NDA II - English & General Ability 2014


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA II - English & General Ability 2014


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This mock test of NDA II - English & General Ability 2014 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA II - English & General Ability 2014 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA II - English & General Ability 2014 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA II - English & General Ability 2014 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA II - English & General Ability 2014 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no error in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

The pile of books (a) / are (b) / missing. (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

Option (a) "the pile of books" is correct in every sense.
Pile is always used with books, sheets, etc. option (c) 'missing' is one word describing that the action is in continuation. Option (b) though has the usage of are, which is incorrect. This auxiliary verb is used for the word 'pile' which is singular. Option b being incorrect rules out option (d).

QUESTION: 2

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no erro in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

Either he (a) / or I (b) / are wrong. / (c) No error (d)

Solution:

Option (c) is the answer, 'are wrong' is a wrong form of usage. When alternative subjects are joined by "or" or "nor" (including "either . . . or" and "neither . . . nor" correlatives) the verb agrees with the closest part of the compound. Thus, the correct form is- Either he or I am wrong. Or to be on the safer side, one could also use 'either he is wrong or I am'.

QUESTION: 3

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no erro in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

Please (a) / tell to him (b) / to do his work (c) /  No error (d)

Solution:

Option (b) has an error and hence is the answer, 'tell to' is incorrect form of usage. We usually follow tell with a personal object (the person that we are speaking to) right after it and do not accompany any other word like 'to'. Option (a) and (c) have no error.

QUESTION: 4

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no erro in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

Though he is good (a) / he is (b) / mischievous (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

The correct answer is d. No error as the sentence makes complete sense. The sentence has two parts and the first corresponds with the other without showing any grammatical error. Thus the sentence, though he is good he is mischievous is correct.

QUESTION: 5

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no error in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

The thief (a) / hit me (b) / suddenly and hardly. (c). / No error (d)

Solution:

Option (c) is absolutely wrong. Here the usage of hardly is in wrong form. The word hardly is an adverb, Learners often imagine that hardly is related to the word hard and is its adverbial form. This leads to errors. Its main use is to say that something is almost not true or almost does not happen at all. On the other hand, "The thief hit me" is formed in correct manner.

QUESTION: 6

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no error in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

The number of books (a) / in our library (b) / is less. (c) /  No error (d)

Solution:

The option (c) "is less" has been used in an inappropriate manner, so it's wrong. Number of books in our library depicts the noun to be countable in nature. However less is used in sentences where the noun cannot be counted or it's not in plural form (for eg: music, air, rain, etc).

QUESTION: 7

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no error in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

The general said, (a) /  “Soldiers, do not fire (b) / till I will give the order” . (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

Option (c) is the answer as the phrase "till I will give the order" has been used incorrectly because in English grammar, after till or until we use present tenses to talk about the future so the correct form would be till I give you the order. The phrase "general said, soldiers do not shoot" depicts usage of direct speech and its error free.

QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no error in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

Neither of the candidates (a) / are (b) / good. (c) /  No error (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no error in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

This machine (a) /  is more efficient / (b) than any other equipments in the workshop. (c) /  No error (d)

Solution:

In this sentence last phrase that is option (c) has an error.
The usage of any equipments with than does not completely make sense. In a comparative form of sentence "than" is generally used when comparing two objects or persons. Moreover when using any, it suggests depicting one object out of many so the correct usage would be "any ofthe other equipments" or "any other equipment". Thus option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 10

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no error in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

The tin deposits in that area (a) / would probably be exhausted (b) / in to near future. (c) / No error (d)

Solution:

In option (c) "in to near future", usage of "to" seems unnecessary. 'In' is already a preposition which fits well in this phrase. So it could be simply in near future. "To" is generally used when defining relationship between two parts of a sentence, indicate a limit, indicate the place, person, or thing that someone or something moves toward etc. thus correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 11

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you have to spot errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part Errors, if any, are only in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error. Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is no error in the sentence. In that case, letter (I) will signify a No error ’ response.

The operation of this machine (a) / is different (b) / to that of the other. / (c) No error (d)

Solution:

Again in this question, preposition 'to' has been incorrectly used in option (c) here "to that" does not fit aptly as the sentence indicates differentiating between the working of objects not just the traits. Thus the right form of usage would be "from the other". Hence option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 12

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I don’t remember exactly when did I go to Shimla last year,

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect as I followed by did is mostly to lay stress on the verb/action while the actual emphasis is on the first part of sentence. Option (b) is incorrect as the word 'going' brings the sentence in present continuous while the actual sentence is in the past tense. Use of verb 'do' twice is not preferred over the 'went'. Hence, option (c) is correct.

QUESTION: 13

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Even he worked hard, he failed in the examination.

Solution:

Even is a word used to express surprise, as comparatives or for balance. You use although to introduce a subordinate clause in which you mention something that contrasts with what you are saying in the main clause. Since gives the starting point of actions, events or states. It refers to when things began. We use For when we measure the duration - when we say how long something lasts. Out of all these options, although seems more appropriate

QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

He was asked to arbitrate with two merchants in a dispute,

Solution:

Arbitrate means to mediate to settle differences "between" two parties. Arbitrate is usually followed by between and not with or at, ruling out option (d) and (b). It necessarily needs a preposition to follow, ruling out option (c) as well. Here option a between fits well as there are two persons involved in the dispute. Hence, answer option (a).

QUESTION: 15

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

He is definitely the cleverer among the two.

Solution:

The underlined word among is used to indicate group of people, more than two. Option a "in" is a preposition used when denoting something inside. Thus it gets rejected. Option (b) of is used to indicate reference, showing something, belonging something. Option (c) can be out rightly rejected as "than" differentiates one from the other. But here,"than" is followed by both persons collectively. Thus option (b) of is the best option.

QUESTION: 16

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

He is resembling his father.

Solution:

It's natural that when comparing or relating a father and his son, the usage of tense has to be in present tense. This is because if a son resembles his father, he will always resemble him, not for a specific period of time. Thus option (c) resembles suits best in this sentence as it is in present tense. The underlined word "is resembling" is in present continuous tense. Option (a) "was resembling" is also wrong as it is past continuous tense and option (c) resembles depicts present tense as said before.

QUESTION: 17

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Would you mind closing the window?

Solution:

Option (d), no improvement, is the correct answer as the original sentence makes perfect sense.

QUESTION: 18

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I can be grateful if you could write to me about it.

Solution:

Option (a) "would" is more polite, because it expresses the idea of probability, and of willingness, and of the desire that something be done, whereas option (b) "should" is the past tense of shall, but it is an auxiliary verb with a few uses, not all of which are in the past tense. Itis used to ask question, to show obligation or to show a possible future event. Option (c) 'must' is specifically used when an order is given or something is necessary to do. The underlined word can be shows the capability of the subject to do an action. Thus, from the above explanations, it is clear that option (a) is most appropriate in this sentence

QUESTION: 19

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

A majority of the passengers could have been saved if the driver had applied the brakes in time

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

He is living in this house for the past ten years.

Solution:

In this sentence, we get the idea that the action is in continuation from the past 10 years. The underlined phrase is living is in present continuous form. Whereas option (a) was living is in past continuous form both of which do not suit the situation. However option (c) has been living is in present perfect which indicates the continuation of the action from the said period. Thus of all the options, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 21

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

He is knowing the secret.

Solution:

Know is a verb which can be used with different tenses.
Here the noun secret is abstract noun and suggests the action is being performed in the present form. The underlined phrase is knowing is in present continuous tense and does not fit here as a secret cannot be known(verb) continuously. "Has been knowing"i.e., option (b) indicates present perfect tense which again does not make meaningful sense. Option (c) "was knowing" is in past continuous form and one cannot stop knowing a secret after some time. However, option a knows completely makes sense as it establishes the fact that the person is well aware of the secret at present and every time he will be aware of it. Thus option (a) is the answer.

QUESTION: 22

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

The meeting has been put off to Friday next.

Solution:

The phrasal verbs used here indicate different actions.
Option a put on means to clothe or apply. Option (b) put out means to extinguish. Option (c) put for is generally used to take place 'for', in place 'of. The underlined phrasal verb put off means to delay or postpone. Thus, going by the meaning of sentence the underlined word itself seems correct as a meeting can be delayed or postponed. Option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 23

DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence three possible substitutions are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) o r (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.

If you will come with me I shall be happy.

Solution:

The sentence shows very clearly that the sentence is in present form and the person is being asked to come at that present moment. Option (a) 'come' with me suggests present form of the sentence. Option (b) had come with me is in past perfect which will not go with the word shall in the sentence which depicts future tense. Option (c) came with me can be rejected as it is in past tense again. The underlined word will come with me can be replaced with option (c) come with me, making better sense. Thus option (a) is the answer.

QUESTION: 24

DIRECTIONS: Each  of the items in this section contains a blank followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank and indicate your response in the answer sheet accordingly.

When the police arrived, the thief ______ away.

Solution:

Stroll means to walk in a leisurely way. Move means go in a specified direction or manner; change position. Gallop means the fastest pace of a horse or other quadruped, with all the feet off the ground together in each stride. While the first two options do not convey the intensity with which the thief would react on seeing the police, third option gallop is used only for horses or other quadruped. Hence, option (d) 'ran' seems most appropriate.

QUESTION: 25

DIRECTIONS: Each  of the items in this section contains a blank followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank and indicate your response in the answer sheet accordingly.

His ______ as an officer was not quite satisfactory.

Solution:

Acting is the art of performing fictional roles while becoming an officer is real as given in sentence. This rules out option (a). Doing is present continuous verb not suiting the flow of the sentence and highly inappropriate. Deed is an action that is performed intentionally or consciously. Also it is a one time thing, while his run as an officer is a prolonged activity. Record, meaning the sum of the past achievements or performance of a person, organization or thing fits most perfectly here. Hence, option (d)

QUESTION: 26

DIRECTIONS: Each  of the items in this section contains a blank followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank and indicate your response in the answer sheet accordingly.

The two children stood at the ______ of the table.

Solution:

Conclusion means the end or finish of an event, process, or text and not a table or similar furniture. Terminal is theend or extremity of something, either for a disease or a track, etc. termination is the act of ending or finishing something, a noun form not suitable in the sentence. Option (c) 'end' fits the sentence most simply and well.

QUESTION: 27

DIRECTIONS: Each  of the items in this section contains a blank followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank and indicate your response in the answer sheet accordingly.

The old man was ______ weak to open the door.

Solution:

In this sentence a man's inability to open the door due to weakness is emphasized. The option much (adv.) is used toemphasize a comparative adjective. Whereas too is used to modify an adjective creating the meaning of an unacceptable, excessive degree. Option very is used in cases to intensify an adjective .far is again used where comparative degree of adjectives are used. Here the sentence highlights the inability of the man due to excessive weakness. Thus it needs an adverb to highlight the severity of the problem. Thus option (d) is correct.

QUESTION: 28

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section consists of a word printed in capital letters followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose from these the word that has most nearly the meaning opposite to the word in capital letters and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

FRAIL

Solution:

The word in question "frail" means timid, weak etc. The opposite of frail should be related to strength. Option (a) strong denotes physical power. Option (b) "big" means large in size and shape. Option (c) old indicates weakness. Option (d) is weak itself. Thus after analyzing the options, it is clearly visible that the correct antonym would be option (a) 'strong'.

QUESTION: 29

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section consists of a word printed in capital letters followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose from these the word that has most nearly the meaning opposite to the word in capital letters and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

INDIGENOUS

Solution:

The word indigenous means local or native. Genuine means original, true. Foreign means alien, outsider. Indigent means poor, needy, impoverished. Indignant means angry, annoyed. From the above descriptions, it is evident that option (b) foreign is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 30

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section consists of a word printed in capital letters followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose from these the word that has most nearly the meaning opposite to the word in capital letters and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

POVERTY

Solution:

Poverty means scarcity or paucity. Option (a) "prosperity" means wealth or affluence. Option (b) adversary means opponent or challenger. Adversity means hardship or difficulty. Diversity means variety or myriad. Looking at the options it's evident that option (a) "prosperity" is the antonym of poverty thus the answer.

QUESTION: 31

DIRECTIONS: Each question in this section consists of a word printed in capital letters followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose from these the word that has most nearly the meaning opposite to the word in capital letters and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

WHOLESOME

Solution:

Wholesome, the word in question means nutritious, hearty. Option (a) is complete which has synonym very close to wholesome. Option (b) unhealthy means something which is not good for health or deficient in nutrition. Option (c) incomprehensible means inexplicable or inconceivable thus this word has no relation with the word wholesome. Option (d) "few" is an adverb used for countable nouns. After going through the option it is clear that option (b) unhealthy is the most appropriate answer.

QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE-I
In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of the outstanding character and ability. Moreover, it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early in life one can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country. It is possible that Hitler would never have become the leader of Germany if that country had not been driven to despair.

In a free country, one who becomes a leader

Solution:

In the given passage it is clearly narrated in the very line that one who reaches the position of leader is one with outstanding character and ability so option (a) is the closest to the main sentence in the passage but the option has the word must which lends the edge of necessary condition for becoming a leader. Option (b) also mentions the word must which takes away the essence of the main sentence. Option (c) sounds closest to the main sentence as the remarkable goes well in place of the word outstanding. Option (d) also does not go with the original sentence.

QUESTION: 33

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE-I
In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of the outstanding character and ability. Moreover, it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early in life one can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country. It is possible that Hitler would never have become the leader of Germany if that country had not been driven to despair.

Hitler became a leader because

Solution:

From the passage we get to know that the reason why Hitler rose to being a dictator was the fact that Germany was in despair. The option (c) clearly lends support to this fact. Other options just vaguely revolve around the passage's theme. Thus option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 34

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE-I
In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of the outstanding character and ability. Moreover, it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early in life one can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country. It is possible that Hitler would never have become the leader of Germany if that country had not been driven to despair.

The passage seems to suggest that

Solution:

The gist of the passage suggests in the last line of the passage that due to disparity and unfavorable condition in a country, unworthy people can get a chance to abuse their power and proclaim dictatorship. The very first option a clearly sends this very message. Option (b) is naturally untrue. Option (c) even though is close to the real message is not in context with the passage. Option (d) is also not related to the passage in exact sense. Thus option (a) is the answer.

QUESTION: 35

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE -II
The dog is a very intelligent animal and it can be trained for many duties. Some dogs work with the police and the army as sentries and trackers, and there are medals that are awarded to dogs for bravery in action. Other dogs act as seeing-eyes for the blind, and some breeds are specially trained for rescue work among mountains and snow. Jobs like herding sheep and cattle and guarding homes are also done by them. Whenever man lives and works in the Arctic Circle, in the desert, in the jungle, in the moors or mountains, the dog is his faithful companion and help. A common mongrel may possess these qualities just as much as the aristocratic bloodhound.

The passage tells us that dogs

Solution:

After reading the passage it is clear that dog is being talked about as an intelligent animal and thus it can be trained to perform different types of duties. The first option a is very much close to the real sentence in passage. Specifically it is not suggested that dogs can do difficult works only. Also it is being said although they are of different types, they have learning ability which is quite similar. Option (a) alone 'are help for man' is totally out of context statement. Thus option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 36

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE II
The dog is a very intelligent animal and it can be trained for many duties. Some dogs work with the police and the army as sentries and trackers, and there are medals that are awarded to dogs for bravery in action. Other dogs act as seeing-eyes for the blind, and some breeds are specially trained for rescue work among mountains and snow. Jobs like herding sheep and cattle and guarding homes are also done by them. Whenever man lives and works in the Arctic Circle, in the desert, in the jungle, in the moors or mountains, the dog is his faithful companion and help. A common mongrel may possess these qualities just as much as the aristocratic bloodhound.

Medals are awarded to some dogs for

Solution:

It is written in the passage that medals are awarded only to those dogs in the police and army department who do brave deeds, not every dog helping the police or those serving in the sentries. So out of all the options, option (a) fulfills all the conditions required for the dog to attain a medal

QUESTION: 37

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE II
The dog is a very intelligent animal and it can be trained for many duties. Some dogs work with the police and the army as sentries and trackers, and there are medals that are awarded to dogs for bravery in action. Other dogs act as seeing-eyes for the blind, and some breeds are specially trained for rescue work among mountains and snow. Jobs like herding sheep and cattle and guarding homes are also done by them. Whenever man lives and works in the Arctic Circle, in the desert, in the jungle, in the moors or mountains, the dog is his faithful companion and help. A common mongrel may possess these qualities just as much as the aristocratic bloodhound.

The passage implies that

Solution:

Reading the passage throws light on the message that dogs are faithful companions of man who can be trusted on every difficult situation. The option that only dogs are faithful to man and dogs can do almost anything for man is totally distorted in meaning. Also man is not totally helpless without dogs although they help us in lot of ways. Thus clearly option (c) is the best statement and therefore correct.

QUESTION: 38

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE II
The dog is a very intelligent animal and it can be trained for many duties. Some dogs work with the police and the army as sentries and trackers, and there are medals that are awarded to dogs for bravery in action. Other dogs act as seeing-eyes for the blind, and some breeds are specially trained for rescue work among mountains and snow. Jobs like herding sheep and cattle and guarding homes are also done by them. Whenever man lives and works in the Arctic Circle, in the desert, in the jungle, in the moors or mountains, the dog is his faithful companion and help. A common mongrel may possess these qualities just as much as the aristocratic bloodhound.

The phrase ‘aristocratic bloodhound’ in the passage means

Solution:

Pertaining to this question, we must first understand the meaning of aristocratic bloodhound. It means that the dog which is full blooded, pure and of rare breed, having family lineage. The meaning is closest to the word pedigree in option (b). Thus automatically option (b) becomes the correct answer, hardly leaving any chance for considering any other option.

QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

Out of the list of options provided for question 39, a suits best with the remaining phrase because when we talk about youngster, it's a generic word , suggesting lot of people are young. That brilliant does not sound appropriate as the person in question is directly being talked about. He is not far off or is not in a particular direction. The can also be not used as it is used with a specific or exclusive word or group. Thus option (b) is the answer.

QUESTION: 40

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

Here we must notice that preposition is used for the word experience. Option (a) "with" is a preposition used to indicate "having". Option (b) "of' isused for belonging to, relating to, or connected with. Option (c) for is used to indicate the use of something. Out of all three options, option (a) is the best and correct answer as experience is something one has or possesses.

QUESTION: 41

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

In this sentence it is mentioned about the son of Jaroslov Drobny, a Czech carpenter. Now Jaroslov Drobny is a particular man with an exclusive identity, so his son is also a particular person being referred to. So in this case before son "the" should be used not "a" or "that". Thus "the" is the answer.

QUESTION: 42

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

If we closely look at the sentence then we find that it is indicating the starting point of play in his career. When we say about starting something by a second person then has or had is used. Has for present tense and had for past tense. Here option (a) is "had". Was cannot be used here as it does not refer to the starting of just playing. Since the sentence is referring to an incident of the past has cannot be used. Thus we are left with the option (a) ie, had.

QUESTION: 43

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

The boy started playing at the age of five. Age fits the blank perfectly as the next word is anumerical value. We generally refer to someone's age by a number. Now for stage we cannot use a number. Similarly for career, a number cannot be used. Thus option (a) is the answer.

QUESTION: 44

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

In English grammar, it is known that with in lieu, always' of is used not "for" or "to". Thus in lieu of is a phrase generally used for in place of. Option (a) is the answer.

QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

We always go to a place. We don't go for or with a place.
To is preposition which is used to indicate the place, person, or thing that someone or something moves toward, or the direction of something. For is used to indicate the use of something, time or duration. 'With' is used to indicate being together or being involved. Thus the most suitable preposition would be option (a) "to".

QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

If we look at the option (a) "in", it should be noted that in cannot be used with day, grammatically. So this option is nullified. It is a common practice that when we use on to denote a day or a date then we use the before the word day. But here in the sentence "the" has not been used. Now we are left with the option (c) that, which fits well when we direct towards a particular day in the past.

QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

It is evident that the person has full knowledge of his mental state and he is driving himself to do the best. Going by the mental situation of the subject, it hints that the work he is doing is extremely necessary for him without a doubt. In places where full willingness and authority is represented then 'can' or 'would' should not be used as these words suggest capability and politeness in attitude respectively. But option (b) must define the person's stance that he has to complete the work whatsoever.

QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

From the previous item, we know that how much important this game is for the subject. It was his dream to play in Wimbledon. Seeing the importance of this match, it should be noted that this match is not just important for this particular day but for his life. Option (b) 'age' also does not lend edge to the statement. Thus, option (a) 'life' is the best and correct answer.

QUESTION: 49

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

In this sentence the subject is the player and "he" has been used as a pronoun. The second part of the sentence also keeps talking about the player only not for a general person. Thus you or one cannot be used in this sentence. However 'he' fits the bill as the sentence is in continuation with the person's actions.

QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage.

Q. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your answer sheet.
Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken Rosewall, brilliant youngster and already a m aster world experience behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, son of a Czech carpenter who started the boy off at the of five with a wooden ‘bat’ in lieu a racquet, went on the famous Centre Court at Winbledon day with the full knowledge that this be the game of his He had kept on typing, and could keep on trying, but opportunities would become fewer and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the start, and he had this young rival set off against him.

Solution:

From the previous item we get the hint that the person has played an important match and wants to excel from the very beginning as he knows that life is dynamic and the same person does not always get unlimited chances although games and matches would always happen. So the sentence becomes a little philosophical and hints more at number of opportunities available than at games and matches, thus option (c) opportunities seems the most correct answer.

QUESTION: 51

 Which of the following statements about the Progressive Writers’ Association, which created a generation of creative people, is/are correct?
1. It thought critically about the poverty and hunger of the Indian people.
2. It brought out of the positive developments of colonialism.
3. Its creative pursuit began with a critical evaluation of Gandhian politics.
4. It planned India’s development model.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Progressive Writers'Association was established in London in 1935 by Indian writers and intellectuals, with the encouragement and support of some British literary figures. It was a group of writers, including Mulk Raj Anand, Sajjad Zaheer and Jyotirmaya Ghosh. It thought critically about the problems of hunger and poverty, social backwardness, and political subjection of Indian people. Gandhi became the central theme of these writers.

QUESTION: 52

 E. V. Ramaswami Naicker was associated with
1. reforming Brahminism
2. the Self-Respect Movement
3. the Low Caste Movement
4. the Communist Movement

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

E. V. Ramaswami Naicker was a social activist who started the Self-Respect Movement or the Dravidian Movement. He was anti-Brahmin activist and supported low caste Movement. He was born in Erode, Madras Presidency to a wealthy family of Balijas.

QUESTION: 53

Consider the following statements about Taram Vir Chakra’:
1. It is the highest peacetime gallantry award.
2. It is the replacement of British Victoria Cross.
3. It can be awarded to civilians.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Ashok Chakra Award is the peace time award. The Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India's highest military decoration awarded for the highest degree of valour or self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy and cannot be awarded to civilians. It replaced the former British colonial Victoria Cross.

QUESTION: 54

Gandhiji’s ‘Harijan Campaign’ sought to
1. attack caste system as a whole
2. open wells, road, temples, etc to Harijans
3. encourage social work among Harijans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Gandhiji never attacked caste system.

QUESTION: 55

The Salt Satyagraha called by Mahatma Gandhi saw the
1. violation of salt laws along coastal India
2. participation of women
3. upward swing when it came to the working class joining in

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

What was the code name for the Indian Air Force operations during the Kargil Conflict of 1999?

Solution:

Operation Safed Sagar was the code name assigned to the Indian Air Force's strike to support the ground troops during Kargil war.

QUESTION: 57

 During the Civil Disobedience Movement, tribals in Chota Nagpur
1. gave up opium consumption
2. wore Khadi
3. gave up drinking liquor and eating meat.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

During the Civil Disobedience Movement,tribals in Chota Nagpur wore Khadi gave up opium consumption, drinking liquor and eating meat.

QUESTION: 58

Which of the following was/were the new feature/features visible in the Quit India Movement (1942)?
1. Large-scale movements in some of the industrial areas.
2. Large-scale mass involvement in some of the Princely States
3. Increase in the activities of the Kisan Sabha 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

On 8 August 1942 at the All-India Congress Committee session in Bombay, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi launched the 'Quit India' movement. It was a civil disobedience movement.

QUESTION: 59

The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission report submitted recently, among others, contained which of the following proposals?
1. All regulators will have an empowered board, the role of each of the members has been defined.
2. The Commission envisages an important process of judicial review of the regulations.
3. The draft code does not mention about executive powers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Option (a) is the correct choice.

QUESTION: 60

The Swadeshi Movement evoked serious responses in

Solution:

The Swadeshi movement was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal. During the movement, people of Bengal had boycotted the British products and advocated the Swadeshi products.

QUESTION: 61

Who among the following was associated with the Gudem- Rampa Rebellion?

Solution:

Alluri Sitarama Raju was associated with the GudemRampa Rebellion.

QUESTION: 62

The Bali Ministerial Declaration and the ministerial decisions that were adopted on 7th December, 2013 contained several issues. Which of the following are related to the LeastDeveloped Countries?
1. Preferential Rules of Origin for Least-Developed Countries
2. Operationalization of the Waiver Concerning Preferential Treatment to Services
3. Duty-Free and Quota-Free (DFQF) Market Access for Least-Developed Countries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

The ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ was a policy that aimed to

Solution:

The Doctrine of Lapse was devised by Lord Dalhousie and that aimed to extend the territorial boundaries of the English East India Company.

QUESTION: 64

The Permanent Settlement of 1793 introduced

Solution:

The Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis.lt was an agreement between the British East India Company and the Landlords of Bengal to settle the Land Revenue to be raised. The landlords were given the right to transfer or sell their lands if they liked.

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following is/are true relating to the Lokpal Bill, 2013, which was assented to by the President on 1 st January, 2014?
1. It provides for creation of antigraft ombundsman to investigate corruption charges against public functionaries including the Prime Minister, Ministers and Members of the Parliament.
2. The Bill makes it incumbent upon States to make within a year their own law for setting up Lokayuktas on the lines of the Lokpal Bill.
3. States are free not to set up Lokayuktas, if they do not so desire.

States the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Lokpal Act, 2013, officially 'The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013', is an anti-corruption Act of Indian Parliament in India which "seeks to provide for the establishment of the institution of Lokpal to inquire into allegtions of corruption against certain public function a ries and for matters connecting them " . According to the Act, Lokpal will be applicable at the Centre and Lokayukta at the States.

QUESTION: 66

Who among the following was associated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association?

Solution:

Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was a revolutionary organization. It was established in 1928. Bhagat Singh, Chandrasekhar Azad, Sukhdev were associated with it.

QUESTION: 67

The Indian National Army was organized to fight against

Solution:

The Indian National Army was organized to fight against British in India. The Indian National Army (INA) was originally founded by Capt Mohan Singh in Singapore in September 1942. It was revived with the arrival of Subhash Chandra Bose in the Far East in 1943.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following is/are true relating to Nelson Mandela?
1. He was the first President of South Africa.
2. Mandela spent 18 years in prison on Robben Island.
3. Mandela became the President in 1990 after his release from the prison.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

Nelson Mandela was the first black president of South Africa (1994-99). Mandela spent 18years(From 1964 to 1982) in prison on Robben island.

QUESTION: 69

The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn for the

Solution:

The non-cooperation movement was withdrawn after the Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922.

QUESTION: 70

Which of the following books was written by B. R. Ambedkar?

Solution:

Buddha or Karl Marx was written by B.RAmbedkar.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following is/are correct relating to the North-Eastern Region Community Resources Management Project for upland areas?
1. It is a livelihood and rural development project aimed to transform the lives of the poor and marginalized tribal families in North-East India.
2. This Project is initiated exclusively by the North-Eastern Council.Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

North Eastern Region Community Resource Management Project (NERCORMP) is a livelihood and rural development project aimed to transform the lives of the poor and marginalized tribal families in North East(NE) India. NERCORMP is a joint developmental initiative of the N orth E astern Council(N EC ), M inistry of DONER(Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region) Govt, of India and International Fund for Agricultural Development(IFAD).

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following statements are true for the Fundamental Right to Life and Personal Liberty as guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
1. The Right is available to citizens as well as aliens.
2. It covers protection against arbitrary executive and legislative action.
3. It includes the right to live with human dignity.
4. It can be taken away according to the procedure established by law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following statements:
1. 'SAMRATH 2014’a national festival for showcasing the abilities of persons with disabilities, was organized recently in New Delhi by the Ministry of Culture.
2. India is a party to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

SAMARTH2014 was organized by the Department of Disability Affairs under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India. The Convention on the Rights of Persons with D is abilities is an international human rights treaty of the United Nations intended to protect the rights and dignity of persons with disabilities. India is a party to the convention.

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements about ‘Sahayog Kaijin’:
1. It is a joint exercise of the Coast Guards of India and Japan.
2. Its 13 th edition was held recently off Chennai Port. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The 13th edition of joint exercise by the Indian Coast Guard and its Japanese counterpart held approximately at 20 nautical miles offKochi.

QUESTION: 75

Consider the following statements about grand slam tennis tournaments:
1. There are four grand slam annual tennis tournaments.
2. The first grand slam of a year is the US Open.
3. The Australian and the US tournaments are played on grass court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Grand Slam itinerary consists of the Australian Open (mid January), the French Open (May/June), Wimbledon (June/July) and the US Open (August/September.). First grand slam of the year is Australian Open.

QUESTION: 76

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Minerals are formed by slow cooling of the magma.
Statement II: Very small crystals are formed when lava cools quickly on the surface.

Solution:

If the magma cools quickly, the crystals do not have much time to form, so they are very small. If the magma cools slowly, then the crystals have enough time to grow and become large. Mineral crystals that form when magma cools slowly are larger than crystals that form when lava cools rapidly.

QUESTION: 77

DIRECTIONS: The following six items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: The Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh receives copious snowfall during winter.
Statement II: The Kullu Valley receives moisture-bearing wind of the Western Disturbances during winter.

Solution:

(a) is correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

QUESTION: 78

DIRECTIONS: The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: The hills with dense vegetation cover do not experience heavy soil erosion.
Statement II: The vegetation cover helps infiltration of rainwater and binding of soils.

Solution:

(a) is correct and statem ent II is the correct explanation of statem ent I .

QUESTION: 79

DIRECTIONS: The following six items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: The decrease of air temperature with increasing altitudes in the atmosphere is called the vertical temperature gradient.
Statement II: In Troposphere, air temperature decreases with increasing altitude due to radiation from the Earth.

 

Solution:

(a) is correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

QUESTION: 80

DIRECTIONS: The following six items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Chemical weathering processes are found more active in hot and humid environment.
Statement II: High temperature and rainfall help in the process of decomposition of rocks.

Solution:

Both statements are correct but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

QUESTION: 81

DIRECTIONS: The following six items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: The acceleration due to gravity decreases with increase in height from the surface of the Earth.
Statement II: The acceleration due to gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the centre of the Earth.

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

The number of valence electrons in the O2- ion is

Solution:

No. of valence electron in one O atom = 8
O2- represents gain of two electrons
∴ No. of valence electrons = 8 + 2 = 10

QUESTION: 83

Within an animal cell, the most abundant inorganic constituent of protoplasm is

Solution:

The most abundant inorganic constituent of protoplasm is water.

QUESTION: 84

Two conducting wires A and B are made of same material. If the length of B is twice that of A and the radius of circular cross-section of A is twice that of B, then their resistances Ra and Rb are in the ratio

Solution:

Given that lB = 2lA and rA = 2rB
Now, from R = 

= 1:8

QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements: Areal image
1. can be formed on a screen
2. is always magnified and inverted

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Which one of the following is the correct electronic configuration of chlorine?

Solution:

We know that,
atomic number of chlorine = 17
Therefore, the chlorine configuration Is2 2s22p6 3s2 3p5
So, 2, 8,7 is correct answer.

QUESTION: 87

In honey, which one among the following sugars predominates?

Solution:

Fructose, predominates in Honey.

QUESTION: 88

During short-circuiting, the current flowing in the electrical circuit

Solution:

During short circuiting, the current flowing in the electrical circuit increase instantaneously

QUESTION: 89

The number of aluminium ions present in 54g of aluminium (atomic weight 27) is

Solution:

Number of aluminium ions present in 54g of aluminium

QUESTION: 90

What is ‘breakbone fever’ most commonly known as?

Solution:

Dengue fever is also known as breakbone fever.
Symptoms of the disease include headache, fever, prostration, severe joint and muscle pain, swollen glands (lymphadenopathy) and rashes.

QUESTION: 91

Van de Graaff generator is used for

Solution:

A Van de Graaff generator is an electrostatic generator which uses a moving belt to accumulate electric charge on a hollow metal globe on the top of an insulated column, creating very high electric potentials. It produces very high voltage direct current (DC) electricity at low current levels. A tabletop version can produce on the order of 100,000 volts and can store enough energy to produce a visible spark. It was invented by Robert J. Van de Graaff in 1929.

QUESTION: 92

The most stable form of carbon is

Solution:

Diamond is the most stable form of carbon.

QUESTION: 93

Which one among the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?

Solution:

Scurvy is a disease caused by a diet that lacks vitamin C (ascorbic acid). Patients develop anemi, debility, exhaustion, edema (swelling) in some parts of the body, and sometimes ulceration of the gums and loss of teeth. Humans cannot synthesize vitamin C, which is necessary for the production of collagen and iron absorption. We have to obtain it from external sources, i.e. from fruits and vegetables.

QUESTION: 94

The summer and winter seasons in a year are caused by

Solution:

The summer and winter seasons in a year are caused by revolution of the earth on its inclined axis.

QUESTION: 95

The latest discovered state of matter is

Solution:

There are four states of matter- solid, liquid, gas and plasma. A plasma can be created by heating a gas or subjecting it to a strong electromagnetic field applied with a laser or microwave generator.

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following pairs represents isoelectric ions?

Solution:

When two elements and/or ions have the same electronic configurations, it is said that they are "isoelectronic" with one another.

QUESTION: 97

After diagnosis of disease in a person, the doctor advises the patient iron and folic acid tablets. The person is suffering from

Solution:

Anaemia is a medical condition in which the red blood cell count or haemoglobin is less than normal. For men, anaemia is typically defined as haemoglobin level of less than 13.5 gram/100 ml and in women as haemoglobin of less than 12.0 gram/100 ml. Vitamin supplements given orally (folic acid or vitamin B12) or intramuscularly (vitamin B12) will replace specific deficiencies. So,the doctor advices advises the patient iron and folic acid tablets.

QUESTION: 98

Which one among the following is the coral group of islands of India?

Solution:

Lakshadweep is about 220 to 440 Kms away from the cost of Kerala, lying one of the world's most spectacular tropical Islands systems in a scattered group of 36 coral islands. All these islands have been built up by corals and have fringing coral reefs very close to their shores.

QUESTION: 99

Bernoulli’s principle is based on which one among the following laws?

Solution:

Bernoulli's principle is based on the principle of conservation of energy. This states that, in a steady flow, the sum of all forms of energy in a fluid along a streamline is the same at all points on that streamline. This requires that the sum of kinetic energy, potential energy and internal energy remains constant.

QUESTION: 100

The displacement (x)-time (t) graph given above approximately represents the motion of a

Solution:

When a simple pendulum immersed in water then its oscillations are damped and its wave is cosine wave.

QUESTION: 101

Dihydrogen can be prepared on a commercial scale by the action of steam on hydrocarbons, when a mixture of CO and H2 gas is formed. It is known as

Solution:

Producer gas, mixture of flammable gases (principally carbon monoxide and hydrogen) and non-flammable gases (mainly nitrogen and carbon dioxide) is made up throughby the partial combustion of carbonaceous substances, usually coal, in an atmosphere of air and steam.

QUESTION: 102

Dropsy is a disease caused due to adulteration in

Solution:

Dropsy is a disease, which means swelling of the body.
Main symptoms of'Dropsy are: (i) swelling of the whole body especially legs (ii) gastrointestinal symptoms like vomitting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite (iii) tingling sensation in the skin (iv) tenderness in the calf muscles (v) increased intra-occular (inside the eye) pressure which is known as glaucoma.lt is caused by adulteration in mustard oil.

QUESTION: 103

 Consider the following surface winds:
1. Doldrums
2. Trade winds
3. Westerlies
4. Polar winds

Which one among the following is the idealized global pattern of these winds from the Equator to the Pole?

Solution:

Doldrums are a low pressure area around equator after which come the trade wind whose expanse is from tropic of cancer to tropic of capricorn. They move in NorthEast direction in the Northern hemisphere and NorthEast in the Southern hemisphere. They are followed by westerlies that prevail in mid latitude between 30 and 60 degrees latitude. As the name suggests polar winds are closer to the poles. The correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 104

The current (I)-voltage ( V ) plot o f a certain electronic device is given above. The device is

Solution:

Ohm's Law is the linear proportionality between current and voltage that occurs for most conductors of electricity. A graph of voltage against current is a straight line.

QUESTION: 105

Which of the following statements about hydrogen is/are correct?
1. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium is the most common.
2. Hydrogen ion (H+) exists freely in solution.
3. Dihydrogen, H2, acts as a reducing agent.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Hydrogen has three naturally occurring isotopes denoted by lH(Protium), 2H (Deuterium) and 3H (Tritium). Protium is the most prevalent hydrogen isotope, with an abundance of 99.98%. It consists of one proton and one electron.

QUESTION: 106

Leaves of which of the following plants are not used for the rearing of silkworms?

Solution:

Castor plants are not used for rearing of silkworms. Castor oil has many uses in medicine and other applications.

QUESTION: 107

Taungup Pass is a mountain corridor connecting India with

Solution:

Taungup Pass is a mountain corridor connecting India with Myanmar. Taungup is situated located in Sandoway district of Myanmar.

QUESTION: 108

The temperature of water at the bottom of a lake whose upper surface has frozen to ice would be around

Solution:

The temperature of water at the bottom of a lake whose upper surface has frozen to ice would be around 4 degree Celsius.

QUESTION: 109

Which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Graphite is slippery and hard and is therefore used as a dry lubricant in machines. Graphite is a good conductor of heat and electricity. This is because, like metals, graphite contains delocalized electrons. These electrons are free to move through the structure of the graphite.

QUESTION: 110

 Which one among the following groups is the most abundant in terms of number of species identified?

Solution:

Insects are abundant in terms of number of species identified.

QUESTION: 111

Consider the following statements:
1. Crystallization is a form of mechanical weathering.
2. Hydration causes granular disintegration.
3. Frost action is synonymous with freeze-thaw action.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Crystallisation is a form of mechanical weathering. It is operative especially in arid climates. Due to dry weather, moisture is drawn to the surface of rocks. Hydration is another process which involves water, but there is no chemical change whatsoever. Hydration causes granular disintegration.
Frost action is also termed as synonymous with freeze- thaw action

QUESTION: 112

Lapland is a cultural region largely within the Arctic Circle in the north of the Scandinavian Peninsula. Who inhabited the Lapland?

Solution:

The Sami people are an indigenous Finno-Ugric people inhabiting the Arctic area of Sapmi, which today en comp asses parts of far northern Norway, Sweden,Finland, the Kola Peninsula of Russia, and the border area between south and middle Sweden and Norway.

QUESTION: 113

If speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s, the speed of light in glass (with refractive index 1.5) would be

Solution:

(a) Given that
C = 3 x 108m/s, H= 1.5

QUESTION: 114

While looking at an image formed by a convex lens (one half of the lens is covered with a black paper), which one of the following will happen to the image?

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Which of the following acids is a mineral acid?

Solution:

A mineral acid is an acid derived from one or more inorganic compounds. Examples of mineral acids are Hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, sulphuric acid phosphoric acid, boric acid, and hydrofluoric acid.

QUESTION: 116

Considering the locations of mountains in India, which one among the following is in right sequence from south to north?

Solution:

Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Hills (Tamil Nadu)at 2,637 metres.
The Vindhyas run across most of central India.
The Dhaulagiri massif inNepal extends 120 km from the Kaligandaki River west to the Bheri.
Mt. Kailash peak is standing in the remote south-west corner of Tibet in the Himalayan Mountains.

QUESTION: 117

A balloon filled up with gas would only go up in air if it is filled up with

Solution:

A body floats, if its density is less than fluid i.e. floating medium.

QUESTION: 118

Planet A has double the radius than that of Planet B. If the mass of Planets is 4 times heavier than the mass of Planet B, which of the following statements regarding weight of an object is correct?

Solution:

As we know, 
From question, RA= 2RB and MA = 4MB 
∴ ga = gb
Hence weight of the object (w= mg) is same on both the planets.

QUESTION: 119

Which of the following is correct regarding the reaction of fluorine with water?
2F2(g) + 2H2O (l)→ 4 H+ (aq ) + 4F-(aq) + O2(g)

Solution:

In the given reaction F2 is an oxidising agent which oxides H2O to O2. Oxidation state o f fluorine changes 0 to - 1.

QUESTION: 120

 The site of cellular respiration in animal cell is

Solution:

Mitochondria are fascinating structures that create energy to run the cell. It is the site of cellular respiration in animal cell

QUESTION: 121

Which one among the following lakes is situated on the west coast o f India?

Solution:

Ashtamudi lake is situated in the Kollam District ofKerala.

QUESTION: 122

Sound waves are similar to the waves

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

A sound wave has frequency of 2 kHz and wavelength of 35 cm. If an observer is 1.4 km away from the source, after what time interval could the observer hear the sound?

Solution:

f=2kHz = 2x 103Hz
λ=35cm = 35 x 10-2m
d = 1.4km= 1.4 x 103m; v = fx = 2x103 x 35 x 10-2=700m/s

QUESTION: 124

Which of the following is/are amphoteric?

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

Which of the following statements about vitamins are correct?
1. Vitamin C is essential to make connective tissue in body.
2. Vitamin D is needed for synthesis of eye pigment.
3. Vitamin B12 helps in maturation of RBC.
4. Vitamin C is required to make use of calcium absorbed from the intestine.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

What is the correct sequence from the smallest to the largest grain of the following types of clastic rocks?

Solution:
QUESTION: 127

Which one among the following waves bats use to detect the obstacles in their flying path?

Solution:

Bats use a variety of ultrasonic ranging (echolocation) techniques to detect obstacles in their flying path. They can detect frequencies beyond 100 kHz, possibly up to 200 kHz.

QUESTION: 128

A fuse is used in an electric circuit to

Solution:

A fuse is used in an electric circuit to break the circuit when excessive current flows through the circuit.

QUESTION: 129

The most of the mass of the atom can be found in

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

The Faroe is a group of islands lying in the Atlantic Ocean between Scotland and Iceland. This island group is also known as

Solution:

The Faroe Islands are an archipelago between the Norwegian Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean. The Faroese sheep is a breed of domestic sheep native to the Faroe Islands. Thus, this group of islands is also known as Island of Sheep.

QUESTION: 131

The pressure of an ideal gas undergoing isothermal change is increased by 10%. The volume of the gas must decrease by about

Solution:

 Given that 
Now  (p + Δp )= 11p.
From 

QUESTION: 132

Tuareg is a pastoral nomad living in the desert of

Solution:

The Tuareg is a pastoral nomad living in the desert of Sahara. They are found in Algeria, Mali and Niger.

QUESTION: 133

A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin upward which falls behind him. It implies that the motion of the train is

Solution:

It implies that the motion of the train is accelerated.

QUESTION: 134

The mass number of an atom is determined by

Solution:

The atomic mass is determined by adding the number of protons and neutrons in the atom.

QUESTION: 135

Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:


Solution:

Selvas- Tropophytes
Savanna- Grasses and Trees
Tundra- Mosses and Lichens
Mansoon land - Epiphytes

QUESTION: 136

In optical instruments, the lenses are used to form image by the phenomenon of

Solution:

Refraction is the change in direction of propagation of a wave due to a change in its transmission medium.

QUESTION: 137

Note the following balanced chemical equation:
2CO + O2  2 CO2

Which one of the following statements is significant in relation to the above chemical equation?

Solution:

This is according to law if definite proportions. In this reaction, CO reacts with O2 in 2:1 mol ratio.Option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 138

Which of the following is/are the most likely cause/causes of sheet-flood found in western part of Rajasthan?
1. Scanty rainfall
2. Sudden high intensity rain
3. Loose sandy soil with scanty vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

 Mulching, an agronomic measure of soil conservation, is very effective because it
1. protects soil from gully erosion
2. protects soil from sheetwash and wind erosion
3. helps soil to retain moisture and nutrients

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

Mulches are materials placed over the soil surface to maintain moisture and improve soil conditions. Mulching has proven to be an effective soil conservation practice, reducing both wind and water erosion during the winter period.

QUESTION: 140

How many cubic centimeters (cm3) are in a cubic metre (m3)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

A semiconducting device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. Current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to zero. The device may be

Solution:

The device is a pn junction. When a current flows across the junction, it is forward biased. On reversing, the polarity of the battery, it is reverse biased and current drops to almost zero.

QUESTION: 142

A fertilizer contains 20% nitrogen by mass. To provide a fruit tree with an equivalent of 1 kg of nitrogen, the quantity of fertilizer required is

Solution:


QUESTION: 143

Why is hydrolysis an effective form of chemical decomposition of bedrock in humid tropics?
1. Humid tropics experience high temperature and humidity.
2. There is high diurnal range in temperature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Hydrolysis is the weathering reaction that occurs when the two surfaces of water and compound meet. It involves the reaction between mineral ions and the ions of water (OH- and H+), and results in the decomposition of the rock surface by forming new compounds. Temperatures usually stay high (above 70) throughout the year. Humid Subtropical climate is known for hot humid summers. During the summer the average temperature is between 70 and 80 degrees.

QUESTION: 144

If the distance S covered by amoving car in rectilinear motion with a speed v in time t is given by S = vt, then the car undergoes

Solution:

As the body moves with a constant speed v along a straight line or rectilinear path hence body undergoes a uniform velocity. Here direction of the moving body is unchanged.

QUESTION: 145

he phenomenon of electromagnetic induction implies a production of induced

Solution:

According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction,
emf induced, e 
where, d(Ø) = change in magnetic flux

QUESTION: 146

Which one among the following is not a characteristic o f a federal system?

Solution:

One of the features of the federal system is the distribution of power between the federal government and the government of the states. Some powers are given to the federal government and some other remaining powers are given to the government of states. The federal government is powerful over the matter of national (or) general importance. Both federal and state governments functioning strictly within the sphere demarcated for them.

QUESTION: 147

The Constitution of India guarantees the Fundamental Right to Freedom of Religion to all its citizens. Which among the following is not true for this Rights?

Solution:

The state can make laws which abrogate the right in case there is a threat to public order, morality and health.

QUESTION: 148

The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 may be seen as giving effect to which of the following Fundamental Rights?
1. Equality before the Law
2. Right against Discrimination
3. Abolition of Untouchability
4. Right to Freedom of Religion

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to prevent atrocities against scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. It extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu & Kashmir. It may be seen as giving effect to equality before law, right against discrimination and abolition of Untouchability. Freedom of religion in India is a fundamental right guaranteed by Article 15 to Article 25 of the Constitution of India.

QUESTION: 149

Under which of the following Acts is the National Population Register being created?

Solution:

The national Population Register was created by the UID Act 2010. The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) was established in January 2009 and is a part of the Planning Commission of India. UIDAI aims to provide a unique 12 digit ID number to all residents in India on a voluntary basis. The number will be known as AADHAAR.

QUESTION: 150

Which one among the following is not true about Bal GangadharTilak?

Solution:

Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, in 1895, founded the Shri Shivaji Fund Committee for celebration of'Shiv Punya Tithi' and for the reconstruction of the Samadhi of Shivaji M aharaj. In 1894, Tilak transform ed household worshipping of Ganesha into Sarvajanik Ganeshotsav. New English School was founded by Shri Vishnushastri Chiplunkar along with Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, in year 1880. Ravindra Nath Taigore preached the cult of self reliance or atmashakti.The cult of atmashaki included assertion of national dignity, honour, confidence and working towards social and economic regeneration of Indian villages.

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