General Knowledge Mock Test - 2 - CDS MCQ

The correct answer is Exploring joint logistics services

In News

• Container Corporation of India Limited (CONCOR) and Shipping Corporation of India Limited (SCI) signed an MoU on June 3, 2024, in Delhi.

Key Points

• The MoU aims to explore business opportunities by leveraging each other’s infrastructure and experience to offer customers seamless and cost-effective end-to-end logistics services under a single window.
• This agreement will enable CONCOR to venture into new areas such as international shipping, coastal shipping, Inland Waterways trade, and other related fields.
• CONCOR is a railways PSU engaged in the transportation and handling of containers, while SCI is a shipping PSU managing vessels servicing national and international lines.

Additional Information

• Container Corporation of India Limited (CONCOR) is an Indian public sector undertaking engaged in the transportation and handling of containers.
• Incorporated in March 1988 under the Companies Act, CONCOR commenced operations in November 1989, taking over an existing network of seven inland container depots (ICDs) from Indian Railways.
• CONCOR has subsidiaries, including Fresh & Healthy Enterprises Limited.
• The company was founded in March 1988 and has its headquarters in New Delhi.
• It is owned by the Government of India.
• Key personnel include Sh. Sanjay Swarup, the Chairman and Managing Director

The correct answer is Jordan.
Key Points
Geographical Location

• The Arabian Peninsula is a prominent peninsula in Southwest Asia, at the junction of Africa and Asia.
• Kuwait, Oman, and Yemen are countries located on the Arabian Peninsula, making them part of this geographic region.
• Jordan, however, is situated to the northwest of Saudi Arabia, making it not part of the Arabian Peninsula but rather part of the Levant region in the Middle East.
• The Arabian Peninsula is surrounded by the Red Sea to the west and southwest, the Persian Gulf to the northeast, and the Arabian Sea to the southeast.
• The significance of the Arabian Peninsula lies not only in its strategic geographical location but also in its rich oil reserves, making it a vital area of economic and geopolitical interest.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• The Levant is a geographical term that denotes a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean, which includes countries like Jordan, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine, and Syria.
• The Arabian Peninsula is mostly desert, with the Rub' al Khali (Empty Quarter) being one of the largest continuous sand deserts in the world.
• The region is historically significant as the birthplace of Islam, with the two holiest cities in Islam, Mecca and Medina, located in Saudi Arabia.
• Geopolitically, the Arabian Peninsula has been a focal point in global affairs due to its vast petroleum and natural gas reserves, influencing both regional and international politics.

The correct answer is 'Land that has been left fallow for more than five years'

Key Points

• Culturable Wasteland:
  • Culturable wasteland refers to land that is not currently being cultivated but can potentially be brought under cultivation.
  • This land has been left fallow for a period exceeding five years, which means it has not been tilled, sown, or used for agricultural production during this period.
  • Such land can be made productive again through interventions such as soil improvement, irrigation, and other agricultural practices.
  • Identifying and rehabilitating culturable wasteland is important for increasing agricultural productivity and ensuring food security.

Additional Information

• Other types of fallow land:
  • Land that has been left fallow in the last four years: This does not qualify as culturable wasteland as the period of being left uncultivated is shorter than five years. Such land might still retain fertility and require minimal intervention to return to agricultural use.
  • Land left fallow between one and two years: Known as current fallow, this land is often left unused to regain fertility and does not fall into the category of culturable wasteland.
  • Land left fallow for less than one year: This land is usually left uncultivated for a short period as part of crop rotation and soil management practices, and is not considered culturable wasteland.

Important Point

• Re​clamation of Culturable Wasteland: Efforts to bring culturable wastelands under cultivation may include measures like soil improvement, irrigation development, and the introduction of sustainable farming practices. These efforts contribute to land conservation and agricultural expansion.
• Government Initiatives: In many countries, including India, government programs aim to identify, reclaim, and develop culturable wastelands to boost agricultural output and support rural livelihoods. These initiatives often involve collaboration between government agencies, local communities, and international organizations.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Addressing the issue of culturable wastelands aligns with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, particularly SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) and SDG 15 (Life on Land), which emphasize sustainable agriculture practices and land use management.
• Technological Interventions: Advances in remote sensing and geographic information systems (GIS) technology have improved the capability to identify, map, and monitor culturable wastelands, facilitating targeted interventions for their reclamation and productive us

The correct answer is Al2O3.

Key PointsAmphoteric Oxides

• Amphoteric oxides are oxides that can act as both acids and bases. They can react with both acids and bases to produce salts and water.
• Aluminum oxide (Al2O3) is a classic example of an amphoteric oxide. It reacts with acids to form aluminum salts and water and with bases to form salts and water as well.
• For example, when Al2O3 reacts with hydrochloric acid (HCl), it forms aluminum chloride (AlCl₃) and water. When it reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it can form sodium aluminate (NaAlO₂) and water.
• This dual behavior is due to the electronic structure of the aluminum ion, which allows it to form covalent bonds with oxygen in acidic and basic environments.
• Magnesium oxide (MgO) and sodium oxide (Na₂O) are primarily basic oxides, while P₄O₁₀ is an acidic oxide, not demonstrate amphoteric properties.

Hence, the correct option is Al2O3.

Additional Information

• Basic oxides: These are oxides that react with acids to form salt and water. Examples include CaO (calcium oxide), which reacts with HCl to form calcium chloride and water.
• Acidic oxides: Oxides that react with bases to form salts and water. An example is SO₃ (sulfur trioxide), which reacts with NaOH to form sodium sulfate and water.
• Applications of Al₂O₃: Aluminum oxide has wide applications due to its physical and chemical properties. It is used as an abrasive in sandpapers, as a refractory material due to its high melting point, and in the production of aluminum metal.

The correct answer is Siddheshvara.

Key Points

• King Krishnadevaraya was a prominent ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire in South India, reigning from 1509 to 1529.
• He was known for his patronage of literature, art, and culture, and his court was adorned with many great poets and scholars.
• Timmana, Dhurjati, and Mallana were among the celebrated poets in his court, who contributed significantly to Telugu literature.
• Siddheshvara was not a known court poet of Krishnadevaraya. His name does not appear among the prominent literary figures patronized by the king.

Additional Information

• Timmana
  • Also known as Tenali Ramakrishna, he was a famous poet and scholar in the court of Krishnadevaraya.
  • He authored the work Parijatapaharanamu, a popular piece in Telugu literature.
• Dhurjati
  • Dhurjati was another eminent poet in Krishnadevaraya's court, known for his devotional works dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • His famous works include Sri Kalahasteeswara Mahatyam.
• Mallana
  • Mallana was a celebrated poet and scholar who was part of the "Ashtadiggajas," the eight great poets in Krishnadevaraya's court.
  • He contributed significantly to the literary and cultural heritage of the Vijayanagara Empire.

The correct answer is Kirana Gharana.

Key PointsPrabha Atre and Kirana Gharana

• Prabha Atre was a renowned classical singer and an exponent of the Kirana Gharana, one of the most influential gharanas in Indian classical music.
• The Kirana Gharana is known for its emphasis on the blending of melodic and rhythmic aspects of music, focusing particularly on the elaboration of ragas.
• Prabha Atre's music was characterized by her innovative style and technical finesse, which she brought to the traditional compositions of the Kirana Gharana.
• She was a versatile performer, adept at both classical and semi-classical forms like Thumri and Bhajan.
• Her contribution to Indian classical music includes not only her performances but also her role as an educator and author, enriching the musical landscape with her knowledge and expertise.

Additional Information

• The Kirana Gharana originated in the late 19th century and is named after Kirana or Kairana, a town in Uttar Pradesh, India. It has produced many legendary musicians.
• This gharana's distinctive feature is its pure and emotional rendition of ragas, achieved through a fine blend of khayal singing and tantrakari (instrumental virtuosity).
• Prabha Atre's approach to music was deeply influenced by her gurus and the tradition of the Kirana Gharana, yet she brought her own creativity to her performances, making her a beloved figure in the Indian classical music community.
• She was awarded several prestigious awards for her contribution to Indian classical music, including the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan, recognizing her as a leading figure in the promotion and preservation of Indian classical music.
• Prabha Atre's work in music education and literature includes writing books that serve as important resources for students and aficionados of Indian classical music, reflecting her dedication to spreading the knowledge and appreciation of this art form.

The correct answer is lysozyme.

Key PointsAntibacterial Enzyme in Saliva and Tears

• Lysozyme is a naturally occurring enzyme found in bodily secretions such as saliva, tears, and milk.
• It plays a crucial role in the body's immune system by protecting against bacterial infection.
• Lysozyme functions by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria, specifically targeting the peptidoglycan layer, leading to the lysis or dissolving of the bacterial cell.
• This enzyme is significant in both innate and adaptive immunity as it is one of the first lines of defense against microbial invasion.
• Its presence in tears and saliva is particularly important for protecting the eyes and oral cavity from bacterial infections.
• Lysozyme's antibacterial properties have been utilized in food preservation, medicine, and veterinary science to combat bacterial infections and preserve the shelf life of perishable goods.

Hence, the correct option is lysozyme.

Additional Information

• Ribozyme is a type of RNA that can catalyze chemical reactions, often involved in the synthesis and modification of RNA itself within the cell.
• Lipase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fats into glycerol and free fatty acids, playing a critical role in digestion and lipid metabolism.
• Isomerase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of a molecule from one isomer to another, including structural rearrangements within a molecule.
• The study of enzymes like lysozyme contributes significantly to our understanding of immune system functioning and provides insights into developing new therapeutic approaches for bacterial infections.
• Lysozyme's ability to lyse bacteria without harming human cells makes it an attractive component in creating antibacterial treatments that are less likely to contribute to antibiotic resistance, a growing concern in the medical community.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key PointsRight to Legal Aid

• The Constitution of India includes the right to legal aid under the Directive Principles of State Policy. This is found in Article 39A of the Constitution, which emphasizes that the state should ensure that the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
  • As such, the statement that under the Constitution of India, the right to legal aid is given under the Directive Principles of State Policy is Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The second statement regarding the duty of the police to inform the nearest Legal Aid Committee immediately after the arrest of a person is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. This is more a procedural aspect that might be covered under different laws and regulations pertaining to the criminal justice system, and the specific practices can vary. However, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) in India does mandate that a person arrested without a warrant must be informed of the grounds of arrest, and must have the right to consult a lawyer of their choice, which aligns with the broader principle of legal aid.
  • However, the direct obligation of the police to inform the nearest Legal Aid Committee immediately after arrest is not a constitutional provision but is part of procedural laws and guidelines issued by various authorities. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The concept of legal aid is crucial for ensuring access to justice for all citizens, especially the poor and marginalized. It includes not just representation in court but also legal advice, education, and awareness.
• Article 39A was introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, emphasizing the commitment of the state to a fair legal system.
• The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted by the Parliament to give effect to Article 39A. This Act provides for a statutory base for legal aid programs throughout the country on a uniform pattern.
• This Act establishes a nationwide network of legal services authorities and committees from the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) at the top, to the State Legal Services Authorities, District Legal Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Committees, High Court Legal Services Committees, and Supreme Court Legal Services Committee to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
• The principle behind legal aid is that justice should not be denied to any citizen because of economic or other disabilities. This is an essential aspect of any fair and just legal system that aims to uphold the rule of law and ensure equality before the law.

The correct answer is UNHCR.

• UNHCR (United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees): The UNHCR has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice:
  • First in 1954
  • Second in 1981 for their continued work to aid refugees for three decades.

• Explanation for Other Options:
  • IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change): Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once, in 2007.
  • IAEA (International Atomic Energy Agency): Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once, in 2005.
  • UNICEF (United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund): Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once, in 1965.

The correct answer is Shooting.

• Yogesh Singh: He won gold medals in two shooting events at the Asian Shooting Championships 2024.
• India's Yogesh Singh won a gold medal in the men's 25m standard pistol event at the Asian Shooting Championships 2024 in Jakarta, Indonesia.
• Competing in a 20-shooter field in the non-Olympic shooting discipline, Yogesh Singh shot an impressive 572 to claim the top prize.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2

Key Points

• Part III of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Rights, which are guaranteed to the citizens of India. These rights are enforceable by the courts, ensuring protection against any arbitrary action or inaction by the state.
• The first statement acknowledges that individuals can enforce their rights against actions of government authorities that violate their Fundamental Rights. This is a basic feature of a constitutional democracy that ensures the state's power is limited and accountable.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The second statement extends this enforceability to cases of inaction by the government. If the government fails to perform its duties resulting in the violation of an individual's Fundamental Rights, such inaction can also be challenged in the courts. This ensures that the government cannot escape its responsibilities by merely being passive.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Therefore, both statements correctly interpret the scope of Part III of the Constitution of India, emphasizing the comprehensive protection it offers against both action and inaction by the government that infringes upon Fundamental Rights.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution of India include the Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right Against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) empowers the citizens to move to a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights. This right has been described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution.
• The Doctrine of State Action implies that the actions or inactions of the state can be challenged in a court of law if they infringe upon the Fundamental Rights of individuals. This doctrine is central to understanding the applicability of Fundamental Rights against the state.
• Public Interest Litigation (PIL) has been a crucial tool in the hands of the public to seek judicial redress for the enforcement of both public duties by the government and the Fundamental Rights of individuals.
• The Constitution not only guarantees the protection of rights but also imposes duties on the state to ensure the creation of conditions where every citizen can enjoy their rights fully.

The correct answer is Red blood cells.

Key PointsCharacteristics of Red Blood Cells (RBCs)

• Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, are distinctive among human body cells as they lack a nucleus in their mature form.
• These cells are responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and returning carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation.
• RBCs have a unique biconcave shape that increases their surface area for oxygen exchange and allows them to deform as they navigate through the body's capillaries.
• The absence of a nucleus and other organelles in mature red blood cells provides more space for hemoglobin, the protein that binds oxygen. This specialization enhances their oxygen-carrying capacity.
• The lifespan of an RBC is about 120 days. After this, they are broken down and recycled by the spleen and liver.
• Red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow through a process called erythropoiesis, controlled by the hormone erythropoietin.
• Anemia can result from a decrease in RBC count or hemoglobin, leading to reduced oxygen transport to the body's tissues. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Muscle cells contain nuclei and are specialized for contraction. Skeletal muscle cells, for instance, are multinucleated.
• Phagocytic cells, such as macrophages, play a crucial role in the body's immune response by ingesting harmful pathogens. These cells have a nucleus.
• Ciliated cells are characterized by the presence of cilia on their surface and are found in various parts of the body, such as the respiratory tract, where they help move mucus and trapped particles out of the lungs. Ciliated cells also contain a nucleus.
• The process of erythropoiesis is stimulated by low oxygen levels in the blood, detected by the kidneys, which then secrete erythropoietin to increase RBC production.
• Hemoglobin within RBCs not only transports oxygen but also plays a role in the transport of carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions, which are crucial for maintaining the body's acid-base balance.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key PointsAnalysis of Statements

• Most of India's reserves being held in the form of foreign currency is a reflection of the country's strategy to manage its international trade and foreign exchange rates effectively. Foreign currency reserves are crucial for a country's economic stability, allowing it to pay off international debts, influence exchange rates, and maintain confidence in its financial markets.
  • These reserves are typically held in major global currencies like the US dollar, Euro, and British Pound, among others. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Contrary to the second statement, there is indeed a cost of holding foreign currency as reserves. This cost comes in various forms such as the opportunity cost of not investing these funds in potentially higher-yielding assets or domestic development projects. Additionally, there are actual costs associated with the management and security of these reserves.
  • Moreover, holding large amounts of a foreign currency can expose a country to currency risk if the value of that currency depreciates significantly. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The composition of a country's reserves is a strategic decision influenced by factors like trade patterns, currency stability, and economic policy goals. Foreign currency reserves play a pivotal role in ensuring a country's economic security and are a key indicator of its ability to engage in international trade.
• Opportunity cost is a critical concept in economics and finance, referring to the potential benefits an individual, investor, or business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another. In the context of holding foreign currency reserves, the opportunity cost could be significant, especially for developing countries that could have otherwise used these funds for infrastructure, education, or healthcare.
• Currency risk, also known as exchange rate risk, arises from the change in the price of one currency against another. Countries managing large foreign currency reserves must carefully navigate this risk to protect the value of their assets.
• Understanding the dynamics of foreign exchange reserves is crucial for policy-making, especially in developing economies that are more vulnerable to external shocks. These reserves serve as a buffer against economic crises, allowing countries to support their national currencies when needed.

The correct answer is Fall of temperature due to increased particulates.

Key Points

• Global dimming is a phenomenon characterized by a decrease in the amount of solar radiation reaching the Earth's surface, which has been observed since the mid-20th century.
• This dimming effect is largely attributed to increased particulates in the atmosphere, which include pollutants like sulfates, soot, and other aerosols.
• These particulates increase the Earth's albedo, or the reflectivity of the Earth's surface and atmosphere, causing more of the Sun's energy to be reflected back into space rather than warming the Earth.
• As a result, global dimming can lead to a fall in temperature on Earth, counteracting some of the effects of global warming to an extent.
• It also has impacts on climate patterns, possibly leading to altered precipitation patterns and reduced evaporation, affecting water resources and agricultural productivity.

The correct answer is quantum computers.

Key Points

• A qubit, or quantum bit, is the fundamental unit of quantum information in quantum computing.
• Unlike a classic binary bit, which can exist in one of two states (0 or 1), a qubit can exist simultaneously in multiple states due to quantum superposition.
• This property allows quantum computers to process a vast amount of information at once, making them potentially much more powerful than classical computers for certain tasks.
• Quantum entanglement, another quantum phenomenon, allows qubits that are entangled to be correlated with each other regardless of the distance separating them. This is integral for quantum computing and quantum cryptography.
• Current research and development in quantum computing are focused on harnessing these properties for applications in cryptography, modeling, and solving complex computational problems that are infeasible for classical computers.

Additional Information

• Classical computers
  • Classical computers use the traditional binary data system (bits), which can be either a 0 or a 1.
  • They are powerful for a wide range of tasks, including general-purpose computing and running of software applications, but are limited by binary processing for specific complex computations.
• Classical cryptography
  • Relies on traditional mathematical computations for encryption and security.
  • While quantum computers pose a threat to classical cryptography due to their potential to break existing encryption methods, classical forms are still widely used and effective for most current security needs.
• Lasers
  • Lasers emit light through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation.
  • While they have applications in various areas of science and technology, including in creating quantum states for research, they do not inherently involve qubits or quantum computing.

The correct answer is Platelets.

Key PointsBlood Clotting Factors

• Blood clotting factors are critical components in the process of blood coagulation, which prevents excessive bleeding when the vascular system is injured.
• Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are the cellular components of the blood primarily responsible for the release of blood clotting factors.
• Upon vascular injury, platelets adhere to the site of injury, activate, aggregate, and form a plug. During this process, they release clotting factors that further strengthen the clot.
• Clotting factors include various proteins, such as fibrinogen (Factor I), prothrombin (Factor II), and Factor VIII, among others, which work in a cascade to form a stable blood clot.
• Platelets contain granules that, when activated, secrete substances critical for coagulation and wound healing, such as calcium ions, which are essential for the clotting process.
• While RBCs (Red Blood Cells), Eosinophils, and Monocytes play roles in oxygen transport, immune response, and phagocytosis respectively, they do not release clotting factors.

Hence, the statement that platelets release blood clotting factors is correct.

Additional Information

• Coagulation Cascade: The process of blood clotting involves a series of enzymatic reactions that lead to the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin, forming a stable clot. This cascade is divided into three pathways: the intrinsic, extrinsic, and common pathways.
• Role of Calcium in Coagulation: Calcium ions (Ca²⁺) are vital for the coagulation cascade, acting as a cofactor for various clotting factors and enabling their proper function during the formation of a blood clot.
• Hemophilia: A genetic disorder characterized by the deficiency of clotting factors, leading to prolonged bleeding. Hemophilia A involves a deficiency of Factor VIII, whereas Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) involves a deficiency of Factor IX.
• Thrombocytopenia: A condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to impaired clot formation and increased bleeding risk. It highlights the essential role of platelets in hemostasis and wound healing processes.
• Anticoagulants: Medications such as warfarin or heparin that work by inhibiting the action of clotting factors, used therapeutically to prevent blood clots in conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism (PE), and atrial fibrillation.

The correct answer is 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water.

Key PointsVinegar Composition

• Vinegar is a versatile ingredient used in the culinary world, known for its acidic taste and preservative properties.
• It is primarily a 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water, which is produced through the fermentation process.
• The process involves the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria, which converts alcohol into acetic acid, giving vinegar its characteristic sour taste and smell.
• Aside from its use in cooking, vinegar is also used for cleaning, medicinal purposes, and as a natural preservative due to its antimicrobial properties.
• The concentration of acetic acid in vinegar can vary depending on the type and purpose, but for culinary uses, it typically ranges from 5% to 8%.

Hence, the correct option is 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water.

Additional Information

• Fermentation Process: The conversion of ethanol to acetic acid is a key step in vinegar production. This biological process is facilitated by Acetobacter, a genus of acetic acid bacteria.
• Types of Vinegar: There are various types of vinegar, including but not limited to, apple cider vinegar, white vinegar, balsamic vinegar, and rice vinegar. Each type has its unique flavor profile and uses in cooking.
• Health Benefits: Vinegar, particularly apple cider vinegar, is often touted for its potential health benefits, including weight loss, improved digestion, and blood sugar regulation. However, scientific evidence supporting these claims is mixed.
• Cleaning and Disinfecting: Due to its acidic nature, vinegar is an effective natural cleaner and disinfectant. It is commonly used in eco-friendly cleaning solutions for its ability to kill bacteria and remove odors.
• Preservation: The antimicrobial properties of vinegar make it an excellent preservative for pickling vegetables, fruits, and other food items, extending their shelf life by inhibiting the growth of bacteria.

The Correct answer is Argentina.

Key Points

• The Government of India has entered into an agreement with Argentina for a lithium exploration and mining project.
• This agreement is part of India's strategy to secure critical minerals and diversify its sources of lithium.
• Argentina is one of the leading countries in the world with significant lithium reserves, particularly in the Lithium Triangle region.
• The agreement aims to enhance bilateral cooperation between India and Argentina in the mining sector.
• India is looking to boost its electric vehicle (EV) industry and renewable energy projects, which require a steady supply of lithium for batteries.
• This collaboration is expected to help India meet its domestic lithium demand and reduce dependence on other countries.

Additional Information

• Brazil
  • Brazil is known for its rich natural resources, including significant deposits of iron ore, gold, and bauxite.
  • It is not a leading country in lithium reserves compared to Argentina.
  • Brazil has strong agricultural and mining sectors, contributing significantly to its economy.
• Australia
  • Australia is a major global player in the mining industry, particularly known for its extensive lithium reserves.
  • It is one of the world's largest producers of lithium, primarily from the Greenbushes lithium mine in Western Australia.
  • Australia has well-established mining infrastructure and technology for lithium extraction.
• Chile
  • Chile is part of the Lithium Triangle in South America, alongside Argentina and Bolivia, and has vast lithium reserves.
  • It is one of the world's largest producers of lithium, with significant operations in the Salar de Atacama.
  • Chile's lithium is crucial for the global supply chain of batteries and electric vehicles.

The correct answer is Mg > Al > Zn > Fe.

Key PointsReactivity with HCI

• The reactivity of metals with hydrochloric acid (HCI) depends on their position in the reactivity series. The reactivity series is a list of metals arranged in order of decreasing reactivity.
• Magnesium (Mg) is more reactive than aluminum (Al), zinc (Zn), and iron (Fe) with HCI. This is because magnesium is higher up in the reactivity series.
• Aluminum (Al), though protected by an oxide layer, reacts with HCI once this layer is penetrated, making it more reactive than zinc and iron.
• Zinc (Zn) reacts with HCI to form zinc chloride (ZnCl₂) and hydrogen gas (H₂), but its reactivity is less than Mg and Al.
• Iron (Fe) is the least reactive among the given metals with HCI, reacting to form iron(II) chloride (FeCl₂) and hydrogen gas.

Additional Information

• The reactivity series is an essential concept in chemistry that predicts the outcome of reactions between metals and other substances. It helps in understanding which metal can displace another in a chemical reaction.
• Hydrochloric acid (HCI) is a strong acid that reacts with metals above hydrogen in the reactivity series to produce salt and hydrogen gas.
• The reaction of metals with HCI is an example of a single displacement reaction, where a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its compound.
• Understanding the reactivity of metals with acids like HCI is crucial in various applications, including metal extraction, corrosion prevention, and manufacturing of chemicals.
• The protective oxide layer on aluminum makes it less reactive initially, but once this layer is removed or penetrated, aluminum becomes quite reactive due to its relatively high position in the reactivity series.

The correct answer is Cotton textiles.
Key Points
Impact of Deindustrialisation on Indian Industries in the 19th Century

• The 19th century was a period of significant economic transformation in India, marked by the deindustrialisation of its traditional industries due to the colonial policies of the British Empire.
• Cotton textiles, one of India's ancient and flourishing industries, was severely impacted by deindustrialisation. This industry had a long-standing reputation for producing high-quality cotton products, which were in demand both domestically and internationally.
  • British policies favoured the import of cotton fabrics from Britain to India, imposing heavy duties on Indian cotton goods and thus undermining the local industry. Hence, option B is correct.
• The iron and steel industry in India was not yet fully developed in the 19th century, and thus, while affected, its impact was not as significant compared to the traditional industries like silk and cotton.
• Woolen manufacture in India was less prominent compared to silk and cotton, and thus, while affected, it did not face the level of impact seen in the silk industry.

Additional Information

• The process of deindustrialisation was characterized by the decline of India's traditional industries due to a combination of colonial exploitation, discriminatory tariffs, and the influx of cheaper British manufactured goods.
• Deindustrialisation had a profound impact on the Indian economy, leading to increased unemployment, loss of skilled artisans, and a shift towards agriculture as the primary source of livelihood for many, further exacerbating economic challenges.
• The British colonial rule systematically dismantled the Indian handloom industry to create a market for their manufactured goods, leading to a significant socio-economic shift and contributing to the economic underdevelopment of India during the colonial period.
• Understanding the impact of deindustrialisation is crucial for comprehending the broader historical context of economic policies under British colonial rule and their long-term effects on India's economic development.

The correct answer is proteins.
Key Points
Thermal Denaturation of Proteins in Eggs

• The process of cooking eggs involves heating, which causes the transparent liquid portion around the yolk to turn solid and become turbid white. This transformation is a result of the thermal denaturation of proteins, specifically the egg white proteins such as ovalbumin.
• Thermal denaturation is a process where proteins lose their tertiary and secondary structure due to the application of heat, leading to the unfolding of the protein molecules.
• As the proteins unfold, they expose their hydrophobic regions to water, which causes them to aggregate and form a solid structure. This is what causes the egg whites to turn from liquid to solid.
• The primary protein in egg white, ovalbumin, constitutes about 54% of the protein content and is the main component responsible for the coagulation and whitening effect.
• Denaturation is not limited to the application of heat. It can also occur due to mechanical action, pH changes, or the presence of certain chemicals, but in the context of cooking eggs, heat is the primary factor.

Hence, statement B is correct.
Additional Information

• Proteins are large biomolecules, or macromolecules, consisting of one or more long chains of amino acid residues. They perform a vast array of functions within organisms, including catalyzing metabolic reactions, DNA replication, responding to stimuli, and transporting molecules from one location to another.
• Eggs are considered a complete protein source, meaning they provide all nine essential amino acids necessary for the human diet. This makes them an important food source globally.
• The denaturation of proteins is not only crucial in cooking but also in biological processes and the manufacturing of pharmaceuticals, where control of protein folding and structure is essential.
• Ovalbumin, along with other proteins like ovotransferrin and ovomucoid, contributes to the unique cooking properties of eggs, making them versatile ingredients in culinary arts.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Key Points

• The GDP deflator is a measure of the level of prices of all new, domestically produced, final goods and services in an economy in a year. It is not confined to a fixed basket of goods and services but applies to all goods and services produced domestically. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The GDP deflator can indeed be used to measure the inflation rate by showing how much prices have changed since a base year. It is calculated by dividing the nominal GDP by the real GDP and then multiplying by 100.
• The real GDP of the economy is calculated by adjusting the nominal GDP for inflation, and the GDP deflator is used in this process.
• Thus, indicating that the GDP deflator can be used to measure the real GDP is correct, but the statement as presented in the question is phrased to suggest that it cannot, which is incorrect. Hence, statement 2 is also incorrect.

Additional Information

• The GDP deflator is considered a broad measure of inflation within the economy, as it reflects the prices of all goods and services produced domestically. It differs from the Consumer Price Index (CPI) in that CPI only measures the prices of goods and services bought by consumers, excluding investment goods and government services, and can include imported goods.
• Nominal GDP is the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation. It is usually higher than real GDP in an inflationary environment because it reflects prices that have not been adjusted for inflation.
• Real GDP is adjusted for inflation and reflects the true value of goods and services in an economy, allowing for comparisons across different time periods without the distortion of changing price levels.

The correct answer is butane > cyclohexane > pentane > hexane.

Key Points

To determine the correct order of octane numbers among butane, pentane, hexane, and cyclohexane, let's consider the general properties and typical octane ratings for each:

• Butane (n-butane) - Typically, butane has a relatively high octane rating. For instance, n-butane has an octane rating of around 94 (Research Octane Number, RON).
• Pentane (n-pentane) - Pentane usually has a lower octane rating compared to butane. n-Pentane, for example, has an octane rating of around 62.
• Hexane (n-hexane) - Hexane's octane rating is generally lower than that of pentane, with n-hexane typically around 25.
• Cyclohexane - Cyclohexane tends to have a lower octane rating than the other listed alkanes. It's typically used as a reference with a very low octane rating, around 82.

Given this information, the correct order of octane numbers from highest to lowest among these compounds is:

• Butane (highest)
• Cyclohexane
• Pentane
• Hexane (lowest)

Thus, the correct answer, based on the typical octane ratings, would be: 3) butane > cyclohexane > pentane > hexane

Additional Information

• The concept of octane rating was developed by chemist Russell Marker in the 1920s. The octane number is a measure of a fuel's ability to resist "knocking" or "pinging" during combustion, caused by the air/fuel mixture detonating prematurely in the engine.
• In the context of engine performance, fuels with higher octane numbers are preferred for high-performance engines to prevent knocking, which can lead to engine damage over time.
• The octane rating of a fuel can be increased by refining processes such as isomerization, which increases the proportion of branched-chain hydrocarbons, or by adding anti-knock agents like lead tetraethyl (although its use has been greatly reduced for environmental reasons).

The correct answer is They are non-biodegradable.

Key Points

• Plastics are synthetic or semi-synthetic materials that are durable and resistant to many natural processes of degradation, making them non-biodegradable.
• Their resistance to biodegradation results in a long-lasting presence in the environment, contributing to pollution on land and in water bodies.
• This property leads to significant environmental problems, including soil and water pollution, harm to marine and wildlife, and the accumulation of non-decomposable waste in landfills.
• The chemical structure of plastics is such that microorganisms in the environment cannot easily break them down, resulting in their accumulation over time.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsThe International Court of Justice (ICJ)

• The ICJ, also known as the World Court, is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
• It was established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in 1946.
• The court's role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted by states, and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized UN organs and specialized agencies.
• The Court consists of 15 judges, elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These two bodies vote simultaneously but independently of each other, and candidates need to obtain an absolute majority in both to be elected.
• No two judges may be nationals of the same country at the time of their election, ensuring the representation of the main forms of civilization and the principal legal systems of the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The General Assembly and the Security Council are involved in the election process of the ICJ judges. They proceed independently of one another to elect the members of the Court. This unique voting arrangement was designed to ensure the independence of the judiciary from the political organs of the United Nations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The ICJ is located in the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
• It is the only one of the six principal organs of the United Nations not located in New York City.
• This setting underscores its independence from the political operations of the United Nations.
• Only countries (states) may be parties in cases before the ICJ, which has led to a significant body of case law on issues such as land disputes, maritime boundaries, and diplomatic relations.
• The ICJ's advisory role also plays a critical function in the development and interpretation of international law. Advisory opinions have covered a wide range of legal issues, including the legality of nuclear weapons, the legality of the threat or use of nuclear weapons, and the legal consequences of the construction of a wall in the Occupied Palestinian Territory.

The correct answer is Nilgiri.

Key PointsNilgiri Biosphere Reserve

• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is a unique and fascinating region in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills in South India. It is renowned for its ecological significance and biodiversity conservation.
• It spans across three states in India: Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala, making it the first and most prominent biosphere reserve in India to cover multiple states.
• The reserve encompasses a protected area of over 5,520 square kilometers, providing habitat for numerous species of flora and fauna, including several endangered and endemic species.
• It was declared as a UNESCO World Biosphere Reserve in 2000, highlighting its global importance for conservation and sustainable development.
• The region is characterized by varied ecosystems, ranging from tropical moist forests to montane grasslands, which support a rich diversity of life forms.
• It plays a crucial role in the conservation of several key species like the Tiger, Asian Elephant, and the Nilgiri Tahr.
• Cultural significance is also paramount in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, with indigenous communities such as the Toda, Kurumba, and others, maintaining their traditional lifestyles that are closely linked with the natural environment.

Hence, the statement regarding Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve spreading over three States in India is correct.

Additional Information

• Biosphere Reserves are areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems promoting solutions to reconcile the conservation of biodiversity with its sustainable use. They are internationally recognized, nominated by national governments and remain under the sovereign jurisdiction of the states where they are located.
• UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme works with international governmental and non-governmental organizations, as well as local communities, to develop Biosphere Reserves as sites for testing interdisciplinary approaches to understanding and managing changes and interactions between social and ecological systems, including conflict prevention and management of biodiversity.
• The Western Ghats, where the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is located, is recognized as one of the world’s eight ‘hottest hotspots’ of biological diversity.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only
Key Points

• The Jorwe culture predominantly covered what is now modern Maharashtra, excluding the coastal region known as the Konkan district. This coverage highlights its extensive influence across the interior regions but not in maritime areas. Hence, statement A is correct.
• Archaeological evidence suggests that the Pravara-Godavari valleys were a central area for the Jorwe culture, indicating a concentration of settlements and cultural activities. This area's geographic and environmental features likely supported the sustenance and growth of the culture. Hence, statement B is correct.
• The assertion that large sites of the Jorwe culture show evidence of shifting agriculture is not strongly supported by the archaeological record, which instead points to more established forms of agriculture. The absence of clear evidence for shifting cultivation practices among the large, settled communities of this culture negates this statement. Hence, statement C is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The Jorwe culture, identified mainly through its distinctive red and black pottery, is dated from around 1400 to 700 BCE. It marks a significant phase in the early history of peninsular India, transitioning from the later prehistoric to the early historic periods.
• Key sites like Daimabad not only provide evidence of well-organized settlements but also of socio-political structures and metallurgy, especially with respect to iron, which underlines technological advancements during this period.
• The culture’s spread and societal organization suggest a complex agrarian economy supported by irrigation and crop rotation, rather than primitive shifting agriculture. This reflects a more advanced stage of agricultural development aligned with urbanization trends in ancient India.
• Preservation efforts for archaeological sites associated with the Jorwe culture are crucial for understanding the cultural heritage of Maharashtra. These efforts are often governed by policies and guidelines from bodies like the Archaeological Survey of India, under the purview of the Ministry of Culture.
• Research into the Jorwe culture helps scholars trace the developmental trajectory of society in the Deccan region of India, illustrating the growth from small, agrarian communities to more complex societies with significant craft specialization and trade practices.

The correct answer is Axiom Station.

Key Points

• The Axiom Station is set to become the first commercial space station, marking a significant milestone in the commercialization of space.
• Unlike the International Space Station (ISS), which is a multinational collaborative project involving five participating space agencies: NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe), and CSA (Canada), Axiom Station is being developed by a private company, Axiom Space.
• Axiom Space's vision includes not only providing research and manufacturing facilities in low Earth orbit but also promoting space tourism and eventually serving as a hub for missions to deeper space.
• The station is planned to attach initially to the ISS, leveraging the existing infrastructure, before eventually becoming a fully independent, commercial space station.
• Galileo and Voyager 1 are unrelated to commercial space stations; Galileo is a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) used for positioning, while Voyager 1 is a space probe launched by NASA to study the outer Solar System and interstellar space.

Hence, the correct option is Axiom Station.

Additional Information

• The International Space Station (ISS) has been in operation since 1998 and represents the longest continuous human presence in low Earth orbit, serving as a model for international cooperation in space.
• Axiom Space's initiative to build a commercial space station highlights the growing trend of private-sector participation in space exploration, a domain that was traditionally dominated by government space agencies.
• Commercial space stations like Axiom Station are expected to play a crucial role in the future of space exploration, including providing platforms for scientific research, manufacturing in microgravity conditions, and facilitating commercial space tourism.
• The development of commercial space habitats is also seen as a stepping stone for human colonization of other planets, with companies and researchers exploring how to sustain human life in space for extended periods.
• Space tourism is becoming an increasingly tangible reality, with companies such as SpaceX, Blue Origin, and Virgin Galactic working towards making space accessible to non-professional astronauts.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a significant multilateral organization aimed at fostering cooperation in political, economic, and security matters among its member states.
• One of the primary goals of the SCO is indeed to promote a new democratic, fair, and rational international political and economic order. This objective is aligned with the organization's broader vision to enhance mutual trust, neighborliness, and friendship among member countries.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Iran has officially become a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) during an India-hosted virtual summit of the influential grouping in 2023.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The SCO was established in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
• India and Pakistan became full members of the SCO in 2017, highlighting the organization's expanding influence and the growing interest of South Asian countries in participating in regional security and economic frameworks.
• The SCO focuses on several key areas, including anti-terrorism, security, economic cooperation, and cultural exchange. These priorities reflect the organization's comprehensive approach to fostering stable and prosperous relations among its members.
• The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, is a specialized SCO agency dedicated to promoting cooperation among member states against terrorism, separatism, and extremism.

The correct answer is K. M. Cariappa.

Key Points

• Field Marshal Kodandera Madappa Cariappa was the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army after independence.
• He took over as Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army from General Sir Francis Butcher, the last British Commander-in-Chief of India, on 15 January 1949.
• This day is celebrated as Army Day in India every year in recognition of Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa's taking over as the first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army from General Sir Francis Butcher.
• Field Marshal Cariappa's leadership was instrumental in shaping the early years of the Indian Army post-independence.
• He is also one of the only two Indian Army officers to hold the highest rank of Field Marshal; the other being Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw.

Hence, the correct answer is K. M. Cariappa.

Additional Information

• The role of the Commander-in-Chief is critical in the defense architecture of a country, being the highest-ranking officer in the armed forces and responsible for the overall operational command.
• Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa’s tenure is remembered for his emphasis on discipline, secularism, and a professional approach towards the armed forces.
• He was known for his strict adherence to the principle of civilian control over the military, laying the foundation for a democratic and professional military ethos in independent India.
• Field Marshal Cariappa's legacy includes not only his military achievements but also his humanitarian approach, including his efforts towards the welfare of soldiers and his stance on human rights during military operations.
• The rank of Field Marshal is the highest rank in the Indian Army. It is a ceremonial or wartime rank, and as of the last update, has been conferred on only two officers.