NDA I - English & General Ability 2014


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA I - English & General Ability 2014


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This mock test of NDA I - English & General Ability 2014 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA I - English & General Ability 2014 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA I - English & General Ability 2014 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA I - English & General Ability 2014 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA I - English & General Ability 2014 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Use 'about* in place of'nearly'. 'Nearly is used when the sense is vague, incomplete and uncertain but here the duration has been definite as to be thirty years. So, use of'about' is appropriate which gives the sense of'definite nature'.

QUESTION: 2

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Use of'indeed' is not required here as it is superfluous.
Using 'must' alone gives the proper sense here.

QUESTION: 3

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Use 'intended' here in place of'insisted'. Use of 'insisted' is wrong as it gives no proper sense here.

QUESTION: 4

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Use of ' into' is not required here as we know th at enter' agrees with no preposition.

QUESTION: 5

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). I f you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Use of infinitive is required here, so according to the structure of sentence, use 'to see' in place of'for seeing' to make sentence completely correct

QUESTION: 6

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Here, subject is singular. So, use helping verb according to the subject The number of jobs which 'is' not'are'.

QUESTION: 7

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Use 'who' in place of'whom' as the sentence is in need of adjective clause to make it correct.

QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Use 'why should he' in place of 'why he should' for proper framing of sentence and grammatical accuracy.

QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d). 

Solution:

Use being' before 'followed' because a complete sense can be given only by using this word.

QUESTION: 10

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each question has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error ’, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Use 'prepared to act promptly in place of'prepared promptly to act' which gives a proper meaning here.

QUESTION: 11

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Q. We should always try to maintain and promote communal amity.​

Solution:

'Contention' means an angry agreement which is the opposite of the word 'amity. 'Bondage' means being tied to, which does not relate to the meaning of the word 'amity. 'Understanding' is closer to the meaning of'amity but it rather means mutual understanding in a relation. 'Friendship' is the exact and appropriate synonym of the underlined word 'amity.

QUESTION: 12

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. Many species of animals have become extinct during the last hundred years.​

Solution:

Aggressive' is closer to the opposite of the word 'extinct'. 'Scattered' means spread far apart. 'Feeble' means lacking strength. All of these are irrelevant to the meaning of the word 'extinct'. 'Non-existent' means having no living members (like dinosaurs) which is exactly what the statement is talking about. So 'nonexistent' is the best answer.

QUESTION: 13

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. True religion does not require one to proselytise through guile or force.​

Solution:

'Translate' means to express in another language.'Hypnotise' refers to capturing the attention or to fascinate. 'Attack' means to act against. All these words do not relate to the meaning of the word 'Proselytise'.
Proselytise directly implies to convert or attempt to convert from one religion to another. So, 'convert' is the best answer.

QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. That the plan is both inhuman and preposterous needs no further proof.​

Solution:

'Preposterous' means unreasonable and 'Absurd' is the nearest in the meaning of the word, fitting best to the statement.

QUESTION: 15

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. The attitude of the Western countries towards the third- world countries is rather callous to say the least.

Solution:

'Callous' means not caring about other people' feelings or suffering. The best synonym to the word is 'Unfeeling' which means lacking sensitivity towards others. 'Cursed' relates to hateful and 'Unkind' relates to harsh, so these do not fit best with the meaning of the word.

QUESTION: 16

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. Whatever the verdict of history may be, Chaplin will occupy a unique place in its pages.

Solution:

'Verdict' means a formal answer or decision of the jury given to the court. 'Judgement' also means the decision of a court. So, it is the nearest in the meaning of the word 'verdict'. Whereas 'Voice' is an (informal) supposed utterance of words. 'Prediction' means to forecast which is closer to the opposite of the word 'verdict'.

QUESTION: 17

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. He corroborated the statement of his brother.

Solution:

'Disproved' and Condemned' are the opposite to the meaning of the word 'Corroborated'. Corroborated means to provide evidence to support a statement. So, 'Confirmed' refers to the correct answer among the options.

QUESTION: 18

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. Whatever opinion he gives is sane.

Solution:

'Obscure' means not important. 'Wild' and 'Arrogant' do not relate to the word in the statement. Therefore, 'Rational' meaning logical is the appropriate answer among the options.

QUESTION: 19

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. The story is too fantastic to be credible.

Solution:

'Obscure' means not important. 'Wild' and 'Arrogant' do not relate to the word in the statement. Therefore, 'Rational' meaning logical is the appropriate answer among the options.

QUESTION: 20

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. Catching snakes can be hazardous for people untrained in the art.

Solution:

'Hazardous' means that can be dangerous or cause damage. 'Dangerous' relates to the possibility of causing harm and in the given statement catching snakes by untrained people is sure shot call for damage. So, it is the best answer.

QUESTION: 21

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. His short but pointed speech was applauded by all sections of the audience.

Solution:

Applauded' means 'praised' so 'disapproved' is correct antonym which means 'not praised' or 'criticised'.

QUESTION: 22

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning o f the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. In ancient India, scholars had no interest in political power or material growth.

Solution:

'Material' means 'Earthly or 'related to wealth', so 'spiritual' is correct antonym which means 'divine'.

QUESTION: 23

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. A friendly dog met us at the farm gate.

Solution:

Friendly means 'supportive', so 'hostile' is correct antonym which means 'unfriendly.

QUESTION: 24

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. He is extremely intelligent but proud.

Solution:

'Intelligent' means 'smart', so 'dull' is correct antonym which means 'stupid'.

QUESTION: 25

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. The young leader was reluctant to shoulder the responsibilities of the ministerial office.

Solution:

Reluctant' means 'unwilling', so 'willing' is correct antonym which means 'ready'.

QUESTION: 26

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. He abandoned his family.

Solution:

'Abandoned' means 'left', so 'supported' is correct antonym which means 'defended'.

QUESTION: 27

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. History abounds in instances of courage.

Solution:

Abound' means 'excessive', so 'lacks' is correct antonym which means 'deficit'.

QUESTION: 28

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. Adversity teaches man to be humble and self-reliant.

Solution:

'Adversity' means 'penury or 'misery, so 'prosperity' is correct antonym which means 'happiness' or 'wealth'.

QUESTION: 29

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. Like poverty, affluence can sometimes create its own problems.

Solution:

Affluence' means 'state of richness', so 'indigence' is correct antonym which means 'extreme poverty. 

QUESTION: 30

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q. The habit of squandering money should not be encouraged.

Solution:

'Squandering' means 'wasting', so'hoarding' is correct antonym which means 'to collecting'.

QUESTION: 31

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. You haven’t had your lunch yet,_____you?

Solution:

Here, question tag is required in Present Tense. So, use of'have'. It is proper in order to make Subject-Verb agreement in the sentence. Use of negative tags is improper and 'are' cannot be used as Perfect Tense is needed.
Suitable tag structure is as follows Subject+ Auxiliary verb + not + Verb+ Object + [ , ] + Auxiliary verb + Subject + ?

QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. Life is to death as pleasure is t o _____ .

Solution:

Here, use of 'pain' is suitable as in first pair also antonymous analogy words are used. We know that 'pain' is opposite to the 'pleasure'. Rest words are not antonyms of'pleasure', so using them is not proper. 

QUESTION: 33

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. The French____reputed to have a very good sense of humour.

Solution:

Here, a complete race is addressed which is obviously a plural subject, so we will use plural helping verb according to the subject for proper sentence formation.

QUESTION: 34

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the____of life oiled and running smoothly.

Solution:

Use of'machine' is proper here because it needs oiling for smooth run. Path cannot be oiled, likewise there is no means of oiling river or garden. So use of machine is suitable.

QUESTION: 35

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. Many of the advances of civilization have been conceived by young people just on t h e _____ of adulthood.

Solution:

We get the sense of beginning phase of the stated stage of life so we should use word 'threshold' here. 

QUESTION: 36

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. The more your action and thought are allied and_____, the happier you grow.

Solution:

According to sense of sentence, here we should use a collective term which can show the coupled relation of both words. 'Divergent' cannot be used because it gives opposite sense, 'unravelled' and 'invincible' have also not suitable meanings according to sentence, so use of'integrated' is proper.

QUESTION: 37

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. He _____ in wearing the old fashioned coat in spite of his wifes disapproval.​

Solution:

Use of'persists' is proper as it gives required sense. We cannot use 'insists' as it means 'to demand'. Likewise, 'desists' cannot be used because it means 'to hate' and 'resists' means 'to protest' which gives no sense here. So, use of'persists' is most suitable.

QUESTION: 38

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. It is not what you say that _______,but what you do.

Solution:

Use of 'matters' gives a proper sense here. Use of 'implies' is not suitable here because it is not according to context of sentence. 'Matches' and 'moves' also give non contextual meaning here, so we should use 'matters' for complete sense.

QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. Physically we are now all neighbours, but psychologically we are_____to each other.

Solution:

According to sense of the sentence, we need a word opposite to 'neighbours' which is 'strangers'. Primitives, Complementary and Cowards cannot be used because they don't give opposite sense of'neighbours'.

QUESTION: 40

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q. The old ‘Nature’ versus ______,ebate regarding crime continues even today.

Solution:

Best suitable phrase would be "Nature versus nurture" when it is related to crime. Nature is something that reflects the internal motto while Nurture reflects the idea of the upbringing.

QUESTION: 41

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one o f them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). I f none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. As the parties failed to reach any agreement, the meeting broke through.

Solution:

Use of 'Broke away is suitable as it is a phrase which means 'to stop something', 'break out', 'break up' have no sense here. So use of these phrases are unsuitable in this context.

QUESTION: 42

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one o f them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. If I have reached there by this time tomorrow, I will write to you immediately.

Solution:

According to proper tense structure, if any sentence contains condition, then we should use Present and Future Tenses. So, use of'reach' is proper here, rest all are not in Simple Present so we should omit them.

QUESTION: 43

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions f o r the underlined part. I f one o f them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). I f none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. My friend met me, unexpectedly, when I looked for a taxi, desperately.

Solution:

When two actions in the past are simultaneous then the syntax used is as follows : When + Subject + Was/Were + ( V l + ing) + Object + Subject + V2 + Object

QUESTION: 44

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one o f them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. Her learning makes up towards her want of beauty.

Solution:

Use 'make up for' as it gives proper sense. We should take care of rules of preposition and except 'for', all other prepositions are not suitable here.

QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. If he got his enemy in his hand, he would have crushed him to death.

Solution:

Use of 'had got' is suitable here because here Past Perfect Tense is required. Rest words are not useful as they are not in Past Perfect Tense.

QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions f o r the underlined part. I f one o f them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). I f none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. Please ask your son to turn off the radio so that it is not quite so loud.

Solution:

'Turn o f f m eans to switch the radio o ff Here, there is a sense of low sound with radio still playing. Hence, 'turn' down is suitable because it means to lower the volume.

QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one o f them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. He said that when I have worked for him for six months I would get a pay rise

Solution:

If two actions, out of which, if one is of near past we should use Simple Past and if the another is of remote past we should use Past Perfect. Hence, 'had worked' which is of Past Perfect Tense is suitable.

QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q.I am looking forward to joining your organization.

Solution:

No improvement

QUESTION: 49

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one o f them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. I am not sure why she is wanting to see him.

Solution:

We should use' she wants' because sense related verbs are always used in Present Tense, not in progressive. Only 'she wants' is correct from grammar point of view, so it is correct option.

QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one o f them, i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement ’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. Everyone who finished writing can go home.

Solution:

Use Present Perfect Tense here because it is the requirement of sentence. Use of 'has finished' is appropriate.

QUESTION: 51

DIRECTIONS: The following items consists o f two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: Grand Banks are one of the major fishing grounds of the world due to the presence of a vast continental shelf
Statement II: Planktons grow in the shallow waters.

Solution:

The Grand Banks is a large area of submerged highlands southeast of Newfoundland and east of the Laurentian Channel on the North American continental shelf. It is in this area that the cold Labrador Current mixes with the warm waters of the Gulf Stream. The mixing of these waters and the shape of the ocean bottom lifts nutrients to the surface. These conditions created one of the richest fishing grounds in the world. Plankton are organisms that live in the water. They are carried by waves, tides and currents. They are usually found in the shallow surface waters.

QUESTION: 52

DIRECTIONS: The following seven items consists o f two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: Amoeba is a unicellular organism and the single cell performs all functions of a living organism.
Statement II: Cell is the fundamental unit of living organism.

Solution:

Amoeba is a unicellular organism and the single cell performs all functions of a living organism because cell is the fundamental unit of living organism.

QUESTION: 53

DIRECTIONS: The following items consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Kushanas.
Statement II: The first gold coins were issued by the Kushanas.

Solution:

The Indo Greek coins issued by the Greek rulers between the second century BC to second century A.D were bilingual in Greek and Arabic and carried legends in Greek. The Kushan Dynasty introduced gold coins for the first time in Indian coinage.

QUESTION: 54

DIRECTIONS: The following seven items consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: Jahandar Shah’s reign came to an early end in January 1713.
Statement II: He was defeated at Agra by Farrukhsiyar, his nephew.

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

DIRECTIONS: The following seven items consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: The defects of the Regulating Act and the exigencies of British politics necessitated the passing of the Pitt’s India Act.
Statement II: The Pitt’s India Act gave the British Government supreme control over the Company’s affairs and its administration in India.

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

DIRECTIONS: The follow ing seven items consists o f two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: It is not necessary that every bar magnet has one North Pole and one South Pole.
Statement II: Magnetic poles occur in pair.

Solution:

It is necessary that every bar magnet has one North Pole and one South Pole. With a compass we can always tell which direction is north and if you know north, then you know all of the other directions. Magnetic poles always exist in pairs.

QUESTION: 57

DIRECTIONS: The follow ing seven items consists o f two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Statement I: A body moving in a circular path is acted upon by the centripetal force.
Statement II: Centripetal force acting on the body is doing work to keep it rotating in the circular path.

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The tropical cyclones of China Sea are called typhoon’s.
2. The tropical cyclones of the West Indies are called tornadoes.
3. T he tropica  cyclones o f Australia are called williywillies.
4. Formation of an anticyclone results in stormy weather condition.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

A typhoon is the name of a strong tropical cyclone whose development is common in the Western North Pacific Ocean and South China Sea. The vast majority of tornadoes occur in the Tornado Alley region of the United States although they can occur nearly anywhere in North America. Willy willies is a severe tropical cyclone of Australia. Formation of an anti cyclone results in calm and settled weather.

QUESTION: 59

Q. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?

Solution:

ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) was founded on 8 August 1967 with five members: Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. ASEAN has 10 Members which are Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam. Taiwan is not a member of ASEAN.

QUESTION: 60

Heat given to a body which raises its temperature by 1°C is known as

Solution:

Specific heat is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of a certain mass 1 degree Celsius. 

QUESTION: 61

Consider the following reaction:
xA s2S3 + yO2 → zA s2O3 + w SO2

Q. What is y (the coefficient for O2) when th is equation is balanced using whole number coefficients?

Solution:

Balanced chemical equation is 
2AS2S3+9O2→2AS2O3+6SO2. So y is 9.

QUESTION: 62

Growth and repair of damaged tissue involve

Solution:

Mitosisis used for growth and repair of the tissues. During mitosis, a cell makes an exact copy of itself and splits into two new cells. Each cell contains an exact copy of the original cell's chromosomes in their 23 pairs. This is the reason why all the cells in an organism are genetically identical.

QUESTION: 63

Rotterdam of Netherlands is largely famous for

Solution:

Rotterdam of Netherlands is largely famous for Shipbuilding. Rotterdam's economy is still almost based on shipping. The port lies at the heart of the densely populated and industrialized triangle of London, Paris, and the German Ruhr district and at the mouths of two important rivers (the Rhine and the Meuse).

QUESTION: 64

If the motion of an object is represented by a straight line parallel to the time axis in a distance-time graph, then the object undergoes

Solution:

Distance time graph parallel to the time axis.

It is clear from the graph that the position of the object is not changing with the change in time, hence the object is at rest or in other words we can say that it is a zero velocity motion.

QUESTION: 65

How many grams of MgCO3 contain 24.00 g of oxygen? (The molar mass o f Mg CO3 is 84.30 g mol-1)

Solution:

In Mg CO3, there are 3 oxygen atoms in each mole. Atomic mass of oxygen 16g/mol. So there are (16x3) =48
grams of oxygen in one mole of= 84.30 g/mol-1

x = 42.15 g

QUESTION: 66

Which one of the following is not a function of liver?

Solution:

The small intestine is the location in the body where the majority of the nutrients from ingested food are absorbed. The large intestine is the final processing area for digested food. The main things left to do are to dry out the undigested food remnant by absorbing water and eliminate the useless waste from the body.

QUESTION: 67

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of economic sectors in terms of their contribution to the GDP of India in decreasing order?

Solution:

The correct sequence is Service sector- Industry- Agriculture.

QUESTION: 68

A force  acting on an electric charge q, in presence of an electromagnetic field, moves the charge parallel to the magnetic field w ith velocity   is equal to (where and  are electric field and magnetic field respectively)

Solution:

Force on th e charge q due to electric field 

and force on the charge q due to magnetic


In the given case 

QUESTION: 69

What is the oxidizing agent in the following equation?

Solution:

In the given reaction, HAsO2 (aq) is the oxidising agent since the oxidation number of As decreases from + 3 to 0.

QUESTION: 70

What one of the following is not a part of female reproductive system?

Solution:

In both genders, the urethra works as a tube connecting the urinary bladder to the genitals. The bladder collects and stores urine until when it is ready to be discharged through the urethra. It is not a part of reproductive system of female.

QUESTION: 71

If a news is broadcast from London at 1:45 p.m. on Monday, at what time and on what day it will be heard at Dhaka (90° E)?

Solution:

When a news is broadcast from London at 1:45 pm on Monday, it will be heard at Dhaka (90 Degree E) at 7:45 pm.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following are the correct parameters for the common domestic power supply in India?

Solution:

The correct parameters of domestic power supply in India are voltage 220 V and frequency of AC 50 Hz

QUESTION: 73

Which one of the following substances is most likely to beused as soap?

Solution:

CH3(CH2)12 COONa is most likely to be used as soap. A soap is the sodium salt (or potassium salt) of a long chain carboxylic acid (or fatty acid).

QUESTION: 74

Which one of the following animals is cold-blooded?

Solution:

Most sharks are cold-blooded. Partially warm-blooded Sharks are the Mako and the Great white shark.

QUESTION: 75

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

A cirque is an amphitheatre-like valley head, formed at the head of a valley glacier by erosion. Yardang is a keel-shaped crest or ridge of rock, formed by the action of the wind usually parallel to the prevailing wind direction.Barkhan is a crescent-shaped shifting sanddune convex on the windward side and steeper and concave on the leeward. It is an erosional feature of wind.Drumlin is a long, narrow or oval, smoothly rounded hill of unstratified glacial drift. Drumlins are generally found in broad lowland regions, with their long axes roughly parallel to the path of glacial flow.

QUESTION: 76

A ray of light travels from a medium of refractive index n, to a medium of refractive index n2. If angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction is r, then is equal to 

Solution:

According to Snell's law,

QUESTION: 77

A sample of gas is to be identified by means of its behaviour in the presence of a glowing splint. Which of the following gases will neither itself burn nor cause the splint to burn?

Solution:

Nitrogen neither itself burns nor causes the splint to burn because Nitrogen is an inert gas and an inert gas does not undergo chemical reactions under a set of given conditions.

QUESTION: 78

Leprosy is caused by
 

Solution:

Leprosy is a disease caused by bacteria called Mycobacterium Leprae. It affects mainly the skin and the nerves. Leprosy is also known as Hansen's disease after the scientist M. leprae who discovered it in 1873. Leprosy is spread between people. This is believed to occur through a cough or contact with fluid from the nose of an infected person.

QUESTION: 79

A topographical map with scale 1: 50000 indicates 1 cm to

Solution:

Topographic maps are detailed, accurate graphic representations of features that appear on the Earth's surface. A topographical map with scale 1:50000 indicates 1 cm to 500 m.

QUESTION: 80

Light waves projected on oil surface show seven colours due to the phenomenon of

Solution:

Refraction is the change in direction of propagation of a wave due to a change in its transmission medium. Thus, light waves projected on oil surface show seven colours.

QUESTION: 81

A monatomic species that has 18 electrons and a net charge of 2~ has

Solution:

A monatomic species has the same number of electrons as a neutral argon atom.

QUESTION: 82

Which one among the following is a plant hormone?

Solution:

Gibberellins are plant hormones that regulate growth and influence various developmental processes, including stem elongation, germination, dormancy, flowering, sex expression, enzyme induction, and leaf and fruit senescence.

QUESTION: 83

Quartzite is metamorphosed from

Solution:

Sandstone is converted into quartzite through heating and pressure. Thus, Quartzite is metamorphosed from sandstone.

QUESTION: 84

Which one of the following processes explains the splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent colours?

Solution:

A white light (sunlight) splits into its seven constituent colours VIBGYOR due to dispersion.

QUESTION: 85

The very high heat of vaporization of water is mainly a result of

Solution:

The very high heat of vaporisation of water is mainly a result of hydrogen bonding.

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following groups of plants can be used asindicators of S02 pollution of air?

Solution:

Lichens can be used as environmental indicators as they are very sensitive to sulphur dioxide pollution. Sulphur dioxide (S02) is a gas which is produced when a material containing sulphur is burned. If the air is badly polluted with sulphur dioxide, there may be no lichens present. The most tolerant lichens are those that are crusty in appearance whereas the leafy lichens are not very pollutant tolerant.

QUESTION: 87

The permanent wind that blows from the horse latitude to the equatorial region is known as

Solution:

Blowing from the subtropical highs or horse latitudes toward the low pressure of the ITCZ are the trade winds. They are named by their ability to quickly propel trading ships across the ocean. They blow from 30 degree north and south the Equator.

QUESTION: 88

​Two bodies A and B having masses m and 4m respectively are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio ofkinetic energies between A and B is

Solution:

The relation between linear momentum (P) and kinetic energy (K) is 

QUESTION: 89

Optical glass used in the construction of spectacles is made by

Solution:

Flint glass, also called lead crystal, heavy and durable glass characterized by its brilliance, clarity, and highly refractive quality is used in the construction of spectacles.

QUESTION: 90

Which one of the following cell organelles is absent in animal cell

Solution:

Cell wall is absent in animal cells. The main difference between plant and animal cells is that plant cells have a cell wall on the outer layer, whereas animal cells only have a cell membrane. The cell wall gives the plant its actual shape.

QUESTION: 91

Which one of the following is a warm ocean current?

Solution:

Kuroshio current is a warm current in the Pacific Ocean along the southern and eastern shores of Japan.

QUESTION: 92

A force apllied on a body is represented as

and accelerates it at 1 m/s2. The mass of the body is

Solution:

QUESTION: 93

The burning sensation of beesting can be stopped by rubbing the affected area with soap. This is because

Solution:

The burning sensation of a beesting can be stopped by rubbing the affected area with soap because a bee sting is acidic and soap is an alkali. That is why it neutralizes the acid injected by bee sting in to a person's skin.

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements:
1. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy to humans.
2. Fats give maximum energy on oxidation as compared to other foods.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Carbohydrates are not the only source of energy to humans. They need carbohydrates, fats, proteins, water, vitamins, and minerals for energy. Fats give maximum energy on oxidation as compared to other foods.

QUESTION: 95

The place located at the confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers is

Solution:

Devprayag is located in Tehri Garhwal district in Uttarakhand. At this place, Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers meet and take the name Ganga.

QUESTION: 96

Light waves are

Solution:

Light waves are electromagnetic waves. Electromagnetic waves are formed by the vibrations of electric and magnetic fields. These fields are perpendicular to one another in the direction the wave is travelling.

QUESTION: 97

A sample of carbon dioxide that undergoes a transformation from solid to liquid and then to gas would undergo

Solution:


Change in state of a substance does not involve change in mass, composition and physical properties instead of involves charge in volume which alter density.

QUESTION: 98

Which one of the following pairs of power projects is not correctly matched?

Solution:

Neyveli Thermal Power Station is a set of power plants situated near lignite mines ofNeyveli (Tamil Nadu). It is operated by NLC (Neyveli Lignite Corporation). It consists of two distinct units: Neyveli Thermal Power Station I -1020 MW and Neyveli Thermal Power Station-2 - 1,970 MW.

QUESTION: 99

A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r at a constant speed v. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents its acceleration a?

Solution:

The given situation is uniform circular motion. In this case, the centripetal accelerationis constantHence, the graph between 'a' and 'r' is 

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following element combinations will form ionic compounds?
1. Ca (Z = 20) and Ti (Z = 22)
2. Si (Z = 14) and Br (Z = 35)
3. Mg (Z = 12) and Cl (Z = 17)

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

An ionic bond is formed when one of the atoms can donate electrons to achieve the inert gas electron configuration, and the other atom need electron to achieve the inert gas electron configuration. Ionic bond is formed between metals and non-metals.

QUESTION: 101

In the term GIS, ‘G5 stands for

Solution:

In the term GIS, 'G' stands for Geographic. A geographic information system (GIS) is a system designed to capture, store, manipulate, analyze, manage , and present all types of spatial or geographical data. GIS applications are tools that allow users to create interactive queries (user-created searches), analyze spatial information, edit data in maps, and present the results of all these operations.

QUESTION: 102

A thermodynamic process where no heat is exchanged with the surroundings is

Solution:

An adiabatic process is one that occurs without transfer of heat or matter between a system and its surroundings.

QUESTION: 103

A compound X2Ocontains 31.58% oxygen by weight. The atomic mass of X is

Solution:

In compound X2O3,
Percentage of oxygen by weight = 31.58 Percentage of X by weight = 68.42
Let the atomic mass of 'X' = x

→ x = 50
So, atomic mass of'X' is 52 g mol-1.

QUESTION: 104

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of oil refineries in India in respect of their time of establishment (starting from the earliest)?

Solution:

Sequence of oil refineries in India according to their time of establishment is as follows:-
1. Guwahati Refinery -1962
2. Barauni Refinery-1964
3. HaldiaRefinery-1975
4. Mathura Refinery-1982

QUESTION: 105

Which one of the following circuit elements is an active component?

Solution:

As Pav = Vrms x Irms cos Ø is zero in case of pure capacitor and inductor circuits, and in a resistor there is a pow er loss. Hence it is consider as active component of a circuit.

QUESTION: 106

Which one among the following contains the most neutrons?

Solution:

Number of neutrons in

Number of neutrons in

Number of neutrons in

Number of neutrons in

QUESTION: 107

Movements of tides are mostly determined by

Solution:

Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth.

QUESTION: 108

Fahrenheit and Celsius are the two scales used for measuring temperature. If the numerical value of a temperature recorded in both the scales is found to be same, what is the temperature?

Solution:

Relation between Fahrenheit and Celsius scale is

Given that numercial value of a temperature recorded in both the scales are same.

QUESTION: 109

Turpentine oil in paints is used as a

Solution:

Turpentine oil is made from the resin of certain pine trees. Turpentine oil in paints is used as a thinner. 

QUESTION: 110

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

Woolen textile- Ludhiana(Punjab)
Cotton textile - Davanagere (Karnataka)
Silk textile - Sualkuchi(Assam)
Jute textile - Rishra(West Bengal)

QUESTION: 111

Kerosene oil rises in a wick of lantern because of

Solution:

The kerosene oil rises in a wick of lantern because of capillary action in the wick. Capillary action is the movement of liquid along a surface of a solid caused by the attraction of molecules of the liquid to the molecules of the solid. For example, plants use capillary action to bring water up the roots and stems to the rest of the plant. 

QUESTION: 112

If the reaction of 1.0 mol NH3(g) and 1.0 mol 02 (g)
4NH3(g) + 502(g) —> 4NO(g) + 61^0(0
is carried to completion, then

Solution:

4NH3 + 502 -> 4N0 + 6H20 4 mol 5 mol
lmol 4 = 1.25 mol 4
Since, for 1 mol of NH3,1.25 mol of 02 are required, therefore, 02 is the limiting factor (here 02 is only 1 mol). Hence, all 02 will be consumed in reaching with 1 mol ofNH3.

QUESTION: 113

Which of the following sequences is correct for rainfall?

Solution:

There is negative relationship between rainfall and pressure. When the air pressure is lower, more rainfall occurs. When there is low pressure in the atmosphere, the air bubbles that is rising, are always hotter than the air around. If the ground is heated then air will rise. The cool air will produce condensation that will ultimately lead to rainfall.

QUESTION: 114

The working of a microwave oven involves

Solution:

A microwave oven is based on maser.' Maser' is a device that produces coherent electromagnetic waves through amplification by stimulated emission.

QUESTION: 115

What would be the total population at the end of the year if population at the beginning of the year is 5000 and population changed during the year i s - birth 250, death 60, immigration 30 and emigrant 15?

Solution:

Total population =Population at the begining of the year + [Birth+Immigration] - [Death + Emigration] 5000 + [250 + 30] - [60 +15]= 5205

QUESTION: 116

Two cars A and B have masses mA and mB respectively, with mA > mB. Both the cars are moving in the same direction with equal kinetic energy. If equal braking force is applied on both, then before coming to rest

Solution:

QUESTION: 117

If the length of the Equator is about 40000 km and the velocity of rotation is about 1700 km per hour, what would be the velocity of rotation at the Pole?

Solution:

Using Ve = ReW 1700
km/h=20000 xW

Velocity of rotation of pole,
Vp=Rp
Rp = 0 ⇒VP = 0

 

QUESTION: 118

A bullet is fired vertically up from a 400 m tall tower with a speed 80 m/s. If g is taken as 10 m/s2, the time taken by the bullet to reach the ground will be

Solution:

Total time taken to reach the ground T = t1+t2 +t3 u=80m/s

Velocity of the bullet at point A ,
 

VA=0m/s.
a=- lOm/s
V = u + at
0 = 80-10 t1 = 8s
t2 = t1 (as there is no air resistance)
Calculation for t3
Velocity of the bullet at point B,
VB = u=80m/s
h =400m

Time cannot be negative hence neglecting t3 = - 20s
Total time T= 8 + 8 + 4 = 20 s

QUESTION: 119

A cyclotron accelerates particles of mass m and charge q. The energy of particles emerging is proportional to

Solution:

As we know, for cyclotron qVB 

QUESTION: 120

The electric field inside a perfectly conducting hollow object is

Solution:

The electric field inside a perfectly conducting hollow object is zero as there is no charge inside the object electrostatic shielding.
And from Gauss' law 
Therefore electric field inside 

QUESTION: 121

The densities of three liquids are D, 2D and 3D. What will be the density of the resulting mixture if equal volumes of the three liquids are mixed?

Solution:

Therefore electric field inside £inside = 0 If equal volume of liquids of density Pj, p2 ....pn are mixed the density of the mixture is equal to the arithmetic mean of liquid densities

QUESTION: 122

A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight lineABC, where AB=BC. Theaverage velocity ofthe particle from A to B is 10 m/s and from B to C is 15 m/s. The average velocity for the whole journey from A to C in m/s is

Solution:


Average velocity of whole journey


QUESTION: 123

The dimension of ‘impulse5 is the same as that of

Solution:

Im pulse= Change in linear momentum
Hence, the dimension of impulse is same as linear momentum.

QUESTION: 124

Consider the following statements:
1. China won both Thomas Cup and Uber Cup Badminton Tournaments, 2014.
2. The Uber Cup is the World Team Championship for women and the Thomas Cup is for men.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Japan won the Thomas Cup 2014 of badminton 2014. China won Uber Cup 2014 of badminton. Thomas Cup is for men and Uber Cup is related to Women.

QUESTION: 125

Consider the following statements about Drishti system:
1. It is a sophisticated instrument to assess the runway visual range.
2. This system is developed by Airports Authority of India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Drishti is an indigenously developed runway visibility measuring instrument. It will help pilots during landing and takeoff. The system is developed jointly by the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) Bengaluru and Indian Meteorological Department. IMD is responsible for providing navigation services at the airports. 

QUESTION: 126

Which of the following about Malavath Poorna is correct?

Solution:

Malavath Purna (13 years old) from Telangana became the youngest female climber in the world to scale the Mount Everest.

QUESTION: 127

Which one among the following countries was the top contributor to India’s FDI for the year 2013-14?

Solution:

As per the data of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), during the financial year 2013­14, India received $5.98 billion inFDI from Singapore. With this, Singapore has replaced Mauritius as the top contributor to India's FDI during 2013-14. 

QUESTION: 128

Which of the following statements about SIMBEX 14 is/are correct?
1. It was a bilateral naval exercise between Indian navy and Sri Lankan navy.
2. It was the 21 st in the series.
3. It was conducted in the Andaman Sea.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

SIMBEX 14 was a bilateral naval exercise between Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy. It was the 21st in the series. It was conducted in the Andaman Sea from 22 May to 28 May 2014.

QUESTION: 129

Consider the following statements:
1. Mobile Seva, the National Mobile Governance Initiative of Department ofElectronics and Information Technology of India, has won the United Nations Public Service Award, 2014.
2. The innovative initiative is aimed at mainstreaming mobile governance in the country.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

India's Mobile Governance Initiative (Mobile Seva) bags United Nations Public Service Award for 2014. It was launched by Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY), Government of India. The "Mobile Seva" initiative of Government of India aims at mainstreaming mobile governance in the country as a compelling new paradigm for delivery of public services electronically through the mobile platform.

QUESTION: 130

Consider the following statements about Prithvi-II Missile:
1. It is a nuclear-capable ballistic missile.
2. It has a maximum range of 100 km
3. It is India’s first native made ballistic missile.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Prithvi-II is a nuclear capable surface-to-surface missile. With a strike range of 350 km, Prithvi-II is capable of carrying 500 kg to 1,000 kg of warheads and is thrusted by liquid propulsion twine engines. 

QUESTION: 131

Consider the following statements about Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS):
1. IRNSS is a constellation of five satellites, which were launched by PSLV.
2. It is an independent regional navigation satellite system designed to provide position information in the Indian region.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. The IRNSS would provide two services, with the Standard Positioning Service open for civilian use, and the Restricted Service (an encrypted one) for authorized users (including the military). IRNSS-1 A, IRNSS- IB, IRNSS-1C, IRNSS-1D were launched by PSLV but IRNSS-1E, IRNSS-1F, IRNSS-1G have not been launched so far.

QUESTION: 132

The National Defence Academy has foreign cadets from which of the following countries?

1. Bhutan
2. Bangladesh
3. Nepal
4. Afghanistan

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The National Defence Academy has trained 700 cadets from the 28 friendly countries including Afghanistan, Bhutan, Ethiopia, Ghana, Fiji, Nepal etc.Bangladesh is not in the list.

QUESTION: 133

From which one among the following countries has India recently (May 2014) recalled its troops, who went for a joint combat exercise in the country?

Solution:

In May, 2014, India recalled its troops sent to Thailand for a joint combat exercise in the South-East Asian country. India withdraw the troops and called for an early restoration of demoncracy in Thailand.

QUESTION: 134

Who among the following was associated with the formulation of the basic ideas of the Mahayana Buddhism?

Solution:

Nagarjuna was a Buddhist philosopher who is considered to be the founder of the Madhyamaka(Madhyamika) school of Mahayana Buddhism.

QUESTION: 135

Consider the following statements about Harappan Culture:
1. The Harappan Culture matured in Sind and Punjab.
2. It spread from there to Southwards and Eastwards
3. The area, where it spread, was bigger than Egypt and Mesopotamia.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Harappan culture developed and matured in to man urban civilization that developed in Sind and Punjab.From there it spread southwards Southwards and estwardsEastwards.Its area was 1,299,600 sq km,which is a larger area than that of Pakistan and certainly larger than Egypt and Mesopotamia.

QUESTION: 136

Megasthenes was a

Solution:

Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya. He was also the author of the book Indica.

QUESTION: 137

By the late 19th century, India was one of the largest producers and exporters of

Solution:

By the late 19th century India was one of the largest producers and exporters of Cotton cotton Yarn yarn and wheat. The export of Indian wheat progressed after Suez Canal opened in 1869. About 17% of India's wheat was exported by 1890s.

QUESTION: 138

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of appearance of the poet-saints of the Bhakti-Sufi tradition?

Solution:

The correct sequence isAppar-
7th century CE
Basavanna-1134- 1196CE
Lai Ded-1320-1392CE
MiraBai-1498-1557 CE

QUESTION: 139

Who among the following did not bring trading ships to the port of Surat in pre-British times?

Solution:

Russian and German did not bring trading ships to the port of Surat in pre-British times.

QUESTION: 140

The Factory Act of 1891 in India was enacted to

Solution:

The factory Act of 1891 in India was enacted to improve the condition of labour in India. It provided some specific rules and regulations including-the age o f child labour to be established from nine to twelve,child labour could work maximum of six hours,women were given halfgiven half an hour break etc.

QUESTION: 141

Which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

The Vice-President of India is the ex-ofticio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament. Rajya Sabha also elects one of its members to be the Deputy Chairman.

QUESTION: 142

Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?

Solution:

The Drafting Committee for framing the constitution was appointed on 29th August 1947.The committee comprised of a chairman and six other members. The co m m ittee m em bers w ere:- Dr B. R. Ambedkar(C hairm an), K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopalaswami Ayengar, B L Mitter,Md. Saadullah and DPKhaitan.

QUESTION: 143

Who among the following was not a member of the ‘Big Four5 in the Congress of Vienna (1815)?

Solution:

The Congress of Vienna was a conference of ambassadors of European states, and held in Vienna from September 1814 to June 1815. The goal was not simply to restore old boundaries, but to resize the main powers so they could balance each other off and remain at peace. The "Big Four" Mmembers included the "Big Four" and France are Austria, England, Prussia and Russia. Later on, France was also invited to join.

QUESTION: 144

The Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates from nine of the thirteen colonies met in 1765 at

Solution:

The Stamp Act Congress met in a Federal Hall building was a meeting held between October 7 and 25,1765 in New York City, ilt was the first gathering of elected representatives from several of the American colonies to devise a unified protest against new British taxation.

QUESTION: 145

Which of the following American colonies did not attend the first Continental Congress held in Philadelphia?

Solution:

The first Continental Congress met in Carpenter's Hall in Philadelphia, from September 5, to October 26,1774. A ll of the colonies except Georgia sent delegates. Countries which sent their delegates are New Hampshire , Massachusetts Bay, Rhode Island , Connecticut, New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania, Delaware, Maryland, Virginia, North and south Carolina.

QUESTION: 146

The Bolshevik Revolution started in Russia during the reign of

Solution:

The Bolshevik Revolution started in Russia during the reign of Czar Nicholas 11 (1894-1917). Nicholas II was the last Emperor and the last Czar of Russia. He was executed along with his family by the Bolsheviks.

QUESTION: 147

Which of the following is/are not related to fundamental duties?

1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
3. To promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Article 51 (A), Part IV(A) of the Indian Constitution, specifies the list of fundamental duties of the citizens. According to it "to promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled castes and Scheduled Tribes" and "To protect all monuments of historic interests and national importance" are not fundamental duties.

QUESTION: 148

Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held to

Solution:

In case of a deadlock due to disagreement between the two Houses on a Bill, an extraordinary situation arises which is resolved by both the Houses sitting together.which is resolved by both the Houses sitting together. The Constitution empowers the President to summon a 'joint sitting' of both the Houses. Article 108 of the constitution deals with the Joint sitting of both Houses.

QUESTION: 149

The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency

Solution:

Article 352 of the Indian Constitution mentions the National Emergency in India can be declared by. Tthe President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

QUESTION: 150

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the working of the Permanent Settlement in Bengal?

1. The traditional Zamindars lost their lands.
2. The reason for the Zamindars5 inability to pay up land revenues was that the Ryots defaulted on payment of revenue.
3. A new group of farmers - the Jotedars - became influential.
4. The Collector replaced the Zamindars as the alternative focus of authority

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

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