NDA II - English & General Ability 2018


150 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers | NDA II - English & General Ability 2018


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This mock test of NDA II - English & General Ability 2018 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence NDA II - English & General Ability 2018 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NDA II - English & General Ability 2018 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this NDA II - English & General Ability 2018 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NDA II - English & General Ability 2018 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Article ‘a’ should be replaced with article ‘an’ since honest gives a sound of ‘o’ which is a vowel and before vowel sounding words, we put article ‘an’ before it.

QUESTION: 2

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Say “expressed/voiced a doubt that”. In this sentence, “doubt” is a countable noun. When we wish to use the plural form “doubts”, we express/voice doubts (= say that you have doubts). Also, the noun “doubt” has a negative connotation in some uses. In such cases, it is better to use “that” instead of “whether/if”.

QUESTION: 3

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Replace “has” with “have”. The pronoun “who” can take a singular verb if it has a singular sense. However, in this sentence, the relative pronoun “who” refers to the preceding plural noun “persons”. So, a plural verb is required. A plural noun or a pronoun with a plural sense takes a plural verb.

QUESTION: 4

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Replace “owns” by “wins”. The proverb is “slow and steady wins the race”. If you work slowly but constantly, you will succeed better than if you work fast for a short while and do not continue. The proverb is associated with Aesop's fable of "The Tortoise and the Hare." The wordings of a proverb are not changed.

QUESTION: 5

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Solution:

Replace “grow” by “grown”. Note the use of “... have not evolved” in part (b). The auxiliary verb is common to the next verb “grow”. The auxiliary verb “have” is used only before a past participle. So, the verb “grow” should be changed to “grown”. Part (c) of the sentence means “or (have) grown up enough ...”. The repetition of the auxiliary verb “have” is not required.

QUESTION: 6

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The Industrial Revolution saw a massive rise in the population of Europe.

Solution:

One meaning of the adjective “massive” is “exceptionally large”. Some words that convey a similar sense are: huge, enormous, gigantic, very large, great, extraordinary and substantial

QUESTION: 7

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. I had some deepest convictions reflected in my work.

Solution:

One meaning of the noun “conviction” is “a firmly held belief or opinion as in “she takes pride in stating her political convictions”. This is the intended sense. A firmly held belief or opinion. SYN: belief, opinion, view, thought, persuasion, idea, position, stance.

QUESTION: 8

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. This boy is very timid.

Solution:

Timid means “showing a lack of courage or confidence; easily frightened”. The adjective “timid” is usually taken to convey the sense of: cowardly, pusillanimous, lilylivered, pigeon-hearted, spineless and craven. However, the adjective “timid” also conveys the sense: shy, diffident, bashful, self-effacing, shrinking, unassuming, unassertive, reserved, retiring, reticent, quiet, timorous, nervous, modest, demure, coy, meek and humble.

QUESTION: 9

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. My friend is as stubborn as a mule

Solution:

The adjective “stubborn” means “having or showing dogged determination not to change one's attitude or position on something, especially in spite of good arguments or reasons to do so”. The informal phrase “as stubborn as a mule” means “extremely stubborn”. Some synonyms are: obstinate, stubborn as a mule, mulish, headstrong, willful, strongwilled, self-willed, pig-headed, bull-headed, obdurate, awkward, difficult, contrary, perverse, recalcitrant and refractory.

QUESTION: 10

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. His behaviour was deliberately provocative.

Solution:

One meaning of the adjective “provocative” is “causing anger or another strong reaction, especially deliberately”. Some words that convey a similar sense are: annoying, irritating, exasperating, infuriating, provoking, madde ning, goading, vexing, galling, etc.

QUESTION: 11

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Too many cooks spoil the broth.

Solution:

The verb “spoil” means “diminish or destroy the value or quality of”. Some synonyms are: mar, damage, impair, blemish, disfigure, blight, flaw, deface, scar, injure, harm. The opposite sense is conveyed by: ameliorate, better, enhance, enrich, improve, meliorate. The verb “embellish” means “make (something) more attractive by the addition of decorative details or features”. This word effectively conveys the opposite sense of “spoil”.

QUESTION: 12

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He is biased against the students from cities.

Solution:

The adjective “biased” means “unfairly prejudiced for or against someone or something”. The similar sense is conveyed by: partial, partisan, prejudiced. The opposite sense is conveyed by: disinterested, equal, equitable, evenhanded, fair, impartial, neutral, nonpartisan, objective, unbiased and unprejudiced.

QUESTION: 13

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. It is easy to be an orthodox.

Solution:

One meaning of “orthodox” is “following or conforming to the traditional or generally accepted rules or beliefs of a religion, philosophy, or practice”. Some words that convey a similar sense are: conservative, traditional, observant, conformist, devout, strict, true, true blue, of the faith and of the true faith. The opposite sense is conveyed by: unconventional, unorthodox, nonconformist and heterodox. The adjective “heterodox” means “Not conforming with accepted or orthodox standards or beliefs” and some synonyms are: unorthodox, heretical, dissenting, dissident, blasphemous, nonconformist, apostate, freethinking, iconoclastic, schismatic, rebellious, renegade, separatist, sectarian and revisionist.

QUESTION: 14

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Permit me to present you with a book

Solution:

One meaning of “permit” is “provide an opportunity or scope for (something) to take place; make possible”. Some synonyms are: allow, let, authorize, empower, enable and entitle. The opposite sense is conveyed by: ban, forbid and prohibit.

QUESTION: 15

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. None but the brave deserves the fair.

Solution:

The adjective “brave” means “Ready to face and endure danger or pain; showing courage” and some words that convey this sense are: courageous, plucky, fearless, valiant, valorous, intrepid, heroic, lionhearted, manful, macho, bold, daring, daredevil, adventurous, audacious, deathor-glory. The opposite sense is conveyed by: coward, cowardly, chicken, chickenhearted, chicken livered, craven, dastardly, fainthearted, fearful, gutless, lilylivered, milk-livered [archaic], nerveless, poltroon, poor-spirited, pusillanimous, spineless, spiritless, timorous, uncourageous, ungallant, unheroic, weakhearted and yellow

QUESTION: 16

“Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the conjuror, “having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!”
All around the hall people were saying, “Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?” But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-itup-his sleeve.” Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said, “Oh, of course”; and everybody whispered round the hall, “He-had-it-up-hissleeve.” “My next trick,” said the conjuror, “is the famous Hindostanee rings. You will notice that the rings are apparently separate; at a blow they all join (clang, clang, clang) – Presto!” There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper, “He- musthave-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve.”
Again, everybody nodded and whispered, “Therings-were-up-his-sleeve.” The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown. “I will now,” he continued, “show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from a hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, thank you – Presto!” He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick Man whispered along the front bench, “He-has-a-hen-up-hissleeve,” and all the people whispered it on. “He-has-a-lot-of-hens-up-his-sleeve.” The egg trick was ruined.
It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cards, a loaf of bread, a doll’s cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.

Q. “The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown.” The sentence means that the conjuror

Solution:

The conjurer was rather angry. The verb “clouded” is occasionally used to refer to someone's face or eyes to mean “show an emotion such as worry, sorrow, or anger”.

QUESTION: 17

“Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the conjuror, “having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!”
All around the hall people were saying, “Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?” But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-itup-his sleeve.” Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said, “Oh, of course”; and everybody whispered round the hall, “He-had-it-up-hissleeve.” “My next trick,” said the conjuror, “is the famous Hindostanee rings. You will notice that the rings are apparently separate; at a blow they all join (clang, clang, clang) – Presto!” There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper, “He- musthave-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve.”
Again, everybody nodded and whispered, “Therings-were-up-his-sleeve.” The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown. “I will now,” he continued, “show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from a hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, thank you – Presto!” He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick Man whispered along the front bench, “He-has-a-hen-up-hissleeve,” and all the people whispered it on. “He-has-a-lot-of-hens-up-his-sleeve.” The egg trick was ruined.
It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cards, a loaf of bread, a doll’s cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.

Q. “The egg trick was ruined.” This means that.

Solution:

The conjuror was endeavouring to make the magic show enjoyable for the audience. The “egg” trick was ruined because the audiences were swayed by the explanations provided by Quick Man.

QUESTION: 18

“Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the conjuror, “having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!”
All around the hall people were saying, “Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?” But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-itup-his sleeve.” Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said, “Oh, of course”; and everybody whispered round the hall, “He-had-it-up-hissleeve.” “My next trick,” said the conjuror, “is the famous Hindostanee rings. You will notice that the rings are apparently separate; at a blow they all join (clang, clang, clang) – Presto!” There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper, “He- musthave-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve.”
Again, everybody nodded and whispered, “Therings-were-up-his-sleeve.” The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown. “I will now,” he continued, “show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from a hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, thank you – Presto!” He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick Man whispered along the front bench, “He-has-a-hen-up-hissleeve,” and all the people whispered it on. “He-has-a-lot-of-hens-up-his-sleeve.” The egg trick was ruined.
It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cards, a loaf of bread, a doll’s cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.

Q. According to the Quick Man, the conjuror

Solution:

The conjurer had things in the large sleeves of his coat. Quick Man gave the explanation of each trick by saying “He-had-it-up-hissleeve.” This is possible if the sleeves are large.

QUESTION: 19

“Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the conjuror, “having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!”
All around the hall people were saying, “Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?” But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-itup-his sleeve.” Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said, “Oh, of course”; and everybody whispered round the hall, “He-had-it-up-hissleeve.” “My next trick,” said the conjuror, “is the famous Hindostanee rings. You will notice that the rings are apparently separate; at a blow they all join (clang, clang, clang) – Presto!” There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper, “He- musthave-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve.”
Again, everybody nodded and whispered, “Therings-were-up-his-sleeve.” The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown. “I will now,” he continued, “show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from a hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, thank you – Presto!” He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick Man whispered along the front bench, “He-has-a-hen-up-hissleeve,” and all the people whispered it on. “He-has-a-lot-of-hens-up-his-sleeve.” The egg trick was ruined.
It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cards, a loaf of bread, a doll’s cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.

Q. The author believes that the Quick Man was really.

Solution:

The constant comments by the Quick Man made the audience feel that the tricks were nothing special. The Quick Man was a heckler. He wanted to embarrass the conjuror who was performing in public. This was a foolish action as while the conjurer was making efforts to make his magic shows enjoyable for the audience, the Quick Man was constantly trying to pull him down by adopting a fault – finding and doubt creating approach. This was a foolish action.

QUESTION: 20

“Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the conjuror, “having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!”
All around the hall people were saying, “Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?” But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-itup-his sleeve.” Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said, “Oh, of course”; and everybody whispered round the hall, “He-had-it-up-hissleeve.” “My next trick,” said the conjuror, “is the famous Hindostanee rings. You will notice that the rings are apparently separate; at a blow they all join (clang, clang, clang) – Presto!” There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper, “He- musthave-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve.”
Again, everybody nodded and whispered, “Therings-were-up-his-sleeve.” The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown. “I will now,” he continued, “show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from a hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, thank you – Presto!” He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick Man whispered along the front bench, “He-has-a-hen-up-hissleeve,” and all the people whispered it on. “He-has-a-lot-of-hens-up-his-sleeve.” The egg trick was ruined.
It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cards, a loaf of bread, a doll’s cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.

Q. The conjuror extracted seventeen eggs from the hat of

Solution:

The conjuror extracted seventeen eggs from the hat of one gentleman from the audience. The conjuror requested for a hat from someone in the audience and thanked the giver of the hat.

QUESTION: 21

Magda: Good morning, Mrs. Smiles. It’s wet, isn’t it? Mrs. Smiles: Yes, it is, isn’t it? How are you today? All right? You haven’t been studying too hard, have you? You look a bit pale. Magda: I don’t, do I? Well, I haven’t been out much lately. I don’t like this weather a bit. Why, we haven’t had a dry day for weeks, have we? Mrs. Smiles: No, I don’t think we have. Let’s see, you’ll be going back home next month, won’t you? Magda: Oh no, I’m not going back yet. My sister’s coming over first. Mrs. Smiles: Oh, is she? You’re looking forward to that, I expect. How long is it since you saw her? Magda: Nearly a year now. Yes, I am looking forward to it very much. Mrs. Smiles: She’s coming over here to study? Magda: Yes, that’s right. I shan’t go back home until she’s settled down. I don’t think I ought to, ought I? Mrs. Smiles: Well, no, she’s younger than you are, is she? Magda: Yes, she’s only eighteen.

Q. Magda had not been out much lately because

Solution:

The weather had been unpleasant. Refer the second dialogue of Magda wherein she says “Well, I haven’t been out much lately. I don’t like this weather a bit. ...”

QUESTION: 22

Magda: Good morning, Mrs. Smiles. It’s wet, isn’t it? Mrs. Smiles: Yes, it is, isn’t it? How are you today? All right? You haven’t been studying too hard, have you? You look a bit pale. Magda: I don’t, do I? Well, I haven’t been out much lately. I don’t like this weather a bit. Why, we haven’t had a dry day for weeks, have we? Mrs. Smiles: No, I don’t think we have. Let’s see, you’ll be going back home next month, won’t you? Magda: Oh no, I’m not going back yet. My sister’s coming over first. Mrs. Smiles: Oh, is she? You’re looking forward to that, I expect. How long is it since you saw her? Magda: Nearly a year now. Yes, I am looking forward to it very much. Mrs. Smiles: She’s coming over here to study? Magda: Yes, that’s right. I shan’t go back home until she’s settled down. I don’t think I ought to, ought I? Mrs. Smiles: Well, no, she’s younger than you are, is she? Magda: Yes, she’s only eighteen.

Q. Magda was not going back home yet because

Solution:

Her sister was coming over. The phrase “going back home” refers to the hometown of Magda. Magda replies that she would not be going home yet because her sister was coming over to stay with her.

QUESTION: 23

Magda: Good morning, Mrs. Smiles. It’s wet, isn’t it? Mrs. Smiles: Yes, it is, isn’t it? How are you today? All right? You haven’t been studying too hard, have you? You look a bit pale. Magda: I don’t, do I? Well, I haven’t been out much lately. I don’t like this weather a bit. Why, we haven’t had a dry day for weeks, have we? Mrs. Smiles: No, I don’t think we have. Let’s see, you’ll be going back home next month, won’t you? Magda: Oh no, I’m not going back yet. My sister’s coming over first. Mrs. Smiles: Oh, is she? You’re looking forward to that, I expect. How long is it since you saw her? Magda: Nearly a year now. Yes, I am looking forward to it very much. Mrs. Smiles: She’s coming over here to study? Magda: Yes, that’s right. I shan’t go back home until she’s settled down. I don’t think I ought to, ought I? Mrs. Smiles: Well, no, she’s younger than you are, is she? Magda: Yes, she’s only eighteen.

Q. Mrs. Smiles says, “You’re looking forward to that.” This means, Magda was ________ her sister’s arrival

Solution:

Magda was Expecting with pleasure her sister’s arrival. The phrasal verb “look forward to” means “await eagerly”. This sense is conveyed by option (a).

QUESTION: 24

Magda: Good morning, Mrs. Smiles. It’s wet, isn’t it? Mrs. Smiles: Yes, it is, isn’t it? How are you today? All right? You haven’t been studying too hard, have you? You look a bit pale. Magda: I don’t, do I? Well, I haven’t been out much lately. I don’t like this weather a bit. Why, we haven’t had a dry day for weeks, have we? Mrs. Smiles: No, I don’t think we have. Let’s see, you’ll be going back home next month, won’t you? Magda: Oh no, I’m not going back yet. My sister’s coming over first. Mrs. Smiles: Oh, is she? You’re looking forward to that, I expect. How long is it since you saw her? Magda: Nearly a year now. Yes, I am looking forward to it very much. Mrs. Smiles: She’s coming over here to study? Magda: Yes, that’s right. I shan’t go back home until she’s settled down. I don’t think I ought to, ought I? Mrs. Smiles: Well, no, she’s younger than you are, is she? Magda: Yes, she’s only eighteen.

Q. Magda’s sister was coming to

Solution:

Magda’s sister was coming to pursue her studies. To Mrs. Smiles query, Magda replies in the affirmative by saying “Yes, that’s right. I shan’t go back home until she’s settled down. ...”

QUESTION: 25

Magda: Good morning, Mrs. Smiles. It’s wet, isn’t it? Mrs. Smiles: Yes, it is, isn’t it? How are you today? All right? You haven’t been studying too hard, have you? You look a bit pale. Magda: I don’t, do I? Well, I haven’t been out much lately. I don’t like this weather a bit. Why, we haven’t had a dry day for weeks, have we? Mrs. Smiles: No, I don’t think we have. Let’s see, you’ll be going back home next month, won’t you? Magda: Oh no, I’m not going back yet. My sister’s coming over first. Mrs. Smiles: Oh, is she? You’re looking forward to that, I expect. How long is it since you saw her? Magda: Nearly a year now. Yes, I am looking forward to it very much. Mrs. Smiles: She’s coming over here to study? Magda: Yes, that’s right. I shan’t go back home until she’s settled down. I don’t think I ought to, ought I? Mrs. Smiles: Well, no, she’s younger than you are, is she? Magda: Yes, she’s only eighteen.

Q. Mrs. Smiles and Magda

Solution:

Note the first sentence wherein Magda says “Good morning, Mrs. Smiles”. This is not the way to address one’s classmates or school friends or for that matter even one’s sister-in-law. The use of “Mrs.” Before the name “Smiles” provides the clue that the two are neighbours. The use of “Mrs” provides the required degree of formality in British society.

QUESTION: 26

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. We fail to understand your reasons for _________ the college without completing the degree.

Solution:

Leaving. The meaning of “leaving” is “departing from a place permanently”. Here, leaving means to leave from the college.

QUESTION: 27

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. She _________ her energy and started shouting only when she heard the noise of bulldozers and cranes.

Solution:

Conserved. In this sentence, “conserved” means “prevented the wasteful overuse of (a resource)”.

QUESTION: 28

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The British _________ all over Africa and Asia collapsed in the first half of the twentieth century.

Solution:

Hegemony. The meaning of “hegemony” is “leadership or dominance, especially by one state or social group over others”.

QUESTION: 29

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The football match has to be _________ because of the weather

Solution:

Called off. The phrasal verb “call off” means “cancel an event or agreement”. It means that an event has been canceled off.

QUESTION: 30

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. If I were rich, _________ a lot.

Solution:

I would travel. The sentence is a Conditional sentence Type 2. When the verb in the “if-clause” is in the past tense, the verb in the main clause is in the conditional tense. The modals will, can are not used in this type of conditional sentence. Similarly, the simple past tense is not used in the main clause. The past tense in the if-clause is not a true past but a subjunctive, which indicates unreality or improbability. 

QUESTION: 31

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. They apologized _________ me for what happened

Solution:

To. Remember that you apologize to someone to convey that you are sorry that you have done something wrong. You apologize for (doing) something as in “He later apologized for his behaviour” and “I apologize for losing my temper”.

QUESTION: 32

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. If you are tired of swimming, just _________ for a while.

Solution:

Float. The meaning of the verb “float” is “rest or move on or near the surface of a liquid without sinking” as in “she relaxed, floating gently in the water”.

QUESTION: 33

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He had _________ spoken for two minutes when there was a commotion in the crowd.

Solution:

Hardly. The adverb “hardly” means “only a very short time before”. 

QUESTION: 34

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. I would not commit myself _________ that course of action.

Solution:

To. You commit yourself to (doing) something.

QUESTION: 35

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The soldiers waiting to go into battle for the first time were full of _________.

Solution:

Apprehension. The noun “apprehension” means “anxiety or fear that something bad or unpleasant will happen”.

QUESTION: 36

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A red-letter day

Solution:

A very important or significant day. A redletter day is a day that you will always remember because something good happens to you then. The expression refers to a memorably happy or noteworthy day. This term alludes to the practice of marking/printing feast days and other holy days in red on church calendars, dating from the 1400s. Two example sentences are: “My college graduation was a real redletter day for my whole family” and “The scheduled day of release of my debut film could mean the difference between a redletter day and an empty basket”.

QUESTION: 37

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. The gift of the gab

Solution:

Ability to speak easily and confidently. If someone has “the gift of (the) gab” (American English a gift of/for gab), the individual is able to speak confidently, clearly, and in a glib way. The informal expression refers to an individual’s talent for verbal fluency, especially the ability to talk persuasively. This expression may be related to the Irish and Gaelic word `gab', which means “mouth”. The Irish have a reputation as good talkers. “Gab”, dating from the late 18th century, was an informal word for ‘conversation or chatter’. Two example sentences are: “His gift of gab made him a wonderful salesman” and “Noel really has the gift of gab, so he should be the one to address the potential investors”.

QUESTION: 38

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. Walk a tightrope

Solution:

To act very carefully. A tightrope is a tightly stretched piece of rope high up in the air on which an acrobat balances and performs tricks in a circus. This idiom transfers the balancing act performed on a tightrope or high-wire by acrobats. You can use tightrope in expressions such as “walk/tread a tightrope”, “live on a tightrope” and “be on a tightrope” to indicate that someone is in a difficult situation and has to be very careful about what they say or do. One has to navigate in the situation with extreme care and precision since it allows very little or no error. Two example sentences are: “I’m walking a tightrope at the moment; one more mistake and I might lose my job” and “The general was on a tightrope as to whether he should advance or retreat”.

QUESTION: 39

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. To be in a fix

Solution:

To be in a difficult situation. If someone is “in a fix”, the person is in a difficult, troublesome, dangerous or awkward situation from which it is hard to extricate oneself. We sometimes say “in a pickle or spot” to refer to the difficult situation which puts one in a dilemma or predicament. “Pickle” in the sense of a mess or quandary, sometimes put as “in a pretty pickle”, dates from the 1500s. “Spot”, often put as “in a bad/tough/tight spot”, dates from the early 1900s. Some more expressions that convey a similar sense are: “spot of trouble”, “bit of bother”, “in a bind/ box/ hole/ jam”, “in deep water”, “in a soup” and “in a tight corner”.

QUESTION: 40

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. To fish in troubled waters

Solution:

To get benefit in bad situation. If someone fishes in troubled waters the person tries to capitalize on or benefit from a situation, circumstance, or experience that is fraught with disorder, difficulty, confusion, stress, etc. This term, first recorded in 1568, expresses the even older notion that fish bite more readily when seas are rough. Two example sentences are: “All they wanted was to make bad blood between them and fish in troubled waters” and “The company could make more money by selling armaments abroad, but they would be fishing in troubled waters”.

QUESTION: 41

Each of the following item in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Domestic fires in Indian villages
P: as the heat is dispersed
Q: an unhealthy smoke accumulates in unventilated houses
R: are wasteful
S: lit in Chulhas

Q. The correct sequence should be

Solution:

SRPQ. The sentence can easily be understood by inserting the words “which are” before part (S). The original question has a typographical error. “An” in part (Q) should be replaced by “and”. The sentence becomes meaningful now. Part (P) does not fit after the introductory part. Part (R) does not fit after part (Q). This eliminates option (c) from consideration.

QUESTION: 42

Each of the following item in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Bold rocks near at hand
P: makes a fine forest for the imagination
Q: than distant Alps
R: are more inspiring
S: and the thick fern upon a heath

Q. The correct sequence should be

Solution:

RQSP. “More inspiring” is a comparative degree adjective. It is followed by “than”. The part sequence RQ exists only in option (c). The sentence is read by using option (c) and is found to be both meaningful and grammatically correct. (Word meaning “Heath” = vegetation dominated by dwarf shrubs of the heather family.

QUESTION: 43

Each of the following item in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Newton discovered that
P: due to the gravitational pull
Q: of the earth
R: the apple falls
S: on the ground

Q. The correct sequence should be

Solution:

RSPQ. The “gravitational pull” is exerted by the earth. So, it is logical to place part (Q) after (P). Part-sequence PQ is mentioned only in option (b). The complete sentence is read by using option (b). The sentence is meaningful. The adverb phrase of place “on the ground” is positioned after the verb “falls”. It is followed by part (P) which mentions the reason. There is no need to waste time in checking other options.

QUESTION: 44

Each of the following item in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
The knocking
P: were still in the house
Q: for some time
R: although the echoes of it
S: ceased

Q. The correct sequence should be

Solution:

SRPQ. The subject of the sentence is “the knocking”. It is required to be followed by a verb. So, the focus is on options starting with a verb i.e. (S) and (P). Consequently, option (d) is not considered. “Knocking” is a singular noun and cannot take the plural verb “were”. So, option (c) is also not considered. The sense of the sentence is that first the knocking ceased. Thereafter, the echoes (echo = a sound or sounds caused by the reflection of sound waves from a surface back to the listener) continued to exist for some time before eventually fading away. This sequence of actions does not fit with option (b). A final reading of the sentence is done by using option (a). The sentence has a flow and the sequence of events is correct.

QUESTION: 45

Each of the following item in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
The history of mankind is
P: and steady progress
Q: continuous change
R: the history of
S: from barbarism to refinement

Q. The correct sequence should be

Solution:

RQPS. The verb “is” in the opening part cannot be followed by the conjunction “and”. This eliminates option (a) from consideration. Part (R), which ends with a preposition, cannot be placed at the end of the sentence. This eliminates option (c) from consideration. Neither does part (S) fit after the opening part nor does (R) fit after (Q). This eliminates option (d) from consideration. The only remaining option (b) is used to complete the sentence and it is found to be grammatically correct.

QUESTION: 46

In the following passage there are some blank spaces with four words or groups of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Q. The honeybee is a very unusual kind of insect _____

Solution:

Unlike. Here, the preposition “unlike” means “different from; not similar to”.

QUESTION: 47

In the following passage there are some blank spaces with four words or groups of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Q. other insects which live alone, the honeybee lives as a/an ______ 

Solution:

Member. The noun “member” refers to a person, animal, or plant belonging to a particular group.

QUESTION: 48

In the following passage there are some blank spaces with four words or groups of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Q. of a community. These bees live together in what is known as a bee ______

Solution:

Colony. In Biology, the noun “colony” refers to a community of animals or plants of one kind living close together or forming a physically connected structure.

QUESTION: 49

In the following passage there are some blank spaces with four words or groups of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Q. The head of the bees is called the queen bee. She is ______ 

Solution:

Larger. Note the use of “than”. It implies that the adjective should be in comparative degree. This rules out options (a) and (c) from consideration. A queen bee is larger than other bees in the hive

QUESTION: 50

In the following passage there are some blank spaces with four words or groups of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Q. than the rest of the bees. Her main task is to _______ 

Solution:

Lay. One meaning of the verb “lay” with an ensuing object refers to a female bird, insect, reptile, or amphibian that produces an egg or eggs from inside the body.

QUESTION: 51

The following six (6) items consists of two statements, Statements I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. ​

Statement I: The pitch of the sound wave depends upon its frequency.
Statement II: The loudness of the sound wave depends upon its amplitude.

Solution:

The pitch and loudness of sound depend upon the frequency and amplitude respectively. Both are individually correct but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

QUESTION: 52

The following six (6) items consists of two statements, Statements I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Statement I: Sound wave cannot propagate in vacuum.
Statement II: Sound waves are elastic waves and require a medium to propagate.

Solution:

Sound cannot travel through a vacuum. A vacuum is an area without any air, like space. So, sound cannot travel through space because there is no matter for the vibrations to work in. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

QUESTION: 53

The following six (6) items consists of two statements, Statements I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced dyarchy at the centre.
Statement II: The provincial autonomy was granted to the provinces.

Solution:

The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced dyarchy at the centre. Dyarchy system means division of subjects of provincial government into reserved and transferred subjects.  The Government of India Act, 1935 granted the provincial autonomy in India. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

QUESTION: 54

The following six (6) items consists of two statements, Statements I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: Mughal painting reached its climax during the reign of Jahangir.
Statement II: Aurangzeb's court was adorned by some of the best known artists of the Mughal school of painting.

Solution:

The great painters in Aurangazeb’s court were Bishan Das, Mohammad Nadir and Ustad Mansur. With Aurangazeb, paintings and other art forms ceased to be importance in the Mughal Court leading to migration of many of the artists to different parts of the country. 

QUESTION: 55

The following six (6) items consists of two statements, Statements I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: Phytoplankton produces most of the organic carbon in the ocean.
Statement II: Algae are produced in the cold water biome

Solution:

Photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the sunlit ocean transforms dissolved inorganic carbon and nutrients into organic matter. Also, algae are found both in hot and cold water. But the existence of algae has got nothing to do with the organic carbon production of phytoplankton.
So, answer is (b). Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

QUESTION: 56

The following six (6) items consists of two statements, Statements I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: Geostrophic wind blows above a height of 600 metres, parallel to the isobars
Statement II Geostrophic wind is the horizontal wind velocity, in which the Coriolis force exactly balances the horizontal pressure force.

Solution:

When a wind, usually above a height of 600 meters, blows parallel to the isobars, it is called geostrophic wind. It is the horizontal wind velocity in which the Coriolis force exactly balances the horizontal pressure force. Both these opposing forces reach a state of equilibrium called geographic balance. Statement I is true and statement II is true also II is correct explanation of I.

QUESTION: 57

Which one of the following groups of cellular organelles contains DNA?

Solution:

The three organelles that contain DNA are the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts. The nucleus is the control center of the cell and houses genetic information. The mitochondria and chloroplasts both produce energy, in animal and plant cells, respectively.

QUESTION: 58

One of the additional functions of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is?

Solution:

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum’s (SER) main functions are the synthesis of lipids, steroid hormones, the detoxification of harmful metabolic byproducts and the storage and metabolism of calcium ions within the cell. The smooth ER is distinguished from the other parts of the endoplasmic reticulum by the absence of membrane-bound ribosomes.

QUESTION: 59

Damage to the apical meristem of a growing young plant will affect the

Solution:

Apical meristem causes primary growth, the growth resulting plant to get longer. So, if apical meristem is either damaged or cut, the process of growth would no longer take place and the plant will stop growing in length.

QUESTION: 60

Which of the following kingdoms has/have only unicellular organisms?

Solution:

Monera are unicellular organism's having prokaryotic cellular structure. Protista are also unicellular organisms though possess eukaryotic cellular organisation. Well defined as well membrane-bounded cellular organelles are present. Monera are simple in structure, with no complexity.

QUESTION: 61

Which one of the following is a waterborne disease?

Solution:

Jaundice is a waterborne disease. It is a yellow discoloration of the skin, mucous membranes, and the whites of the eyes caused by increased amounts of bilirubin in the blood. Jaundice is a sign of an underlying disease process. Normally, the liver metabolizes and excretes the bilirubin in the form of bile.

QUESTION: 62

The atomic number of an element is 8. How many electrons will it gain to form a compound with sodium?

Solution:

O has 6 electrons in its outermost orbit and is short of two electrons to obtain octate configuration. So, in Na2O each sodium atom releases 1 electron and those two electrons are caught by 1 oxygen atom and thus forming Na2O. Sodium oxide is a chemical compound with the formula NaO.

QUESTION: 63

A sample of oxygen contains two isotopes of oxygen with masses 16 u and 18 u respectively. The proportion of these isotopes in the sample is 3 : 1. What will be the average atomic mass of oxygen in this sample?

Solution:

First Isotopes → 16u
Second Isotopes → 18u
Proportion of Isotopes = 3 : 1
Now, Average atomic Oxygen 

= 16.5u

QUESTION: 64

Which one of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

Solution:

Milk is an example of a heterogeneous mixture. Mixtures can be separated into two or more individual substances by physical means. Our glass of ice water is a mixture because we can easily separate the ice from the liquid water by filtration.

QUESTION: 65

What is the molar mass of anhydrous sodium carbonate? (Given that the atomic masses of sodium, carbon and oxygen are 23 u, 12 u and 16 u respectively)

Solution:

Molar mass
Given:
Na = 23
C = 12
O = 16 
Molar mass of Anhydrous Sodium Carbonate → Na₂CO
⇒ (2 × Na) + C + (3 × O)
⇒ (2 × 23) + 12 + (3 × 16)
⇒ 46 + 12 + 48 
⇒ 106 u

QUESTION: 66

Which one of the following is called ‘syngas’?

Solution:

Syngas is an abbreviation for synthesis gas, which is a mixture comprising of carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen. The syngas is produced by gasification of a carbon containing fuel to a gaseous product that has some heating value.

QUESTION: 67

The frequency of ultrasound waves is

Solution:

The range of human hearing is about 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. Ultrasound waves have frequencies above about 20,000 Hz (which is 20 kHz). As this is above the normal hearing range for humans, we cannot hear ultrasound.

QUESTION: 68

The magnetic field strength of a currentcarrying wire at a particular distance from the axis of the wire?

Solution:

Ampere’s Law states that a current (i) in a wire induces a magnetic field (B) around the wire proportional to that current.

QUESTION: 69

A stainless steel chamber contains Ar gas at a temperature T and pressure P. The total number of Ar atoms in the chamber is n. Now Ar gas in the chamber is replaced by CO2 gas and the total number of CO2 molecules in the chamber is n/2 at the same temperature T. The pressure in the chamber now is P’. Which one of the following relations holds true? (Both the gases behave as ideal gases) 

Solution:

The pressure increase is caused by the number of particles hitting against the walls of the container. So, if number of molecules decrease than the pressure also decreases.

QUESTION: 70

Which one of the following is the correct relation between Å and nm?

Solution:

An angstrom = 0.1 nanometer. There are 10 angstroms in a nanometer. There are also related as both units are used to measure distances.

QUESTION: 71

The full form of LED is

Solution:

LED's full form is Light Emitting Diode which means the screen of LED is made up of millions of diodes fabricated electronically to create a screen for visualization.

QUESTION: 72

If a free electron moves through a potential difference of 1 kV, then the energy gained by the electron is given by

Solution:

Potential Energy, PE = q × ∆V
= 1.6 × 10¯¹ × 1000 
⇒PE = 1.6 × 10¯¹⁶ J

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following places in India.
1. Itanagar
2. Imphal
3. Agartala
4. Aizawl
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above places in terms of sunrise time?

Solution:

The sun rises in the east and sets in the west direction due to the Earth’s rotation around the sun towards the east direction. Hence, the eastern most regions receive the sunrise first. Accordingly, the chronological order of the given cities based on their timings of sunrise are: Imphal, Itanagar, Aizwal, Agartala.

QUESTION: 74

Which one of the following is known as uplands of delta region?

Solution:

In deltaic plain, the uplands are called as Chars. It is made up of flood plain sediments. The marshy areas of delta are called bils.

QUESTION: 75

Consider the following Wildlife sanctuaries in India:
1. Shikari Devi
2. Bhadra
3. Simlipal
4. Pachmarhi
Which one of the following is the correct order of the above Wildlife sanctuaries in term of their location from South to North?

Solution:

Bhadra is down south in Karnataka, Simlipal in Odisha comes next, Pachmarhi in Satpura Ranges of Madhya Pradesh comes next, Shikari Devi in Himachal Pradesh in the North stands last in the order from south to north.

QUESTION: 76

Which one of the following statements about temperature is correct?

Solution:

The temperature of the troposphere is highest near the surface of the Earth and declines with altitude. On average, the temperature gradient of the troposphere is 6.5°C per 1,000 m (3.6°F per 1,000 feet) of altitude.

QUESTION: 77

Which one of the following is known as a zone of sharp salinity change in the vertical section of ocean?

Solution:

Salinity, generally, increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline (compare this with thermocline), where salinity increases sharply.

QUESTION: 78

Permanent hardness of water cannot be removed by which one of the following methods?

Solution:

Permanent hardness in water is hardness due to the presence of the chlorides, nitrates and sulphates of calcium and magnesium, which will not be precipitated by boiling. The lime scale can build up on the inside of the pipe restricting the flow of water or causing a blockage.

QUESTION: 79

Which one of the following reactions will give NO (nitric oxide) gas as one of the products?

Solution:

Copper upon reacting with dilute nitric acid produces nitric oxide gas as one of the products along with blue colored aqueous copper nitrate.
8HNO3 (dil) + 3Cu → 3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO +4H2O

QUESTION: 80

Which one of the following is a tribasic acid?

Solution:

A tribasic acid is an acid that has three hydrogen ions to donate to a base in an acid-base reaction. Therefore, a tribasic molecule has three replaceable hydrogen atoms; Phosphoric acid and citric acid are examples of tribasic acids.

QUESTION: 81

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

Carbon forms a double covalent bond, which means that two pairs of bonding electrons are shared. The bonds between atoms of carbon in the layers of graphite may be strong, but the bonds that are formed by carbon atoms between layers are quite weak. These atoms are held together by Van Der Waal's forces

QUESTION: 82

Which one of the following is called dry ice?

Solution:

Dry Ice is the common name for solid carbon dioxide (CO2). It gets this name because it does not melt into a liquid when heated.

QUESTION: 83

The acidic semi digested food coming out of the stomach is neutralized by:

Solution:

The liver secretes bile into the duodenum to neutralize the acidic conditions from the stomach, and the pancreatic duct empties into the duodenum, adding bicarbonate to neutralize the acidic chyme, thus creating a neutral environment.

QUESTION: 84

The oxygenated blood from the lungs is received by the 

Solution:

The left atrium (or auricle) receives the oxygenated blood from the left and right pulmonary veins, which it pumps to the left ventricle (through the mitral valve) for pumping out through the aorta for systemic circulation.

QUESTION: 85

The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from splitting of?

Solution:

Due to photolysis of water, oxygen is released during photosynthesis. It is the process of breakdown of water molecule into hydrogen and oxygen under the influence of light during the light reaction of photosynthesis.

QUESTION: 86

Which one of the following depicts the correct circuit of a reflex arc?

Solution:

The reflex arc is a special type of neural circuit that begins with a sensory neuron at a receptor (e.g., a pain receptor in the fingertip) and ends with a motor neuron at an effector (e.g., a skeletal muscle).

QUESTION: 87

If one set of chromosomes for a given plant is represented as N; in case of double fertilization, the zygote and the endosperm nucleus of a diploid plant would have how many sets of chromosomes respectively

Solution:

If one set of chromosomes for a given plant is represented as N; in case of double fertilization, the zygote and the endosperm nucleus of a diploid plant, it would have 2N and 3N sets of chromosomes respectively.

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following circuit:

Which one of the following is the value of the resistance between points A and B in the circuit given above?

Solution:

To find RAB:

Now R1 and R in series

QUESTION: 89

The absolute zero temperature is 0 Kelvin. In °C unit, which one of the following is the absolute zero temperature?

Solution:

Absolute zero temperature at which a thermodynamic system has the lowest energy. It corresponds to −273.15°C on the Celsius temperature scale and to −459.67°F on the Fahrenheit temperature scale.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements about visible light, UV light and X-ray:
1. The wavelength of visible light is more than that of X-rays.
2. The energy of X-ray photons is higher than that of UV light photons.
3. The energy of UV light photons is less than that of visible light photons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The energy of UV light photons is higher than that of visible light photons, UV light photons. Visible light has a wavelength range from ~400 nm to ~700 nm. Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. X-rays are a high-energy type of electromagnetic radiation that has a much shorter wavelength than visible light so xray photons have much higher energies than photons of light.

QUESTION: 91

The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum having length L and mass of the bob m is given as T. If the length of the pendulum is increased to 4L and the mass of the job is increased to 2m, then which one of the following is the new time period of oscillation?

Solution:

Time period 
New time period 

T2 = 2T

QUESTION: 92

The connecting cable of electrical appliances like electric iron, water heater or room heater contains three insulated copper wires of three different colours-red, green and black. Which one of the following is the correct colour code?

Solution:

The correct colour coding of the wires are: Red-live wire, Green-ground wire, Blackneutral wire.

QUESTION: 93

The graphs between current (I) and voltage (V) for three linear resistors 1, 2 and 3 are given below?

If R1, R2, and R3 are the resistances of these resistors, then which one of the following is correct?

Solution:

According to the Ohm’s law current I is inversely proportional to the resistance R, so when current increases, the resistance will decrease. Now, the correct sequence is R1 < R3 <R2.

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements about a microscope and a telescope:
1. Both the eyepiece and the objective of a microscope are convex lenses.
2. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is larger than the focal length of its eyepiece.
3. The magnification of a telescope increases with the increase in focal length of its objective.
4. The magnification of a microscope increases with increase in focal length of its objective.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

If the focal length of the objective lens is increased than magnifying power of microscope will decrease and but that of telescope will increase.

QUESTION: 95

A planet has a mass M1 and radius R1. The value of acceleration due to gravity on its surface is g1. There is another planet 2, whose mass and radius both are two times that of the first planet. Which one of the following is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet 2?

Solution:

Acceleration due to gravity, g =GM/R2
g = acceleration due to gravity (units m/s2)
G = the universal gravitational constant, G = 6.673 × 10−11 N · m2kg−2.
m = mass of a large body (for example, Earth)
r = the distance from the center of mass of the large body
M1= M, M2= 2M, R1= R and R2 = 2R

QUESTION: 96

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Solution:

The Bhagirathi is the source of the river Ganga in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. The Alaknanda system drains parts of Chamoli, Tehri, and Pauri Districts. River Nayar flows through Lansdowne. Narendra Nagar is a charming hamlet offering panoramic views of the Ganga River.

QUESTION: 97

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Solution:

Yamo is a warm and dry wind in Japan. Black Roller is a warm wind in the Great Plains of the USA. Bise is an extremely cold wind that blows in France. Haboob is a cold wind in Sudan.

QUESTION: 98

‘Majuli’, the river island, is located in which one of the following rivers?

Solution:

Majuli is the biggest river island in the world which is located on the Brahmaputra River in the state of Assam.

QUESTION: 99

Which one of the following Indian States has recorded negative growth of population as per Census 2011?

Solution:

Nagaland only state to record negative population growth. While all the north eastern states recorded the decadal population growth more or less around the national average of Nagaland recorded the same at minus 0.40%.

QUESTION: 100

Which one of the following types of cloud is characterized by continuous precipitation?

Solution:

Nimbostratus clouds form a dark gray, wet looking cloudy layer associated with continuously falling rain or snow. They often produce precipitation that is usually light to moderate.

QUESTION: 101

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Solution:

Kolkata Port is a riverine port situated on the bank of the Hooghly River. Mormugoa Harbor is at the estuarine system formed by the Zuari and Mandovi rivers. Visakhapatnam Port in Andhra Pradesh is the landlocked port encircled by land with an opening into the sea. Mahanadi Paradip Port is located at the confluence of river Mahanadi in Bay of Bengal in Odisha.

QUESTION: 102

Which one of the following is not an agent of metamorphism?

Solution:

There are 3 main agents that cause metamorphism. Factors that cause an increase in temperature, pressure, and chemical changes are the three agents. Decomposition does not cause metamorphism.

QUESTION: 103

The solution of which one of the following will have pH less than 7?

Solution:

FeCl3 is an acidic salt that is able to produce protons (H+) in aqueous solution through hydrolysis. Fe3+ ion acts as a Lewis acid in water. So FeCl3 having pH less than 7.

QUESTION: 104

Which one of the following is an oxidation-reduction reaction?

Solution:

An oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction is a type of chemical reaction that involves a transfer of electrons between two species. An oxidation-reduction reaction is any chemical reaction in which the oxidation number of a molecule, atom, or ion change by gaining or losing an electron.
2Mg + O2 →2MgO
2Mg→2Mg+2 + 2e-

QUESTION: 105

Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer

Solution:

Ammonium sulphide solutions are used occasionally in photographic developing, to apply patina to bronze, and in textile manufacturing. Also, due to its offensive smell, it is the active ingredient in a variety of pranks including the common stink bomb.

QUESTION: 106

Which one of the following is the chemical formula of gypsum?

Solution:

Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed of calcium sulfate dihydrate, with the chemical formula CaSO4.2H2O. It is widely mined and is used as a fertilizer, and as the main constituent in many forms of plaster, blackboard chalk and wallboard.

QUESTION: 107

Which one of the following statements about the law of conservation of mass is correct?

Solution:

The Law of Conservation of Mass dates from Antoine Lavoisier's 1789 discovery that mass is neither be created nor destroyed in chemical reactions. In other words, the mass of any one element at the beginning of a reaction will equal the mass of that element at the end of the reaction.

QUESTION: 108

The wavelength of X-ray is of the order of?

Solution:

X-ray is an electromagnetic radiation of extremely short wavelength and high frequency, with wavelengths ranging from about 0.1 nanometer to 10 nanometer equal to 1 Å and corresponding frequencies from about 1016 to 1020 Hertz (Hz).

QUESTION: 109

Consider the following velocity and time graph:

Which one of the following is the value of average acceleration from 8 s to 12 s?

Solution:

Average acceleration
 −1m/s2

QUESTION: 110

If the focal length of a convex lens is 50 cm, which one of the following is its power?

Solution:


Given focal length = 50 cm
Power= 100/50 = +2 dioptre

QUESTION: 111

A ball is released from rest and rolls down an inclined plane, as shown in the following figure, requiring 4s to cover a distance of 100 cm along the plane:

Which one of the following is the correct value of angle θ that the plane makes with the horizontal? (g = 1000cm/s²)

Solution:

Given:
T = 4s
S = 100 cm
G = 1000 cm/s²
Now, S = ut + gt²
S = 1/2at²
a =2S/t2 = 2×100/42= 200/16= 12.5 cm²/S
Now acceleration, a = g sin θ
⇒ sin θ = a/g= 12.5/1000 = 1/80
θ = sin–1(1/80)

QUESTION: 112

The coefficient of area expansion of a material is 1.6 × 10−5K −1 which one of the following gives the value of coefficient of volume expansion of this material?

Solution:

The increase in the Volume of a body due to the increase in its temperature is called thermal expansion (Volume).
Coefficient of volume expansion is given by, 3/2× Coeff. Of areal expansion
=3/2×1.6×10−5K−1
=2.4×10−5K−1

QUESTION: 113

The refractive indices of two media are denoted by n1 and n2 and the velocities of light in these two media are respectively v1 and v2. If n2/n1 is 1.5, which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Refractive Index 
n = c/v

QUESTION: 114

Which one of the following greenhouse gases is in largest concentration in the atmosphere?

Solution:

The presence of four major greenhouse gases, namely water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) in the Earth's atmosphere keeps the average temperature of 15ᵒC (59ᵒF), whereas without the greenhouse effect the average temperature would be a frosty -18ᵒC (0ᵒF).

QUESTION: 115

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Solution:

The Koppen’s climate classification scheme divides climates into five main climate groups: A (tropical), B(dry), C(temperate), D (continental), and E (polar). Af = Tropical rainforest climate; BWk = Cold desert climate, Csa = Hot-summer Mediterranean  climate, Dfa = Hot-summer humid continental climate.

QUESTION: 116

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Solution:

West Central Railway Zone is headquartered at Jabalpur. Southeast Central Railway Zone is headquartered at Bilaspur. East Central Railway Zone is headquartered at Hajipur. North Eastern Railway Zone is headquartered at Gorakhpur

QUESTION: 117

Which one of the following is correct descending order of Indian States in terms of sex ratio as per Census 2011?

Solution:

The correct descending order of Indian States in terms of sex ratio as per Census 2011 is:
Meghalaya – Manipur – Mizoram – Tripura. Manipur with sex ratio of 987, Meghalaya with 989, Mizoram with 976, and Tripura with 960.

QUESTION: 118

Steppe (temperate continental) climate is not experienced in which one of the following places?

Solution:

Perth has Mediterranean climate as Perth, Western Australia is in or near the subtropical dry forest biome. It does not fall in steppe climate.

QUESTION: 119

Which one of the following is not a process of chemical weathering?

Solution:

The two main types of physical weathering: Freeze-thaw occurs when water continually seeps into cracks, freezes and expands, eventually breaking the rock apart. Exfoliation occurs as cracks develop parallel to the land surface a consequence of the reduction in pressure during uplift and erosion. 

QUESTION: 120

Which one of the following statements is correct for a plane mirror?

Solution:

A virtual image is a copy of an object formed at the location from which the light rays appear to come. Plane mirrors are the only type of mirror for which a real object always produces an image that is virtual, erect and of the same size as the object.

QUESTION: 121

An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

An image in which up and down, as well as left and right, are interchanged; that is, an image that results from rotating the object 180° about a line from the object to the observer; such images are formed by most astronomical telescopes.

QUESTION: 122

A circular coil of radius R having N number of turns carries a steady current I. The magnetic induction at the centre of the coil is 0.1 tesla. If the number of turns is doubled and the radius is halved, which one of the following will be the correct value for the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil?

Solution:

Magnetic Induction B = 0.1 tesla

n = No. of turns
a = Radius
I = current

β2 = 4 × 0.1= 0.4 tesla

QUESTION: 123

Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?

Solution:

According to the Indian Constitution, there are six basic Fundamental Rights of Indian Citizens, which are right to equality, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, right to freedom, right to constitutional remedies and right against exploitation.

QUESTION: 124

Which one of the following crops was introduced by the Portuguese in India?

Solution:

The spread of Chili peppers to Asia was most likely a natural consequence of its introduction to Portuguese traders, who aware of its trade value would have likely promoted its commerce in the Asian spice trade routes then dominated by Portuguese and Arab traders. Chilies were brought from South America to India by the Portuguese through their trading colony of Goa. India is now the largest producer and exporter of chilies in the world, growing a wide variety of different types. In India two types of pepper existed before the arrival of chili pepper – Black pepper and Pippali. Black pepper was called round pepper and Pippali was called the long Pepper.

QUESTION: 125

Consider the following statements about merchant guilds of South India:
1. Ayyavole merchant guild was originally established in Aihole.
2. Manigraman merchant guild was subordinated to the Anjuvannam merchant guild in the 13th century.​

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Southern Indian trade guilds were formed by merchants in order to organize and expand their trading activities. Ayyavole were a group of 500 Swamis who constituted themselves into a board of merchants in Aihole.
Manigramam flourished in Tamil Nadu in the Pallava and Chola periods and was active in South-east Asia. Anjuvannam merchant guild was active in the 9th century not in 13th century.

QUESTION: 126

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? 

Solution:

Adi Shankara or Shankara, was an early 8th century Indian philosopher and theologian who consolidated the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta. Philosophy of Ramanuja is known as Vishishtadvaita Vedanta. 

QUESTION: 127

When did the Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates from 9 of the 13 colonies of America meet in New York City?

Solution:

The Stamp Act Congress, or First Congress of the American Colonies, was a meeting held between October 7 and 25, 1765, in New York City, consisting of representatives from some of the British colonies in North America; it was the first gathering of elected representatives from several of the American colonies to devise a unified protest against new British taxation

QUESTION: 128

Who among the following travelers was from Italy and visited Vijayanagar Kingdom in the fifteenth century?

Solution:

The Italian traveler Nicolo Conti, who visited Vijayanagara in 1420 during the reign of Deva Raya I. An Italian traveller, Nicolo Conti (1420-1421 AD) visited Vijayanagar Empire during the reign of Devaraya-I (theTuluva dynasty ruler). He gave a comprehensive account of the Hindu kingdom of Vijayanagar.

QUESTION: 129

Where did the French East India Company first establish its factory in India?

Solution:

Jean-Baptiste Colbert founded the French East India Company in 1664. The initial attempts of the company to find a successful colony on Madagascar got failed. In 1667, under Francis Caron, the company established first factory at Surat and second factory was established at Masulipatnam a year later.

QUESTION: 130

The Central Vigilance Commission was established on the recommendation of which one of the following Committees?

Solution:

The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February, 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.

QUESTION: 131

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Solution:

‘The Arctic Home in the Vedas’ is a book on the origin of Aryanic People by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Dadabhai Naoroji wrote ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ brought attention to the draining of India's wealth into Britain. ‘Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule’ is a book written by Mohandas K. Gandhi in 1909. ‘The Discovery of India’ was written by India's first Prime Minister Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru during his imprisonment in 1942–46 at Ahmednagar fort in Maharashtra, India by British during the British Raj before independence of India.

QUESTION: 132

The Headquarters of the proposed National Sports University (as per the National Sports University Ordinance, 2018) will be set up in?

Solution:

National Sports University. National Sports University is a sports university in Manipur in India. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has laid foundation stone for National Sports University on 16 March 2018.

QUESTION: 133

Which one of the following is the Official Mascot of the FIFA World Cup, 2018?

Solution:

The Official Mascot of 14th FIFA World Cup, Russia 2018 is a wolf named Zabivaka, who was a hit with fans at the 2017 FIFA Confederations Cup. The animal's name is said to mean “the one who scores.” As part of his look, the soccer-playing animal sports goggles.

QUESTION: 134

ntosa Island, which was in news recently, is located in

Solution:

Sentosa is an island resort off Singapore’s southern coast, connected to the city by road, cable car, pedestrian boardwalk and monorail. A home to a popular resort that receives more than twenty million visitors per year. Attractions include long sheltered beach, Fort Siloso, two golf courses, the Merlion, the Resorts World Sentosa, which features the Universal Studios Singapore theme park and one of Singapore's two casinos.

QUESTION: 135

India, in June 2018, asserted that any mega connectivity project must respect sovereignty and territorial integrity of the countries. The project referred to above is:

Solution:

Government officials in India have repeatedly objected to China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), specifically because they believe the "China–Pakistan Economic Corridor" (CPEC) project ignores New Delhi's essential concerns on sovereignty and territorial integrity.

QUESTION: 136

Who among the following is not a member of G7?

Solution:

The Group of Seven (G7) is a group consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Russia is not a member of G7.

QUESTION: 137

Which among the following leaders started the Indian Home Rule League?

Solution:

Indian Home Rule League & Home Rule League. The Indian Home Rule League and Home Rule League were not simultaneously launched by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant. Indian Home Rule League of Tilak was launched in April 1916, while the Home Rule League of Annie Besant came into existence in September that year. As per a common informal understanding between the two leaders, the Indian Home Rule league had to work in Maharashtra and Central Provinces, while Home Rule League had to work in all India except Maharashtra and Central Provinces. Commonweal and New India were the papers of Home Rule League, while those of the Indian Home Rule league were Kesari and Mahratta.

QUESTION: 138

Every Judge of the Supreme Court of India is appointed by

Solution:

The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution. a judge is appointed to the supreme court by the president on the recommendation of the collegium — a closed group of the Chief Justice of India, the four most senior judges of the court and the senior-most judge hailing from the high court of a prospective appointee.

QUESTION: 139

The Nehru-Mahalanobis Strategy of Development was implemented for the first time by which one of the following Five-Year Plans? 

Solution:

Mahalanobis strategy of development emphasising basic heavy industries which was adopted first of all in the Second Plan also continued to hold the stage in Indian planning right up to the Fifth Plan which was terminated by the Janata Government in March 1978, a year before its full term of five years.

QUESTION: 140

Which of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India?

Solution:

The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are 'fundamental in governance of the country', and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. These lay down that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order, in which justice-social, economic and politicalshall form in all institutions of national life. The State shall direct its policy in such a manner as to secure the right of all men and women to an adequate means of livelihood, equal pay for equal work and within limits of its economic capacity and development, to make effective provision for securing the right to work, education and to public assistance in the event of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement or other cases of undeserved want. The protection of personal law does not fall under the directives of state policy.

QUESTION: 141

The word ‘socialist’ was inserted into the Preamble to the Constitution of India through which one of the following Amendment Acts?

Solution:

The 42nd Amendment changed the description of India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic", and also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation".

QUESTION: 142

The place of English East India Company settlement in Madras was known as

Solution:

The place of East India Company settlement in Madras was known as Fort St. George.

QUESTION: 143

Which one of the following Indian States (other than Himalayan or NE States) ranked first in the Composite Water Management Index as per the report issued by the NITI Aayog in June 2018?

Solution:

NITI Aayog's Composition Water Management Index (CWMI) report ranked all the states in India on the basis of their composite water management. Gujarat was ranked the best state on the water management index followed by Madhya  Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka while Rajasthan was ranked the lowest on the index.

QUESTION: 144

Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council?

Solution:

According to the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER), the Union Home Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of North Eastern Council (NEC), a statutory body with Governors and Chief Ministers of all the eight North Eastern States as its Member. The Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of DoNER is the Vice Chairman of the Council.

QUESTION: 145

Which one of the following is the theme of the World Blood Donor Day, 2018?

Solution:

World Blood Donor Day, 14 June 2018. Be there for someone else. Give blood. Share life. The slogan, “Be there for someone else. Give blood. Share life”, to draw attention to the roles that voluntary donation systems play in encouraging people to care for one another and generate social ties and a united community.

QUESTION: 146

‘Seva Bhoj Yojana’, a scheme of the Government of India that seeks to reimburse Central share of CGST and IGST on Food/Prasad/Langar/Bhandara offered by religious institutions, is introduced recently by which one of the following ministries?

Solution:

Seva Bhoj Yojna is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It envisates to reimburse the Central Government of Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) so as to less the financial burden of such Charitable Religious Institutions who provide Food/ Prasad /Langar (Community Kitchen)/ Bhandara free of cost without any discrimination to Public/ Devotee.

QUESTION: 147

Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak, who was awarded Nikkei Asia Prize, 2018 for Culture and Community, is the founder of

Solution:

Bindeshwar Pathak is an Indian sociologist. He established the Sulabh International Social Service Organization in 1970, combining technical innovation with humanitarian principles. The organization works to promotehuman rights, environmental sanitation, nonconventional sources of energy, waste management and social reforms through education.

QUESTION: 148

Article 352 of the Constitution of India contains provisions related to

Solution:

The provision for National Emergency is provided for under the Article 352 of the constitution. The Union may decide to suspend some, or all of the fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III (Articles 12 through 35) of the constitution.

QUESTION: 149

The Theosophical Society was led by

Solution:

The founders of the Theosophical Society, Madame Blavatsky and Col. Olcott, established the headquarters of the Society at Adyar near Madras. In 1888, Mrs. Annie Besant joined the Society in England. In 1907, after the passing of Col. H. S. Olcott, one of the founders of the Theosophical Society, Annie Besant became the second International President of the Theosophical Society, an office which she held until her death in 1933. In 1908 she announced the formation of a Theosophical Order of Service. From 1908 onwards Dr. Besant proceeded to enlarge the Headquarters estate at Adyar. Her membership proved an asset of greatest value to the Society.

QUESTION: 150

Which one of the following statements about Bipin Chandra Pal is correct?

Solution:

Bipin Chandra Pal (1858-1932) was a noted politician, journalist, an eminent orator and one of the three famous patriots, known as the trilogy of Lal Bal Pal. He got inspired by the extremist patriotism of Tilak, Lala and Aurobindo. As a member of Indian National Congress, he founded the Brahmo Samaj. At the 1887 Madras session of the Congress, Pal made a strong plea for repealing the Arms Act.