NDA II - English & General Ability 2015


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA II - English & General Ability 2015


Description
This mock test of NDA II - English & General Ability 2015 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA II - English & General Ability 2015 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA II - English & General Ability 2015 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA II - English & General Ability 2015 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA II - English & General Ability 2015 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. Had she been hungry, she would have devoured the whole lot of it.

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. Until you don't finish the work, you won't be given leave,

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. The names of the defaulters have been cut off the register,

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. This is a matter I'd rather not talk about.

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. Only when you left I did sleep.

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. I will be happy ifvou will buy me apples.

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. After I saved some money, I shall go abroad.

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. Can you arrange the car to be ready this evening ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. Hardly had he reached home when the telephone rang.

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

DIRECTIONS: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (I) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (I).

Q. He is likely to win the elections by the sweeping majority

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the arts of which have been Jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), b), (c) and (I). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and select the correct sequence

P - His uncle for success in life,
Q - always advised his son.
R - who was a self-made man
S - to depend on his own efforts

The proper sequence should be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the arts of which have been Jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), b), (c) and (I). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and select the correct sequence

P - The doctor did not like the behavior of the patients 
Q - who was very competent in his profession 
R - when they talked at length
S - about their problems

The proper sequence should be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the arts of which have been Jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), b), (c) and (I). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and select the correct sequence

P - from leadership in culture
Q - in military situations and in face-to-face small groups
R - leadership has wide range of expressions
S - to leadership in politics

The proper sequence should be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the arts of which have been Jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), b), (c) and (I). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and select the correct sequence

P - He sat glancing occasionally
Q - peering through the window 
R - at the figure of the old woman 
S - until he was chilled with the cold

The proper sequence should be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the arts of which have been Jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), b), (c) and (I). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and select the correct sequence

P - After the earthquake tremors, the TV showed a haggard man shaking his fist at the sky 
Q - clambering over the ruins 
R - and collapsing with a howl of revolt 
S - of his house and factory

The proper sequence should be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the arts of which have been Jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), b), (c) and (I). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and select the correct sequence

P - Everyone acknowledges
Q - when he considers the case calmly 
R - who knows you
S - that you have been wronged

The proper sequence should be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. Many of his acquaintances avoid him because he is so garrulous.

Solution:

Garrulous means excessively talkative, especially on unimportant matters. Therefore, talkative is the nearest in meaning or synonym of Garrulous.

QUESTION: 18

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. He bore the pain with great fortitude.

Solution:

Fortitude means mental and emotional strength in facing difficulty, adversity, danger, or temptation courageously. Forbearance means being patient and keeping self-control. Therefore, forbearance is the nearest in meaning or synonym of fortitude.

QUESTION: 19

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. He gave his tacit approval to the proposition.

Solution:

Tacit means something understood or impl ied without being stated. Implied means suggested but not directly expressed. Therefore, implied is the nearest in meaning or synonym of tacit.

QUESTION: 20

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. In spite of hard work, the farmers could only get a meagre yield.

Solution:

Meagre means very small or not enough in amounts or numbers. Scanty means small or insufficient in quantity or amount. Therefore, scanty is the nearest in meaning or synonym of meagre.

QUESTION: 21

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. He was exhilarated at the outcome of the election results,

Solution:

Exhilarate means to cause to feel happily refreshed and energetic. Overjoyed means to be extremely happy and joyous about something. Therefore, overjoyed is the nearest n meaning or synonym of exhilarated.

QUESTION: 22

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. He concealed his thoughts very cleverly.

Solution:

Concealed means to keep something or someone as secret or hidden. Reveal means to make some previously unknown or secret information known to others. Therefore, revealed is the opposite in meaning or antonym of concealed

QUESTION: 23

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. The proposal was denounced by one and all.

Solution:

Denounce means to publicly declare something or someone to be wrong or evil. Commended means praise formally or officially. Therefore, commended is the opposite in meaning or antonym of denounce.

QUESTION: 24

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. She was skeptical about the safety of the new drug.

Solution:

Sceptical not easily convinced; having doubts or reservations. Certain means to able to be firmly relied on to happen to be the case. Therefore, certain is the opposite in meaning or antonym of sceptical.

QUESTION: 25

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. The answers to the question were coherent.

Solution:

Coherent means logically or aesthetically ordered or integrated. Disconnected means lacking a logical sequence. Therefore, disconnected is the opposite in meaning or antonym of coherent.

QUESTION: 26

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. It was no altruistic motive that prompted him to help her.

Solution:

Altruistic means showing a disinterested and selfless concern for the well-being or advantage of others. Therefore, selfish is the opposite in meaning or antonym of altruistic.

QUESTION: 27

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. Man has won his dominant position on this planet by his__________  of technology.

Solution:

Command here refers to the ability to use or control something. Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank.

QUESTION: 28

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. The day was extremely hot and, in no time, my back was drenched with ________ .

Solution:

Perspiration here refers to the process of sweating.Therefore, it si the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank.

QUESTION: 29

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. The Government is encouraging village upliftment_______  in the country.

Solution:

Programmes here means a planned series of future events or performances. Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank.

QUESTION: 30

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. Satish was endowed_______ a natural talent for music. 

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. Mr. Ghosh is very happy______ his son's excellent result

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. Sunlight filtering________the stained glass window created a mosaic of colours on the floor.

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. Are you feeling doubtful________ your decision?​

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. I want to study Geology now for I________ Zoology for the last three years.

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. Increase in storage facilities has made it possible to store goods at places__________ to people all over the country.

Solution:

Convenient here refers to a location situated so as to allow easy access to everyone. Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank.

QUESTION: 36

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. To say that we were surprised at the cleverness of the child is an understatement; we were really__________

Solution:

Astounded means to get shocked or greatly surprised.Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank.

QUESTION: 37

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. In spite of the old woman's repeated entreaties, he remained__________

Solution:

Indifferent means having no particular interest or sympathy or to be unconcerned. Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank.

QUESTION: 38

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. There was________ competition for electoral seats.

Solution:

Cut-throat here means a competitive situation or activity which is fierce and intense or involving the use of ruthless measures. Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank.

QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. The cricket team_______ mainly of State players.

Solution:

Comprises means to be composed of or contain. For example: The staff comprises of eight physicians, two dozen nurses, and various administrative people.Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank.

QUESTION: 40

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. His love for money is the only________ that drives him towork so hard.

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

Q. According to_________ sources,the Chief Minister didnot consult his Cabinet Members on this issue.

Solution:

Reliable here refers to someone or something capable of being relied on or dependable. For example: a reliable assistant; a reliable car.

QUESTION: 42

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. I am told (a) / John is ill (b) / since Monday (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. I shall leave school (a) / as soon as (b) / I shall find a job. (c) /No error (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. He is a rich man (a) / he is owning (b) / a number of buildings in Bombay (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. We were able to make it (a) / in spite of (b) / a bad weather.(c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Neither of the two letters of credit (a) / were useful (b) / when he needed it. (c) / No error (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Little he realized (a) / that he wouldn't live (b) / to see his grandson married. (c) / No error (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. A difficult syllabus (a) / is supposed to hurt (b) / juvenile mind. (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. The voice of sanity and patriotism (a) / are important to dispel (b) / the  prevailing confusion (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. You were going to explain (a) / your late arrival (b) / isn't it? (c) / No error. (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

A brass ball is tied to a thin wire and swung so as to move uniformly in a horizontal circle. Which of the following statements in this regard is/are true?
1. The ball moves with constant velocity
2. The ball moves with constant speed
3. The ball moves with constant acceleration
4. The magnitude of the acceleration of the ball is constant

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Velocity is the vector quantity so it get changed as the direction changes. The ball will move with constant speed and magnitude of acceleration of the ball will also be constant.

QUESTION: 52

Two long wires each carrying a d.c. current in the same direction are placed close to each other. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

When wire carrying d.c. current in the same direction are placed close to each other, the wire will attract each other.

QUESTION: 53

The first Indian Satellite, Aryabhatt, was launched in the year:

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Which one of the following sea routes is the shortest from point to point?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Which one of the following is not a Green House Gas?

Solution:

Green house gas consists of methane, water vapours, ozone and CFCs gases.

QUESTION: 56

Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of:

Solution:

Lactic acid is formed and accumulated in the muscle under conditions of high energy demand at the time of vigorous exercise and rapid fluctuations of the energy requirem ent and insufficient supply o f 02

QUESTION: 57

The absolute zero, i.e., temperature below which is not achievable, is about:

Solution:

At the physically impossible-to-reach temperature of zero kelvin, or minus 459.67 degrees Fahrenheit (minus 273.15 degrees Celsius), at which atoms would stop moving.

QUESTION: 58

Lightning conductors are used to protect building from lightning strikes. Which of the following statements is / are true about lightning conductors?
1. Lightning conductors create an electric field at its top so that lightning strikes it preferentially
2. Lightning conductors reduce the effect of the strike by uniformly distributing the charge (current) over the surface of the building
3. Lightning conductors take all charge (current) to deep down in the earth
4. Lightning conductors must be installed at a place taller than the building

Q .Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Lightning conductor, is a good conductor of electric current, so it create an electric field at its top to attract lightning conduction (i.e., charge). It carries all charges to deep in the earth without harming the building. These conductors are installed at corners or sides walls taller than the walls so that lighting strikes these first.

QUESTION: 59

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Which one of the following is not a sea port?

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Consider the following reaction:​

Q. In the reaction given above, the mixture of CO and H2 is:

Solution:

Water gas is a fuel gas consisting mainly of carbon monoxide and hydrogen, made by passing steam over incandescent coke.

QUESTION: 62

Living things are grouped into subgroups like plant kingdom/ animal kingdom. Which one of the following is not correct for animal kingdom?

Solution:

Animal body do not contain cellulose.

QUESTION: 63

The silvering in thermos flasks is done to avoid heat transfer by:

Solution:

Silvering in thermos flask is done to avoid heat transfer by both radiation.

QUESTION: 64

The Manas National Park is situated in the State of:

Solution:

Manas National park is situated at the base of the foot hills of Bhutan-Himalayas in the state of Assam.

QUESTION: 65

Addition of gypsum to cement:

Solution:

During the cement manufacturing process, upon the cooling of clinker, a small amount of gypsum is introduced during the final grinding process. Gypsum is added to increase the "setting of cement".

QUESTION: 66

In case of a compound microscope which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The focal length of the eye piece is larger than the focal length of the objective
2. The focal length of the eye piece is smaller than the focal length of the objective
3. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is real
4. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is virtual

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

When the image and object are at the two different sides of a lens the then focal length is positive. When the object and images are at the same side (one side only) then the focal length is negative.

QUESTION: 68

Identify the place that is not an oil field:

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Ammonia (NH3) obtained from different sources always has same proportion of Nitrogen and Hydrogen. It proves the validity of law of:

Solution:

Ammonia (NH3) obtained from different sources always has same proportion of Nitrogen and Hydrogen and it proves the validity of law of constant proportion.

QUESTION: 70

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

The 1ST meridian 821/2°E passes through a number of States in India. Which one of the following sets of States is correct in this respect?

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

Boric acid is an acid because its molecule:

Solution:

Boric acid, also called hydrogen borate, is a week monobasic acid which accepts OH from water releasing proton

QUESTION: 73

Who among the following discovered the antibiotic producing fungus from Penicillium genus?

Solution:

First antibiotic was obtained from genus Penicillium discovered by Sir Alexander Fleming.

QUESTION: 74

Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90 ohm. Their equivalent resistance when combined in parallel will be:

Solution:

Three equal resistance in series are 90 ohm. therefore resistance is 30 ohm.
Three resistance each with 30 ohm in parallel gives 10 ohm.

QUESTION: 75

The following figure represents the velocity-time graph of a moving car on a road:

Q. ​Which segment of the graph represents the retardation?

Solution:

BC

QUESTION: 76

Which one among the following places is not an iron-ore mining area?

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

Bhitarkanika- National Park
Chilka - Sanctuary
Dudhwa- Tiger reserve
Nokrek- Biosphere Reserve

QUESTION: 78

The main constituent of Vinegar is:

Solution:

The main constituent of vinegar is acetic acid; the other constituents will depend on the nature of the raw material that has undergone fermentation.

QUESTION: 79

White Phosphorus glows in the dark due to:

Solution:

White phosphorous when exposed to oxygen it get oxidized and produce light.

QUESTION: 80

Which one of the following is not an example of eukaryotic organism?

Solution:

Yeast plant and human being all are eukaryotic, only bacteria is a prokaryotic

QUESTION: 81

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

Capacity to do work is called energy.

QUESTION: 82

A man is sitting in a train which is moving with a velocity of 60 km/hour. His speed with respect to the train is:

Solution:

Zero

QUESTION: 83

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

Western ghats - Tropical evergreen Himachal Pradesh - Himalayan moist forest Haryana and Punjab - Tropical thorny forest Chhotanagpur Plateau - Tropical moist deciduous 

QUESTION: 84

The term 'Regur' is used to mean:

Solution:

Regur is a black soils are found in lava-covered areas of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Northern Karnataka, etc. and this soil is very good for cotton.

QUESTION: 85

Graphite is a much better conductor of heat and electricity than diamond. This is due to the fact that each carbon atom in graphite:

Solution:

Undergoes sp2 hybridization and forms three sigma bonds with three neighbouring carbon atoms.

QUESTION: 86

Which one of the following vitamins is synthesized in our own skin?

Solution:

Dermal synthesis of vitamin D from cholesterol is dependent on sun exposure.

QUESTION: 87

Which one of the following is the SI unit of the thermal conductivity of a material?

Solution:

In SI units, thermal conductivity is measured in watts per meter kelvin (W/(m. K)).

QUESTION: 88

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

The temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid is called the melting point.

QUESTION: 89

Which one of the following combinations of stalactites and stalagmites occurrences is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Which one of the following is the correct sequence about various levels of organization of Biosphere?

Solution:

Organism —»Population —»Ecosystem —»Biosphere 

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following are the properties of an electron?
1. Electron is a constituent of cathode ray
2. Electron is a negatively charged particle
3. The mass of the electron is equal to the mass of the proton
4. Electron is deflected by the electric field but not by magnetic field

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Cathode rays are composed of negatively charged particle electron.

QUESTION: 92

Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms are fulfilled by:

Solution:

Photosynthesis is a process in which carbon is taken from the atmosphere is taken in form of carbon di oxide. Energy is also synthesized in light reaction is subsequent steps.

QUESTION: 93

The resistance of a wire of length / and area of cross-section a is x ohm. If the wire is stretched to double its length, its resistance would become:

Solution:

Resistance is directly proportional to length(l)
r ∝ 1 5 r ∝ 1/a
wire is stretched to double its length the resistance will become
r ∝ 1, r ∝ 1/a/2 Combining these two r ∝ 41/a 

QUESTION: 94

Which one of the following describes the Lithosphere?

Solution:

Lithosphere consists of crust and upper mantle.

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following statements regarding heavy water are correct?
1. It is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors
2. It cannot be used in exchange reaction to study reaction mechanism
3. Viscosity of heavy water is relatively smaller than that of ordinary water
4. The dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than that of ordinary water

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Most commercial nuclear reactors use normal water (also called light water) as a neutron moderator. Dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than that of ordinary water.

QUESTION: 96

Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood on the basis of:

Solution:

Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles is dependent on both Newton's second law of motion and Newton's third law of motion.

QUESTION: 97

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

To weld metals together, high temperature is required. Such a high temperature is obtained by burning:

Solution:

Oxy-fuel welding (commonly called oxyacetylene welding, oxy welding, or gas welding) and oxy-fuel cutting are processes that use fuel gases and oxygen to weld and cut metals.

QUESTION: 99

Two forces, one of 3 newton and another of 4 newton are applied on a standard 1 kg body, placed on a horizontal and frictionless surface, simultaneously along the x-axis and the y-axis, respectively, as shown below:​

Q. The magnitude of the resultant acceleration is:

Solution:

Final force will be along the Z axis.
F = V(3)2+(4)2
= a/9+ 16=V25 = 5
Acceleration(a) = F/m = 5/1 = 5m/s2

QUESTION: 100

Magnetic meridian is an imaginary:

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

An up fold in rock is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

Which one of the following gases is found in highest quantity in Exosphere?

Solution:

Hydrogen is present throughout the exosphere, with some helium, carbon dioxide, and atomic oxygen near its base.

QUESTION: 103

In blood, platelets are required for:

Solution:

Platelets are responsible for blood clotting.

QUESTION: 104

In SI unit of force 'Newton' (N) is given by (where m stands for metre and S stands for second):

Solution:

SI unit of force Kg.m/s2

QUESTION: 105

The acceleration due to gravity 'g' for objects on or near the surface of earth is related to the universal gravitational constant 'G' as ('M' is the mass of the earth and 'R' is its radius):

Solution:

g = GM/R2

QUESTION: 106

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

Lithium batteries are batteries that have lithium as an anode. These types of batteries are also referred to as lithium-metal batteries. The membrane get polarized with the movement of Na+ ion and crate appropriate potential across membrane. K control the water balance in blood. Caesium clocks are the most accurate & commercially produced time and frequency standards, and serve as the primary standard for the definition of the second in SI (the metric system).

QUESTION: 108

Which one of the following is not a site of action in human body for the malarial parasite plasmodium?

Solution:

Kidney is not a site of action in human body for malarial parasite Plasmodium.

QUESTION: 109

The loudness of sound is related to:

Solution:

Loudness of sound is related to amplitude.

QUESTION: 110

X-rays are electromagnetic radiation whose wavelengths are of the order of:

Solution:

X-rays electromagnetic radiation having wavelength 10-10 metre.

QUESTION: 111

Which one of the following pairs of properties of typical air masses is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 112

The symbol of the element 'Tungsten' is:

Solution:

Symbol of Tunguston is W.

QUESTION: 113

In Egypt, ancient mummies can be found to have their arteries intact due to well preserved:

Solution:

Arteries of mummies are intact with the elastic fibre when they are preserved.

QUESTION: 114

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

The image formed by the concave mirror for an object lying at infinity is at the principal focus highly diminished, real and inverted.

QUESTION: 115

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

In any atom atomic number represent the number of electrons which is equal to the number of proton.

QUESTION: 116

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 117

The alkali metals have relatively lowmelting point. Which one of the following alkali metals is expected to have the highest melting point?

Solution:

Li is the alkal i metal which has highest melting point.

QUESTION: 118

Which one of the following is useful in paper manufacturing industry?

Solution:
QUESTION: 119

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

In stream line each particle may not follow the same path as taken by a previous particle passing through that point.

QUESTION: 120

According to the Geo-scientists, the shape of the earth is:
1. round
2. spherical
3. close to that of a sphere
4. an oblate ellipsoid

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The simplest model for the shape of the entire Earth is a sphere. The Earth's radius is the distance from Earth's center to its surface, about 6,371 kilometers (3,959 mi). Earth is only approximately spherical, so no single value serves as its natural radius. Since the Earth is flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator, geodesy represents the shape of the earth with an oblate spheroid. The oblate spheroid, or oblate ellipsoid, is an ellipsoid of revolution obtained by rotating an ellipse about its shorter axis.

QUESTION: 121

The word 'Secular' was inserted into the Constitution of India by:

Solution:

Secularism in India means equal treatment of all religions by the state. With the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India enacted in 1976, the Preamble to the Constitution asserted that India is a secular nation. However, neither India's constitution nor its laws define the relationship between religion and state.

QUESTION: 122

Which one of the following is not correct in the context of balance of payments of India during 2013-2014?

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

Which one of the following continents accounts for the maximum share in exports from India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly express the power of Judicial review are:

Solution:

Legislature, executive and judiciary under the Constitution are to exercise powers with checks and balances, but not in water-tight rigid mould. In India, on the basis of Articles 32 and 136, the Supreme Court can exercise the power of judicial review.

QUESTION: 125

Which one of the following statements about Subsidiary Alliance devised by Lord Wellesley in the year 1798 is not correct?

Solution:

According to the terms of a subsidiary alliance, princely rulers were not allowed to have an independent armed force. They were to be protected by the East India Company, but had to pay for the 'subsidiary forces' that the company was supposed to maintain for the purpose of this protection. If the Indian rulers failed to make the payment, then part of their territory was taken away as penalty.

QUESTION: 126

Who among the following was associated with the Mughal Court as a physician to Prince Dara Shukoh'?

Solution:

Francis Bernier was a French physician and traveller.He was briefly personal physician to Mughal prince Dara Shikoh, the elder son of the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.

QUESTION: 127

During the Eleventh Five Year Plan (FYP), agriculture sector in India witnessed a growth rate of 3.3 per cent per annum which is higher than 2.4 per cent per annum in the previous FYP. This is largely due to better performance of:

Solution:
QUESTION: 128

An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only during:

Solution:

National emergency under article 352, emergency can be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indochina war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi).

QUESTION: 129

Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India is/are correct ?
1. Livestock contributed about 25 per cent of gross value added in agriculture
2. It provides self employment to a large segment of population​
3. Rapid growth of livestock sector can be egalitarian and inclusive

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

Which one of the following statements about Khilafat Movement is not correct?

Solution:

The Khilafat movement (1919-22) was a pan-Islamic, political protest campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the British government. The movement became the reason for separation from mainland India of an Islamic Pakistan, in the process unleashing tremendous separation-trauma, mainly upon ethnic Punjabis. The movement was a topic in Conference of London (February 1920); however, Arabs saw it as threat of continuation of Turkish dominance of Arab lands.

QUESTION: 131

Which one of the following is not correct in the current Indian scenario?

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with:

Solution:

The Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.

QUESTION: 133

The British Officer who was a representative of the Governor General and who lived in a State which was not under direct British rule was called:

Solution:

A Resident, or in frill Resident Minister, is a government official required to take up permanent residence in another country. Instead of being a representative to a single ruler, a Resident could be posted to more than one native state, or to a grouping of states which the European power decided for its convenience. This could create an artificial geographical unit, as in Residency X in some parts of the British Indian Empire.

QUESTION: 134

Which of the following features of the Permanent Settlement o f 1793 is / a re co rrect?
1. The Permanent Settlement vested Land ownership rights in the peasants
2. The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership rights in the Zamindars
3. The Zamindars had to pay a fixed amount of rent by a particular date
4. The Zamindars benefited hugely from the Permanent Settlement while the peasants suffered

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

The Vijayanagara Empire received its death blow at the battle of:

Solution:

The Vijayanagara Empire (also called Karnata Empire, and the Kingdom of Bisnegar by the Portuguese) was based in the Deccan Plateau region in South India. It was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangama Dynasty. It lasted until 1646, although its power declined after a major military defeat in 1565 by the Deccan sultanates.

QUESTION: 136

The 'Basic Structure Doctrine' was enunciated by the Supreme Court during the:

Solution:

The Kesavananda Bharati case was the culmination of a serious conflict between the judiciary and the Government, which was headed by Mrs Indira Gandhi. Though, the phrase 'basic structure' was introduced for the first time by M.K. Nambiar and other counsels while arguing for the petitioners in the Golaknath case, it was only in the Kesavanada Bharati's case that the concept surfaced in the text ofthe apex court's verdict

QUESTION: 137

Consider the following statements about the travellers who visited India:
1. Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi from Herat visited Delhi and Daulatabad.
2 Ibn Battuta provides detailed accounts of both Delhi and Daulatabad.
3. According to Francois Bernier there was no private property in land in Mughal India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Abd-ur-Razzaq was the ambassador of Shah Rukh, the Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia to Calicut, India, from January 1442 to January 1445. He wrote a 45-page narrative of this mission to India.

QUESTION: 138

Which of the following statements about hill stations of colonial India is/are correct?
1. The architecture of hill stations sought to recreate the European style
2. Hill stations were developed as sanitariums where soldiers were treated for illness
3. Shimla became the official residence of the Commander in Chief of the Indian Army
4. In 1864, Shimla had to be evacuated because of a Typhoid epidemic

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

Pattadakal, also spelled Pa??adakallu, is an UNESCO inscribed World Heritage site. It is 22 km from Badami, and about 10 km from Aihole, both of which are well known for Chalukya monuments. The Keshava temple is one of the finest and most complete examples of Hoysala architecture and is also one of the best preserved Hoysala temples. Konark Sun Temple is a 13th-century Sun Temple at Konark in Orissa, India. It is believed th a t th e tem p le was b u ilt by k in g Narasimhadeva I of Eastern Ganga Dynasty in 1255 CE.

QUESTION: 140

The Senia tradition is:

Solution:

The word "Senia" is related to Tansen, the father of Indian Classical Music. The word "Gharana" implies a style of music. The followers of Tansen's school of music are widely known as the followers of "Senia gharana

QUESTION: 141

Who among the following founded the Rajahmundri Social Reform Association in 1878 in support of widow remarriage?

Solution:

In 1878, the Rajahmundry Social Reform Association w as founded that emphasized on Anti-nautch movement to discontinue the hiring of nautch girls. However, the association started concentrating on widow remarriage at a later stage. Under th is association, Kandukuri Veeresalingam organized the first widow remarriage on December 11, 1881 of Gogulapati Sreeramulu and Gowramma.

QUESTION: 142

The SAARC Secretariat is located at:

Solution:

The SAARC Secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal.It coordinates and monitors implementation of activities, prepares for and services meetings, and serves as a channel of communication between the Association and its Member States as well as other regional organisations.

QUESTION: 143

The 19th Century Faraizi Movement in eastern Bengal developed under the leadership of:

Solution:

The Faraizi Movement was founded in 1818 by Haji Shariatullah to give up un-Islamic practices and act upon their duties as Muslims. The movement protected the rights of tenants to a great extent.

QUESTION: 144

The Indian States Committee was formed in 1928 under:

Solution:

The Indian states committee appointed a committee under the Chairmanship of Sir Harcourt Butler which was popularly known as 'the Butler Committee' to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount powers and the princely states in 1928.

QUESTION: 145

The Panchayati Raj system under Part-IX of the Constitution of India does not apply of the States of :

Solution:

In the history of Panchayati Raj, in India, on 24 April 1993, the Constitutional (73rd Amendment) Act 1992 came into force to provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Currently, the Panchayati Raj system exists in all the states except Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories except Delhi.

QUESTION: 146

The First Five Year Plan (1951 -1956) was drafted by :

Solution:

Kakkadan Nandanath Raj was a veteran Indian economist. He is popularly known as K. N. Raj. He play ed an important role in India 's planned development, drafting sections of India's first Five Year Plan.

QUESTION: 147

Who among the following is the author of the book, "Pakistan Paradox: Instability and Resilience

Solution:

The Pakistan Paradox: Instability and Resilience is authored by Christophe Jaflfelot.

QUESTION: 148

Which one ofthe following was the theme of the "International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers" for the year 2015?

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

Indian athlete Vikas Gowda is associated with :

Solution:

Vikas Gowda is an Indian thrower and Shot putter. He won his first gold medal in Asian Championships in 2013 in Pune, with a throw of64.90 meters.

QUESTION: 150

The 19th Federation Cup National Senior Athletic Championships (2015) was held in:

Solution:

The 19th National Senior Athletic Championship for the Federation Cup was held at the Mangala stadium, Mangalore City, Karnataka from April 30 to May 4.

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