NDA I - English & General Ability 2013


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA I - English & General Ability 2013


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This mock test of NDA I - English & General Ability 2013 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA I - English & General Ability 2013 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA I - English & General Ability 2013 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA I - English & General Ability 2013 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA I - English & General Ability 2013 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

In this sentence, he wondered that what seems totally wrong as in English grammar what is never used after that. It does not seem necessary as directly what can be used after wondered. Other phrases don't have any error.

QUESTION: 3

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

The nation should be grateful to the armed forces for protecting them.

QUESTION: 4

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

In this particular sentence, it is to be noted that the sentence is of assertive type. Thus in an assertive type sentence, any phrase cannot be in interrogative form. Thus what is he doing sounds more like a question than a statement. Thus it is clear that error is in option (b).

QUESTION: 5

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

In this item option c has error as it suggests a person going to "the" bed. We cannot use the for bed in general sense. It is not about a particular or exclusive bed that we are talking about or he goes to for the last ten years. Thus option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 6

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

Here option (b) has the error in the usage of took down. Here the sentence means that soon has inherited his father's position. But for inheriting someone's position, we use the phrasal verb took up, not took down. Took down does not make any sense in this sentence. Thus option (b) is the answer.

QUESTION: 7

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

Called to question is an absolutely wrong phrase.Called for questioning should be the correct alternative as a person is called for an activity not "called" to as "for" relates to the purpose of calling. To hints out addressing someone. Thus to is not appropriate suggesting option (c) to be the correct answer.

QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

In this question option (c) has error as between does not have a preposition before it. And it looks a little vague. We are referring to the space in between the weekends, not just weekends itself. Thus in should be used before between. Thus option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

This question has no error. Thus option (d) is the answer.

QUESTION: 10

DIRECTIONS:

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. Theremaybea word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

Solution:

In this sentence unnecessary usage of the word completely has been done. When a document is confidential, it is understood that it is confidential on the whole. No clauses whatsoever. Thus completely confidential is incorrect itself Thus option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 11

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. A wise man puts past RANCOUR behind and moves ahead,

Solution:

The word rancour (noun) means bitterness or resentfulness which is long standing. Option (a) dislike means to detest which is a verb. Option (b) hatred is a noun and has a similar meaning to the word rancour. Division means separation or partition. Criticism means condemnation. Thus we see that out of the list provided the closest meaning to rancour is option (c), hatred.

QUESTION: 12

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. Many of the villagers were ISOLATED by heavy showers of rains.

Solution:

The word isolated is an adjective which means cut-off or lonely. Option (a) destroyed is an adjective which means devastated. Option (b) separated from others also seems very close to the word lonely. Battered means shabby and tattered which has no connection with the word lonely. The word devastated means destroyed. Out of the given synonyms the closest to isolated is option (b) separated from others.

QUESTION: 13

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. A series of COLUMNS supporting a large porch is typical of medieval architecture.

Solution:

The word in question, columns give a picture of vertical straight lines. Another meaning would be an upright pillar, typically cylindrical, supporting an arch, entablature, or other structure or standing alone as a monument. Option (a) statue means a carved or cast figure of a person or animal, especially one that is life- size or larger. Option (b) arches pertains to a curved masonry construction for spanning an opening, consisting of a number of wedge like stones, bricks.Pillars means tall vertical structures of stone, wood, or metal. Murals mean paintings or other works of art executed directly on a wall. Thus we derive from the above explanations that pillars is the closest in meaning to the word columns.

QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. Trees that BLOCK the view of oncoming traffic should be cut down.

Solution:

The word block is a verb which means to obstruct or jam, hinder etc. alter means to change or modify. The next option, obstruct means to hinder, block very similar to the word in question. The word" improve" means to make better which has no direct relation to the word block. Spoil means to mess up or ruin. Thus we see that the correct answer is option (b) obstruct.

QUESTION: 15

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. The landscape changed ABRUPTLY after the snowfall.

Solution:

The word abruptly means suddenly and surprisingly, unexpectedly. Suddenly means again the same as before, quickly and abruptly. Sharply means briskly or precisely. Favorably means suitably. Slightly means somewhat or to some extent. Thus after inspecting all the items, we conclude that option a suddenly is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 16

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context

Q. We saw a SCINTILLATING fireworks display

Solution:

The word in question, scintillating means sparkling or shining brightly. Fascinating means charming or attractive.Unforgettable means memorable, treasured , cherished etc. beautiful means pretty or good looking.When we analyze the above words we notice that scintillating is closest in meaning to sparkling.

QUESTION: 17

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context

Q. The PACT has been in effect for twenty years.

Solution:

the word in this item, pact means a formal agreement between individuals or parties. Monarchy means kingship or autocracy. Lease means a contract by which one party conveys land, property, services, etc.to another for a specified time, usually in return for a p erio d ic paym ent. T ren d m eans ten d en c y or inclination. Going through the words and meanings, we see that pact means treaty. So option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 18

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. He had a reputation of being a PRUDENT businessman.

Solution:

Prudent means cautious or sensible. Skillful means expert or masterly. Wealthy means rich. Careful means vigilant, watchful. Dishonest means deceitful or untruthful. It's clear that the synonym for prudent would b option (c), careful

QUESTION: 19

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. There was a signpost where the two paths CONVERGE.

Solution:

Converge means meet or join. Separate means to part.Intersect means to divide or cut. Merge means to join.Diverge means to move away. Thus we see that converge is similar to merge. Therefore merge is the answer.

QUESTION: 20

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context

Q. The violence erupted because of the ZEALOT.

Solution:

The word zealot means supporter or believer. Option (a) enthusiastic means excited or eager. Brave means courageous or heroic. Timid means nervous, shy or fearful. Fanatic means extremist or uncompromising. Now when we look at the sentence, we see that violence is generally undertaken by fanatics. Thus option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 21

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. His CANDID remarks impressed the authorities

Solution:

in this item, we have to point out the correct antonym. Candid means frank, open or honest. Now the first option, blunt means frank and straightforward. Option (b) guarded means defended or safeguarded or protected. Sincere means genuine and honest. Unconventional means unusual. After going through the given list we come to the conclusion that only guarded is the word which can be considered as the antonym of candid.

QUESTION: 22

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. The guilty appealed to the jury to CONDONE his punishment.

Solution:

The word in the sentence, condone means to forgive or pardon. Accept means to believe or recognize. Forgive means the same as condone. Condemn means to denounce or attack which seems opposite to the word condone. Criticize means to disapprove. The best answer would be option (c) that condemn.

QUESTION: 23

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. His family SEVERED ties with him for marrying inter-caste,

Solution:

Severed means detached cut off. The word joined means attached which shows clearly that it could be the opposite of severed. The word included means built-in or integrated. Detached has the same meaning as severed. Disrupt means upset or interrupt. Thus the answer is option (a) joined

QUESTION: 24

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. It is easy to understand his FUZZY thoughts.

Solution:

The word frizzy means blurry or unclear. Option a misty means hazy and foggy. Vague means unclear. Clear is the only word which seems opposite to the word fuzzy. Useful has no negative or positive relation with frizzy. Thus option (c) clear is the answer.

QUESTION: 25

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. He drove his car through SLIMY road to reach your office,

Solution:

Slimy is the main word which means greasy or slippery. Ugly means not good looking or unattractive. Clean means clear and without any filth. Beautiful means good looking. Slippery is synonym for slimy. Here the only word which seems opposite of slimy is clean. 

QUESTION: 26

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. We are ANXIOUS to avoid any problems with regard to this.

Solution:

The word anxious means nervous or worried. Cool means calm and unruffled. Composed means calm and relaxed. Careless means irresponsible. Worried is a synonym of anxious. Out of cool and composed, composed suits better as the antonym as it is more formal in use.

QUESTION: 27

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. The railway lines are EXTENDED and we are quite happy about it.

Solution:

The word extended means total or complete. Protracted means prolonged or extended. Widened means broadened. Curtailed means cut or shortened. Elongated means lengthened or extended. The most possible antonym for extended would be option (c), curtailed.

QUESTION: 28

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. There was a fire this morning. They were lucky to ESCAPE it.

Solution:

In this item, the word in question is escape. The meaning of escape is run away or get away, arrest means detain or capture. Elude means escape or evade. Conceive means imagine or visualize. Thus we analyze that proper antonym of escape would be option a , arrest.

QUESTION: 29

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. Domestic violence is a very INHUMAN act.

Solution:

The word inhuman means brutal or heartless. Indifferent means unconcerned or unsympathetic. Compassionate means concerned and kind. Terrible means awful or dreadful. Ferocious means fierce or violent. Now the antonym of inhuman should be humane, kind or sympathetic. The word matching this criterion is option (b), compassionate.

QUESTION: 30

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

Q. His ELOQUENT speech helped him bag the award.

Solution:

Eloquent means clear and crisp in language, fluent, expressive etc. lucid is the synonym of eloquent. Vivid means clear and bright. Short means small in length. Inarticulate means inexpressive or hesitant, thus it is clear that inarticulate is the antonym of the word eloquent.

QUESTION: 31

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item.

Q. Universities in Germany and Denmark will have an input _______ the project.

Solution:

for this question, the blank should be filled by option a, "for" as it is pointed out that universities in Germany and Denmark have some input belonging to the project.

QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item.

Q. He gave me a leg___when I was completely new to the business.

Solution:

The correct answer would leg up as leg up is a phrasal verb which means a push to help someone to climb an obstacle upwards, to boost. This phrasal verb fits best as it is concerned about someone being boosted up in a new business. Other options are nullified as with leg no other prepositions are used i.e. for, down and off

QUESTION: 33

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item. 

Q. You should have nothing to do with those criminals; they all have violent attitudes and long records. They are men _______ the same kidney.

Solution:

They are men of the same kidney. Yes, this phrasal verb is generally used in places where similar mindset is defined. Of will be the answer as of is generally Used for belonging to, relating to, or connected within and on also cannot be used as they are used to indicate something which is over or inside which is not the case here. With is used to indicate being together or being involved. Thus option (c) of is the answer.

QUESTION: 34

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item. 

Q. He d idn ’t have the guts to stand _______ his friend when he was in trouble.

Solution:

Both 'stand with' and 'stand beside' take literal meanrefuse to endure or tolerate, ings and are not relevant here as the friend needs support and not physical presence. Stand for means to refiise to endure or tolerate which is out of context here. Stand by, however, means to be present while something bad is happening but fail to take any action to stop it, which best suits the message of the sentence. Thus, option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 35

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item. 

Q. He broke out of the prison  _ dressing as a woman.

Solution:

When a person breaks out of a prison, he will do it by any means. Here he escapes by dressing as a woman. Thus by is the preposition which fits here. With does not suit here because it is used to indicate having or being together. As is used in matters of comparison and moreover as has already been used before a woman. In does not fit well here also. Thus option (c), by is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 36

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item. 

Q. When electricity failed, emergency generators _______ .

Solution:

Cut in means Enter a conversation by interrupting w h ereas cut o ff m eans to stop th e sup p ly o f something. Cut out means to exclude. Thus, going by the meanings of these phrases we come to conclusion that cut off would be the most apt option as electricity supply is cut off, makes sense.

QUESTION: 37

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item.

Q. We need two more hands t o _______ th e heavy rush o f work.

Solution:

It should be noticed that whenever we use phrasal verb, cope, we use "with" with it. Any other preposition is never used with cope. So when we deal with a situation, we cope with it. Thus option (b), with is the answer.

QUESTION: 38

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item. 

Q. Twenty-five candidates___  each other for the first prize.   

Solution:

When the verb "compete" is used in any sentence we use "with" with it. When there is competition among group of people they compete with each other. Compete for is used when an object of competition is indicated. Compete to is used when the purpose of competing is defined. Compete on is used when platform of completion is talked about. Thus here option (b), with is the perfect answer.

QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item. 

Q. We must eliminate the_____rich and poor.

Solution:

In this question, disparity means difference; the two objects of differentiation are rich and poor. When two groups of objects are differentiated, we use "between" with them. For, in and from are not correct prepositions to use in this sentence. Thus option (a) "between" is the answer.

QUESTION: 40

DIRECTIONS: Apply suitable preposition/phrasal verb in the blank of each item.

Q. As an innovator, he ___________the beaten track and explored new religions.

Solution:

First we should understand the meaning of deviate. It means to divert or diverge. The preposition generally used with deviate is form as from is used when parting from a part of the sentence or differentiating. To is used with deviate when the purpose for deviating is pointed out. Generally deviate in can be used when medium in which deviation took place is defined. Deviated for is used when the purpose of deviation is defined. Thus option (a) "from" is the answer.

QUESTION: 41

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

It has often been said that the scale of natural phenomenon in India and her total dependence on the monsoon, have helped to form the character of her people. Even today, major disasters, such as flood, famine and plaque, are hard to check, and in older times, their control was almost impossible. Many other ancient civilizations, such as those of the Greeks, Romans and Chinese, had to contend with hard winters which encouraged sturdiness and resourcefulness. India, on the other hand, was blessed by a bounteous nature, who demanded little of man in return for sustenance, but in her terrible anger could not be appeased by any human effort. Hence it has been suggested, the Indian character has tended to quietism, accepting fortune and misfortune alike without complaint.

Q. The author’s main argument is

Solution:

When we read the passage we come across the discussion over the Indian climate and its positive and negative relation with the civilizations and their attitude towards life. The passage does not talk just about climate or its impact on people. It tells about the impact of climate including rain fall and natural calamities on people and their culture. Thus keeping this in mind we feel that option (c) is the most probable answer.

QUESTION: 42

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

It has often been said that the scale of natural phenomenon in India and her total dependence on the monsoon, have helped to form the character of her people. Even today, major disasters, such as flood, famine and plaque, are hard to check, and in older times, their control was almost impossible. Many other ancient civilizations, such as those of the Greeks, Romans and Chinese, had to contend with hard winters which encouraged sturdiness and resourcefulness. India, on the other hand, was blessed by a bounteous nature, who demanded little of man in return for sustenance, but in her terrible anger could not be appeased by any human effort. Hence it has been suggested, the Indian character has tended to quietism, accepting fortune and misfortune alike without complaint.

Q. Which one of the following civilizations did not have to face hardships due to bad winter?

Solution:

It is clearly noted in the passage that Chinese, Greek and Roman civilizations had to undergo hardships due to bad winter. But India did not have to face such harsh winters as we have a sub-tropical climate. Thus option (a) Indian is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 43

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

It has often been said that the scale of natural phenomenon in India and her total dependence on the monsoon, have helped to form the character of her people. Even today, major disasters, such as flood, famine and plaque, are hard to check, and in older times, their control was almost impossible. Many other ancient civilizations, such as those of the Greeks, Romans and Chinese, had to contend with hard winters which encouraged sturdiness and resourcefulness. India, on the other hand, was blessed by a bounteous nature, who demanded little of man in return for sustenance, but in her terrible anger could not be appeased by any human effort. Hence it has been suggested, the Indian character has tended to quietism, accepting fortune and misfortune alike without complaint.

Q. The expression “India, on the other hand was blessed by a bounteous nature__________________means

Solution:

There is no mention of fertile soil or availability of flora and fauna specifically in this passage but it conveys that we were blessed with bounteous nature which asked for man's little efforts. This very sentence establishes that option c is closest to the real meaning of the passage. Thus option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 44

DIRECTIONS:Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

It has often been said that the scale of natural phenomenon in India and her total dependence on the monsoon, have helped to form the character of her people. Even today, major disasters, such as flood, famine and plaque, are hard to check, and in older times, their control was almost impossible. Many other ancient civilizations, such as those of the Greeks, Romans and Chinese, had to contend with hard winters which encouraged sturdiness and resourcefulness. India, on the other hand, was blessed by a bounteous nature, who demanded little of man in return for sustenance, but in her terrible anger could not be appeased by any human effort. Hence it has been suggested, the Indian character has tended to quietism, accepting fortune and misfortune alike without complaint.

Q. Which trait of Indian character has been formed by the monsoon?

Solution:

The word used in the passage for conveying India's character is quietism. Now fatalism is related to being dangerous. And sturdiness means strength and durability. Ascetism is related to being quiet. Whereas Epicureanism means devotion to pleasure, comfort, and high living. Thus the closest and exclusive meaning for quietism in this list is "Ascetism".

QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS: In the following sentences, some parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly.

P - she

Q - and neither have I

R - the assignment vet

S - hasn’t finished

The correct sequence should be

Solution:

The sentence cannot begin with an 'and' or 'haven't', therefore the first part should be she. This rules out option (a) and (b) completely. Now, she can only be followed by the auxiliary verb hasn't as the other option of using 'neither have I' will render part S useless. Thus, the correct sentence formation should be; She hasn't finished the assignment yet and neither have I.

QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS: In the following sentences, some parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly.

P - himself

Q - a child

R - can usually feed

S - by the age of six months

The correct sequence should be

Solution:

The sentence cannot begin with 'can'(as it is not a question) or 'himself or 'by1. Thus it begins with 'a child', i.e part Q. This leaves us with options (a) and (d). this subject should be followed by a verb to give the flow to the sentence, which is 'can feed'. So, the proper structuring i s ' a child can feed h im s e lf by the age of six months.

QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS: In the following sentences, some parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly.

Every experience in life makes

P - on some of the cells

Q - or other nerve centres

R - of the brain

S - an impression

The correct sequence should be

Solution:

he given part'every experience in life makes'must be followed by a subject that answers what is made? This is given only by part S,i.e, an impression. While the answer is clear from here itself, we can still confirm by looking at other parts. As only cells are found in brain and not nerve centres, this confirms the flow- 'on some of the cells of the brain'-PR. Thus, the sequence is SPRQ.

QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS: In the following sentences, some parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly.

You’ll

P - know how to do it

Q - have to

R - because she does not

S - help her

The correct sequence should be

Solution:

'You'll needs to be either followed by have to or 'help her'. However, if we use help her right after, the part 'have to' would remain useless rendering the remaining sentence meaningless. This suggests that the first to come in sequence is part Q. this to should be followed by a verb, that is, help,given in the question. As the part 'because she does not' needs to have a predicate to follow, 'know howto do it' makes the best sense out the given question. Thus sequence is QSRP.

QUESTION: 49

DIRECTIONS: In the following sentences, some parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly.

Would you

P - like to come

Q - on Saturday

R - at the International House

S - to a concert

The correct sequence should be

Solution:

'would you' is always followed by a verb which among the options is only 'like to come' that is part P. in english language, the minute details are always given in the end to give a proper flow to the sentence. Therefore, the general information 'concert' needs to be given first. This leads to our answer as only option (b) has a sequence of PS. Thus, option (b).

QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS: In the following sentences, some parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly.

It is

P - to be admitted

Q - not necessary that

R - to an engineering college 

S - you qualify an entrance examination 

The correct sequence should be

Solution:

The only part that makes sense after the sentence begins with it is - is part Q 'not necessary that'. That must be followed by the condition introduced in the first part of sentence clarifying what is not necessary.
That is given in part S - about qualifying the entrance exam, 'to be admitted' must be followed by its subject which answers where or when or how. This is done through part R(engineering college). Thus the sequence should be QSPR, option (b).

QUESTION: 51

Consider the following statements about the National Cyber Security Policy, approved by the Union Cabinet in May 2013:

1. The policy focuses on manpower training.

2. It aims to create a secured computing environment across the country.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The government approved the National Cyber Security policy on 8th May, 2013 that aims to create a secure computing environment in the country and build capacities to strengthen the current set-up with focus on manpower training.

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following statements about Dr. Aparajita Datta is/are correct?

1. She is a wildlife biologist.

2. She has been working for the conservation of hornbills in the dense tropical forests of Arunachal Pradesh.

3 She was honoured with the Whitley Award, also known as Green Oscar, in the year 2013 in London.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Dr. Aparajita Dutta is a wildlife biologist. She has been working in the forests of India for more than two decades. Now, she is one of the board members of the Nature Conservation Foundation, a non-governmental wildlife conservation organisation

QUESTION: 53

Who among the following won the Men’s Singles title of the Madrid Open Tennis Tournament, 2013?

Solution:

Rafael Nadal and Serena Williams won the Men’s and Women’s single title respectively of the Madrid Open Tennis Tournament, 2013.

QUESTION: 54

Which one among the following films was presented the Best Feature Film award in the 60th National Film Awards?

Solution:

Paan Singh Tomar is an Indian biographical, sports film based on the true story of an athlete Paan Singh Tomar employed by the Indian Army and who won a Gold Medal at Indian National Games, but was forced to become a notorious bandit. It is directed by Tigmanshu Dhulia.

QUESTION: 55

Which one among the following is an indigenously built Weapon System Integrated helicopter handed over to the Indian Army in February 2013 by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.?

Solution:

The HAL Rudra is an armed version of HAL Dhruv.Rudra is equipped with forward looking infra red and thermal imaging sights interface, a 20 mm turret gun, 70 mm rocket pods, anti-tank guided missiles and air- to-air missiles.

QUESTION: 56

Who among the following is the Chairman of the Fourteenth Finance Commission?

Solution:

The government on January 2nd, 2013 announced the Constitution of the 14th Finance Commission under the chairmanship of former RBI Governor YV Reddy. 

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following statements about ‘Chit Fund’ in India is/are correct?

1. It is a kind of savings scheme.

2. There are no Acts regulating the activities relating to Chit Funds in India.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

A chit fund is a kind of savings scheme practiced in India. A chit fund company is a company that manages, conducts, or supervises a chit scheme—as defined in Section of the Chit Funds Act, 1982. According to Section 2(b) of the Chit Fund Act, 1982:

QUESTION: 58

Who among the following is the author of the book Pax Indica: In d ia and th e World o f the 2 1st Century?

Solution:

Shashi Tharoor is the author of the book cPax Indica: India and world of the 21 st century’.

QUESTION: 59

Which one among the following about Prof. C.N.R. Rao is not correct?

Solution:

Chintamani Nagesa Ramachandra Rao FRS, also known as C.N.R. Rao, is an Indian chemist who has worked mainly in solid-state and structural chemistry. He currently serves as the Head of the Scientific Advisory Council to the Prime Minister of India. On 16 November 2013, the Government of India announced his selection for Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian award in India, making him the third scientist after C. V. Raman and A. P. J. Abdul Kalam to receive the award. 

QUESTION: 60

Identify the person from the information given below: He was a popular Urdu poet and Hindi lyricist, who worked extensively in Hindi films. He was a Padma Shri and won two Filmfare awards. The President of India recently released a commemorative postage stamp on his birth anniversary at Rashtrapati Bhavan.

Solution:

The President of India, Shri Pranab Mukherjee released a Commemorative Postage Stamp on late Shri Sahir Ludhianvi on the occasion of his birth anniversary I.E. March 8,2013 at Rashtrapati Bhavan. 

QUESTION: 61

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: The process of decay and disintegration of rocks in situ is called weathering.
Statement II: Weathering takes place both mechanically and chemically.

Solution:

Weathering is the breaking down of rocks, soils and minerals as well as artificial materials through contact with the Earth’s atmosphere, biota and waters.

QUESTION: 62

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: Doldrums is a calm belt between 5°N and 5°S of the equator.
Statement II: The sun rays strike almost vertically over the equator throughout the year.

Solution:

Doldrums a zone of light, calm (westerly) winds in equatorial latitude, applicably largly to occens, moves few degress N and S of the equator seasonally sun fall vertically over the equator, causing 12 hour day 12 hour night.

QUESTION: 63

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: Doldrums is a calm belt between 5°N and 5°S of the equator.
Statement II: The sun rays strike almost vertically over the equator throughout the year.

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: In the 19th century, India was the largest British colony.
Statement II: India became a big market for British manufactured goods and a field of investment for foreign capital in the 19th century.

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: Glass is not considered as a true compound.

Statement II: Glass does not have a definite melting point.

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: Very little hydrogen is produced when sulphuric acid is added to calcium.
Statement II: The salt that is produced, calcium sulphate, is insoluble.

Solution:

Both the statements are true. The chemical reaction can be expressed as:

QUESTION: 67

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below

Statement I: Zinc is used for galvanization to protect iron from rusting.
Statement II: Zinc is more reactive towards oxygen than iron.

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Which of the following are the results of El Nino?

1. Reduction in the amount of planktons which further reduces the number of fish in the sea.

2. Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water.

3. Distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

El-Nino a name given to the occasional development of a warm occean current along the Peru Coast as a temporary replacement of the cold. It is an extension of the equatorial current and leads to an increase of surface water temperatures of 10°C and a decrease in Plankton which thrive in colder current. El Nino occurs every seven to fourteen years and result forms a weakening of S.E. Trade Winds in the Pacific.

QUESTION: 69

‘Esker’ is a geomorphic feature developed by

Solution:

Esker - A narrow, sinuous ridge of partly stratified coarse sand and gravel of glaciofluvial origin.

QUESTION: 70

It is known that the atmosphere is divided into some layers. In which one among the following layers, is the percentage composition of Helium gas maximum?

Solution:

The structure of Exosphere say, height of volume sphere is above 500 km, having maximum hydrogen and helium and the researches are being done for its specific situation of sphere. Since, structure of A tm o sp h e re is d iv id ed in to 6 sp h eres s a y - (i) Troposphere (upto 11 km), (ii) Tropopause, (iii) Stratosphere, (iv) Ozonosphere, (v) Ionosphere and (vi) Exosphere (above 500 km.)

QUESTION: 71

The rigid lithospheric slabs are known as ‘Plates’. What would be the result, if the oceanic plate collides with the continental plate?

1. Oceanic plate is forced below the continental plate.

2. Continental plate is forced below the oceanic plate.

3. Continental and oceanic plates never collide.Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

When two rigid slabs of lithospheric, known as plate collid with an another. The plate made of heavier material is tend to below the plate made of lights material (SIAG).

QUESTION: 72

Consider the following layers of the atmosphere:

1. Troposphere

2. Stratosphere

3. Mesophere

4. Thermosphere

Q. Which one among the following is the correct sequence of the layers with increasing altitude from the Earth’s surface?

Solution:

Correct sequence of the layers given in Question is Troposphere - Stratosphere - Mesosphere (in between Stratosphere-Ionosphere). Thermosphere (Above the Mesosphere or synonymous Ionosphere.

QUESTION: 73

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Jawahar tunnel on Jammu-Srinagar highway passes through

Solution:

Jammu-Srinagar Highway passes through Banihel pass in Pir Panjal range.

QUESTION: 75

What would be the date and local time of a place located at 88°30' E longitude when the local time at 0° longitude is 19.00 hrs. of 28th February 2013?

Solution:

There is atime difference of4 minutes at Eurg 1°. Hence the following calculation will be done.
Long Time difference 8803' - 80-30' x 4 = 5 hrs 54 minutes, Countries in E of Greenwich Meridian, will get more time i.e., in East time will be added, while in West time will be less. At 0° longitude is 19 hrs of 28th Feb. 19 hrs + 5 hrs 54 minutes = 24 hrs-54 minutes the date will change at 24.01 hrs. So it will be 0-54 minutes of 1st March.

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following statements about tornadoes are correct?

Tornadoes usually spin

1. anticlockwise in the northern hemisphere.

2. clockwise in the southern hemisphere.

3. clockwise in the northern hemisphere

4.  anticlockwise in the southern hemisphere.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Tornado-A rapidly rotating column of the air developed around a very intense low pressure area, associated with a dark funnel shaped cloud, originate at USA.
The air is anticlockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in southern hemisphere

QUESTION: 77

Which one among the following terms is used to describe a plant that grows only in a mountainous environment?

Solution:

Orophyte: Aplant that will grow only in a mountainous environment Geophyte: One ofthe six major floral life from classes recognized by Danish Botanist Raunkiaer.
Epiphyte: Plant grows an another plant not in a parasitic way Bryophyte-A flower less green plant.

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Air close to the Earth’s surface is heavier.

2. Air close to the Earth’s surface contains larger quantity of water vapour and dust particles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

At higher altitude air is lighter while close to earth surface its heavier. In Troposphere the dust particles and water is more than upperlayer.

QUESTION: 79

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.

Solution:

Mica-Gutur (Andhra Pradesh) Chromite-Namakkal andTiruchengode (Tamil Nadu) Magnesite - Hindustan Produce Company (Kolkata) Zinc - Zawar (Rajasthan)

QUESTION: 80

The term ‘albedo’ implies the

Solution:

The short wave solar energy reflected by any surface (i.e., saud, snow, atmosphere etc.) without heating the surface is called Albedo.

QUESTION: 81

Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Assam produces nearly 80% of jute in India.

2. Jute grows well on loamy soil.

3. Hot and humid conditions are ideal for growing jute.

4. Jute is commonly cultivated with wheat in rotation.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

In India, Jute (corchorus spp) is produced about 75% in West Bengal (1st rank}, 16% in Bihar (Ilnd rank) and about 5% in Assam (III rank) as per the statistical Data of year 2011-12. Jute grow well in loamy soils under hot and humid conditions-as ideal climatic condition. Generally Maize/Moong/Urd (spring season)-Jute- Rice crop rotation is followed, while Jute Rice-Wheat rotation is followed on less amount.

QUESTION: 82

The Indian Standard Time is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by

Solution:

reenwich is 0° meridian, while Indian standard time is governed by 8214° East Long. The time difference shall be 5 hrs 30 minutes e.g., 82^° * 4 = 330 minutes or 5 hrs 30 minutes.

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following is the main characteristic of Mediterranean climate?

Solution:

In Mediterranean Region most ofthe rainfall occurs in winter season. Normally summer's leap is moderate. 

QUESTION: 84

Which one, among the following atmospheric gases, filters out most of the ultraviolet radiation of the Sun?

Solution:

Ultra-violet rays are filtered by ozone gas present in the atmosphere.

QUESTION: 85

Which one among the following is not a factor that affects direction of wind?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Presbyopia is a visual defect caused by

Solution:

Presbyopia is a condition where, with age, the eye exhibits a progressively diminished ability to focus on near objects. It is caused by weakening of the ciliary muscles (the muscles that bend and straighten the lens)

QUESTION: 87

Which one among the following animals does not undergo periodic moulting of their external body covering?

Solution:

Earthworm does not undergo periodic moulting oftheir external body covering. Rest all the animals are examples of arthropods which undergo periodic ecdysis (casting of skin).

QUESTION: 88

Which one among the following organs in humans is not involved in elicitation of immune response?

Solution:

Brain is not involved in elicitation of immune response.Lymph nodes are oval shaped organs of lymphatic system, distributed widely throughout our body and are garrisons of B, T and other immunity cells. The thymyus is on specialised organ of immune system within which the T-cell nature. The spleen is on cymphatic organ that plays an important role in protecting the body from invading pathogens.

QUESTION: 89

From which part ofturmeric, is the turmeric powder obtained?

Solution:

Turmeric powder is obtained from dried grounded underground stem ‘rhizome’. The rhizome of the turmeric is yellowish orange tuberous and juicy.

QUESTION: 90

Which one among the following substances is never excreted out through urine under normal circumstances in any healthy individual?

Solution:

Amino acid is an organic compound, which, repelled by Glomenuli cells of Nephrox in Kidney.
So, it is not present is urine.

QUESTION: 91

Which one among the following animals gives birth to the biggest baby?

Solution:

Blue whale is largest baby at the time of birth weight (approximately 1 ton).

QUESTION: 92

Muscles of which one among the following body parts contract slowly but can remain contracted for a longer time?

Solution:

Muscles in the intestine, stomach etc, are smooth muscles as opposed to muscles in the face, arms and legs which are known as skeletal muscles. Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles which contract slowly and remain contracted for a longer time without tiring.

QUESTION: 93

Solutions of three enzymes were prepared namely lipase, trypsin and amylase, in order to remove stains from a pieceof cloth. Out of these three enzyme solutions, only lipase could completely remove the stain. This indicates that the stain was due to:

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

Which one among the following diseases is not caused by polluted water?

Solution:

Tuberculosis (TB) is a common and in many cases lethal, infectious disease caused by various strains of mycobacterium. TB typically attacks the lungs, but can also affect other parts of the body.

QUESTION: 95

Which one among the following animals is a mammal?

Solution:

Duckbilled platypus is egg lying mammals, which is also called orinitho-rynchus or platypus animals

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following statements with regard to the ‘Fifth Report’ is/are correct?

1. It was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813 for consideration.

2. It became the basis of intense parliamentary debates on the nature of the East India Company’s rule in India.

3. It was primarily on the economic conditions of the urban and industrial centres of India.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

5th Report, 1812 a famous document prepared by a select committee set-up in 1810 by the British Parliament to look into the affairs of the East India Company.

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements about Salt Satyagraha:

1. It was a form of Civil Disobedience.

2. It was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers.

3. Gandhiji first experimented with Salt Satyagraha in South Africa.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Under the leadership of Gandhiji the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in AD 1930. It began with the Dandi March on 12 March, 1930. Gandhiji with some of his followers left the Sabarmati Ashram at Ahmedabad and made their way towards Dandi, the group reached Dandi on 6 April, 1930. Here Gandhiji protested against the salt Law by making salt sail himself and throwing up a challenge to the British government. The Dandi March signified the start of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following statements about Ryotwari system is/are correct?

1. The government collected the revenue directly from the individual cultivators.

2. The cultivators were not recognized in law as the owners of the land.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Ryotwari System was a way of collecting tax revenues (in British-controlled areas in India) directly from cultivators of farmland

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following statements about Russia is/are correct?

1. Russia emerged as the first socialist state in the world.

2. Socialist state in Russia was established by Bolsheviks in 1917.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The Russian Revolution is the collective term for a series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which dismantled the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of Russian SFSR (Soviet Federative Socialist Republic.

QUESTION: 100

Consider the following statements:

1. Dadabhai Naoroji first put forward ‘the theory of drain ofwealth’.

2. The Indian National Congress adopted a resolution to criticize the drain of wealth in its annual session at Calcutta in 1896.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

DadabhaiNaoroji was the first man to say that internal factors were not the reasons of poverty in India, but poverty was caused by the colonial rule that was draining the wealth and prosperity of India. In 1867, Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the ‘Drain of wealth’ theory in which he stated that the British was completely draining India. He mentioned this theory in his book poverty and Un-British Rule in India.

QUESTION: 101

Which of the following statements about Quit India Movement of 1942 is/are correct?

1. The movement was massive in character.

2. One of the unique features of the movement was the participation of the communists at the local level defying the official stand of the Communist Party.

3. It was a completely non-violent movement.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The Quit India Movement or the August Movement was a Civil Disobedience Movement launched in August, 1942 in response to Mahatma Gandhi’s call for Satyagraha (Independence).

QUESTION: 102

Consider the following statements:

1. Annie Besant was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress.

2. The historic Lucknow session of the Congress in 1916 was presided by Madan Mohan Malviya.

3. Mahatma Gandhi presided over the annual session of Congress only once at Belgaum in 1924.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Ambika Charan Majumdar presided over the Congress Session of Lucknow in 1916. This session was important for two reasons

(i) The extremists rejoined Congress.

(ii) Congress and Muslim League formed a pact.

QUESTION: 103

 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

For Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha is

1. a political force.

2. a philosophy of life.

3. an ideology of action.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Satyagraha (or ‘truth force’) is a particularly philosophy and practice within the broader overall category generally, known as non-violent resistance or civil resistance. The term Satyagraha was coined and developed by Mahatma Gandhi.

QUESTION: 105

What was the common element among the following three newspapers?

(i) The Servant of India

(ii) Dnyan Prakash

(iii) Hitawad

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

 “... it has reduced us politically to serfdom. It has sapped the foundations of our culture ... it has degraded us spiritually. ’ This was Mahatma Gandhi complaining of the ill-effect on Indians of which action/policy of the colonial government?

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

The Indian National Congress was founded during the Viceroyalty of

Solution:

Lord Dufferin was the viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was founded in 1885.

QUESTION: 108

Kandh Revolt against the British was led by

Solution:

In 1840, Kandh uprising broke out against British efforts to put an end to Kandh's practice of human sacrifice. This revolt was led by Chakra Bishoyi.

QUESTION: 109

The implementation of factory legislation in India in the nineteenth century was a result of the pressure on the Government of India from

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

Who among the following was the President of Indian National Congress when India attained independence?

Solution:

J B Kripalani, popularly known as Acharya Kripalani, was an Indian politician, noted particularly for holding the presidency of the Indian National Congress during the transfer of power in, 1947

QUESTION: 111

Who among the following has described the uprising of 1857 as the First Indian War of Independence?

Solution:

The term 'First War of Independence' was first used by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in his 1909 book ‘The History of the War of Indian Independence’ which was originally written in Marathi.

QUESTION: 112

Arrange the following events of Indian freedom movement in correct sequence beginning from the earliest:

1. Second Round Table Conference

2. Communal Award

3. Poona Pact

4. Simon Commission

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Simon Commission-November, 1927 Second Round Table Conference - September, 1931 Communal Award-August, 1932 Poona Pact - September, 1932

QUESTION: 113

Consider the following statements:

1. Morley-Minto reforms ended the official majority in state legislative assemblies.

2. Despite the Government of India Act, 1909 the nonofficials were elected to local bodies indirectly

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

No Indian “shall by reason only of his religion, place of birth, descent, colour or any of them be disabled from holding any office or employment under the company”. This was a pledge first given by the

Solution:

The pledge was first given in the charter Act 1833 clause 87.

QUESTION: 115

A beautiful rainbow on the sky is due to the

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

The weight of an object may be assigned by using Newton’s

Solution:

Newton’s law of universal gravitation states that every point mass in the universe attracts every other point mass with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.


where, F = Force between the masses

G = Gravitational constant

m1 = First mass

m2 = Second mass

r = Distance between the centre of the masses

QUESTION: 117

A current of 0.5A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 20 minutes. The amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit is

Solution:

It is given that current (I) = 0.5 A Time (t) = 20 min = 1200 s

QUESTION: 118

Which one among the following properties of a proton may change while it moves freely in a magnetic field?

Solution:

When some electrical charge moves in a magnetic field, a force acts on it. This force is called Lorentz force. This force changes the velocity of the proton.

QUESTION: 119

Power required by a boy of mass 30 kg to run up a staircase of 40 steps in 10 seconds is (Height of each step is 15 cm) (Takeg= 10 m/s2)

Solution:

Force applied = mg=30 x 10Newton = 300 Newton.

Distance covered in the direction of the force

=400 x 15 cm = 6 metres

W=F.S

= 300 Newton x 6 metres

= 1800 Newton - metre

= 1800 J

= 180 joule/second

= 180 watt.

QUESTION: 120

The figure given above shows the temperature (T) - time (t) plot when we start heating a piece of naphthalene. The temperature (T*) at the plateau of the curve signifies

Solution:

The melting point of a substance is the temperature at which its state changes from solid to liquid.
Melting point of naphthalene is 80.26°C.

QUESTION: 121

A piece of paper and a coin both having the same mass are dropped from the 10th floor of building. The piece of paper would take more time to reach the ground because

Solution:

The piece of paper would take more time to reach the ground than a coin because buoyant force on the piece of paper is more than that on the coin. If piece of paper and coin having the same mass are droped from the same height in vacuum then both will take the same time to reach the ground.

QUESTION: 122

During sunrise and sunset, sun appears reddish-orange because

Solution:

Blue colour rays are small and scattered to a larger areas while red colour rays are larger and scattered to a smaller area.

QUESTION: 123

Ohm’s law can also be taken as a statement for

Solution:

Ohm’s law follow the law of conservation of energy.
According to ohm’s law,

QUESTION: 124

Motion, of a particle can be described in x-direction by x = a sin cot, and y-direction by y = b cos cot. The particle is moving on

Solution:

QUESTION: 125

The plot given above represents displacement ‛x’ of a particle with time 't‛ The particle is

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

A bullet of mass 20 gm is fired in the horizontal direction with a velocity 150 m/s from a pistol of mass 1 kg. Recoil velocity of the pistol is

Solution:

20gm = 0.02kg

Momentum of the pistol = Momentum of the bullet

QUESTION: 127

What should be the reading of the voltmeter in the circuit given above? (All the resistance are equal to 1 Q and the battery is of 1.5 volt)

Solution:

Both the lower resistances are in parallel.

Entire external resistance of the circuit

QUESTION: 128

The plot given above represents the velocity of a particle (in m/s) with time (in seconds). Assuming that the plot represents a semi-circle, distance traversed by the particle at the end of 7 seconds is approximately.

Solution:

Area of the velocity-time plot (graph): represents the displacement of that object.

QUESTION: 129

Suppose we have an iron nail and an iron ball of same mass. When submerged in water, the iron ball may float but the nail alway sinks. This is because

Solution:

The iron ball, when submerged in water, may float, but the nail always sinks. This is because buoyant force on the ball is larger than that of the nail due to their shapes

QUESTION: 130

An electric heater is rated 1500 watt. If electric power costs ₹ 2 per kilo-watt-hour, then the cost of power of 10 hours running of the heater is

Solution:

Time= lOHrs

Electrical energy consumed

= Power x Time

QUESTION: 131

The ceilings of a concert hall are generally curved

Solution:

They are made curved so that the sound after reflecting form the ceiling reaches every corner of the concert hall and the audience listens the sound clearly.

QUESTION: 132

Bats can know about their prey at a distance even in the night by emitting

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

Rays of light get refracted while passing from air to glass because

Solution:

Rays of light get refracted while passing from air to glass because density of glass is higher than that of air refraction is the change in direction of a wave due to change in its transmission medium.

QUESTION: 134

White light while passing through a glass prism breaks up into light of different colours because

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

Which one among the following situation is best represented by the velocity - time plot shown above?

Solution:

From the graph it is clear th at at t = 0 particle has nonzero velocity and after some time its velocity is zero, hence the motion of the particle is decelerated.

QUESTION: 136

When long dry hair is brushed the strands often move away from each other because while brushing

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

If the length of a simple pendulum is being increased by 4-fold, time period of oscillation will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 138

A pressure cooker works on the principle of

Solution:

A pressure cooker works on the principle of elevation of boiling point of water by application of pressure.

QUESTION: 139

Pressure of a gas increases due to increase of its temperature because at higher temperature

Solution:

Pressure of a gas increase due to increase of its temperature because at higher temperature kinetic energies of the gas molecules are higher.

QUESTION: 140

The presence of sulphur in gunpowder.

Solution:

Constituents of gun powder are-Potassium nitrate, charcoal and sulphur. Sulphur serves: as a fuel, lowers the ignition temperature and increases the rate of combustion.

QUESTION: 141

Calcium ammonium nitrate (CAN) is a popular nitrogen fertilizer because it is

Solution:

Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN) fertilizer isalmost neutral and can be safely applied even to acid soils. Its total nitrogen (N) content is higher and may vary from 25 t o 2 8 % N content. H alf(12.5% N ) ofthis total nitrogen is in the ammonical form and rest half (12.5% N) in nitrate form. This is a good fertilizer applied in Agriculture

QUESTION: 142

Chromium oxide is used as an ingredient in paints to obtain

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

A mixture of sodium chloride and naphthalene can be separated by

Solution:

The mixture of naphthalene and sodium chloride can be separated by the process of sublimation as naphthalene is a sublime, i.e. it turns into vapour without changing in liquid and its vapour change into solid without changing into liquid, while sodium chloride is not a sublime.

QUESTION: 144

The pH of the solution obtained by dissolving pure sodium chloride in water is

Solution:

The common salt (NaCl) is netural in nature so, it doesn’t change the pH.

QUESTION: 145

Oxygen on reaction with non-metals forms oxides, which are

Solution:

QUESTION: 146

Biogas consists of mainly

Solution:

Biogas typically refers to a gas produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen. Methane is the main constituent (63%) of the biogas and C 0 2 is approx 30% and m ay have small amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H2S), moisture and siloxanes.

QUESTION: 147

A gas is evolved when a piece of zinc metal placed in dilute sulphuric acid (H2S04). What is the gas?

Solution:

Hydrogen gas is evolved when a piece of zinc metal is placed in dilute sulphuric acid (H2S04). The chemical reaction is

QUESTION: 148

Turmeric (Haldi) rapidly becomes colourless on addition of

Solution:

Turmeric (Haldi) rapidly becomes colourless on adulation of lemon juice.

QUESTION: 149

Metalloids are

Solution:

A metalloid is a chemical element with properties in between, or that are a mixture of, those of metals and non-metals. There is no standard definition of a metalloid, nor is there complete agreement as to which elements are appropriately classified as such.
The six commonly recognised metalloids are boron, silicon, germanium, arsenic, antimony and tellurium. Elements less commonly recognised as metalloids include carbon, aluminium, selenium, polonium, and astatine.

QUESTION: 150

Two reactants in a flask produce bubbles gas; it turns lime water into milky. The reactants in the flask are

Solution:

The reactant in the flash are magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid the reactions are 

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