells located at the micropylar end of the embryo sac. They play a role in guiding the pollen tube toward the egg cell.
  • Egg: This is the single haploid (n) cell of the embryo sac which, if fertilized, develops into the embryo.
  • Antipodal:
    • These are three haploid (n) cells found at the opposite end of the embryo sac.
    • Their exact function is still unclear, but they may contribute to nutrient storage or hormone production.
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