NDA I - English & General Ability 2016


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA I - English & General Ability 2016


Description
This mock test of NDA I - English & General Ability 2016 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA I - English & General Ability 2016 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA I - English & General Ability 2016 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA I - English & General Ability 2016 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA I - English & General Ability 2016 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was __________ .

Solution:

Inevitable here refers to a situation that is unavoidable. 

QUESTION: 2

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. To explain his design to his visitors, the architect_________ a simple plan on the blackboard.

Solution:

Sketch means a quick or undetailed drawing or painting often made as a preliminary study or for a brief general account or presentation.

QUESTION: 3

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was ___________ by the Japanese.

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He is greatly admired for his ______________behaviour.

Solution:

Decorous means behaving politely and in a controlled way.

QUESTION: 5

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Would you mind ______________to the Principal how the trouble started?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Vaccination will make people immune____________ certain diseases for a given period.

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to ______________ between them.

Solution:

Distinguish means to recognize or treat (someone or something) as different.

QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The campers ____________ their tents at the base of the mountain.

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.
Select which ever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still he refused to _________ the state secrets.

Solution:

Divulge means to disclose or reveal (something private, secret, or previously unknown).

QUESTION: 10

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. He handled the machine with deft fingers.

Solution:

Deft means neatly skilful and quick in one's movements whereas Clumsy means awkward in movement or in handling things or without any specific skills. Therefore, 'Clumsy is the antonym of the word 'deft'.

QUESTION: 11

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. I was deeply affected by his urbane behaviour.

Solution:

Urbane means courteous and refined manner of a person, especially a man whereas rude means offensively impolite or bad-mannered. Therefore, 'Rude' is the antonym of the word 'Urbane'.

QUESTION: 12

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. His timidity proved costly.

Solution:

Timidity means lacking in courage or self-confidence whereas boldness means not hesitating or fearful in the face of actual or possible danger. Therefore, 'Boldness' is the antonym of the word 'Timidity.

QUESTION: 13

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.

Solution:

Mammoth in this case means something immense of its kind or huge. Therefore, 'small' is the antonym of 'mammoth'.

QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.

Solution:

Engrossed means absorb all the attention or interest about someone or something whereas inattentive means not attentive or not paying attention. Therefore, 'inattentive' is the antonym of'Engrossed'.

QUESTION: 15

These are the main points of the preceding paragraph.

Solution:

Preceding means existing, coming, or occurring immediately before in time or place whereas following means coming after or as a result of. Therefore, 'following' is the antonym of'preceding'.

QUESTION: 16

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. He made a shrewd guess.

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. He is suffering from a severe cough.

Solution:

Severe means causing great pain, difficulty, worry, damage, etc. whereas mild means not severe, serious, or harsh. Therefore, 'mild' is the antonym of'severe'.

QUESTION: 18

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.

Solution:

Cumulatively means increasing or increased in quantity or degree whereas individually means relating to a single, separate person or thing. Therefore, 'individually is the antonym of'cumulatively.

QUESTION: 19

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.

Solution:

Conspicuous means very noticeable or attracting attention, often in a way that is not wanted. Therefore, 'unnoticeable' is the antonym of'conspicuous'.

QUESTION: 20

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence isf ollowed by four words.
Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. He hates these continual arguments with his friend.

Solution:

Continual means forming a sequence in which the same action or event is repeated frequently whereas occasional means done infrequently and irregularly. 

QUESTION: 21

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. She said that

she was understanding (a) / his point of view (b) / very well. (c) / No error. /(d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

All the houses
having been washed away (a) / by the floods, (b) / the villagers sought shelter in the panchayat office. (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

It is necessary for us
to familiarize with (a) get used to (b) / the  ways of the people among whom we live. (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The mother asked the child (a) /  why did she cry out (b) / in her sleep. (c) / No error.  (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

I asked him that (a) / why he was angry (b) / but he did not answer. (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Had I not taken ill, (a) I would have sent you (b) my research  paper much earlier. (c) No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The barn owl helps the former by destroying (a) / rats which could, if left unchecked (b) /do a lot of damage to the crops. (c) /  No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

He had gone (a) / home three weeks ago and was expected (b) / back yesterday, but he has not come (c) /yet. No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

We must sympathize  (a) / for others (b) / in their troubles. (c) /  No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) o r (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The scientists in America (a) / are trying for long (b) / to discover the genes responsible for ageing. (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).
Q. When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars.

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. Applications of those who are graduates will be considered.

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. It is raining heavily all through this week.

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. The sparrow took no notice about the bread.

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. As he spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. We ought to stand for what is right.

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. He enjoys to tell stories to children.

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at theunderlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none o f the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as you response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement ” response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening explosion.

Solution:

Deafening means a noise which is so loud as to make it impossible to hear anything else.

QUESTION: 42

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.

Solution:

Exemplary refers to someone or something serving as a desirable model. Commendable means someone or something deserving praise.

QUESTION: 43

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. When the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the pupils restive.

Solution:

Restive means unable to stay still, silent, or submissive, especially because of boredom or dissatisfaction. Impatient means having or showing a tendency to be quickly irritated or provoked.

QUESTION: 44

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. There is no dearth of talent in this country.

Solution:

Dearth means a scarcity or lack of something. So in the given sentence dearth means that there is absolutely no scarcity of talent in the country.

QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The servants retired to their quarters.

Solution:

Retired in this sentence means to take a break from the days work.

QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The navy gave tactical support to the marines.

Solution:

Tactical means relating to or constituting actions carefully planned to gain a specific military end. Strategic means relating to the gaining of overall or long-term military advantage.

QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking,

Solution:

Deviate means to depart from an established course.
Differ means to be of different opinion.

QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.

Solution:

Debilitated means to make (someone) very weak and infirm.

QUESTION: 49

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. His efforts at helping the poor are laudable.

Solution:

Laudable refers to an action, idea, or aim deserving praise and commendation. Praiseworthy means deserving approval and admiration.

QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words.
Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. His conduct brought him reproach from all quarters.

Solution:

Reproach means to express someone one's disapproval of or disappointment in their actions. Rebuke means to express sharp disapproval or criticism of (someone) because of their behaviour or actions.

QUESTION: 51

DIRECTIONS : The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.
Statement II. The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.

Solution:

Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of the statement I.

QUESTION: 52

DIRECTIONS : The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: There is high salinity in Red Sea.
Statement II. Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.

Solution:

Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. Higher the rate of evaporation, higher is salinity. The Highest evaporation has been recorded along the tropic of Cancer and that is one of the reasons that region of Red Sea and Persian Gulf has one of the highest salinity.

QUESTION: 53

DIRECTIONS : The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.
Statement II. Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

DIRECTIONS : The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practised in humid tropics.
Statement II. The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile. 

Solution:

Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. Plantation agriculture is confined within tropical areas, i.e. both sides of the equator. Plantations exist on every continent possessing a tropical climate. Highly productive soil is found in the tropics which help plantation to grow.

QUESTION: 55

DIRECTIONS : The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: India has wide variation in population density.
Statement II. Factors like agricultral productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

Density of water is

Solution:

Water has its maximum density of lg/cm3 at 4 degrees Celsius. When the temperature changes from either greater or less than 4 degrees, the density will become less then 1 g/cm3.

QUESTION: 58

The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches is

Solution:

Red phosphorus is used in the safety matches because it shows phosphorescence and cannot be converted to white phosphorous on heating.

QUESTION: 59

Which one of the following is not a chemical change?

Solution:

Freezing of water is not a chemical change as ice when melt changes back to water showing physical change.

QUESTION: 60

One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like
1. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
2. Carbon monoxide (CO)
3. Carbon dioxide (C02).
4. Benzone

Q. Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?

Solution:

Nitrogen oxide is one of the major pollutants emitted from cars and trucks in cities causes air pollution. Other air pollutant which are carbon monoxide and benzene.

QUESTION: 61

Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East to West:
1. Rishikesh
2. New Delhi
3. Patna
4. Bhubaneswar

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Bhubaneshwar > Patna > Rishikesh > New Delhi.

QUESTION: 62

Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become

Solution:

According to the universal law of gravitation, everybody in the universe attract other body with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. Therefore mass is doubled then the force acting between them F, will become 4F.

QUESTION: 63

A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, the body would

Solution:

According to law of conservation of energy total energy remains conserved.
PE. = nigh = 20 mg
Loss in potential energy is observed, as
(P.E.)1=mgh=5mg
(PE)1(PE) = 5mg/20mg = 1/4
(P E .)1 = 1/4 P.E

QUESTION: 64

Soap is sodium or potassium salt of

Solution:

Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of some long chain carboxylic acids, e.g. Stearic acid, Oleic acid and Palmitic acid.

QUESTION: 65

Mass of a particular amount of substance
1. is the amount of matter present in it.
2. does not vary from place to place.
3. changes with change in gravitational force.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Mass of a particular amount of substance depends on the amount of matter present in it and it does not vary from place to place.

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?
1. Pesticide residues
2. Lead
3. Metanil yellow
4. Mercury

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Pesticides are chemicals used in agriculture to protect crops against insects, fungi, weeds and other pests and potentially toxic to human. Lead poisoning is a type of metal poisoning caused by lead in the body. The brain is the most sensitive to lead. Metanil yellow is a principal non -permitted food colour used extensively in India. The effect of long-term consumption of metanil yellow on the developing and adult brain causes neurotoxicity.

QUESTION: 67

In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in

Solution:

Karewas are lacustrine deposits (deposits in lake) in the Valley of Kashmir and in Bhadarwah Valley of the Jammu Division also known as Jhelum valley.

QUESTION: 68

Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of

Solution:

The hilly Meghalaya plateau lies in the south of the Brahmaputra valley. It, in fact, covers the entire Meghalaya state. The Meghalaya plateau is a part of the Deccan plateau and it is formed of hard ancient rocks.

QUESTION: 69

Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

As we know
Momentum P = mv
Since, VA= VB= V, and m0= 2mA
for A, PA = mAvA
forB  PB = (2mA)vA
PB =2PA

QUESTION: 70

During solar eclipse

Solution:

Solar eclipse happens when the moon moves in front of the Sun as seen from a location on Earth.

QUESTION: 71

The S.I. unit of acceleration is

Solution:

The SI unit of acceleration is the metre per second squared (m s-2).

QUESTION: 72

An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?

Solution:

Mass number = number of proton + number of neutron
12 = 6+number of neutron
12 - 6 = number of neutron
number of neutron= 6

QUESTION: 73

Which one of the following is a reduction reaction?

Solution:

Mercuric oxides got reduced to mercury and its oxidation number changes from +2 to 0. Whereas in other reaction are showing oxidation reaction.

QUESTION: 74

Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A(BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?
1. Steel utensils
2. Plastic coffee mugs
3. Aluminium utensils
4. Plastic water strorage bottles

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Endocrine disruptors are chemicals (Bisphenol A) released from coffee mugs plastic water storage bottles, that may interfere with the body's endocrine system and produce adverse developmental, reproductive, neurological, and immune effects in both humans and wildlife.

QUESTION: 75

The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers?

Solution:

Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located 150 kilometers from Hyderabad, on the Krishna River.

QUESTION: 76

Consider the following statements:
1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
2. Bundelkhand gneiss belong to the oldest Achaean rocks of India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Rajmahal hills of Jharkhand is the type area of this province. Multiple layers of solidified lava made 608 m (1,995 ft) thick Rajmahal hill. The chief characteristic o f the geology and rocks of India arid-zone is noticed in its remarkable succession of pre-Cambrian rocks which go far down towards the base of the Archaean. This sequence commences for the Bundelkhand gneiss, which is one of the oldest granites exposed anywhere upon the earth' surface.

QUESTION: 77

An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object iis shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be

Solution:

Image formed by concave mirror when object is placed between centre of curvature and focus will be real and magnified.

QUESTION: 78

A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be

Solution:

Image formed by covex mirror when object is placed between focus and optical centre will be virtual, erect and magnified.

QUESTION: 79

Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?

Solution:

Biomass energy is considered as conventionl energy source as it has been used from ancient times.

QUESTION: 80

Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?

Solution:

Two oxides of nitrogen are acid anhydrides; that is, they react with water to form nitrogen-containing oxyacids. Dinitrogen trioxide is the anhydride of nitrous acid, HN02, and dinitrogen pentoxide is the anhydride of nitric acid, HN03.

QUESTION: 81

Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda?

Solution:

Sodium bicarbonate is a chemical compound with the formula NaHC03

QUESTION: 82

Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?
1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.
3. Nuclear DNA is double hel ical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel. 4. DNA is also found in mitochondria.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Not all viruses have DNA e g. HIV virus. It is double helical structure with two nucleotide chain which runs anti-parallel. DNA is also present in mitochondria. Only some segments of DNA code for proteins.

QUESTION: 83

Which organisation prepares the topographical maps of India?

Solution:

Survey of India is India's central engineering agency which prepares topographical maps.

QUESTION: 84

Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?

Solution:

Dresden line

QUESTION: 85

A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is

Solution:

In plane mirror, distance o f object from m irro r= distance of image from mirror.
So the distance between mirror and object = 40 + 40 = 80 cm.

QUESTION: 86

The brightness of a star depends on its

Solution:

The brightness of a star depends on its composition i.e. size and temperature (energy light radiation e.g. X- ray, etc.) and how far it is from the planet.

QUESTION: 87

When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called

Solution:

Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from the solid to the gas phase without passing through the intermediate liquid phase.

QUESTION: 88

Which one of the following is water gas?

Solution:

A fuel gas consisting mainly of carbon monoxide and hydrogen, made by passing steam over incandescent coke.

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following statements are correct?
In honey bees
1. Males are haploid.
2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly.
4. Honey is collected/made by males.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The queen is the only fertile female in the colony.

QUESTION: 90

The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which of the following rivers?
1. Narmada
2. Mahanadi
3. Tapti
4. Son

Q. Select the correct answer using the code giSelect the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

River Narmada emerges from Amarkantak Hill ofMaikal Range. The mighty Narmada river as well the Son, the Mahanadi, and Arnadoh which is a major tributary of the Godavari all arise in the Amarkantak plateau. Son river is largest of southern tributaries of Ganga that originates near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh near the source of Narmada River.

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?
1. Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.
2. Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
3. Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
4. Winter solstice occurs on June 21

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Then it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen ?

Solution:

When water freezes to ice its volume increases, so if it is kept in glass vessel in a freezer it may break the vessel.

QUESTION: 93

A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter connected in the circuit would read

Solution:

i = V/R= 12/24 = 0.5A

QUESTION: 94

Three resistors with magnitudes 2,4 and 8 ohm are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be

Solution:

1/R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3
= 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 
=7/8
R=8/7, It is more than one and less than 2.

QUESTION: 95

Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, and ‘D’. ‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B ’ contains solution o f an alkali, ‘C’ contains solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

Which one of the following oxides dissolves in water?

Solution:

Oxides of Sodium readily dissolved in water as it has ionic bond which breaks in water easily other oxides have covalent bond which do not break easily.

QUESTION: 97

To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have
1. low cholesterol level.
2. high HDL level.
3. high VLDL level.
4. high LDL level.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Your blood lipids include the LDL and VLDL both are considered as bad cholesterol. HDL (good cholesterol; remember as "Healthy cholesterol") and triglycerides. The lower your LDL and the higher your HDL, the better your prognosis.

QUESTION: 98

Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of

Solution:

Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of temperate coniferous forest.

QUESTION: 99

‘Sa' tree is a

Solution:

Dominant species of Moist deciduous tree are Teak and Sal

QUESTION: 100

Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely, solid , liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is

Solution:

The atoms and molecules in gases are much more spread out than in solids or liquids. They vibrate and move freely at high speeds. A gas will fill any container, but if the container is not sealed, the gas will escape. Gas can be compressed much more easily than a liquid or solid.

QUESTION: 101

The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of

Solution:

The melting point is an important physical property of a compound. The melting point can be used to identify a substance and as an indication of its purity. The melting point of solid is defined as the temperature at which the solid exists in equilibrium with its liquid under an external pressure of one atmosphere.
Melting point also depends upon the intermolecular force of attraction between the molecule.

QUESTION: 102

Consider the following circuit:

The equivalent resistance of the circuit will be

Solution:

1/R= 1/R1+1/R2+1/R3
=1/2+1/4+1 /6 
= 11/12 
R=12/11
Total resistance=12/ 11+8=9 1/llohm.

QUESTION: 103

Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HC1 to produce H2?

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

 Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched ?

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Female Anopheles mosquito is the vector which spread malaria. Chikungunya virus is most often spread to people by Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes.

QUESTION: 105

Consider the following statements:
1. All Echinoderms are not marine.
2 Sponges are exclusively marine.
3. Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.
4. Many primates are arboreal

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Insects are the most diverse group of animals and are found in all types of environment. Primates evolved from their ancestors by adapting to arboreal life. Primates are thought to have developed several of their traits and habits initially while living in trees.

QUESTION: 106

Areas which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains are the characteristic features of which one of the following regions of India?

Solution:

Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains are the characteristics features of NorthWestern India.

QUESTION: 108

A racing car accelerates on a straight road from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be

Solution:

a = v/t = 50/25 = 2m/s2
S = Ut+ l/2at2
= 0 + 1/ 2 x 2 x 25 x 25
=625 m

QUESTION: 109

A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would become

Solution:

If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly the weight of the man would become zero because the system would all begin to accelerate downward due to the force of gravity. All objects in the freefall accelerate downward with the same magnitude.

QUESTION: 110

A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be

Solution:

Heat produced by the wire,
W1 = W2 = (I1)2/(I2)2
2000/W2 =(l)2/(2)2
W2 = 2000X4/1 
W2=8000J

QUESTION: 111

Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?

Solution:

Hexane do not give sooty flame as it is alkane and saturated compound where as Benzene, Naphthalene and Anthracene are aromatic and unsaturated so they give sooty flame.

QUESTION: 112

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

Proteins - amino acid
Carbohydrates - monosaccharide
Nucleic acids - nitrogenous bases and pentose sugar
Lipids - fatty acids and glycerol

QUESTION: 113

 In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as

Solution:

In Thar desert the shifting sand dunes are locally known as Dhrian.

QUESTION: 114

The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its

Solution:

The impulse-momentum theorem states that the change in momentum of an object equals the impulse applied to it.

QUESTION: 115

Which one of the following statements with regard to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?

Solution:

Most solids expand when heated and contract when cooled. Water/ice is anomalous in that it expands when cooled, at least near its freezing point.

QUESTION: 116

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Ranthambore national park is famous for Tigers, Periyar national park is famous for elephant, Manas Sanctuary is famous for Rhinoceros and Gir forest is famous for lion.

QUESTION: 117

Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?

Solution:

Nuclear potential and chemical energies implies the stored form of energy. But electrical energy is not a form of stored energy.

QUESTION: 118

The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure:

The car starts O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, th e distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are, respectively

Solution:

Distance covered by the car = OA+AB + BC + CB = 25 + 10 + 25 + 25 = 85Km
Displacement by the car = OB = 35Km

QUESTION: 119

 Jelep La pass is located in

Solution:

Jelep La or Jelep Pass elevation 4,267 m or 13,999 ft, is a high mountain pass between East Sikkim District, Sikkim, India and Tibet Autonomous Region, China.

QUESTION: 120

What is the number of mole(s) of H2(g) required to saturate one mole benzene?

Solution:
QUESTION: 121

Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly matched?

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.
2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

Solution:

On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office. The Speaker may, at any time, resign from office by writing under her hand to the Deputy Speaker. The Speaker can be removed from office only on a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.

QUESTION: 124

Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’?

Solution:

Bachpan Bachao Andolan was founded in 1980 by Kailash Satyarthi, who has since become a worldwide acclaimed anti-child labour activist.

QUESTION: 125

Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
2. Enhancing financial literacy
3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders
4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance 

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/ Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner. Account can be opened in any bank branch or Business Correspondent (Bank Mitr) outlet. PMJDY accounts are being opened with Zero balance. However, if the account-holder wishes to get cheque book, he/she will have to fulfill minimum balance criteria

QUESTION: 126

The Election Commission recognizes a political party as a national party if
1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 127

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru- Mahalanobis model of development strategy ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 128

Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth F ive Year Plan (2012-2017)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

Nabhah Sprsain Diptam is the motto of

Solution:

The Motto of Indian Air Force is Nabha sparsham Deeptam. It has been taken from eleventh chapter of the Gita, the Discourse given by Lord Krishna to Arjuna on the battlefield of Kurukshetra during the Great War of Mahabharata. The Lord is showing His Supreme Divine form to Arjuna and the great form of the Lord is reaching the sky with glory, evoking fear and loss of self-control in the mind of Arjuna.

QUESTION: 130

Consider the following statements:
1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Artical 368 of the Constitution of India.
2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

Which of the following statements relating to the comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
1. The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts.
2. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Governement.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?
1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds an office of profit.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

Which one of the following nations adopted its first democratic constitution in September 2015?

Solution:

On 20 September 2015, a new constitution, the "Constitution of Nepal 2015" was announced by President Ram Baran Yadav in the constituent assembly. The constituent assembly was transformed into a legislative parliament by the then-chairman of that assembly. The new constitution of Nepal has changed Nepal practically into a federal democratic republic by making 7 unnamed states.

QUESTION: 134

Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles event (2015)?

Solution:

World number one Novak Djokovic beat Roger Federer in four dramatic sets to win his second US Open and 10th Grand Slam title at the US Open 2015 in New York.

QUESTION: 135

The citizens of India do not have which one of the following Fundamental Rights?

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:
1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.
2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true?
1. It occurred in Meerut, when two sepoys stole a superior officer’s rifle.
2. It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the British.
3. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
4. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 140

Which of the following statements about Gandhiji s Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?
1. Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian nation.
2. Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of Indians.
3. Hind Swaraj argues that Industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

Division of labour often involves
1. specialized economic activity.
2. higly distinct productive roles.
3. involving everyone in many of the same activities.
4. individuals engage in only a single activity and are dependent on others to meet their various needs.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 142

Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?

Solution:

Narendra Achyut Dabholkar was an Indian rationalist and author from Maharashtra, India. In 1989 he founded an d becam e president of the Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti (MANS), (the Committee to Eradicate superstition in Maharashtra).

QUESTION: 143

Consider the following statements:
1. Warran Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law related subjects.
2. Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philiosophy.``

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Aliah University has with it the rich heritage of the 235-year-old educational and cultural institution, Mohammedan College of Calcutta, popularly known as Madrasah-i-Aliah or Calcutta Madrasah, the first educational institution set up in India in 1780 by Warren Hastings, the then Governor General of Bengal Presidency. In 1791, during the period of British rule in India, Jonathan Duncan, the representative of the East India Company proposed the establishment of a Sanskrit college for development and preservation of the Sanskrit Vangmaya and to show that the English people were in favour of the development of the Indian culture.

QUESTION: 144

Consider the following statements about Sufism in India:
1. Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 145

Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced the development of Gandhiji’s politial ideas ?
1. Henry David Thoreau
2. John Ruskin
3. John Milton
4. Jainism

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

Consider the following statements:
1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.
2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

The title "Arthashastra" is often translated to "the science of politics", but the book Arthashastra has a broader scope. It includes books on the nature of government, law, civil and criminal court systems, ethics, economics, markets and trade, the methods for screening ministers, diplomacy, theories on war, nature of peace, and the duties and obligations of a king.

QUESTION: 147

Which o f the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after 2010?
1. Permission of 100 percent FDI in automotive sector.
2. Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49 percent
3. Permission of up to 51 percent FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions 4. Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practice

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently ?
1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas
2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/ consumers in the rural areas

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/
are correct?
1. The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
2. Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharaja of Burdwan.
3. Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj.
4. The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

After the controversy of underage marriage of Keshub Chunder Sen's daughter, the Special Marriages Act of 1872 was enacted to set the minimum age of 14 years for marriage of girls. All Brahmo marriages were thereafter solemnised under this law. The 1872 Act was repealed by the Special Marriage Act, 1954 under which any person of any religion could marry. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to all Hindus including followers of the Brahmo Samaj.

QUESTION: 150

Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are ture?
1. To foster a mutual appreciation of each other’s culture
and literature among nations
2. To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character
3. To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries
4. To organize international conferences

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Similar Content

Related tests