NDA II - English & General Ability 2016


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA II - English & General Ability 2016


Description
This mock test of NDA II - English & General Ability 2016 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA II - English & General Ability 2016 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA II - English & General Ability 2016 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA II - English & General Ability 2016 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA II - English & General Ability 2016 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Hospitality is a virtue for which the natives of the East in general are highly admired.

Solution:

Hospitality here refers to the friendly and generous reception and entertainment of guests, visitors, or strangers.

QUESTION: 12

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. House rent in cities like Mumbai or Delhi has risen to astronomical figures beyond the reach of even high-salaried people.

Solution:

Astronomical here refers to enormously or inconceivably large or great. Exorbitant means exceeding the bounds of custom, propriety, or reason, especially in amount or extent. Therefore, exorbitant is the synonym of astronomical.

QUESTION: 13

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Appropriate technology holds the key to a nation’s development.

Solution:

Appropriate means suitable or proper in the circumstances.

QUESTION: 14

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. He was enamoured of his own golden voice.

Solution:

Enamoured means impressed with or enthusiastic about something.

QUESTION: 15

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Some journalists are guilty of indulging in yellow journalism.

Solution:

Yellow journalism is a type ofjournalism that presents little or no legitimate well-researched news and instead uses eye-catching headlines to sell more newspapers. Techniques may include exaggerations of news events, scandal-mongcring or sensationalism.

QUESTION: 16

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. The culprit was sentenced by the Court.

Solution:

Sentence here refers to declare the punishment decided for (an offender) whereas acquitted means free (someone) from a criminal charge by a verdict of not guilty. Therefore, acquitted is the antonym of sentenced.

QUESTION: 17

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Thrifty as he is, he can well afford to live within his means.

Solution:

Thrifty means using money and other resources carefully and not wastefully whereas extravagant means lacking restraint in spending money or using resources. Therefore, extravagant is the antonym of thrifty.

QUESTION: 18

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Do not give him a responsible job, he is immature.

Solution:

Immature means lacking the expected type of responsible behaviour for one's age whereas seasoned means having a lot of experience of doing something and therefore knowing how to do it well. Therefore, seasoned is the antonym of immature.

QUESTION: 19

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. I was prepared to show my hand provided he agreed to do the same.

Solution:

To show my hand'here refers to allow people to know about intentions that you had previously kept secret. Therefore, 'to conceal my plan' is its most opposite in meaning.

QUESTION: 20

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Q. Akbar the great was a sagacious ruler.

Solution:

Sagacious means having or showing keen mental discernment and good judgement. Therefore, unwise is the antonym of sagacious.

QUESTION: 21

She has been lying in bed for the last fortnight. I hope she will__________ .

Solution:

Pull through refers to get through an illness or other dangerous or difficult situation.

QUESTION: 22

The path of progress is beset_____________ difficulties.

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

I feel __________ for those w ho are cruel to th eir children.

Solution:

Contempt means a strong feeling of disliking and having no respect for someone or something.

QUESTION: 24

Both the parties were keen to have an________ settlem ent of the dispute.

Solution:

Amicable means relating to behaviour between people that is pleasant and friendly, often despite a difficult situation.

QUESTION: 25

I have come to know that the two brothers have ________ .

Solution:

Falling out is defined as a disagreement or something that causes two people to no longer be friendly with one another.

QUESTION: 26

Everybody finds his own work whereas he feels that others have delightful jobs.

Solution:

Tedious means tiresome because of length or dullness.

QUESTION: 27

The accident took place because of the criminal_____of the driver.

Solution:

Negligence means failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would exercise in like circumstances.

QUESTION: 28

The belief in the_______of vaccination is gaining ground.

Solution:

Efficacy means the power to produce a desired result or effect.

QUESTION: 29

Our new leader is a_________young man and will take us forward.

Solution:

Dynamic here refers to a person positive in attitude and full of energy and new ideas,

QUESTION: 30

They found a world of_______between what he said and what he did.

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

The proper sequence should be 

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

The proper sequence should be 

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

The proper sequence should be 

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. My old teacher gave many poor students money in spite of he was poor.

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. You should to read the newspapers regularly if you want to be well informed.

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. If he had listening to me he would not have got lost.

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. He asked for a bank loan also he didn’t have sufficient resources.

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. I went to the shop to buy some stationeries.

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. I have been waiting here for the last two hours.

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. The table needs to be painted.

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. It began to rain heavily just when I prepare to go out.

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. The couple seemed to love one another very much.

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. It is high time that we did something.

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. If I were a millionaire, I would have helped the poor.

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. The training programme was extended for a month.

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q. The painting which they were looking at was done by my sister.

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement I: Variability of annual rain fall is very high in western part of Rajasthan.
Statement II: Average annual rain fall is extremely low in western Rajasthan.

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement I: Ozone is a tri-atomic molecule of oxygen.
Statement II: Ozone is concentrated mainly in stratosphere.

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement I : The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.
Statement II : Laterite soils are the result of intense leaching process.

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement I : Too much salt content in diet could be one of the reasons for kidney failure.
Statement II : High salt may cause high blood pressure.

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement I : The city of Rome revived in a spectacular way in the 15th century.
Statement II : From the 15th century onwards, artists were known individually by name, not as member of a group or a guild, in Roman society.

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Statement I : Chartism was the political reform cam paign for democratic rights which swept over Britain between 1838 and 1848.
Statement II : The trade union movement declined by the 1830s as it failed to fulfill the aspirations of the working class.

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

‘Sahel’ region of Sahara desert is associated with

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Which one of the following pairs of a river and its tributary is not correctly matched?

Solution:

Amaravati river is the longest tributary of Kaveri river

QUESTION: 59

In which one of the following countries, the Mediterranean type of Biome is found?

Solution:

Chile hae mediterranean type ofClimate.

QUESTION: 60

Arrange the following states in order of their decreasing population size as per the census 2011:
1. West Bengal
2. Bihar
3. Maharashtra
4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

Heating Camphor-Sublimation
Cooling of water vapor up to room temperature- condensation
Cooking an egg-Chemical change
Formation of water vapor at room temperature
Evaporation

QUESTION: 63

Identify the element having zero valency

Solution:

Radon belongs to the noble gas family so it has zero valancy.

QUESTION: 64

There are six electrons, six protons and six neutrons in an atom of an element. What is the atomic number of the element?

Solution:

Atomic number of any element is same as electron number or proton number.

QUESTION: 65

Which one of the following has different number of molecules? (All are kept at normal temperature and pressure)

Solution:

48 gram of O2 x (1 mole of O2 / 32 gm of O2) x (6.022 x 1023 molecules O2 / 1 mole of O2) = 9.033 x 1023 m olecules of O2

QUESTION: 66

Combination of one volume of nitrogen with three volumes of hydrogen produces

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements about cactus:
1. The leaves are reduced to spines.
2. The stem does the photosynthesis.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

In case of xerophytic plants leaves are reduced to spines and stem does the process of photosynthesis.

QUESTION: 68

In which one of the following, methanogens, i.e., methene producing bacteria are not present?

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Malarial parasite is a 

Solution:

Malarial parasite is plasmodium which is a protozoan.

QUESTION: 70

With reference to biodiversity, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Species richness and high degree of endemism are important criteria for identifying biodiversity hot spots.
2. Species diversity is highest in the tropics and decreases down the poles.
3. Biodiversity conservation may be in situ as well as ex situ.

Solution:

Biodiversity hot spot region.

QUESTION: 71

It is difficult to kill viruses because they

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

When a ray of light enters a glass slab, then

Solution:

As the light enters from rarer medium to the denser medium the speed of light decreases but the frequency remains the same.

QUESTION: 73

A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground with a speed of 25.2 m/s. The ball will reach the highest point of its journey in

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

One kilowatt hour is equal to

Solution:

One kilowatt hour is 3600000 joules.
1 KWh = 300000joules = 36 x 106 joules.

QUESTION: 75

When sound waves are propagated through a medium, the physical quantity/quantities transmitted is/are

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Pressure is a scalar quantity because

Solution:

Pressure is magnitude of force normal to the area.

QUESTION: 77

A person is unable to read a newspaper without his glasses. He is most probably suffering from

Solution:

Long sightedness or hypermetropia is eye related problem in which image is formed behind the retina.
This may be due to short eye or cornea or crystalline lens does not refract the light enough.

QUESTION: 78

The free fall acceleration g increases as one proceeds, at sea level, from the equator toward either pole. The reason is

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

Which one o f the following is not a contact force?

Solution:

Gravitational force is an imaginary force pulling everything towards the earth surface without any contact to the object.

QUESTION: 81

When a force of 1 newton acts on a mass of 1 kg which is able to move freely, the object moves in the direction of force with a/an

Solution:

Force (F) = Mass (m) x acceleration (a) acceleration (a) = Force (F)/Mass (m) = 1 newton/1 kg = 1 m/s2

QUESTION: 82

Which of the following items is used in the household wirings to prevent accidental fire in case of short circuit?

Solution:

Electric fuse in electric circuit is a device which is used to interrupt any type of accidental fire due to short circuit.

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following are the features of the ideology of utilitarianism?
1. Utilitarians believed that all value derives from land
2. The most celebrated spokesmen of utilitarianism were jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill
3. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea that India could be ruled through indigenous laws and customs
4. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea of the ‘greatest good for the greatest number of people’

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Who among the following invented the power loom that revolutionized the cotton textile industry?

Solution:

A power loom is a mechanised loom powered by a line shaft, and was one of the key developments in the Industrial Revolution. Edmund Cartwright the powerloom which revolutionaries the textile industry.

QUESTION: 85

Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements:
1. Periplus is a Greek word meaning sailting around.
2. Erythraean was the Greek name for the Mediterranean Sea.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Who among the following was defeated by Saina Nehwal to win the women’s title of the Australian Open Super Series Badminton Tournament, 2016?

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements: He was an Indian journalist, editor and author. He was associated with the Statesman, the Guardian, the Times of India etc. He received the Ramnath Goenka Lifetime Achievement Award in 2013. He died in june 2016.
The person referred to above is

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

Achyut Lahkar, who died recently, was a

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Recently Microsoft announced its 26.2 billion dollar acquisition of which one of the following professional networking sites?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Which of the following statements concerning Mediterranean climatic region are correct ?
1. It is found in the latitude range 30°to 45°northern and southern hemisphere
2. Mediterranean climate experiences extreme temperature conditions.
3. In Mediterranean climate, rainfall occurs mainly during summer season
4. Mediterranean climate, rainfall is mainly due to westerlies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Arrange the following states in decreasing order of their total area under forest cover :
1. Jharkhand
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Madhya Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

Which of the following statements concerning Scheduled Castes (SC) population in India are correct ?
1. The highest percentage of SC population out of the total population of the state is found in Punjab.
2. Bihar is the second largest state in respect of total SC population in India
3. Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of SC population in India
4. Among the Indian states, the lowest percentage of SC population out of the total population of the state is found in Goa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using code given below the Lists :


Solution:

Sulphur - have six valance electron
Phosphorus - have five valence electron
Lead- have four valence electron
Silver - have two valence electron

QUESTION: 95

Which one of the following species is not capable of showing disproportionation reaction ?

Solution:

 Cl is in its maximum oxidation state that is +7 so it cannot go disproportionation reaction because it cannot further oxidised.

QUESTION: 96

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Solution:

Covalent bonds being directional is that atoms bonded covalently prefer specific orientations in space relative to one another. As a result, molecules in which atoms are bonded covalently have definite shapes.

QUESTION: 97

When one strikes a safety mat, the first step is

Solution:

If we rub the match stick against the striking surface, the friction generated causes some of th e red phosphorus present to turn into white phosphorus.
White phosphorus is highly sensitive and volatile, it ignites spontaneously in the air, making a flame.

QUESTION: 98

The LPG cooking gas contains propane and butane as the constituents, A sulfur containing compound is added to the LPQ because

Solution:

The chemical ethyl mercaptan having sulphur added to the LPG otherwise odourless LPG cooking gas for imparting a detectable smell to the gas is a compound ofSulfur.

QUESTION: 99

The genetic material of bacteria is found in

Solution:

Bacterial genetic material is present in the cytoplasm only in the form of nucleotide.

QUESTION: 100

A horse and a donkey can breed to produce mule which is an infertile animal. The infertility is because horse an donkey belong to different.

Solution:

Horse and donkey belong to the different species, with different number of chromosomes.

QUESTION: 101

A plan having yellow leaves with dead spots has the deficiency of

Solution:

The Mg-deficient leaves show advanced interveinal chlorosis, with necrosis developing in the highly chlorotic tissue.

QUESTION: 102

Fluoride toothpaste is sometimes recommended because fluoride

Solution:

Fluoride is effective in preventing and reversing the early signs of dental caries (tooth decay) by hardening the enamel of the tooth.

QUESTION: 103

Along a streamline flow of fluid

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

How is the kinetic energy of a moving object affected if the net work done on it is positive ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements about the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Which one ofthe following four particles, whose displacement x and acceleration ax are related as follows, is executing simple harmonic motion ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

If we plot a graph between volume V and inverse of pressure  for an ideal gas at constant temperature T, the curve so obtained is

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 2 cm. when the particle is at 1 cm from the mean position, the magnitudes of the velocity and the acceleration are equal. Then its time period (in second) is

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

W hich one o f the following statem ents is not correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 112

If the image of an object, formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified, then the objcet is placed

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

When three resistors each having resistances are connected in parallel, their resultant resistance is x. If these three resistances are connected in series, the total resistance will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

Which of the following was/were the feature(s) of Lenin’s New Economic policy (NEP) for the Soviet Union ?
1. Private retail trading was strictly forebidden
2. Private enterprise was strictly forbidden
3. Peasants were not allowed to sell their surplus
4. To secure liquid capital, concessions were allowed to foreign capitalists, but the state retained the option of purchasing the products of such concerns

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Which of the following was/were the reasons for the defeat of British during the American War of Independence ?
1. The remoteness of the American continent and the lack of good roads
2. The British authorities failed to rally the loyalist Americans
3. The Americans benefited from the extraordinary military leadership of George Washington
4. The Americans had access to superior arms and ammunition

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

The industrial revolution in England had a profound impact on the lives of people. Which of the following statements are correct about that ?
1. Women were the main workers in the silk, lace-making and knitting insustries
2. Factory managers were well aware of the health risks of industrial work on children
3. Children were often employed in textile factories
4. The novel ‘Hard Times’ by Charles Dickens was a severe critique ofthe horrors of industrialization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 117

Consider the following statements:
1. British colonialism continued to grow steadily in the 18th and 19th centuries
2. Raw cotton for the textile industry in Britain during the industrial revolution needed to be imported

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 118

Who among the following was the author of "Neel Darpan published in 1860 ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 119

Which one of the following organizations was started by Jyotirao Phule in 1873 ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 120

Although used earlier by French and German writters, the term industrial Revolution in English was first popularized by

Solution:
QUESTION: 121

In the 19th century, the majority of the workers in Japan’s modern industries were mainly

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

Which of the following statements regarding recent developments in international affairs is/are correct ?
1. NATO’s defence ministers agree to boost support for Ukraine with a comprehensive package of assistance which will help it strengthen defence and to modernize its armed forces.
2. Israel announces plans for construction of dwelling units for Jewish settlers in a Palestinian neighbourhood of East Jerusalem.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

As per the RBI guidelines, which one of the following is the minimum tenure of Masala Bonds that an Indian Company can issue offshore ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

Which of the following statements about Krishi Kalyan Cess (KKC) is/are correct ?
1. KKC is calculated in the same way as Service Tax is calculated.
2. The current rate of KKC is 0.50%
3. KKC is similar to the KKS (Krishi Kalyan Surcharge).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

Which country won the Thomas cup Badminton Championship, 2016 ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :


Solution:
QUESTION: 127

The world’s largest biomass cookstove system for cooking in community kitchen has been installed at

Solution:
QUESTION: 128

Which one of the following sectors is the largest contributor to carbon dioxide emmisions from fuel consumption in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

As per census 2011, which one of the following states has the highest number of inhabitated villages ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

The property of electric current which is applicable in the fuse wire i s :

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

Two balls, A and B are thrown simultaneously, A vertically upward with a speed of 20 m/s from the ground and B vertically downward from a height of 40 m with the same speed and along the same line of motion. At what points do the two balls collide by taking acceleration due to gravity as 9.8 m/s2 ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

The setting time of cement is lowered by adding

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

Emulsion is known as a

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

If one mixes up ashes with animal fat, the substance received in the crude form is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

Which of the following statements with regard to coverage rate ofAadhar cards during 2015 is/are correct ?
1. The coverage rate ofAadhar cards in western India is quite high and it is above 90 percent in Gujarat.
2 The coverage rate of Aadhar cards is the highest in southern India and it is almost 100 percent in the states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
3. The penetration of Aadhar cards has been very low in north-eastern part of India and it is the lowest in Assam and Meghalay.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

Which one of the following is the correct descending order of countries in terms of per capita availability of arable land?

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

Which of the following statements concerning temperature is/are correct ?
1. In winter season isotherms in Northern Hemisphere are more or less circular on continents.
2. Isotherms are parallel to latitude in Southern Hemisphere in oceans
3. Minimum temperature during winter is recorded in Northern Canada

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 140

Which of the following statement(s) concerning natural regions of the world is/are correct ?
1. Equatorial climate regions have less urbanization
2. Meditarranean climatic reigon have high level of urbanization
3. Equatorial limatic regions have high concentration of human population
4. Mediterranean climate regions practice plantation firming

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

Which one ofthe following gases gives acidic solution on dissolving in water ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 142

How many moles of hydrogen atom are present in one mole of Aluminium hydroxide ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

The United Nations proclaimed 21 june as

Solution:
QUESTION: 144

Who are Bhawana kanth, Avani Chaturvedi and Mohana Singh ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 145

Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India:
1. A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in the Parliament as a Parliamentary privilege protected by the Constitution of India .
2. The Constitution has vested the power to armed the Constitution in the Parliament

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

Which one of the following statements about the Union Executive in India is correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 147

Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

The cylindrical stone seals were used in which civilization?

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Which of the following statements with regards to the Civil Disobedience movement is/are correct ?
1. The movement received massive response from business groups and peasantry
2. The movement coincided with large scale labour upsurge in Maharashtra
3. The movement was marked by the mass participation of lawyers and students

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Similar Content

Related tests