NDA I - English & General Ability 2019


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA I - English & General Ability 2019


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This mock test of NDA I - English & General Ability 2019 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA I - English & General Ability 2019 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA I - English & General Ability 2019 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA I - English & General Ability 2019 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA I - English & General Ability 2019 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Opening his letters(a) / reading them carefully and sending for his clerk (b) / he dictated answers with them (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The option (c) has an error in that sentence. Correct answer is “he dictated answers to them”.

QUESTION: 2

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. He was my school-friend (a) / but becoming a great man (b) / He has grown proud enough to forget his old friends (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The option (b) has an error in that sentence. It should be “became” instead of becoming.

QUESTION: 3

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Rabindranath Tagore (a) / a Nobel laureate and the author of the national anthem (b) / found Shantiniketan (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The option (c) has an error in that sentence. It should be “founded” instead of found.

QUESTION: 4

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. The art of printing was introduced into England (a) / during the reign of Edward IV (b) / by William Caxton, a native of Kent (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The option (a) has an error in that sentence. It should be “The art of printing was introduced in England”.

QUESTION: 5

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. From thirty years (a) / he devoted himself to public affairs (b) / without taking a holiday (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The option (a) has an error in that sentence. It should be “since” instead of “from”

QUESTION: 6

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. If Ramesh will be promoted (a) / he will get (b) / a higher salary (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The option (a) has an error in that sentence. Instead of “if” it should be “when”.

QUESTION: 7

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. My brother goes (a) / to the office (b) / five day week (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The option (c) has an error in that sentence. It should be “five days a week”

QUESTION: 8

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. If you lend Mohan a pen (a) / he will lend it to someone else (b) / and never you will get it back (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The option (c) has an error in that sentence. It should be “and you will never get it back”

QUESTION: 9

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. One of most widely spread (a) / bad habits (b) / is the use of tobacco (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

There is no error in this sentence

QUESTION: 10

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. A great part (a) / of Arabia (b) / is desert (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

There is no error in this sentence.

QUESTION: 11

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Some people complain when they encounter a small misfortune in the course of their thoroughly happy life.

Solution:

The meaning of the “encounter” is “Run into”.

QUESTION: 12

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. This world is full of miseries.

Solution:

The meaning of the “miseries” is “Great suffering”.

QUESTION: 13

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. A glance at a beautiful object gives us delight.

Solution:

The meaning of the “delight” is “happiness”.

QUESTION: 14

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. It is terrible for people to die of starvation.

Solution:

The meaning of “starvation” means “hunger”.

QUESTION: 15

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The university has constituted a grievance redressal committee to look into the matter.

Solution:

The meaning of the “grievance” is “complaint”.

QUESTION: 16

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. akesh delivered a slanderous speech.

Solution:

The meaning of the “slanderous” is “abusive”.

QUESTION: 17

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Suddenly the sky was darkened by a gigantic bird.

Solution:

The meaning of the “gigantic” is “enormous”.

QUESTION: 18

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. To abolish poverty would be to destroy the soil upon which mankind produces the virtues conductive to higher civilization.

Solution:

The meaning of the “abolish” is “eradicate”.

QUESTION: 19

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The Arabs who are not in the cities live in the desert throughout the year, shifting from one oasis to another.

Solution:

The meaning of the “oasis” is “spring”.

QUESTION: 20

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The various facets of life can be found reflected in a large city.

Solution:

The meaning of the “various” is “several”.

QUESTION: 21

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Ramesh is a very dubious character.

Solution:

The meaning of “dubious” is “hesitating or doubting”. So, the Antonyms of it will be “trust worthy”.

QUESTION: 22

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Do not indulge in unmindful activities, please.

Solution:

The meaning of “unmindful” is “not conscious or aware”. So, the Antonyms of it will be “fatuous”.

QUESTION: 23

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He is suffering from a curable disease.

Solution:

The meaning of “curable” is “remediable, treatable, medicable”. So, the antonyms of it will be “terminal”.

QUESTION: 24

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He was born on a very auspicious day.

Solution:

The meaning of “auspicious” is “favorable, propitious, and promising”. So, the antonyms of it will be “ominous”.

QUESTION: 25

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He has deeper hostility towards Mohan.

Solution:

The meaning of “hostility” is “blood feud, feud, score, vendetta hate, hatred, and loathing vindictiveness”. So, the antonyms of it will be “friendship”.

QUESTION: 26

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. His life is rather monotonous.

Solution:

The meaning of “monotonous” is “aseptic, barren, blah, and dullish”. So, the antonyms of it will be “exciting”.

QUESTION: 27

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Macbeth is a morally repulsive character.

Solution:

The meaning of “repulsive” is “abhorrent, abominable, appalling, awful, and disgusting”. So, the antonyms of it will be “attractive”.

QUESTION: 28

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The serene beauty of Kashmir had a soothing effect on his mind.

Solution:

The meaning of “serene” is “arcadian, calm, and hushed”. So, the antonyms of it will be “turbulent”.

QUESTION: 29

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Life is transient in nature.

Solution:

The meaning of “transient” is “brief, deciduous, ephemeral, and evanescent”. So, the antonyms of it will be “eternal”.

QUESTION: 30

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Sohan is a vain person.

Solution:

The meaning of “vain” is “assured, biggity”. So, the antonyms of it will be “modest”.

QUESTION: 31

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A dark horse

Solution:

A person who wins a race or competition although no one expected him to. A dark horse is a person, in regards to a certain field, sport, political race etc., whose experience and abilities are unknown but who could unexpectedly win or achieve success over others; an unknown and unexpected winner of a race or other contest.

QUESTION: 32

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A show-stopper

Solution:

A performance that is extremely good.
Something or someone exceptionally arresting or attractive the gold crown was the showstopper of the exhibition.

QUESTION: 33

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A jack of all trades

Solution:

Someone who has many skills. The phrase 'Jack of All Trades, Master of None' refers to a person who is competent in many skills but is not outstanding in any of them. Example of use: Josh refuses to study one profession. He fails to understand that a jack of all trades is a master of none.

QUESTION: 34

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. Fight tooth and nail

Solution:

To try hard to achieve something. Fight tooth and nail. Engage in vigorous combat or make a strenuous effort, using all one's resources. For example, I'm going to fight tooth and nail for that promotion. This expression, with its allusion to biting and scratching, was first recorded in 1576.

QUESTION: 35

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. Fair and square

Solution:

In an honest way. Fair and square phrase if you say that someone won a competition fair and square, you mean that they won honestly and without cheating. There are no excuses. We were beaten fair and square.

QUESTION: 36

Directions: In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: We do not know what to do with our knowledge.

S6: In the course of time they may rule over us altogether.

P: For example, we are unable to manage our machines.

Q: We already find it difficult to do without machines.

R: Machines should be fed properly and waited upon attentively; otherwise they refuse to work or cause destruction.

S: Science has given us superhuman powers, which we do not use properly.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:

S P R Q. Science has given us superhuman powers, which we do not use properly. For example, we are unable to manage our machines. Machines should be fed properly and waited upon attentively; otherwise they refuse to work or cause destruction. We already find it difficult to do without machines.

QUESTION: 37

Directions: In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great county.

S6: We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.

P: I regard this rule as a curse.

Q: Sedition has become my religion.

R: Ours is a non-violent battle.

S: I am out to destroy this system of Government

The proper sequence should be

Solution:

P S Q R. I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to destroy this system of Government. Sedition has become my religion. Ours is a non-violent battle.

QUESTION: 38

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. the urban local body elections (P) / unidentified gunmen (Q) / and injured another during (R)  / shot dead two workers (S)

Solution:

Q S R P. Unidentified gunmen shot dead two workers and injured another during the urban local body elections.

QUESTION: 39

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. both intense political and (P) / this state has a history of (Q) / of syncretic accomplishments (R) / religious contestation and (S)

Solution:

Q P S R. This state has a history of both intense political and religious contestation and of syncretic accomplishments.

QUESTION: 40

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. the father also (P) / in his quest for justice (Q) / by the system (R) / feels let down (S)

Solution:

P S R Q. The father also feels let down by the system in his quest for justice.

QUESTION: 41

Directions: In this section you have a passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read the passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in-bullockcarts. They learned one another's languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath in the East and Hardwar in the North as places of pilgrimage? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that worship of God could have been performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts of India, and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world. And we Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and I and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. Ail opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he began to understand the evil of the opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways.

Q. According to the author, India

Solution:

According to the author, India has always been one nation along with differences.

QUESTION: 42

I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in-bullockcarts. They learned one another's languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath in the East and Hardwar in the North as places of pilgrimage? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that worship of God could have been performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts of India, and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world. And we Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and I and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. Ail opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he began to understand the evil of the opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways.

Q. Why did the great sages of Indian establish pilgrimages in the different corners of the country?

Solution:

The great sages of Indian establish pilgrimages in the different corners of the country because they could observe the underlying unit of the country as made by nature.

QUESTION: 43

I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in-bullockcarts. They learned one another's languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath in the East and Hardwar in the North as places of pilgrimage? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that worship of God could have been performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts of India, and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world. And we Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and I and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. Ail opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he began to understand the evil of the opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways.

Q. In the passage, the author’s attitude towards the railways is

Solution:

In the passage, the author’s attitude towards the railways is critical.

QUESTION: 44

I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in-bullockcarts. They learned one another's languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath in the East and Hardwar in the North as places of pilgrimage? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that worship of God could have been performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts of India, and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world. And we Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and I and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. Ail opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he began to understand the evil of the opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways.

Q. What does the author mean when he says that “whose hearts were aglow with righteousness has the Ganges in their own homes”?

Solution:

“The purity of heart is superior to observance of any ritual” the author means when he says that “whose hearts were aglow with righteousness has the Ganges in their own homes”.

QUESTION: 45

I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in-bullockcarts. They learned one another's languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath in the East and Hardwar in the North as places of pilgrimage? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that worship of God could have been performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts of India, and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world. And we Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and I and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. Ail opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he began to understand the evil of the opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways.

Q. The paragraph is written in a

Solution:

The paragraph is written in a descriptive style.

QUESTION: 46

Directions: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

 Q. _________ forests prevent erosion.

Solution:

In dense forests, the tree cover (canopy) prevents rainwater from directly falling on the ground/soil. Also roots of the vegetation bind the soil particles and hold them together.

QUESTION: 47

Directions: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Three people were arrested and an illegal arms unit was _________ by the police in a raid.

Solution:

Three people were arrested and an illegal arms unit was busted by the police in a raid.

QUESTION: 48

Directions: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. A woman got into the car and _________.

Solution:

To leave in a car: I got in the car and drove off. On the road: driving & operating road vehicles.

QUESTION: 49

Directions: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The lecture was not very interesting, in fact I _________ in the middle of it.

Solution:

Dozed off means to start to sleep, especially during the day and without intending to.

QUESTION: 50

Directions: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The cops _________ murder by kin.

Solution:

Suspect means have an idea or impression of the existence, presence, or truth of (something) without certain proof.

QUESTION: 51

Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess nucleic acid?

Solution:

The cell membrane or plasma membrane is a biological membrane that separates the interior of all cells from the outside environment which protects the cell from its environment. It does not even possess the nucleic acid.

QUESTION: 52

Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess its own genetic material encoding proteins?

Solution:

The ribosome is a complex molecule made of ribosomal RNA molecules and proteins that form a factory for protein synthesis in cells.

QUESTION: 53

Which one of the following is NOT a component of conducting tissue in plants?

Solution:

Pericycle: A thin layer of plant tissue between the endodermis and the phloem. It is not a component of conductive tissue.

QUESTION: 54

Which one of the following organisms has vascular tissues?

Solution:

Anabaena is a genus of filamentous cyanobacteria that exist as plankton. They are known for nitrogen-fixing abilities, and they form symbiotic relationships with certain plants, such as the mosquito fern. Anabaena has vascular tissue.

QUESTION: 55

Which one of the following organisms represents the primary consumer category in an ecosystem?

Solution:

Caterpillar represents the primary consumer category in an ecosystem. Consumers are categorized into primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers. Primary consumers are herbivores, feeding on plants.

QUESTION: 56

Spring tides refer to a

Solution:

A spring tide is a common historical term that has nothing to do with the season of spring. Spring tides occur twice each lunar month all year long without regard to the season. Spring tides refers to the greatest difference in the high and low tide just after new or full moon.

QUESTION: 57

Which one of the following energy is stored in the links between the atoms?

Solution:

Chemical energy is stored in the bonds between atoms and molecules. Nuclear energy is the energy stored in the nucleus.

QUESTION: 58

The light energy escaping from the Sun can be spread by

Solution:

The light energy from the Sun can be spread by a shower of rain drops.

QUESTION: 59

The correct sequence of energy transfer that occurs when an apple falls to the ground is

Solution:

When apple falls, its gravitational potential energy converts to kinetic energy. Kinetic energy converts to heat energy to air. Kinetic energy converts to heat energy to ground and apple. Kinetic energy converts to sound energy.

QUESTION: 60

Which one of the following minerals is used as a fuel in nuclear power stations?

Solution:

Uranium in the mineral pitchblende is used in nuclear power plant.

QUESTION: 61

Which one of the following is NOT a synthetic detergent?

Solution:

CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)n CH2CH2OH) is not a synthetic detergent because it is a natural detergent. Where others are anionic detergent and cationic synthetic detergent.

QUESTION: 62

Which one of the following is an example of a clean fuel?

Solution:

Propane is the example of clean fuel.

QUESTION: 63

Which one of the following metals does NOT react with cold water?

Solution:

Mg has almost no reaction with cold water. It reacts with steam (hot water).

QUESTION: 64

In which of the following pairs are the ions isoelectronic?

Solution:

The ions isoelectronic in Na+,O2

QUESTION: 65

Which one of the following is used as a binder in paints?

Solution:

Titanium dioxide is the most important white pigment used in the coatings industry. It is used because it efficiently scatters visible light, thereby imparting whiteness, brightness and opacity when incorporated into a coating.

QUESTION: 66

Which one of the following is NOT true in reference to Air mass?

Solution:

The border between two air masses at the Earth's surface is called weather front. For example, if an air mass forms over a tropical ocean, it is called maritime tropical. If an air mass forms over land in the far north it is called continental polar. Option (a) is not true about air mass.

QUESTION: 67

National Water Academy, a centre of excellence in training and capacity building in water resource, is located at

Solution:

National Water Academy, a center of excellence in training and capacity building in water resource, is located at Pune in Maharashtra.

QUESTION: 68

“Campos” and “Llanos”, Tropical Savanna grasslands are generally found in?

Solution:

“Campos” and “Llanos”, Tropical Savanna grasslands are generally found in South America.

QUESTION: 69

“Viticulture” is a common feature of which one of the following Australian cities?

Solution:

“Viticulture” is a common feature of Adelaide in Australia.

QUESTION: 70

“Shamal” warm and dry wind is a “Local” wind found in

Solution:

“Shamal” warm and dry wind is a “Local” wind found in Mesopotamia.

QUESTION: 71

“Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with?

Solution:

“Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with Orographic rainfall.

QUESTION: 72

Who was the author of the book ‘History of British India’?

Solution:

“History of British India” was written by James Mill. James Mill was born in 1773. He was a Scottish historian, economist, political theorist, and philosopher. His greatest literary achievement was this book.

QUESTION: 73

The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 stressed on which one of the following issues?

Solution:

The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 stressed on Hindu-Muslim divide.

QUESTION: 74

Which Viceroy has made the observation, “It’s a beautiful world if it wasn’t for Gandhi….”?

Solution:

In Lord Willingdon Viceroy has made the observation, “It’s a beautiful world if it wasn’t for Gandhi.”

QUESTION: 75

Which Indian businessman favored ‘healthy capitalism’ in helping Gandhiji to work towards a ‘common object’?

Solution:

Sir Biren Mookerjee was the Indian businessman favored ‘healthy capitalism’ in helping Gandhiji to work towards a ‘common object’.

QUESTION: 76

The art piece “In Memoriam” was a creation of which one of the following European painters?

Solution:

Sir Joseph Noel Paton FRSA, LL. D. was a Scottish artist, illustrator and sculptor. He was also a poet and had a deep-seated interest in, and knowledge of, Scottish folklore and Celtic legends. “In memoriam” was created by him.

QUESTION: 77

Which one of the following can charge an insulator?

Solution:

Insulator can be charged by methods of friction and induction. Charge stored in this process will be static.

QUESTION: 78

At 20c, the speed of sound in water is approximately

Solution:

Speed of sound in water is close to 1500 m/s.

QUESTION: 79

Which one of the following could be the melting point of iron?

Solution:

Melting Point of iron is 1538°c, Hence the closest option is 1500°c

QUESTION: 80

Let us consider a copper wire having radius r and length I. Let its resistance be R. If the radius of another copper wire is 2r and the length is I/2 then the resistance of this wire will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 81

Basic scientific principle behind a nuclear reactor is

Solution:

Basic principle behind a nuclear reactor is controlled nuclear fission.

QUESTION: 82

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for the given reaction?

Fe(s) + CuSO4→ FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

Solution:

A. Fe goes from 0 to 2, so it is the reducing agent
B. This is a well known fact
C. As Cu is replaced so Fe is more reactive
D. Of course this is a redox reaction

QUESTION: 83

Which one of the following is an organic acid?

Solution:

HCI,HNO3,H2SO4 are inorganic acids while CH3COOH(Acetic acid) is organic acid.

QUESTION: 84

Dinitrogen (N2) and dioxygen (O2) are the main constituents of air but they do not react with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because

Solution:

N2 and O2 are main constituents of air but they do not react with each other because N2 forms Pπ−Pπ bond which is stronger. So, to break that bond high energy is needed. So, it requires very high temperature.

QUESTION: 85

Who among the following has explained the phenomenon of photoelectric effect?

Solution:

Albert Einstein explained the phenomenon of photoelectric effect.

QUESTION: 86

The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in is C2H2O4.2H2O is

Solution:

Equivalent weight of oxalic acid

Molecular weight of Oxalic acid
C2H2O4.2H2O=126
n’ factor for oxalic acid = 2
Hence equivalent weight 

QUESTION: 87

Which one of the following is NOT a west flowing river?

Solution:

Tamraparni is the river which is not the west flowing river.

QUESTION: 88

Which one of the following rivers was earlier known as “Vitasta”?

Solution:

The Jhelum River is a river in northern India and eastern Pakistan. It is the westernmost of the five rivers of the Punjab region, and passes through the Kashmir Valley. Jhelum was earlier known as “Vitasta”

QUESTION: 89

River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of Uttar Pradesh. Before entering in the Plains, Sarda is known as

Solution:

River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of Uttar Pradesh. Before entering in the Plains, Sarda is known as Kali.

QUESTION: 90

“Mission Indradhanush” is related to

Solution:

Mission Indradhanush aims to increase full immunization coverage in India to at least 90% children by December 2018.

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following is/are environmental effects of Rotation of the Earth?

1. Daily or diurnal rhythm in daylight and air temperature

2. Flow path of both air and water are turned consistently in a side-ward direction

3. The movement of the tides Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Daylight and air temperature, Flow path of both air and water and movement of the tides are environmental effects of Rotation of the Earth.

QUESTION: 92

Who among the following historians have described the Quit India movement as a ‘spontaneous revolution’?

Solution:

F G Hutchins is the historians have described the Quit India movement as a ‘spontaneous revolution’.

QUESTION: 93

Direction: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

Statement I: Abul Fazl shaped, represented and articulated the ideas associated with the reign of Akbar

Statement II: The qualities of Abul Fazl impressed Akbar who found the former suitable as an adviser and spokesperson for his policies.

Solution:

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

QUESTION: 94

Direction: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

Statement I: The Kisan manifesto adopted by the All India Kisan Sabha in August 1936 contained radical demands

Statement II: The All India Kisan Sabha was a part of the Congress and maintained close relationship with the Provincial Congress Committees

Solution:

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

QUESTION: 95

Direction: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

Statement I: The British ruled India through a modern through a modern bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose members were recruited through merit based on open competition

Statement II: The Indian Civil Service was based on the whole hearted participation of Indians.

Solution:

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

QUESTION: 96

Two metallic wires A and B are made using copper. The radius of wire A is r while its length is I. A dc voltage V is applied across the wire A, causing power dissipation P. The radius of wire B is 2r and its length is 2I and the same dc voltage V is applied across it causing power dissipation P1 . Which one of the following is the correct relationship between P and P1?

Solution:

Resistance of a wire,

If Ro is the resistance of first wire, the resistance of second wire.

P = P1/2

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements about a solenoid:

1. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the number of turns per unit length in the solenoid

2. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the current flowing in the wire of the solenoid

3. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the diameter of the solenoid Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Magnetic field strength in a solenoid, B is directly proportional to n and also B is directly proportional to I. B does not depend upon diameter of the solenoid.

QUESTION: 98

Light year is a unit of measurement of

Solution:

One light year is defined as distance covered by light in one year.

QUESTION: 99

The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is 50 cm. If the magnification of the telescope is 25, then the focal length of the eyepiece is

Solution:

QUESTION: 100

Which one of the following forces is noncentral and non-conservative?

Solution:

Friction force is a non-central and nonconservative force.

QUESTION: 101

On exposure to moist air, copper gains a green coat on its surface due to formation of which one of the following compounds?

Solution:

Copper metals when exposes to air turns green in colour due to corrosion. When copper vessel is exposed to air, metal reacts with gases and moisture to form a mixture of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide.

QUESTION: 102

Which one of the following will NOT produce carbon dioxide on reacting with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?

Solution:

Quick lime, chalk and marble are carbonates or bicarbonates so they will give out CO2 after reacting with the acid whereas limestone is CaO and will not give out CO2 

QUESTION: 103

Which one of the following substances is NOT a mixture?

Solution:

Ice is a pure substance, as it is simply frozen water.

QUESTION: 104

Which one of the following is an example of Salt-Crystal growth?

Solution:

Physical weathering is the weakening and subsequent disintegration of rock by physical forces. These physical forces include temperature fluctuation and salt crystal growth.
Salt crystal growth can cause the breakup of rock materials. Crystal growth often occurs when ground water moves into empty pores or spaces of rock by capillary action.

QUESTION: 105

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian states in decreasing order?

Solution:

Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal is the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian states in decreasing order.

QUESTION: 106

Consider the following statements relating to Richter scale:

1. It was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter

2. It describes the quantity of energy released by a single earthquake

3. Richter Scale has no upper limit

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Richter scale was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter and it describes the quantity of energy released by a single earthquake. These both options are correct.

QUESTION: 107

Which one of the following ocean currents is NOT a cold ocean current?

Solution:

Kuroshio current is the ocean currents is NOT a cold ocean current.

QUESTION: 108

What is the time gap in occurrence of two successive tides at a given place on the ocean surface?

Solution:

24 hours 52 minutes is the time gap in occurrence of two successive tides at a given place on the ocean surface.

QUESTION: 109

Tooth enamel is made up of which one of the following calcium compounds?

Solution:

Calcium phosphate is the compound which makes the tooth enamel.

QUESTION: 110

Suppose there are two planets, 1 and 2, having the same density but their radii are R1 and R2 respectively, where R1>R2. The accelerations due to gravity on the surface of this planet are related as

Solution:

Acceleration due to gravity

As R1 > R2

⇒ g1 > g2

QUESTION: 111

The sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while after it sets. This is because of

Solution:

Due to refraction, rays from sun bends along the atmospheric layers and gives the illusion of early sunrise and late sunset. The sunrise or the sunset is early and delayed by nearly 2 minutes.

QUESTION: 112


The figure shown above gives the time (t) versus position (x) graphs of three objects A, B and C. Which one of the following is the correct relation between their speeds VA , VB and VC , respectively at any instant (t>0)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

1 dyne (a unit of force in CGS system) equal to

Solution:

We know that, 1 dyne = 1 g cm s−2

= (10−3 kg) (10−2 m) (s−2)
= 10−5 kgm s−2

Therefore, in CGS system, 1 dyne is equal to 10−5kgm /s2

QUESTION: 114

In the given velocity (V) versus time (t) graph, accelerated and decelerated motions are respectively represented by line segments

Solution:

In path A→B velocity is decreasing with time; therefore, AB represents deceleration. In path B→C velocity is constant with time. In path C→D velocity is increasing with time; therefore, CD represents acceleration.

QUESTION: 115

Which one of the following statements regarding a thermos flask is NOT correct?

Solution:

The walls of thermos flask are separated by vacuum and made of glass which is poor conductor of heat. The glass walls themselves have shiny surfaces. The radiation emitted by inner wall and that absorbed by outer wall, both are negligible. The cork supports are poor conductors of heat. So, option (c) is correct.

QUESTION: 116

‘Black hole’ is a

Solution:

Black hole is a star which has collapsed into itself with large density and large acceleration due to gravity.

QUESTION: 117

The formula for conversion between Fahrenheit and Celsius is °F = X + (1.8 × °C ) What is factor X?

Solution:

The relation between Fahrenheit and Celsius is F = 32 + (1.8 × °C)

QUESTION: 118

When a beam of white light passes through a glass prism, the colour of light beam that deviates the least is

Solution:

The visible colour spectrum is arranged as VIBGYOR, V(Violet) being deviated most and R(Red) being deviated least.

QUESTION: 119

LIGO stands for

Solution:

LIGO stands for Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory.

QUESTION: 120

A fuse wire must be

Solution:

When large current flows through the circuit, fuse has to be melted first to break the circuit to avoid damage to the electric circuit.

QUESTION: 121

Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to handle thermal coal requirements. It is situated along the coast of which Indian State?

Solution:

Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to handle thermal coal requirements. It is situated along the coast of Odisha.

QUESTION: 122

Which one of the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in terms of geographical area?

Solution:

Lakshadweep is the Union Territories of India is the smallest in terms of geographical area.

QUESTION: 123

Which one of the following can be said to be essentially related to ‘Polar Front Theory’?

Solution:

Temperate Cyclone can be said to be essentially related to ‘Polar Front Theory’.

QUESTION: 124

Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are antecedent rivers. Which one of the following may be the true definition of an antecedent drainage?

Solution:

Antecedent drainage means the stream that maintains its original course and pattern despite the changes in underlying rock topography. So, answer c is correct.

QUESTION: 125

The Karachi resolution of Congress in 1931 advocated which one of the following issues?

Solution:

The important aspects of resolution were:

1. Equality before law

2. Basic civil rights

3. Government ownership of industries, mines and transport.

4. Protection of women and peasants, etc.

QUESTION: 126

The treaty of Schonbrunn (1809) was signed after which one of the following battles?

Solution:

The Treaty of Schönbrunn sometimes known as the Peace of Schönbrunn or Treaty of Vienna, was signed between France and Austria at Schonbrunn Vienna on 14 October 1809. The treaty ended the Fifth Coalition during the Napoleonic Wars, after Austria had been defeated at the decisive Battle of Wagram on 5-6 July.

QUESTION: 127

Which of the following statements about The New Model Unions is/are correct?

1. The New Model Unions were formed in the 1850s

2. The New Model Unions were formed in the 1880s

3. The New Model Unions comprised a Labour Party idea

4. The New Model Unions excluded women in the 1920s

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

New Model Union was formed in 1860s. So, option 1 and 2 are both wrong. 3 and 4 are correct. So, answer is c.

QUESTION: 128

The Truman Doctrine of 1947 was announced to achieve which one of the following?

Solution:

Containment of the USSR is the Truman Doctrine of 1947 was announced to achieve.

QUESTION: 129

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In 1948, Burma was admitted to the United Nations and immediately supported the USA in the Cold war

2. In 1948, Burma joined the United Nations but refused to denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean War

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Only statement 2 is correct. In 1948, Burma joined the United Nations but refused to denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean War. So, answer is b.

QUESTION: 130

Who among the following presented ‘The April Theses’ to the Russian people in 1917?

Solution:

Of the many voices to propose a path for Russia, the strongest ended up being that of Vladimir Lenin (1870-1924). Lenin helped define the objectives of 1917 and the future of the nation, and his first step to doing so was publishing his ideas in a brief collection of notes known as the April Theses.

QUESTION: 131

An Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the recommendation of

Solution:

The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners after the law ministry initiates the file for their appointment. A Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from the office only through impeachment by Parliament. The President can remove the ECs based on the recommendation of the CEC.

QUESTION: 132

Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?

Solution:

Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retire every second year, and are replaced by newly elected members. Each member is elected for a term of six years. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. So, option (d) is the wrong statement.

QUESTION: 133

Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is available only to the citizens of India?

Solution:

Article 19 is the Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is available only to the citizens of India.

QUESTION: 134

The treaty of Yandabo was signed in

Solution:

The treaty of Yandabo was signed in 1826.

QUESTION: 135

In the Manusmriti which form of marriage results from the “Voluntary union of a maiden and her lover”?

Solution:

Sixth form is Manusmriti which form of marriage results from the “Voluntary union of a maiden and her lover”.

QUESTION: 136

Consider the following description of the Samadhi of a former Prime Minister of India: Central Samadhi platform comprises nine square black polished granite solid stone blocks, capped with a ‘Diya’ in the centre. The number nine holds significance and represents the navarasas, navaratras and navagrahas. Then placement of the nine-square Samadhi is in a circular lotus shaped pattern. The nine-square platform is accessed in four cardinal directions by pathways made in white composite tiles so that the floor does not get heated.

Identify the Samadhi:

Solution:

The Sadaiv Atal is spread over 1.5 acres of land and was site of former Prime minister's last rites on August 17. The memorial has been built to highlight various talents and personalities of the former PM, including the poet, humanitarian, politician and leader. The memorial has been funded by Atal Smriti Nyas Society.

QUESTION: 137

IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly between Armies of India and

Solution:

IIMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly between Armies of India and Myanmar.

QUESTION: 138

Who among the following was awarded The Hindu Prize in Fiction category for the year 2018?

Solution:

Neelum Saran Gour was awarded The Hindu Prize in Fiction category for the year 2018.

QUESTION: 139

Who among the following was appointed as head of the seven member committee to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps for augmenting collections?

Solution:

Sushil Modi was appointed as head of the seven-member committee to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps for augmenting collections.

QUESTION: 140

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in

Solution:

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in Varanasi.

QUESTION: 141

Which one of the following cities was named by UNESCO as World Capital of Architecture for 2020?

Solution:

Rio de Janerio was named by UNESCO as World Capital of Architecture for 2020.

QUESTION: 142

Who among the following was named ICC’s emerging player of the year 2018?

Solution:

Rishabh Pant was names ICC’s emerging player of the year 2018.

QUESTION: 143

India’s first private sector Howitzer gunmaking unit is located at

Solution:

India’s first private sector Howitzer gun-making unit is located at Hazira.

QUESTION: 144

Which of the following pairs of old names and new names of islands in India is/are correctly matched?

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Havelock Island and Swaraj Dweep only match properly. All others are wrongly matched.

QUESTION: 145

Who among the following was posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India’s highest peacetime gallantry award, in 2019?

Solution:

Nazir Ahmad Wani was posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India’s highest peacetime gallantry award, in 2019.

QUESTION: 146

As per code of the nomenclature, which one of the following is the correct way of writing a biological name?

Solution:

Amoeba proteus is the correct way of writing a biological name.

QUESTION: 147

Which one of the following statements regarding Electrocardiogram is correct?

Solution:

Electrocardiogram (ECG) is graphical representation of electrical activity of heart.

QUESTION: 148

Which one of the following statements regarding Penicillin is correct?

Solution:

Only the statement “Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called β-lactamase” is correct. All other statements are wrong.

QUESTION: 149

Which one of the following organelles of mammalian cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes?

Solution:

Lysosome is the organelles of mammalian cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes.

QUESTION: 150

Which one of the following statements regarding Cholera is correct?

Solution:

Cholera is a disease caused due to consumption of contaminated food or water. There is no connection of Cholera with loss of memory, alcohol and genetics.

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