NDA I - English & General Ability 2015


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA I - English & General Ability 2015


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This mock test of NDA I - English & General Ability 2015 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA I - English & General Ability 2015 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA I - English & General Ability 2015 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA I - English & General Ability 2015 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA I - English & General Ability 2015 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

Unless you stop making noise at once I will have no option but to bring the matter to the attention of the police.

QUESTION: 2

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

Instead of ‘shed’ it should be ‘shedding’.

QUESTION: 3

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

Whether the principles he stood for or the benefits....

QUESTION: 4

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

‘Later ’ half of the nineteenth century.

QUESTION: 5

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response. 

Solution:

No sooner did I open the door than the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in making us shiver from head to foot.

QUESTION: 6

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

After opening the door we entered the room next to the kitchen.

QUESTION: 7

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

When the dentist came in my tooth stopped aching out of fear that I might lose my tooth.

QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

Emphasis on equality of life ensures the health and happiness of every individual.

QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

The students were awaiting the arrival of the chief guest.

QUESTION: 10

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

You will come to my party, won't you?

QUESTION: 11

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

Having read a number of stories about space travel he now dreams of visiting the moon.

QUESTION: 12

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

The meeting was abruptly adjourned by the Chairman after about three hours of deliberation.

QUESTION: 13

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

Not one of the hundreds of striking workers was allowed to go near the factory.

QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a No error' response.

Solution:

If I had known this earlier I would have helped him.

QUESTION: 15

DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined

Solution:

Mr. Smith was accused of murder but the court found him not guilty and acquitted him.

QUESTION: 16

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. Although India is still by far a poor country, it can become rich if its natural and human resources are fully utilised.

Solution:

Although India is still by and large a poor country, it can become rich if its natural and human resources are fully utilised.

QUESTION: 17

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) o r (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. The more they earn, more they spend.

Solution:

The more they earn, the more they spend.

QUESTION: 18

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. But in all these cases conversion from one scale to another is easy because scales have well-formulated.

Solution:

But in all these cases conversion from one scale to another is easy because scales are well-formulated.

QUESTION: 19

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. Five years ago on this date, I am sitting in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.

Solution:

Five years ago on this date, I sat in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.

QUESTION: 20

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly no effort at all.

Solution:

The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly any effort at all.

QUESTION: 21

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. She says she's already paid me back, but I can't remember, so I'll have to take her word.

Solution:

She says she's already paid me back, but I can't remember, so I'll have to take her word for it.

QUESTION: 22

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.

Solution:

The workers are hell bent on getting what is due to them.

QUESTION: 23

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. You are warned against committing the same mistake again,

Solution:

You are warned against committing the same mistake again.

QUESTION: 24

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. While we would like that all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.

Solution:

While we would like all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.

QUESTION: 25

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. Due to these reasons we are all in favour of universal compulsory education.

Solution:

For these reasons we are all in favour of universal compulsory education.

QUESTION: 26

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the Protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.

Solution:

When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders joined the princes in crushing them.

QUESTION: 27

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. In India, today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of the French revolution and the Rights of Man, not appred ating that much has happened since them.

Solution:

In India today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms ofthe French Revolution and the Rights of Man, not appreciating that much has happened since then.

QUESTION: 28

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. Taxpayers are to be conscious of their privileges.

Solution:

Taxpayers have to be conscious of their privileges.

QUESTION: 29

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. I would have waited for you at the station if I knew that your would come.

Solution:

I would have waited for you at the station if I had known that you would come.

QUESTION: 30

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ’No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like him could penetrate such a mindless act on his friends.

Solution:

No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like him could perpetrate such a mindless act on his friends.

QUESTION: 31

DIRECTIONS: In items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

SI : At the roadside the driver will be asked to blowthrough a small glass tube into a plastic bag.
S6: The driver will be asked to go to the police station.
P : A nd i f the colour change does not reach the line the driver cannot be punished under the new law.
Q : Inside the tube are chemically treated crystals which change colour if the driver has alcohol on his breath. R: But if the colour change does reach the line, then the test has proved positive.
S : I f the colour change goes beyond a certain line marked on the tube this indicates that the driver is probably over the specified limit.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:

The correct sequence is QSPR. The sentence SI tells us about a small glass tube. The next sentence should be a description about the tube and hence Q. Now S should come next because it gives the introduction of the color change followed by Sentence P. Sentence S6 is in sync with Sentence R because they tell what will happen if the line is crossed. Thus R should come before S6.

QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS: In items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

SI: Hope springs eternally in the heart of man.
S6: This is the central idea of the poem.
P : But hope is everlasting.
Q : Love, friendship and youth perish.
R: It is nursed by the glorious elements of nature.
S : M an derives hope from natu re in h is g allant struggle after some noble ideal.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:

The correct sequence is RSQP The sentence SI describes how hope springs eternally in the heart of man. The next sentence should be R because it describes the elements of hope and how they are nursed by nature. Thus the next sentence should be S which describes the nature and ideal of hope. The following sentence should be Q because it describes love, friendship and youth perish and is in continuation of S. The next sentence should be its continuity that all these perish but hope remains and hence P. It is in continuation of S6.

QUESTION: 33

DIRECTIONS: In items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet

SI : Mr Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson were spending a weekend in a University town.
S6: It was clear that something very unusual happend.
P: One evening they received a visit from an acquaintance, Mr Hilton Soames.
Q : On that occasion he was in a state of greatagitation .R: They were staying in furnished rooms, close to the library.
S : Mr Soames was at all, thin man of anervous and excitable nature.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:

The correct sequence is RPSQ. The sentence SI describes that Mr. Sherlock Holmes and Dr. Watson are spending a weekend in University town. The next sentence should be R because it is in continuation of SI and describes where they are staying. The next sentence should be P because it describes the event that they get visited by Mr. Soames. Next sentence should be S because it describes Mr. Soames. The next sentence should be Q because it describes his state of mind and is in continuation ofthe S6 sentence.

QUESTION: 34

DIRECTIONS: In items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet

SI: The machines that drive modem civilisation derive their power from coal and oil.
S6 : Nuclear energy may also be effectively used in this respect.
P : But they are not in exhaustible .
Q : These sources may not be exhausted very soon.
R : A time may come when some other sources have to be tapped and utilised.
S : Power may, of course , be obtained in future from forestes, water, wind and withered vegetables.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

DIRECTIONS: In items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet

SI : The body can never stop.
S6: It comes from food.
P : To support this endless activity, the body needs all the fuel for action.
Q : Sometimes it is more active than at other times, but it is always moving.
R: Even in the deepest sleep we must breathe.
S : The fuel must come from somewhere.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:

The correct sequence is QRPS. The sentence SI talks about how our body never stops. The next sentence should be Q because it describes that the body is continuously moving. The next sentence should be R because it describes that even while we are sleeping our body moves when we breathe. Following this sentence should be P which tells that fuel is needed for all these activities. Sentence S and S6 are in sync and continuation.

QUESTION: 36

DIRECTIONS: In items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet

SI : American idealism is essentially a belief in the idea of progress.
S6 : This sense they have inherited from the English .
P : Therefore, he believes that, because of human effort, the future will be better than the past.
Q : But if American are usually optimistic , they are not wholly unrealistic.
R: The American tends to view history as a record of human achievement.
S : They have some common sense practicality.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:

The correct sequence is RPQS. The sentence S1 talks about the American idealism. The next sentence should be a continuation of the same describing the American idealism and hence R. The next sentence should be in continuance and thus P because it describes the idealism of American. The next sentence should be Q. Sentence S and S6 are in sync and continuation

QUESTION: 37

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage,

Q. Choose the best word out of the three Mark the letter, viz (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word
After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly to him that he was being by someone. There was really no for it except a very slight, of footsteps. He was now walking the main street, which was crowded people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him.

Solution:

Occurred is the most appropriate word.

QUESTION: 38

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage,

Q. Choose the best word out of the three Mark the letter, viz (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word
After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly to him that he was being by someone. There was really no for it except a very slight, of footsteps. He was now walking the main street, which was crowded people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him.

Solution:

Followed is the most appropriate word.

QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage

Q. Choose the best word out of the three Mark the letter, viz (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word
After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly to him that he was being by someone. There was really no for it except a very slight, of footsteps. He was now walking the main street, which was crowded people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him.

Solution:

Evidence is the most appropriate word.

QUESTION: 40

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage

Q. Choose the best word out of the three Mark the letter, viz (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word
After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly to him that he was being by someone. There was really no for it except a very slight, of footsteps. He was now walking the main street, which was crowded people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him

Solution:

Sound is the most appropriate word.

QUESTION: 41

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage

Q. Choose the best word out of the three Mark the letter, viz (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word
After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly to him that he was being by someone. There was really no for it except a very slight, of footsteps. He was now walking the main street, which was crowded people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him.

Solution:

down is the most appropriate word

QUESTION: 42

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage,

Q. Choose the best word out of the three Mark the letter, viz (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word
After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly to him that he was being by someone. There was really no for it except a very slight, of footsteps. He was now walking the main street, which was crowded people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him.

Solution:

With is the most appropriate word.

QUESTION: 43

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. He was fired for negligence on duty.

Solution:

Fired means dismiss (an employee) from a job. Its synonym is relived from the job. Rebuke and scolded means express sharp disapproval or criticism of (someone) because of their behaviour or actions. Attacked means criticize

QUESTION: 44

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Democracy is not the standardising of everyone so as to obliterate all peculiarity.

Solution:

Obliterate means destroy utterly; wipe out. Its synonym is erase. Demolish means to destroy( it is used generally for buildings). Extinguish means to wipe out.

QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Divine grace is truly ineffable.

Solution:

Ineffable means too great for words.

QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. The convocation address was very edifying.

Solution:

Edifying means providing moral or intellectual instruction. Therefore its synonym is instructive. Tedious means monotonous. Exciting means appealing.

QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. John is always shabbily dressed.

Solution:

Shabbily means showing signs of wear and tear; threadbare or worn-out. Its antonym is decently dressed meaning appropriately. Extravagant means indulgent and scantily means hardly dressed.

QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word

Q. The new manager of the Bank is urbane in his manners.

Solution:

Urbane means courteous and refined in manner, civilised. Its antonym is rude meaning uncivilised and disrespectful. Foolish means stupid. Slowmeans dumb.

QUESTION: 49

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. It is necessary to develop thrifty habits to be able to lead a comfortable life.

Solution:

Thrifty means economical. Its antonym is extravagant meaning indulgent and wasteful. Expensive means costly. Good means fine.

QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Many people suffer because of pride.

Solution:

Pride means consciousness of one's own dignity. Its antonym is humility meaning humbleness. Lowliness means bashfulness, submission means compliance and obedience means good behaviour.

QUESTION: 51

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Q. Statement I : Growth of plants is smooth with a complete fertilizer.
Statement I I : A complete fertilizer always contains N, P, K

Solution:

Complete fertilisers are usually defined as fertilizers containing all three macronutrients: nitrogen , phosphorus and potassium (N, P, K)

QUESTION: 52

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Q. Statement I : The granules of modem gunpowder (also called black powder) are typically coated with Graphite.
Statement I I : Graphite prevents the build-up of electrostatic charge

Solution:

Commercial black powder looks black because the little lumps of the stuff are coated with graphite. In the manufacturing process, the powder's mixed with water or some other liquid binder, pressed into cakes and dried, then crushed and screened into powders of various particle size, larger particles producing a slower burn. The graphite serves no chemical purpose, but it lubricates the particles, and also makes the bulk powder electrically conductive enough that it is unlikely to initiate proceedings unexpectedly because of a static- electricity spark.

QUESTION: 53

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Q. Statement I : Colour of nitrogen dioxide changes to colourless at low temperature.
Statement I I : At low temperature Nitrogen tetroxide (N204) is formed which is colourless.

Solution:

N02 exists in equilibrium with the colourless gas dinitrogen tetroxide(N204). At higher temperature N02 is favoured while at low temperature N204 predominates.

QUESTION: 54

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Q. Statement I : Diamond is very bright.
Statement I I : Diamond has very low refractive index.

Solution:

The refractive index of diamond is very high (2.417). 

QUESTION: 55

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Q. Statement I : Oxygen gas is easily produced at a faster rate by heating a mixture of potassium chlorate and manganese dioxide than heating potassium chlorate alone.
Statement I I : Manganese dioxide acts as a negative catalyst.

Solution:

Heating a mixture of potassium chlorate and manganese dioxide produces oxygen gas and manganese dioxide acts as a positive catalyst.

QUESTION: 56

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Q. Statement I : A body weighs less on a hill top than on earth's surface even though its mass remains unchanged.
Statement I I : The acceleration due to gravity o f the earth decreases with height.

Solution:

Mass is an invariant quantity. Acceleration due to gravity (g) decreases with altitude as one rises above the Earth's surface because greater altitude means greater distance from the Earth's centre.
W e ig h t, w = m ass (m) x ace. due to gravity (g)

Hence body weighs less on hill top than on earth's surface.

QUESTION: 57

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Q. Statement I : While putting clothes for drying up, we spread them out.
Statement I I : The rate of evaporation increases w ith an increase in surface area.

Solution:

An increased surface area means that more liquid will be exposed to air at one time, and therefore, more water can evaporate in a given time period

QUESTION: 58

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Q. Statement I : Due to diffused o f irregular reflection o f light, a closed room gets light even if no direct sunlight falls inside the room.
Statement I I : Irregular reflection, where the reflected rays are not parallel, does not follow the laws of reflection.

Solution:

Diffuse reflection is the reflection of light from a rough surface such that an incident rays are reflected at many angles rather than at just one angle. In diffused reflection reflect rays are not parallel but obey laws of reflection

QUESTION: 59

Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 x 105 Hz are passed through a medium where speed of sound is 10 times that in air (Speed of sound in air is 300 m/s). The wavelength of this wave in that medium will be of the order of

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

If radius of the earth were to shrink by 1 %, its mass remaining the same, g would decrease by nearly

Solution:

If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, mass remaining the same, the value of g will increase by 2%.
Therefore value of g will increase by 2%.

QUESTION: 61

The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a constant force is

Solution:

Constant force means constant acceleration.
Nows = ut+ l/2 at2.
It represents a parabola.

QUESTION: 62

Which one of the following is not a result of surface tension?

Solution:

Surface tension is the elastic tendency of liquids which makes them acquire the least surface area possible, (a) (b) and (c) are due to surface tension.

QUESTION: 63

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Solution:

Sodium hydroxide is an alkali hydroxide. Calcium oxide is a base. Acetic acid is a weak acid and hydrochloric acid is a strong acid.

QUESTION: 64

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

Ratnagiri Bauxite mines are located in Maharashtra.

QUESTION: 65

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Solution:

Kamptee is a city and a municipal council in Nagpur district in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Rajahmundry is one of the major cities in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. Shahdol is a city in Shahdol district in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. Belagola is a village in the southern state of Karnataka, India.

QUESTION: 66

The newly formed state of Telengana is surrounded by

Solution:

Telangana is bordered by the states of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh to the north, Karnataka to the west, and Andhra Pradesh to the south, east and north east.

QUESTION: 67

Energy is required for maintenance of life. It is obtained by a process called

Solution:

Metabolism refers to all the physical and chemical processes in the body that convert or use energy, such as breathing, circulating blood, controlling body temperature, food digestion etc

QUESTION: 68

All life forms contain "molecules of life". These are

Solution:

The basic types of molecules are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids.

QUESTION: 69

If a charged particle (+q) is projected with certain velocity parallel to the magnetic field, then it will

Solution:

If the charged particle is moving along the magnetic field - parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field-then there would be no force on it as F = qv B sinθ

QUESTION: 70

Optical fibres, though bent in any manner, allows light to pass through. What is the inference that one can draw from it ?

Solution:

Once the light enters the end of the tube or fibre, it experiences total internal reflection because of the large angle of incidence.

QUESTION: 71

Which one among the following happens when a swing rises to a certain height from its rest position?

Solution:

As the swing rises, its kinetic energy changes to potential energy; as with height potential energy PE. = mgh increases. And according to law of conservation of energy total energy E = K.E + P. E constant.

QUESTION: 72

Which one among the following is used in making gunpowder ?

Solution:

Gunpowder is a mixture of sulfur, charcoal, and potassium nitrate (saltpeter).

QUESTION: 73

The cleaning action of soap and detergent in water is due to the formation of

Solution:

A spherical aggregate of soap molecules in the soap solution in water is called micelle. When soap is dissolved in water, it forms a colloidal suspension in which the soap molecules cluster together to form spherical micelles.

QUESTION: 74

The chemical used as a fixer/developer in photography is

Solution:

Fixation is commonly achieved by treating the film or paper with a solution of thiosulfatesalt. Popular salts are sodium thiosulfate-commonly called hypo-and ammonium thiosulfate-commonly used in modem rapid fixer formulae

QUESTION: 75

Rain shadow effect is associated with

Solution:

The condition exists because warm moist air rises by orographic lifting to the top of a mountain range. As atmospheric pressure decreases with increasing altitude, the air has expanded and adiabatically cooled to the point that the air reaches its adiabatic dew point. At the adiabatic dew point, moisture condenses onto the mountain and it precipitates on the top and windward sides of the mountain.

QUESTION: 76

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Solution:

Jabalpur is the place of commercial automobiles. Bangalore is the IT hub. Mathura is famous for its petro­chemical industries. Ballarpur has paper industries.

QUESTION: 77

Which one of the following irrigation canals is the most important in terms of area coverage in Haryana?

Solution:

The total length of the canal along with its distributaries is 3,200 km and it irrigates about 4 lakh hectares in Ambala, Kurukshetra, Kamal, Panipat, Rohtak, Hissar, Sirsa, Faridabadand Jind districts. It's important branches are, the Delhi, the Hansi and the Sirsa branch.

QUESTION: 78

Which one of the following is the smallest unit showing the properties of life such as capacity for metabolism, response to the environment, growth and reproduction ?

Solution:

Cells are the smallest unit of life that can replicate independently, and are often called the “building blocks of life

QUESTION: 79

In plants, which one of the following gases is released during Photosynthesis?

Solution:

In photosynthesis, oxygen is also released as a waste product.

QUESTION: 80

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Solution:

Large distance is measured in light year. Amount of a material is measured by mole. Amount of electrical charge is measured in coulomb. Energy is measured in watt hour.

QUESTION: 81

A ray of light when refracted suffers change in velocity. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct ?

Solution:

As we know refractive index

decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser medium

QUESTION: 82

An object placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The image produced will be

Solution:

When the object is located between F and optical centre, the image produced is virtual and magnified.

QUESTION: 83

Why is Graphite used in electrolytic cells ?

Solution:

Graphite contain free electrons in their structures and is thus a good conductor of electricity

QUESTION: 84

Washing Soda is the comon name for

Solution:

Sodium carbonate is also known as washing soda, soda ash and soda crystals

QUESTION: 85

Which one of the following Indian states has the highest proportion of area under forest cover?

Solution:

In terms of percentage of forest cover with respect to total geographical area, Mizoram with 90.38 percent had the highest forest cover in terms of percentage of forest cover to Geographical area

QUESTION: 86

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Solution:

The Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the eastern region of Uttar Pradesh. Silent Valley National Park is in Kerala. Valley of flowers is in Uttarakhand. Indravati National Park is the finest and most famous wildlife parks of Chhattisgarh

QUESTION: 87

To a perpendicular to the plane of ecliptic, Earth's axis of rotation makes an angle of egrees. Had this angle been zero degree, which one among the following would result ?

Solution:

In astronomy, axial tilt (also called obliquity) is the angle between an object's rotational axis and the perpendicular to its Orbital plane, both oriented by the right hand rule. At an obliquity of 0°, these lines point in the same direction i.e. the rotational axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane. Axial tilt differs from inclination. Over the course of an orbit, the angle of the axial tilt does not change, and the orientation of the axis remains the same relative to the background stars. This causes one pole to be directed toward the Sun on one side of the orbit, and the other pole on the other side, the cause of the seasons on the Earth.

QUESTION: 88

Gametophytes of sexually reproducing flowering plants are

Solution:

The gametophyte is the multi-cellular structure (plant) that is haploid, containing a single set of chromosomes in each cell. The gametophyte produces male or female gametes (or both) by a process of cell division called mitosis.

QUESTION: 89

The seeds of flowering plants are made up of

Solution:

Seeds are the package of food. It contains embryo and is covered with a coat.

QUESTION: 90

A person stands on his two feet over a surface and experiences a pressure P. Now the person stands on only one foot. He would experience a pressure of magnitude

Solution:

Pressure, P= F/A; P' = F/A/2 = 2F/A; P = 2P

QUESTION: 91

A solid is melted and allowed to cool and solidify again. The temperature is measured at equal intervals of time. The graph below shows the change of temperature with time

Q. The part of the curve that is practically horizontal due to

Solution:

Latent heat is the energy absorbed or released at constant temperature per unit mass for change of state.

QUESTION: 92

A deep sea diver may hurt his ear drum during diving because of

Solution:

As you descend, water pressure increases, and the volume of air in your body decreases. This can cause problems such as sinus pain or a ruptured ear drum.

QUESTION: 93

When you walk on a woolen carpet and bring your finger near the metallic handle of a door an electric shock is produced. This is because

Solution:

All materials are made up of negatively- and positively-charged particles. These usually exist in equal amounts, balancing each other out. But when two materials come into contact, one may 'steal' negatively-charged electrons from the other. One material ends up with more negative charges than positive ones, meaning that it becomes negatively-charged overall, whilst the other becomes positively-charged. If the charges cannot move away as they are produced, they accumulate in the material as static charge, or electricity. Once you have built up a big enough static charge, an electric shock is almost inevitable. The moment you touch a conducting material such as metal, the excess electrons jump between your hand and the conductor, giving you a shock.

QUESTION: 94

Which one among the following does not wet the walls of the glass vessel in which it is kept ?

Solution:

Mercury in a glass flask is a good example of the effects of the ratio between cohesive and adhesive forces. Because of its high cohesion and low adhesion to the glass, mercury does not spread out to cover the top of the flask, and if enough is placed in the flask to cover the bottom, it exhibits a strongly convex meniscus, whereas the meniscus of water is concave. Mercury will not wet the glass, unlike water and many other liquids, and if the glass is tipped, it will 'roll' around inside

QUESTION: 95

Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of

Solution:

Permanent hardness of water is usually caused by the presence of calcium sulfate and/or magnesium sulfates in the water.

QUESTION: 96

In the reaction acts as

Solution:

’C* acts as a reducing agent in this reaction. A reducing agent is a substance that loses electrons, making it possible for another substance to gain electrons and be reduced. The oxidized substance is always the reducing agent.

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following are the characteristics of organic farming?
1. Use of chemical fertilizers to improve soil fertility.
2. Frequent decomposing and fallowing.
3. Use of herbs to control pests.
4. Higher productivity per hectare.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

In organic farming, weed and pest control is based on methods like crop rotation, biological diversity, natural predators, organic manures and suitable chemical, thermal and biological intervention.

QUESTION: 98

'Yakuts' are the nomadic herders of

Solution:

Yakuts are the nomadic reindeer herder of Tundra.

QUESTION: 99

A farmer in a semi-arid area claims that his farming practice is very environment friendly. Which of the following practices on his farm can justify his claim ?
1. Planting a tree belt.
2. Practising crop rotation.
3. Carrying out a large scale irrigation system.
4. Using organic fertilizers.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

1,2 and 4 are correct.

QUESTION: 100

The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation in tropical rainforest is due to
1. fertile soil.
2. hot and wet climate throughout the year.
3. intense sunlight for photosynthesis.
4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

What makes humid tropical forests so productive is the combination of high temperatures, light, and rainfall year-round (good growing conditions) coupled with especially efficient nutrient recycling.

QUESTION: 101

Which endocrine gland requires iodine to synthesize a particular hormone whose deficiency may cause goitre disease?

Solution:

Thyroid gland requires iodine to produce its hormone.

QUESTION: 102

Which one of the following is not a part of nerves?

Solution:

A nerve is an enclosed, cable-like bundle of axons (the long, slender projections of neurons) in the peripheral nervous system. Neurons are sometimes called nerve cells, though this term is potentially misleading since many neurons do not form nerves, and nerves also include non-neuronal Schwann cells that coat the axons in myelin. Finally, the entire nerve is wrapped in a layer of connective tissue called the epineurium. 

QUESTION: 103

The product of counductivity and resistivity of a conductor

Solution:

Conductivity (σ) is the reciprocal of resistivity.

QUESTION: 104

We use CFL to save electrical energy and to provide sufficient light. The full form of CFL is

Solution:

Compact Fluorescent Lamp is the energy saving lamp, designed to reduce the electric power consumption.

QUESTION: 105

When the sun is 30° above the horizon, shadow of one tree is 17.3 m long. What is the height of this tree?

Solution:

From trigonometry tan 30° = 

QUESTION: 106

When heat rays are reflected from Earth, gases like Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide do not allow them to escape back to the space causing our planet to heat up. These gases are known as

Solution:

A greenhouse gas (sometimes abbreviated GHG) is a gas in an atmosphere that absorbs and emits radiation within the thermal infrared range. This process is the fundamental cause of the greenhouse effect. The primary greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere are water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone.

QUESTION: 107

A spring can be used to determine the mass m of an object in two ways: (i) by measuring the extension in the spring due to the object; and (ii) by measuring the oscillation period for the given mass. Which of these methods can be used in a space-station orbiting Earth ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Solution:

Selva is dense equatorial forest, in the Amazon basin, characterized by tall broad-leaved evergreen trees, epiphytes, lianas, etc Taiga also known as boreal forest or snowforest, is a biome characterized by coniferous forests consisting mostly of pines, spruces and larches. In Tundra, the vegetation is composed of dwarf shrubs, sedges and grasses, mosses, and lichens. A Savannah or Savannah is a grassland ecosystem characterised by the trees being sufficiently widely spaced so that the canopy does not close.

QUESTION: 109

Which ofthe following statements with regard to the western coastal plain of India are correct?
1. It is a narrow belt.
2. It is an example of submerged coastal plain.
3. It provides n a tu ra l conditions for d evelopm ent o f ports.
4. It has well developed deltas.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

Only 1 and 2 are correct.

QUESTION: 110

Which one of the following weather conditions indicates a sudden fall in barometer reading?

Solution:

A rapid fall of barometer reading means stormy conditions.

QUESTION: 111

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

Maldives consists of 1,192 coral islands. The island of Mauritius is relatively young geologically, having been created by volcanic activity some 8 million years ago. Madagascar is a special type of continental island is the microcontinental island, which results when a continent is rifted.

QUESTION: 112

Consider the following diagram :

In which one among the following lettered area of the diagram would erosion most likely change the shapes of the riverbad?

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Solution:

Cirrus is a genus of atmospheric cloud generally characterized by thin, wispy strands. Stratus clouds are a genus of low-level cloud characterized by horizontal layering with a uniform base, as opposed to convective or cumuliform clouds that are formed by rising thermals, nimbus indicates a precipitating cloud. Cumulus clouds, being low-stage clouds, are generally less than 1,000 m (3,300 ft) in altitude unless they are the more vertical cumulus congestus form. Cumulus clouds may appear by themselves, in lines, or in clusters.

QUESTION: 114

The concept of demographic transition provides a model for

Solution:

Demographic transition (DT) refers to the transition from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as a country develops from a pre-industrial to an industrialized economic system.

QUESTION: 115

Precursor of which one of the following vitamins comes from P-carotene?

Solution:

The human body converts beta-carotene into vitamin A (retinol) - beta-carotene is a precursor of vitamin A. 

QUESTION: 116

‘Lub-dup’ sound is produced due to action of

Solution:

In healthy adults, there are two normal heart sounds often described as a lub and a dub (or dup) that occur in sequence with each heartbeat. These are the first heart sound (S1) and second heart sound (S2) produced by the closing of the AV valves and semilunar valves, respectively.

QUESTION: 117

The sun is observed to be reddish when it is near the horizon, i.e., in the morning and the evening. This is because

Solution:

Tiny molecules in our atmosphere cause light to scatter. That's why our sky looks blue: it's because the atmosphere scatters the bluish component of white sunlight. And it's why the sun looks reddish when it's near the horizon. Sunlight encounters more air molecules when the sun is low in the sky than when the sun is overhead. Even more blue light is scattered away,
leaving mostly the reddish scattering  component of white sunlight to travel the straighter path to your eyes. So the setting and rising sun looks red.

QUESTION: 118

Thermal conductivity of aluminium, copper and stainless steel increases in the order

Solution:

Among the three aluminium, copper and stainless steel copper is the best conduction of heat. Thermal conductivity (in W/m K) for copper, aluminium and stainless steel is 385,205 and 50.2 respectively.

QUESTION: 119

Perspiration cools the body because

Solution:

This is because when we sweat, the liquid (sweat) present on our body takes the heat equivalent to the latent heat of vaporisation from our body and therefore we feel cool.

QUESTION: 120

The radius of the Moon is about one-fourth that of the Earth and acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is about one-sixth that on the Earth. From this, we can conclude that the ratio of mass of Earth to the mass of the Moon is about

Solution:

QUESTION: 121

Which of the following country/countries successfully inserted a spacecraft into Mars orbit by maiden attempt?

Solution:

India scripted space history as the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully inserted its low-cost Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) spacecraft, or Mangalyaan, into an orbit around the Red Planet in its very first attempt.

QUESTION: 122

The European Space Agency (ESA) successfully landed a spacecraft on a speeding comet that lies 310 million miles away from Earth. As a result, the scientists may find out

Solution:

The scientific goals of the mission focus on "elemental, isotopic, molecular and mineralogical composition of the cometary material, the characterization of physical properties of the surface and subsurface material, the large-scale structure and the magnetic and plasma environment of the nucleus.

QUESTION: 123

Who among the following Nobel laureates has recently announced to put his Nobel Medal under auction ?

Solution:

James Watson, one of the scientists credited with discovering the structure of DNA, recently made history when he became the first-ever living Nobel laureate to put his prize medal up for auction. On Dec. 4,2014 his little gold medal is sold for a record-breaking $4.76 million.

QUESTION: 124

Which one among the following statements with regard to a climate deal adopted between USA and China in November 2014 is not correct?

Solution:

The two countries have created the U.S.-China Clean Energy Research Center, which facilitates collaborative work in carbon capture and storage technologies, energy efficiency in buildings, and clean vehicles. It includes continued funding for three existing tracks on building efficiency, clean vehicles and advanced coal technology and launching a new track on the energy-water nexus.

QUESTION: 125

Which one among the following books is centered around ‘environment’ ?

Solution:

The Late, Great Planet Earth is a religious book of Christianity. Silent Spring is an environmental science book written by Rachel Carson. Here I stand has been described as part manifesto, part autobiography of writer Paul Robeson. And then One day is the autobiography of Naseerudin Shah.

QUESTION: 126

Who among the following cricket players has not died while playing a match?

Solution:

VijayHazare died in December 2004 following prolonged illness caused by intestinal cancer. Wasim Raja died of a heart attack in Marlow, Buckinghamshire, England in August 2006 while playing cricket for the Surrey over- 508 side. Phillip Hughes died because of sport-related blunt cerebro-vascular injury during the match at the Sydney Cricket Ground on 25 November 2014. Raman Lamba died after slipping into coma due to internal haemorrhage, three days after being hit on the temple by a cricket ball while fielding in Bangladesh's league cricket.

QUESTION: 127

Which one among the following films was conferred the ‘Golden Peacock’ award in the 45th International Film Festival of India (2014)?

Solution:

Russian film Leviathan won the prestigious Golden Peacock Award for the best film at the 45 th International Film Festival Of India.

QUESTION: 128

Which one among the following films was awarded the best motion picture (Drama) in the 72nd Golden Globe Awards?

Solution:

Boyhood, wins the Best Motion Picture Drama award at the 72nd Golden Globe Awards.

QUESTION: 129

East Zone won the prestigious Deodhar Trophy cricket tournament 2014-15 by defeating

Solution:

East Zone won the Deodhar Cricket tournament after beating the defending champions West Zone in the final by 24 runs.

QUESTION: 130

Which one of the following books won the Man Booker Prize 2014?

Solution:

Richard Flanagan on 14 October 2014 was announced as the winner ofthe 2014 Man Booker Prize for Fiction for The Narrow Road to the Deep North, published by Chatto & Windus.

QUESTION: 131

The Second Five Year Plan that called for the establishment of Socialist pattern of society was commonly referred to as the

Solution:

The Second Plan was particularly in the development ofthe public sector. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953.

QUESTION: 132

Harappan crafts display an amazing degree of standardization. According to Kenoyer, what was the possible reason for such an achievement ?

Solution:

Kenoyer has suggested that state control may have been responsible for high level of standardisation in crafts that were considered to have a value in maintaining the socio-economic or ritual order and which used non-local raw materials and highly complex technologies.

QUESTION: 133

Consider the following statements about Ashokan rock edicts:

1. Major Rock Edict XIII records Ashoka's remorse at the sufferings caused by his Kalinga campaign.
2. Major Rock Edict X records Ashoka's visit to Lumbini.
3. Major Rock Edict XII refers to Dhamma Mahamattas as a new category of officers instituted by Ashoka.
4. Major Rock Edict XII speaks about showing tolerance towards all sects.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Solution:

The statements 1 and 4 are correct.

QUESTION: 134

Which one of the following is the common element among Rajagriha, Vaishali and Pataliputra ?

Solution:

The First Buddhist council immediately following the death of the Buddha and the Second Buddhist council in the reign of Ashoka occurred in Patliputra and Rajgira. The Second Buddhist Council occurred in Vaisali.

QUESTION: 135

Which one among the following sects was associated with Gosala Maskariputra ?

Solution:

Makkhali Gosala (Pali; Sanskrit Gosala Maskariputra, c. 484 BCE) as the founder of the Ajivika sect; other sources state that Gosala was only a leader of a large Ajivika congregation of ascetics, but not the founder ofthe movement himself.

QUESTION: 136

Consider the following statements about the early modern technology in India:
1. The Portuguese brought European movable metal types to Goa in 1550.
2. The first Indian script of which types were prepared was Tamil.
3. The English Company* s first experiment with printing press was at Calcutta.
4. The English Company imported printing press to India in 1674-75 at the request of Bhimji Parak.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Solution:

Statements 1,2 and 4 are correct.

QUESTION: 137

Which of the following statement s) is/are true for Olympe de Gouges ?
1. She was one of the most important politically active woman in revolutionary France.
2. She was one of the memebers of the Committee that drafted the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen.
3. She wrote the Declaration of the Right of Woman and Citizen.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The statements (1) and (3) are correct.

QUESTION: 138

Arrange the following inventions in the field of cotton industry in chronological order (starting with the earliest):
1. James Hargreaves's Spinning Jenny
2. John Kay's Flying Shuttle
3. Samuel Crompton's Mule
4. Richard Arkwright's Water Frame

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

James Hargreaves spinning jenny was invented in 1764.John Kay's flying shuttle was invented in 1733. Samuel Crompton's mule was invented in 1779. Richard Awkwart's water frame was patented in 1769.

QUESTION: 139

While opposing the Public Safety Bill ,1928 who among the following said that it was ‘a direct attack on Indian nationalism, on the Indian National Congress’ and as The Slavery of India, Bill No. 1 ’?

Solution:

Motilal Nehru narrated his experiences in the Soviet Union and condemned anti-soviet propaganda. He described the Public Safety Bill as' a direct attack on the Indian nationalism, on Indian National Congress' and a s ' Slavery o f India, Bill No. 1".

QUESTION: 140

Soon after the formation of Indian National Congress, the British became suspicious of nationalists. Who among the following called Congress representing only the elite — ‘a microscopic minority’ ?

Solution:

Lord Duffer in initially called Congress as representative of "microscopic minority oflndia" but later in the fourth session of Allahabad, the Government servants were disallowed to take part in the proceedings of the Congress.

QUESTION: 141

What is the common element among Ram Prasad Bismil, Roshan Singh and RajendraLahiri ?

Solution:

Kakori Revolution was a train robbery plan executed by Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra Lahiri, Chandrashekhar Azad, Sachindra Bakshi, Keshab Chakravarty, Manmathnath Gupta,Murari Sharma (fake name of Murari Lai Gupta) Mukundi Lai (Mukundi Lai Gupta) and Banwari Lai. Roshan Singh had not taken part in the Kakori conspiracy, yet he was arrested and confined to capital punishment of death sentence by the then British Government.

QUESTION: 142

Which of the following is/are fundamental right(s) underthe Constitution of India ?
1. Right to education.
2. Right to work.
3. Right to form associations.
4. Right to practise any profession.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The seven fundamental rights are Right to equality, Right to freedom, Right against exploitation, Right to freedom of religion, Cultural and Educational rights, Right to constitutional remedies and Right to life.

QUESTION: 143

Mahatma Gandhi's hindu Swaraj is essentially

Solution:

Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule is a book written by Mohandas K. Gandhi in 1909. In the book Gandhi gives a diagnosis for the problems of humanity in modern times, the causes, and his remedy.

QUESTION: 144

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains

Solution:

The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246 and includesThe union (central government) state, and concurrent lists of responsibilities.

QUESTION: 145

Pochampally in Nalgonda district of Telengana became famous in April, 1951 because

Solution:

On 18 April 1951, VinobaBhave started his land donation movement at Pochampally of nalgonda district Telangana, the Bhoodan Movement.

QUESTION: 146

Who among the following was not associated with the Sarvodaya movement?

Solution:

Acharya Vinoba Bhave, Jaya Prakash Narayan, Dada Dharmadhikari, DhirendraMazumdaar, ShankarraoDeo, K. G Mashruwala were active members of the Sarvodaya movement.

QUESTION: 147

Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with

Solution:

TheArticle368 deals with power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.

QUESTION: 148

Which among the following is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India ?

Solution:

The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution is not a basic feature of the Constitution oflndia.

QUESTION: 149

Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty ?

Solution:

Torender compulsory miitary service is not a fundamental duty of the Indian Citizens.

QUESTION: 150

Which of the following are the basic features of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act ?
1. Provides for a three-tier structure of panchayats in the village, intermediary and district levels.
2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and women in all the tiers of panchayats.
3. Election to panchayats under the supervision of the State Election Commissions.
4. Introduction of the 11th Schedule to the Constitution.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

All of these are correct.

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