NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 02


200 Questions MCQ Test NABARD Assistant Manager Grade A Mock Test Series | NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 02


Description
This mock test of NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 02 for Banking Exams helps you for every Banking Exams entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for Banking Exams NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 02 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 02 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Banking Exams students definitely take this NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 02 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 02 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Banking Exams on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers 
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input 
and rearrangement.
Input: Mango 68 Scrabble 54 34 Ball Hammer 99 Penitent 23 
Step I: Scrabble Mango 68 54 34 Ball Hammer Penitent 23 99 
Step II: Penitent Scrabble Mango 54 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 
Step III: Mango Penitent Scrabble 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 54 
Step IV: Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble Ball 23 99 68 54 34 
Step V: Ball Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble 99 68 54 34 23 
And step V is the last step of the above input, as per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 

Q. Which of the following will be the penultimate step? 

Solution:

Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. When we see each step, then we can find that – 
The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step simultaneously, words are arranged from left end and numbers are arranged from right end. 
Words: words are arranged in decreasing order from left to right In terms of first alphabet of word. 
Number: numbers are arranged in decreasing order from right to left 
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 
Step I: Vanish 12 Sun 35 Leaf Canada 40 Happy 55 45 
Step II: Sun Vanish 12 35 Leaf Canada Happy 55 45 40 
Step III: Leaf Sun Vanish 12 Canada Happy 55 45 40 35 
Step IV: Happy Leaf Sun Vanish Canada 55 45 40 35 12 
Step V: Canada Happy Leaf Sun Vanish 55 45 40 35 12 

QUESTION: 2

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers 
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input 
and rearrangement.
Input: Mango 68 Scrabble 54 34 Ball Hammer 99 Penitent 23 
Step I: Scrabble Mango 68 54 34 Ball Hammer Penitent 23 99 
Step II: Penitent Scrabble Mango 54 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 
Step III: Mango Penitent Scrabble 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 54 
Step IV: Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble Ball 23 99 68 54 34 
Step V: Ball Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble 99 68 54 34 23 
And step V is the last step of the above input, as per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 

Q. What will be the position of ‘Canada’ in step III?

Solution:

Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. When we see each step, then we can find that – 
The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step simultaneously, words are arranged from left end and numbers are arranged from right end. 
Words: words are arranged in decreasing order from left to right In terms of first alphabet of word. 
Number: numbers are arranged in decreasing order from right to left 
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 
Step I: Vanish 12 Sun 35 Leaf Canada 40 Happy 55 45 
Step II: Sun Vanish 12 35 Leaf Canada Happy 55 45 40 
Step III: Leaf Sun Vanish 12 Canada Happy 55 45 40 35 
Step IV: Happy Leaf Sun Vanish Canada 55 45 40 35 12 
Step V: Canada Happy Leaf Sun Vanish 55 45 40 35 12 

QUESTION: 3

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers 
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input 
and rearrangement.
Input: Mango 68 Scrabble 54 34 Ball Hammer 99 Penitent 23 
Step I: Scrabble Mango 68 54 34 Ball Hammer Penitent 23 99 
Step II: Penitent Scrabble Mango 54 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 
Step III: Mango Penitent Scrabble 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 54 
Step IV: Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble Ball 23 99 68 54 34 
Step V: Ball Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble 99 68 54 34 23 
And step V is the last step of the above input, as per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 

Q. What will be the position of ‘Vanish’ with respect to ‘12’ in the step IV of the input? 

Solution:

Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. When we see each step, then we can find that – 
The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step simultaneously, words are arranged from left end and numbers are arranged from right end. 
Words: words are arranged in decreasing order from left to right In terms of first alphabet of word. 
Number: numbers are arranged in decreasing order from right to left 
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 
Step I: Vanish 12 Sun 35 Leaf Canada 40 Happy 55 45 
Step II: Sun Vanish 12 35 Leaf Canada Happy 55 45 40 
Step III: Leaf Sun Vanish 12 Canada Happy 55 45 40 35 
Step IV: Happy Leaf Sun Vanish Canada 55 45 40 35 12 
Step V: Canada Happy Leaf Sun Vanish 55 45 40 35 12 

QUESTION: 4

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers 
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input 
and rearrangement.
Input: Mango 68 Scrabble 54 34 Ball Hammer 99 Penitent 23 
Step I: Scrabble Mango 68 54 34 Ball Hammer Penitent 23 99 
Step II: Penitent Scrabble Mango 54 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 
Step III: Mango Penitent Scrabble 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 54 
Step IV: Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble Ball 23 99 68 54 34 
Step V: Ball Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble 99 68 54 34 23 
And step V is the last step of the above input, as per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 

Q. What will be the position of ‘55’ in the last but one step? 

Solution:

Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. When we see each step, then we can find that – 
The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step simultaneously, words are arranged from left end and numbers are arranged from right end. 
Words: words are arranged in decreasing order from left to right In terms of first alphabet of word. 
Number: numbers are arranged in decreasing order from right to left 
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 
Step I: Vanish 12 Sun 35 Leaf Canada 40 Happy 55 45 
Step II: Sun Vanish 12 35 Leaf Canada Happy 55 45 40 
Step III: Leaf Sun Vanish 12 Canada Happy 55 45 40 35 
Step IV: Happy Leaf Sun Vanish Canada 55 45 40 35 12 
Step V: Canada Happy Leaf Sun Vanish 55 45 40 35 12 

QUESTION: 5

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers 
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input 
and rearrangement.
Input: Mango 68 Scrabble 54 34 Ball Hammer 99 Penitent 23 
Step I: Scrabble Mango 68 54 34 Ball Hammer Penitent 23 99 
Step II: Penitent Scrabble Mango 54 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 
Step III: Mango Penitent Scrabble 34 Ball Hammer 23 99 68 54 
Step IV: Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble Ball 23 99 68 54 34 
Step V: Ball Hammer Mango Penitent Scrabble 99 68 54 34 23 
And step V is the last step of the above input, as per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 

Q. Which of the following will be step IV of the above input? 

Solution:

Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. When we see each step, then we can find that – 
The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step simultaneously, words are arranged from left end and numbers are arranged from right end. 
Words: words are arranged in decreasing order from left to right In terms of first alphabet of word. 
Number: numbers are arranged in decreasing order from right to left 
Input: 12 Sun 35 Leaf Vanish 45 Canada 40 Happy 55 
Step I: Vanish 12 Sun 35 Leaf Canada 40 Happy 55 45 
Step II: Sun Vanish 12 35 Leaf Canada Happy 55 45 40 
Step III: Leaf Sun Vanish 12 Canada Happy 55 45 40 35 
Step IV: Happy Leaf Sun Vanish Canada 55 45 40 35 12 
Step V: Canada Happy Leaf Sun Vanish 55 45 40 35 12 

QUESTION: 6

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in same order. All are facing towards the center. They like different colours i.e. Blue, Black, Yellow, Green, Orange and Pink but not necessarily in same order. One person sits between A and the one who likes Green colour. C sits second to the left of E. B sits  second to the left of person who likes Blue colour. The persons who like Black and pink colour immediate neighbor of each other. F sits second to the left of person who likes yellow colour. Two person sits between the one who likes Green and Blue colour. C is not an immediate neighbor of A and does not like Orange colour. One person sits between the one who like pink colour and Orange colour. B doesn’t like yellow colour.

Q. How many persons are sitting between D and A, when counted from right of A? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in same order. All are facing towards the center. They like different colours i.e. Blue, Black, Yellow, Green, Orange and Pink but not necessarily in same order. One person sits between A and the one who likes Green colour. C sits second to the left of E. B sits  second to the left of person who likes Blue colour. The persons who like Black and pink colour immediate neighbor of each other. F sits second to the left of person who likes yellow colour. Two person sits between the one who likes Green and Blue colour. C is not an immediate neighbor of A and does not like Orange colour. One person sits between the one who like pink colour and Orange colour. B doesn’t like yellow colour.

Q. Who among the following person likes Orange colour? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in same order. All are facing towards the center. They like different colours i.e. Blue, Black, Yellow, Green, Orange and Pink but not necessarily in same order. One person sits between A and the one who likes Green colour. C sits second to the left of E. B sits  second to the left of person who likes Blue colour. The persons who like Black and pink colour immediate neighbor of each other. F sits second to the left of person who likes yellow colour. Two person sits between the one who likes Green and Blue colour. C is not an immediate neighbor of A and does not like Orange colour. One person sits between the one who like pink colour and Orange colour. B doesn’t like yellow colour.

Q. Who sits second to the left of D? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in same order. All are facing towards the center. They like different colours i.e. Blue, Black, Yellow, Green, Orange and Pink but not necessarily in same order. One person sits between A and the one who likes Green colour. C sits second to the left of E. B sits  second to the left of person who likes Blue colour. The persons who like Black and pink colour immediate neighbor of each other. F sits second to the left of person who likes yellow colour. Two person sits between the one who likes Green and Blue colour. C is not an immediate neighbor of A and does not like Orange colour. One person sits between the one who like pink colour and Orange colour. B doesn’t like yellow colour.

Q. Who among the following person sits 3rd to right of F? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in same order. All are facing towards the center. They like different colours i.e. Blue, Black, Yellow, Green, Orange and Pink but not necessarily in same order. One person sits between A and the one who likes Green colour. C sits second to the left of E. B sits  second to the left of person who likes Blue colour. The persons who like Black and pink colour immediate neighbor of each other. F sits second to the left of person who likes yellow colour. Two person sits between the one who likes Green and Blue colour. C is not an immediate neighbor of A and does not like Orange colour. One person sits between the one who like pink colour and Orange colour. B doesn’t like yellow colour.

Q. If A and B interchange their positions, then who sits second to the left of B? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Mahesh starts his journey from point A. He walks 15m in South direction and reaches at point C. Now, he turns to the left and walks 10m to reach point D then he takes right turn and walk 4m to reach point F. From point F, he walks 5m in east direction and reaches at point M and walks 9m in North and reached point N.

Q. Find the shortest distance between point A and point N? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Mahesh starts his journey from point A. He walks 15m in South direction and reaches at point C. Now, he turns to the left and walks 10m to reach point D then he takes right turn and walk 4m to reach point F. From point F, he walks 5m in east direction and reaches at point M and walks 9m in North and reached point N.

Q. Point D is in which direction with respect to point M? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Mahesh starts his journey from point A. He walks 15m in South direction and reaches at point C. Now, he turns to the left and walks 10m to reach point D then he takes right turn and walk 4m to reach point F. From point F, he walks 5m in east direction and reaches at point M and walks 9m in North and reached point N.

Q. If point B is the midpoint between point A and Point C, then Point B is in which direction with respect to F? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight family members namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. There are three married couples in the family. P is married to V. V is father of R. R is sister of U. T is niece of U. Q is father of T. S is brother-in-law of P. U is a husband of W.

Q. How is V related to W? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight family members namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. There are three married couples in the family. P is married to V. V is father of R. R is sister of U. T is niece of U. Q is father of T. S is brother-in-law of P. U is a husband of W.

Q. How many male members are in the family? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six Boxes P, Q, R, S, T and U are kept one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. Each box has different colours i.e. Red, Green, Yellow, Blue, Orange and Grey but not necessarily in same order. Two boxes are placed between R and Red coloured box. Box R does not place below Red coloured box. Box P placed one of the places above of box R. The box which is green colour is placed immediate above grey colour box. One box is placed between S and yellow coloured box. Three boxes are kept between box Q and box U. One box placed between Red coloured and Orange coloured box. Box Q and Box U is not of Yellow colour box. Box U is not Grey colour.

Q. How many boxes are placed between box U and box R? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six Boxes P, Q, R, S, T and U are kept one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. Each box has different colours i.e. Red, Green, Yellow, Blue, Orange and Grey but not necessarily in same order. Two boxes are placed between R and Red coloured box. Box R does not place below Red coloured box. Box P placed one of the places above of box R. The box which is green colour is placed immediate above grey colour box. One box is placed between S and yellow coloured box. Three boxes are kept between box Q and box U. One box placed between Red coloured and Orange coloured box. Box Q and Box U is not of Yellow colour box. Box U is not Grey colour.

Q. Which of the following box are placed at bottom? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six Boxes P, Q, R, S, T and U are kept one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. Each box has different colours i.e. Red, Green, Yellow, Blue, Orange and Grey but not necessarily in same order. Two boxes are placed between R and Red coloured box. Box R does not place below Red coloured box. Box P placed one of the places above of box R. The box which is green colour is placed immediate above grey colour box. One box is placed between S and yellow coloured box. Three boxes are kept between box Q and box U. One box placed between Red coloured and Orange coloured box. Box Q and Box U is not of Yellow colour box. Box U is not Grey colour.

Q. Which of the following box is of Yellow colour? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six Boxes P, Q, R, S, T and U are kept one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. Each box has different colours i.e. Red, Green, Yellow, Blue, Orange and Grey but not necessarily in same order. Two boxes are placed between R and Red coloured box. Box R does not place below Red coloured box. Box P placed one of the places above of box R. The box which is green colour is placed immediate above grey colour box. One box is placed between S and yellow coloured box. Three boxes are kept between box Q and box U. One box placed between Red coloured and Orange coloured box. Box Q and Box U is not of Yellow colour box. Box U is not Grey colour.

Q. Which of the following combination is correct? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six Boxes P, Q, R, S, T and U are kept one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. Each box has different colours i.e. Red, Green, Yellow, Blue, Orange and Grey but not necessarily in same order. Two boxes are placed between R and Red coloured box. Box R does not place below Red coloured box. Box P placed one of the places above of box R. The box which is green colour is placed immediate above grey colour box. One box is placed between S and yellow coloured box. Three boxes are kept between box Q and box U. One box placed between Red coloured and Orange coloured box. Box Q and Box U is not of Yellow colour box. Box U is not Grey colour.

Q. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a group, find the one that does not belong to that group? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

Time taken by train A to cross a bridge whose length is same as length of another train B is 30 sec. If train B crosses a man in 20 sec and speed of train B is 5 m/s. Then find the speed of train A whose length is half of length of that bridge? 

Solution:

Length of train B = 20 x 5 = 100 m
= Length of bridge
Length of train A == 50 m.
Speed of train A(SA ) =  = 5 m/s

QUESTION: 22

Length of rectangle is equal to the radius of a circle whose circumference is 176 cm and breadth of rectangle is equal to the side of square whose area is 196 cm², then find the length of a diagonal of that rectangle? 

Solution:

Radius of circle (r) =  = length of rectangle
= 28 cm
Breadth of rectangle (b) = √196 = 14 cm
∴ Diagonal of rectangle =

QUESTION: 23

Ratio of age of Amit and Sumit 5 year ago is 5 : 4 and age of Amit 3 year hence is same as present age of Raghav. If average age of all three two year hence is 22 years. Find the present age of Sumit? 

Solution:

Let age of Amit 5 years ago be 5x yr
and that of Sumit be 4x yr
age of Amit 4 year hence = (5x + 8) yr
= present age of Raghav
ATQ,

∴ present age of sumit = 4 × 3 + 5 = 17 years.

QUESTION: 24

There are 12 points in a plane out of which 8 are collinear. Find the number of triangles formed from the points? 

Solution:

No. of triangles formed = 12C3 - 8C3
= 220-56
=164

QUESTION: 25

Ratio of investment of Sandy and Mohit in a business is 2 : 3. If Sandy invested for 6 months and Mohit for ‘A’ months then ratio of profit of Sandy to total profit is 1 : 4. Find value of ‘A’? 

Solution:

Let investment of Sandy be Rs 2x &
that of Mohit be Rs 3x.
Ratio of profit = 2x × 6 : 3x × A
ATQ,

48x = 12x + 3xA
36x = 3xA
∴ A =12

QUESTION: 26

Read the data carefully and answer the question.

There are some candidates who have filled application form for admission. Out of total filled application, there are four categories i.e. ST, SC, OBC and UR. Out of total application, 20% application are filled by ST candidates in which ratio of application filled by boys to girl is 5 : 1. 25% of remaining filled application filled by SC candidates and total application filled by girls in SC category is 63 more than total application filled by girls in ST category. 7/18 th of remaining application are filled by OBC category candidates, while ratio of boys to girls is 9 : 5 in total applications filled by OBC candidates. The ratio of girls to boys in total applications filled by UR candidates is 1 : 2 and total number of application filled by girls in all the categories is 406.

Q. Find ratio of total applications filled by SC girls to total applications filled by OBC boys? 

Solution:

Let total filled applications =100x
Total applications filled by ST candidate

Total applications filled by SC candidates

Total application filled by OBC candidates
= (100x - 20x - 20x)
Total applications filled by UR candidates

Total applications filled by girls in ST
category
Total application filled by girls in SC
category
ATQ—

245x = 3087
x = 12.6
Total filled application = 1260

Required ratio = 
= 5 : 9

QUESTION: 27

Read the data carefully and answer the question.

There are some candidates who have filled application form for admission. Out of total filled application, there are four categories i.e. ST, SC, OBC and UR. Out of total application, 20% application are filled by ST candidates in which ratio of application filled by boys to girl is 5 : 1. 25% of remaining filled application filled by SC candidates and total application filled by girls in SC category is 63 more than total application filled by girls in ST category. 7/18 th of remaining application are filled by OBC category candidates, while ratio of boys to girls is 9 : 5 in total applications filled by OBC candidates. The ratio of girls to boys in total applications filled by UR candidates is 1 : 2 and total number of application filled by girls in all the categories is 406.

Q. Find average number of applications filled by boys of SC, ST & OBC categories? 

Solution:

Let total filled applications =100x
Total applications filled by ST candidate

Total applications filled by SC candidates

Total application filled by OBC candidates
= (100x - 20x - 20x)
Total applications filled by UR candidates

Total applications filled by girls in ST
category
Total application filled by girls in SC
category
ATQ—

245x = 3087
x = 12.6
Total filled application = 1260

Required average = 

=182

QUESTION: 28

Read the data carefully and answer the question.

There are some candidates who have filled application form for admission. Out of total filled application, there are four categories i.e. ST, SC, OBC and UR. Out of total application, 20% application are filled by ST candidates in which ratio of application filled by boys to girl is 5 : 1. 25% of remaining filled application filled by SC candidates and total application filled by girls in SC category is 63 more than total application filled by girls in ST category. 7/18 th of remaining application are filled by OBC category candidates, while ratio of boys to girls is 9 : 5 in total applications filled by OBC candidates. The ratio of girls to boys in total applications filled by UR candidates is 1 : 2 and total number of application filled by girls in all the categories is 406.

Q. Total applications filled by OBC boys candidates is what percent less than total application filled by SC & OBC girls candidates? 

Solution:

Let total filled applications =100x
Total applications filled by ST candidate

Total applications filled by SC candidates

Total application filled by OBC candidates
= (100x - 20x - 20x)
Total applications filled by UR candidates

Total applications filled by girls in ST
category
Total application filled by girls in SC
category
ATQ—

245x = 3087
x = 12.6
Total filled application = 1260

Total application filled by SC & OBC
girls = 105 + 105 = 210
Required percentage = 

QUESTION: 29

Read the data carefully and answer the question.

There are some candidates who have filled application form for admission. Out of total filled application, there are four categories i.e. ST, SC, OBC and UR. Out of total application, 20% application are filled by ST candidates in which ratio of application filled by boys to girl is 5 : 1. 25% of remaining filled application filled by SC candidates and total application filled by girls in SC category is 63 more than total application filled by girls in ST category. 7/18 th of remaining application are filled by OBC category candidates, while ratio of boys to girls is 9 : 5 in total applications filled by OBC candidates. The ratio of girls to boys in total applications filled by UR candidates is 1 : 2 and total number of application filled by girls in all the categories is 406.

Q. Total applications filled by UR boys are how much more than total applications filled by SC boys? 

Solution:

Let total filled applications =100x
Total applications filled by ST candidate

Total applications filled by SC candidates

Total application filled by OBC candidates
= (100x - 20x - 20x)
Total applications filled by UR candidates

Total applications filled by girls in ST
category
Total application filled by girls in SC
category
ATQ—

245x = 3087
x = 12.6
Total filled application = 1260

Required Diffierence = 308 - 147
= 161

QUESTION: 30

Read the data carefully and answer the question.

There are some candidates who have filled application form for admission. Out of total filled application, there are four categories i.e. ST, SC, OBC and UR. Out of total application, 20% application are filled by ST candidates in which ratio of application filled by boys to girl is 5 : 1. 25% of remaining filled application filled by SC candidates and total application filled by girls in SC category is 63 more than total application filled by girls in ST category. 7/18 th of remaining application are filled by OBC category candidates, while ratio of boys to girls is 9 : 5 in total applications filled by OBC candidates. The ratio of girls to boys in total applications filled by UR candidates is 1 : 2 and total number of application filled by girls in all the categories is 406.

Q. Find total applications filled by boys candidates? 

Solution:

Let total filled applications =100x
Total applications filled by ST candidate

Total applications filled by SC candidates

Total application filled by OBC candidates
= (100x - 20x - 20x)
Total applications filled by UR candidates

Total applications filled by girls in ST
category
Total application filled by girls in SC
category
ATQ—

245x = 3087
x = 12.6
Total filled application = 1260

Total applications filled by boys
= 210 + 147 + 189 + 308
= 854

QUESTION: 31

Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the questions. 
Give answer

Q. Find the cost price of article by shopkeeper on selling the article at Rs. 240 ?
(I) If the article sold at 25% more the profit earned will be Rs. 40.
(II) Marked price of article is Rs. 400 and profit% is equal to discount% and profit% is 40%. 

Solution:

From I
Let C.P. of article be Rs. x.

x = 300 — 40 = Rs 260
From II
Since profit% & discount% is given
and S.P. & marked price is given.
∴ cost price can be determined.
∴ Either from I or II. 

QUESTION: 32

Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the questions. 
Give answer

Q. Find the volume of right circular cone ?
(I) Height of cone is 100% more than radius of cone.
(II) Area of base of cone is 154 cm²

Solution:

From I & II
Area of base of cone (πr2) = 154
πr2 = 154
r2 = 49
∴ r = 7 cm
∴ height (h) = 7× 2 = 14 cm
Volume 

QUESTION: 33

Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the questions. 
Give answer

Q. Find the value of 2x X 3y 
(a) Sum of value of x and y is 8.
(b) Product of value of x & y is 7. 

Solution:

From I & II
x+y=8...(i)
xy = 7
(x - y)2 = (x + y)2 - 4xy
(x - y)2 = (8)2 - 4 x 7
(x - y)2 = 36
x - y = 6 ...(ii)
∴ x = 7 & y = 1
Or x = 1 & y = 7 

QUESTION: 34

Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the questions. 
Give answer

Q. Find the speed of boat in still water?
(I) Time taken by boat to cover 64 km in downstream is half the time taken by same boat to cover same distance in still water.
(II) Speed of stream is 5 km/hr 

Solution:

From I & II
Let speed of boat in still water be x km/hr
and speed of stream be y km/hr.

x = y = 5 km/hr

QUESTION: 35

Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the questions. 
Give answer
Q. In a box three types of balls are there, Black, Red and White. If no. of white balls is given then find out the probability of getting one white ball.
(I) Probability of getting one Red ball is given.
(II) Probability of getting one black ball is given. 

Solution:

Given no. of white ball
Let → a
From I let probability → x/y
Let no. of red ball → px, total balls → py
From II → Let probability = s/t
Let no. of black ball = qs, total balls = qt
From I & II
px + a + qs = qt = py
we know the values of x, y, s, t and a so we can find the value of p and q
So probability of white ball found =

∴ I & II together are sufficient to answer the question 

QUESTION: 36

Given below pie chart shows percentage distribution of number of students who take admission in IIT Delhi and IIT Kanpur in five different streams in the year 2016. Read the data carefully and answer the question.

Q. If total students who take admission in IIT Mumbai is 20% more than that of total students who take admission in IIT Delhi and difference between total students who take admission in IT stream in both IIT’s is 88, then find total students who take admission in Mechanical stream in IIT Mumbai ? 

Solution:

Let total students who take admission in IIT Delhi is 100x
So, total students who take admission in IIT Mumbai = 120x
ATQ-

 x = 8
Total students who take admission in Mechanical stream in IIT Mumbai

= 336

QUESTION: 37

Given below pie chart shows percentage distribution of number of students who take admission in IIT Delhi and IIT Kanpur in five different streams in the year 2016. Read the data carefully and answer the question.

Q. If total students who take admission in civil stream in IIT Delhi is 10% less than that of total students who take admission in same stream in IIT Mumbai, then find total students who take admission in Electronic stream in IIT Mumbai is what percent more or less than total students who take admission in CS stream in IIT Delhi ? 

Solution:

Let total students who take admission in
IIT Mumbai be 'x' and in IIT Delhi is 'y'
Total students who take admission in
Civil stream in IIT Mumbai =x/8
Total students who take admission in Civil stream in IIT Delhi

Total students who take admission in Electronic stream in IIT Mumbai

Total students who take admission in CS stream in IIT Delhi
= y/4

QUESTION: 38

Given below pie chart shows percentage distribution of number of students who take admission in IIT Delhi and IIT Kanpur in five different streams in the year 2016. Read the data carefully and answer the question.

Q. If ratio between total students who take admission in IIT Delhi to IIT Mumbai is 3 : 4 and total students who take admission in Mechanical stream in both IIT’s is 1104, then find difference of students who take admission in both IIT’s in Civil stream ? 

Solution:

Let students who take admission in IIT Mumbai and IIT Delhi is 3x and 4x respectively.
Total students who take admission in Mechanical stream in IIT Mumbai

Total students who take admission in Mechanical stream in IIT Delhi

ATQ-
1.4x + 0.9x = 1104
x = 480
Required difference
= 288 - 240
= 48

QUESTION: 39

Given below pie chart shows percentage distribution of number of students who take admission in IIT Delhi and IIT Kanpur in five different streams in the year 2016. Read the data carefully and answer the question.

Q. Number of students who take admission in CS stream in IIT Mumbai is 8 more than that of CS stream students of IIT Delhi. And sum of total students who take admission in IT stream in both IIT’s is 211, then find total number of students who take admission in both IIT’s ?

Solution:

Let total students who take admission in IIT
Delhi and liT Mumbai be x and y respectively.
ATQ-

7y + 4x = 8440 ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii) we get 
x = 640 & y = 840
Required sum = 640 + 840 = 1480

QUESTION: 40

Given below pie chart shows percentage distribution of number of students who take admission in IIT Delhi and IIT Kanpur in five different streams in the year 2016. Read the data carefully and answer the question.

Q. If ratio of total students who take admission in IIT Mumbai to IIT Delhi is 7 : 5, then find ratio of total students who take admission in Mechanical & IT stream together in IIT Delhi to total students who take admission in CS and Civil stream together in IIT Mumbai ? 

Solution:

Let total students who take admission in IIT
Mumbai & IIT Delhi be 7x & Sx respectively
Total students who take admission In Mechanical & IT stream in IIT Delhi

Total students who take admission in CS & Civil stream in IIT Mumbai

QUESTION: 41

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. Hours after pronouncing judgement in the/ sensational Mecca Masjid blast/ case acquitting five accused, / the NIA special court judge Ravinder Reddy has resigned, /it is learnt. 

Solution:

The given sentence is grammatically correct and contextually meaningful and hence, option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice. 

QUESTION: 42

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. After Ms. Haley’s comments, / some in the administrationsuggested the sanctions/ now being considered/ could might rolled/ out by Monday. 

Solution:

​The phrase ‘could might rolled’ should be replaced either with ‘could be rolled’ or ‘might be rolled’ Could and might are not used together and when used alone ‘be’ is required after them to make it correct. 

QUESTION: 43

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. The Madras High Court on Monday/ ordered that a temple elephant in Salem city/ named Rajeswari should be euthanized/ therefore a local government veterinarian certifies/ that it would be cruel to keep/ the ailing animal alive any longer. 

Solution:

Using ‘therefore’ gives incoherent meaning to the sentence but if it gets replaced with ‘if’, then it gives proper meaning to the paragraph that High court has allowed killing of an elephant ‘if’ a veterinarian certifies that it is suffering and cannot be cured.  

QUESTION: 44

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. As on Monday, / only one of the /three major reservoirs in the district/had water up to the brim, / while the level in most of/ the tanks has been dropping.

Solution:

First and last parts of the sentence ‘as on Monday’ and ‘the tanks has been dropping’ shows that it is in present tense but ‘had water up to the brim’ indicates past tense because of use of ‘had’ therefore ‘had water up to the brim’ is incorrect.  

QUESTION: 45

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. A single judge of the/ Kerala High Court had ordered/ the demolition of those parts/ of the apartment complex/ that were constructed/ violating of the CRZ norms. 

Solution:

​Replace ‘violating of the CRZ norms’ with either ‘in violation of the CRZ norms’ or ‘violating the CRZ norms’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.  

QUESTION: 46

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. They were tough times/ and it was tougher for/ the curator so as to keep/ the venue in a/ decent shape to/ host big matches

Solution:

​Replace ‘the curator so as to keep’ with ‘the curator to keep’. ‘so as’ is not required in the sentence and removing it will correct the sentence.  

QUESTION: 47

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. Gayle, playing his first game/ of the season, smashed his/ second fastest IPL fifty, on 22 balls, / to lay the foundation/ for KXIP’s thrilling four-run win over/ Chennai Super Kings on Sunday night. 

Solution:

​The correct phrase should be ‘second fastest IPL fifty, off 22 balls; in 22 balls’ Use of ‘on’ for scoring runs from a particular number of balls is incorrect. 

QUESTION: 48

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. Setting outstanding credit card debt by/ accepting the settlement offer made/ by the company to customers who can’t pay/ their bill is actually a very disadvantageous/ proposition for the customer, / according to fintech firm Qbera

Solution:

​The statement is about settling of credit card dues therefore ‘setting’ in the first part of the sentence needs to be replaced by ‘settling’.  

QUESTION: 49

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. In a statement issued to the/ stock exchanges on Monday, / the bank said that the capital market regulator/ had asked clarifications from/ the bank and that it had/ responded to the queries. 

Solution:

​had sought clarifications from; had asked for clarifications from. ‘For’ is needed after ‘asked’.

QUESTION: 50

In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted in Underline suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (E) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q. He said his force/ had conducted joint exercises/ with the United States and France as/ part of its capacity-building/ effort and that it had/ countered 115 terrorist attacks. 

Solution:

​Joint exercise is just a part of capacity-building efforts. It shows that there are many other initiatives for capacity building efforts which proves that ‘efforts’ must be plural therefore use of only ‘effort’ in the sentence is incorrect and it should be replaced with ‘efforts’. 

QUESTION: 51

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________. 

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.51

Solution:

The paragraph is describing about the traits of the river Ganga and the funds allotted to different programmes for the revival of the river. Here, the author is describing about the budget allotted to the water resource ministry therefore, the most suitable set of words to fill the given blank is “ allocation / issuance”. ‘ Issuance’ is a noun which means the action of supplying or distributing something, especially for official purposes. All the other pairs of words do not fit coherently into the given blank. Hence option (d) becomes the most suitable answer choice. 
Quantum means a required or allowed amount, especially an amount of money legally payable in damages. 
Consignment means a batch of goods destined for or delivered to someone. 
Ordination means the action of ordaining someone in holy orders. 
Excursion means a short journey or trip, especially one taken as a leisure activity. 

QUESTION: 52

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.52

Solution:

The paragraph is describing about the traits of the river Ganga and the funds allotted to different programmes for the revival of the river. In the latter part of the paragraph it has been mentioned [“not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.”] about cleansing of the river ganga. Thus, the set with both the words satisfying the context of the paragraph is “ revival/amelioration ”. ‘Revival’ means an improvement in the condition, strength, or fortunes of someone or something while ‘ amelioration’ means the act of making something better; improvement. Hence, option (e) is the most viable answer choice. 
Condemnation means the expression of very strong disapproval; censure. 
Denunciation means public condemnation of someone or something. 
Renaissance means a revival of or renewed interest in something. 

QUESTION: 53

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.53

Solution:

The correct set of words that provides an absolute meaning in the context of the paragraph is “ warning/ caution ”. As, in the latter part of the paragraph it has been mentioned that the river is coping with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. ‘ Caution’ means to say something as a warning. Hence, the most appropriate answer choice is option (b). 
Incitement means the action of provoking unlawful behaviour or urging someone to behave unlawfully. 
Exemplar means a person or thing serving as a typical example or appropriate model. 
Deterrent means a thing that discourages or is intended to discourage someone from doing something 
Fortification means a defensive wall or other reinforcement built to strengthen a place against attack. 

QUESTION: 54

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.54

Solution:

The correct set of words that provides an absolute meaning in the context of the paragraph is “ generous / abundant ”. The word “despite” in the beginning of the sentence indicates a contrast in the statement. Therefore, as the latter part of the sentence has mentioned that “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far”, it provides a hint that the blank should be filled with the set of words that gives a contrasting context. As all the other given sets of words fail to cater the precise meaning, option (a) becomes the most feasible answer choice. 
Abundant means existing or available in large quantities; plentiful. 
Abrupt means sudden and unexpected. 
Concise means giving a lot of information clearly and in a few words; brief but comprehensive. 
Prejudiced means having or showing a dislike or distrust that is derived from prejudice; bigoted. 
Fortuitous means happening by chance rather than intention. 
Obscure means not discovered or known about; uncertain. 

QUESTION: 55

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.55

Solution:

The most appropriate set of words that provides the precise contextual meaning to the paragraph is “ executed / processed ”. ‘ executed’ means to put (a plan, order, or course of action) into effect while the word ‘ processed’ also provides the similar contextual meaning. Hence, option (b) becomes the most viable answer choice. 
Assembled means (of people) gather together in one place for a common purpose. 
Consummated means a complete (a transaction). 
Rendered means to provide or give (a service, help, etc.). 
Unformed means without a definite form or shape. 

QUESTION: 56

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.56

Solution:

The most appropriate set of words that provides the coherent meaning to the paragraph is ‘ landscape / terrain’ . ‘ Landscape’means all the visible features of an area of land, often considered in terms of their aesthetic appeal which is similar in meaning with ‘terrain’. However, with reference to the paragraph these words have more of a contextual meaning than the literal meaning. ‘Landscape / terrain’ are used here to describe the importance of the river Ganga in the cultural and economic aspects of North. Hence, option (a) becomes the most suitable answer choice. 
Prospect means the possibility or likelihood of some future event occurring. 
Arena means a level area surrounded by seating, in which sports, entertainments, and other public events are held 

QUESTION: 57

​In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.57

Solution:

The paragraph is describing about the traits of the river Ganga and the funds allotted to different programmes for the revival of the river. This sentence of the paragraph is describing about the characteristics and the directions in which river Ganga flows. Therefore, the most appropriate pair of conjunction is “ through / across ” which is perfectly catering the sense to the paragraph. Hence, option (e) becomes the most viable answer choice. 
During means throughout the course or duration of (a period of time). 
Uphill means sloping upwards. 
Over means extending directly upwards from. 

QUESTION: 58

​In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.58

Solution:

The paragraph is describing about the traits of the river Ganga and the funds allotted to different programmes for the revival of the river. Here the sentence is stating one the characteristics of the river that its water is used by approximately 40% of the country’s population. Therefore, ‘ serves / provides’ fits most appropriately in the given blank. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice. 
Victual means provide with food or other stores. 
Infuriate means make (someone) extremely angry and impatient. 

QUESTION: 59

​In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.59

Solution:

The most appropriate set of words that provides the precise contextual meaning to the paragraph is “ struggling / grappling ”. ‘ Grappling’ is a verb which means struggle to deal with or overcome (a difficulty or challenge). In addition to, the word ‘ struggling’ also provides a similar contextual meaning. Hence, option (d) becomes the most viable answer choice. 
Striving means struggle or fight vigorously. 
Yielding means produce or provide (a natural, agricultural, or industrial product). 
Touring means make a tour of (an area). 

QUESTION: 60

​In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable pair of words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

A Rs 2,000 crore hike in budgetary (51) _________________ to the water resource ministry towards (52) _________________of Ganga is a welcome move by this year’s Union Budget. However, history serves up a (53) _________________. Despite the completion of two Ganga action plans and (54) _________________ fund flows – Rs 900 crore spent over the last 15 years – the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 had observed that, “not a single drop of the Ganga has been cleaned so far.” 
With a budget outlay of Rs 20,000 crore to be (55) _________________ over five years, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s pet project – Namami Gange – launched in 2014, must therefore learn from the past mistakes. 
For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic (56) _________________. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows (57) _________________Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and (58) _________________water to 40% of India’s population. The river is currently (59) _________________ to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. Given its religious and industrial importance, any further deterioration would have significant (60) _________________.

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.60

Solution:

The most appropriate set of words that provides the precise contextual meaning to the paragraph is “ ramifications / consequences ”. ‘ Ramifications’ means a complex or unwelcome consequence of an action or event which is similar in meaning to ‘consequences’. As both the words perfectly satisfy the themes of the paragraph, option (c) becomes the most suitable answer choice. 
Repercussions means an unintended consequence of an event or action, especially an unwelcome one. 
Bifurcations means the division of something into two branches or parts. 
Radiations means the energy transmitted by radiation. 

QUESTION: 61

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. they need to have the freedom to translate curricula into (A)/ moving away from a restrictive textbook-based teaching, (B)/ practice in a manner that addresses(C)/ teachers must be able to help (D)/ the requirements of their students. (E) 

Solution:

​The correct sequence of the sentence is BACE. Part (D) of the sentence fails to become the coherent component of the sentence. Hence, option (b) is the correct choice. “Moving away from a restrictive textbook-based teaching, they need to have the freedom to translate curricula into practice in a manner that addresses the requirements of their students.” 

QUESTION: 62

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. electricity-charged batteries (A)/ commonly known as e-rickshaws, (B)/ largest manufacturer of electric rickshaws (C)/ battery operated electric rickshaws, (D)/ are passenger vehicles powered by (E)

Solution:

The correct sequence of the sentence is DBEA. Part (C) of the sentence fails to become the coherent component of the sentence. Hence, option (a) is the correct choice. “Battery operated electric rickshaws, commonly known as e-rickshaws, are passenger vehicles powered by electricity-charged batteries.”

QUESTION: 63

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. problems of overcrowding, (A)/ insanitation and shortage (B)/ of staff and equipment (C)/ government hospitals suffer from (D)/ to private hospitals for better healthcare (E) 

Solution:

​The correct sequence of the sentence is DABC. Part (E) of the sentence fails to become the coherent component of the sentence. Hence, option (c) is the correct choice. “ Government hospitals suffer from problems of overcrowding, insanitation and shortage of staff and equipment.” 

QUESTION: 64

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. working in closed AC buildings (A)/ physical exertion to boost its healing power (B)/ continuous circulation of exhaled air(C)/ is also a health hazard due to reduction (D)/ in oxygen levels as a result of (E) 

Solution:

The correct sequence of the sentence is ADEC. Part (B) of the sentence fails to become the coherent component of the sentence. Hence, option (a) is the correct choice. “Working in closed AC buildings is also a health hazard due to reduction in oxygen levels as a result of continuous circulation of exhaled air.” 

QUESTION: 65

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. The quality of higher education is (A)/ the engine of economic growth, (B)/ powering the supply of high-level skills, (C)/ conceptual knowledge and scientific innovations that (D)/ can eventually position India as a strategic global leader (E) 

Solution:

​All the parts of the sentence are already arranged in correct sequence i.e., ABCDE providing the intended meaning and perfectly satisfying the grammatical syntax of the sentence. As, it doesn’t require any further rearrangement, option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice. 

QUESTION: 66

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. a list of imported products from (A)/ it is worth noting that China (B)/ automobiles and chemical products (C)/ strikes the US side by targeting (D)/ its most valuable imports, such as soybeans (E) 

Solution:

The correct sequence of the sentence is BDEC. Part (A) of the sentence fails to become the coherent component of the sentence. Hence, option (c) is the correct choice. “It is worth noting that China strikes the US side by targeting its most valuable imports, such as soybeans, automobiles and chemical products.” 

QUESTION: 67

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. Warfare today has become more complex (A)/ with its three dimensions enlarged (B)/ to encompass not only conventional (C)/ and technology-driven tools but also nuclear, (D)/ cyber and space ones (E) 

Solution:

All the parts of the sentence are already arranged in correct sequence i.e., ABCDE providing the intended meaning and perfectly satisfying the grammatical syntax of the sentence. As, it doesn’t require any further rearrangement, option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice. 

QUESTION: 68

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. anti-trust regulator Competition Commission of India (A)/ the country’s two largest e-commerce firms (B)/ would create a monopoly in online retail and draw the attention of (C)/ a deal between (D)/ Walmart into India will be an extension (E) 

Solution:

The correct sequence of the sentence is DBCA. Part (E) of the sentence fails to become the coherent component of the sentence. Hence, option (b) is the correct choice. “A deal between the country’s two largest e-commerce firms would create a monopoly in online retail and draw the attention of anti-trust regulator Competition Commission of India.” 

QUESTION: 69

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. a significant percentage of students (A)/ do suffer from mental health issues (B)/ which either provoke violence on others or, (C)/ the students faced difficulties (D)/ more frequently, self-harm (E) 

Solution:

The correct sequence of the sentence is ABCE. Part (D) of the sentence fails to become the coherent component of the sentence. Hence, option (a) is the correct choice. “A significant percentage of students do suffer from mental health issues which either provoke violence on others or, more frequently, self-harm.”  

QUESTION: 70

In each of the following question, a sentence is divided into number of parts but not necessarily in the arranged order. A part of the sentence may or may not belong to the sentence structure coherently. Choose the correct sequence of the rearranged parts to form a meaningful sentence among the five alternatives given below each question after eliminating the incoherent part. If the sequence is the one which is not given, choose option (D) as your choice. If the given sentence is already arranged in proper order, choose option (E) i.e., “No rearrangement required” as your answer.

Q. have mentioned three major reasons (A)/ various studies conducted at regional levels (B)/ for psychological adversities (C)/ among students of school-going age (D)/ to make the best of the education (E) 

Solution:

The correct sequence of the sentence is BACD. Part (E) of the sentence fails to become the coherent component of the sentence. Hence, option (c) is the correct choice. “Various studies conducted at regional levels have mentioned three major reasons for psychological adversities among students of school-going age.” 

QUESTION: 71

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. What benefits have been provided by the government to small borrowers?
(I) Allocation of additional funds.
(II) Abrogating the loan limits in the MSME segment.
(III) Government has extended the time period for small borrowers for payment of their dues.

Solution:

​All the sentences are correct. Government in the budget this year has announced the additional funding to Mudra, add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers and abolition of loan limits in the MSME. Hence option (e) is the correct choice. 

QUESTION: 72

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. What can be inferred from the statement, “ we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .”? 

Solution:

As mentioned in second paragraph of the passage that finance minister highlighted the responsibilities of regulators of PSU banks i.e. RBI. Here unfortunately determines the negative point that politicians are made responsible for frauds and scams in banks rather than regulators.
Hence option (d) is the correct choice. 

QUESTION: 73

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. Which type(s) of unevenness has/have been pointed out by RBI governor? 

Solution:

Refer the third paragraph of the passage.

QUESTION: 74

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. What are the efforts made by RBI to avoid the future loss in banks?
(I) turning towards privatization of banks.
(II) providing training to bank officials.
(III) updating supervisory system

Solution:

Refer the first few lines of second paragraph “Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks.” “the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform.”. 

QUESTION: 75

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. Identify the tone of the author with respect to the passage. 

Solution:

The author has given deep analysis of decision of RBI governor Urjit Patel regarding monetary policy, with a neutral outlook. Hence ‘critical’ is the correct tone of the author. 

QUESTION: 76

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. According to the passage, the new framework SPARC includes
(I) to upgrade banking supervision to global standards.
(II) interaction between banks and supervisors.
(III) enhancing cyber security of scheduled commercial banks 

Solution:

All of the sentences are correct. Refer to fourth and fifth paragraphs of the passage. 

QUESTION: 77

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in Underline in the context of the passage.

Perpetually

Solution:

Solution: Perpetually means never ending or changing, having same meaning as constantly
Abate means becoming less intense. 
Dissent means disagreement. 
Stride means a decisive step, advance, proceed. 

QUESTION: 78

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in Underline in the context of the passage.

Forbearance 

Solution:

Forbearance means patient self-control; restraint and tolerance, having same meaning as tolerance
Recuperate means recover or regain. 
Usurp means take illegally or by force. 

QUESTION: 79

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in underline in the context of the passage.

Overhaul 

Solution:

Overhaul means take apart (a piece of machinery or equipment) in order to examine it and repair it if necessary. Hence it has the opposite meaning to ruin
Ensue means happen or occur afterwards or as a result. 
Acquiesce means accept something reluctantly but without protest. 
Hapless means unfortunate. 

QUESTION: 80

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words are given in Underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high point in the relationship between the Union finance ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment. Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February, through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February. The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as having added: “Regulators ultimately decide the rules of the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators are not .
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C. Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking supervision to global best practices. Its report recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bank’s operations, and its risk mitigation strategies. Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the previous one having been done in May 2008, but the findings are not publicly known. 
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June 2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for senior officers of the major banks. The new framework went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC (supervisory programme for assessment of risk and capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been among them. Eight more banks were added over the next two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing interaction between banks and supervisors, not just periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas regulators, which the annual report for that year says led to “substantial progress in supervisory information sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian banks are operating”. By the close of reporting year 2016-17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and there was also a statement of cooperation with three US financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were another point from which the PNB fraud could have been spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to information exchange of any diagnostic value.

Q. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in underline in the context of the passage.

Supersede

Solution:

Supersede means take the place of (a person or thing previously in authority or use); supplant. Hence it has the opposite meaning toretain
Relinquish means voluntarily cease to keep or claim; give up. 
Concede means admit or agree that something is true after first denying or resisting it. 
Herald means a person or thing viewed as a sign that something is about to happen. 
Confide means tell someone about a secret or private matter while trusting them not to repeat it to others. 

QUESTION: 81

Which of the following is used to switch between open programs? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

Which of the following keeps a list of web pages you have visited during the current session? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Which of the following line describes the contents of the message, When sending an e-mail? 

Solution:

​Subject define the content of the email message. 

QUESTION: 84

To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the __________ key. 

Solution:

Home key returns you to the beginning of the line, document, page, cell, or screen of where your cursor is positioned. 

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following is used to enter the current time in ms-excel? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Each box in a spreadsheet is called a ________. 

Solution:

​Each box in a spreadsheet is called a cell. 

QUESTION: 87

A key that will erase information from the computer’s memory and characters on the screen: 

Solution:

​Delete key is used to delete data. 

QUESTION: 88

The software that is used to create text based documents is referred as : 

Solution:

​Word processors are used to create text based documents. 

QUESTION: 89

Every computer connected to an internet must have a distinct____ 

Solution:

​IP address is short for Internet Protocol (IP) address. An IP address is an identifier for a computer or device on a network. 

QUESTION: 90

What is the Full form of SDRM ? 

Solution:

SDRAM (synchronous DRAM) is a generic name for various kinds of dynamic random access memory (DRAM) that are synchronized with the clock speed that the microprocessor is optimized for. This tends to increase the number of instructions that the processor can perform in a given time. The speed of SDRAM is rated in MHz rather than in nanoseconds (ns). 

QUESTION: 91

OSI model has how many layers? 

Solution:

​OSI Model stands for Open System Interconnection and it has seven layers: Application Layer, Presentation Layer, Session Layer, Transport Layer, Network Layer, Data link Layer, Physical Layer. 

QUESTION: 92

What is a simulated experience generated by computer called; like visiting the outer space or stepping on Moon? 

Solution:

​Virtual reality basically means 'near-reality’; it usually refers to a specific type of reality emulation which is simulated experience generated by a computer. 

QUESTION: 93

What is the technology used to read pencil or pen marks on a multiple-choice answer sheet called? 

Solution:

​Optical Mark Recognition, which is used to read pencil or pen marks on a multiple choice answer sheet. 

QUESTION: 94

To allow someone else to schedule your meetings and appointments, ______ feature of Outlook is used. 

Solution:

​Delegate Access is a more advanced feature than just sharing your Outlook folders. If you want to grant additional permissions, such as allowing a delegate the ability to create e-mail messages or respond to meeting requests on your behalf, you must use Delegate Access. 

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following option depicts the type of result whose value is either TRUE or FALSE? 

Solution:

​In Logical results the value is either true or false. 

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following records the name and exact location of every file on a disk? 

Solution:

​A file allocation table (FAT) is a file system developed for hard drives. It is used by the operating system (OS) to manage files on hard drives and other computer systems. 

QUESTION: 97

What should be used if a company wants to include its company name and logo at the bottom of every page of a brochure? 

Solution:

​Headers and footers are pieces of text, or graphics, that appear at the top and bottom of a page. If a company wants to include its company name and logo at the bottom of every page of a brochure then it will use the Footer. 

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following is used to bold highlighted selection in excel? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Which among the following is a language used in a computer that is very similar to, the language of humans and is easy to understand? 

Solution:

A high-level language is a programming language such as C, FORTRAN, or Pascal that enables a programmer to write programs that are independent of any specific type of computer. Such languages are considered high-level because they are closer to human languages and further from machine languages. 

QUESTION: 100

The Internet allows you to: 

Solution:

​All of the above are true. 

QUESTION: 101

Which company has pipped ICICI Prudential MF to become the country’s largest asset management company after a gap of over two years? 

Solution:

​HDFC Mutual Fund has pipped ICICI Prudential MF to become the country’s largest asset management company after a gap of over two years. As of December-end, HDFC MF manages assets to the tune of Rs 3.35 lakh crore, while those of ICICI Prudential MF stood at Rs 3.08 lakh crore, as per the latest data available with Association of Mutual funds in India (AMFI).

QUESTION: 102

Which of the following cricket team became the first Asian side to win a Test series in South Africa? 

Solution:

​Sri Lanka became the first Asian side to win a Test series in South Africa. Chasing a target of 197, Sri Lanka had a 137-run deficit to deal with at the start of Day 3 with eight wickets in hand. Kusal Mendis and Oshada Fernando ensured that the visitors don’t lose any more wickets. They won the Test by eight wickets and thus sealed the series 2-0. It also ended South Africa’s run of seven consecutive series wins at home. 

QUESTION: 103

Banks without the prior approval of the RBI, cannot- 

Solution:

All of the above. 

QUESTION: 104

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) withdrew the ____________ limit on investments by FPIs in corporate bonds of an entity with a view to encourage more foreign investments. 

Solution:

​The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Friday withdrew the 20 per cent limit on investments by FPIs in corporate bonds of an entity with a view to encourage more foreign investments. As part of the review of the FPI investment in corporate debt undertaken in April 2018, it was stipulated that no FPI should have an exposure of more than 20 per cent of its corporate bond portfolio to a single corporate (including exposure to entities related to the corporate). 

QUESTION: 105

Which of the following would result in a fall in asset prices? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Thailand and the United States hosted the annual ________ military exercise, the biggest activity of its type in the Asia-Pacific region with 29 nations taking part as participants or observers. 

Solution:

​Thailand and the United States have hosted the opening ceremony for the annual Cobra Gold military exercise, the biggest activity of its type in the Asia-Pacific region with 29 nations taking part as participants or observers. 

QUESTION: 107

Interest rates on which of the following deposit schemes is fixed or deregulated by the Reserve Bank of India? 

Solution:

​Savings bank interest rate decided by RBI. But sometimes commercial bank change this interest rate. 

QUESTION: 108

India and Argentina signed many agreements during state visit of President of Argentina to India. What is the currency of Argentina? 

Solution:

​Capital- Buenos Aires, President- Mauricio Macri, Currency- Peso 

QUESTION: 109

Which of the following General Insurance Company, announced the launch of 'Trip Protector' insurance policy, a pioneering policy in the non-life insurance segment in India? 

Solution:

​HDFC ERGO General Insurance Company, India's third-largest non-life insurance provider in the private sector, announced the launch of 'Trip Protector' insurance policy, a pioneering policy in the non-life insurance segment in India. 

QUESTION: 110

Avantika Santhosh Narale won gold in the Asian Youth Athletes Championship held in Hong Kong. She belongs to which sport? 

Solution:

​Pune girl, Avantika Santosh Narale, came out with her personal best record of 11.97 seconds, to clinch the gold medal in 100-metre running at the Asian Youth Athletics Championship in Hong Kong 

QUESTION: 111

Which of the following organization has inked an agreement to invest USD 50 million in solar energy project developer Avaada Energy Pvt Ltd to help the company scale up rapidly? 

Solution:

​Asian Development Bank (ADB) said it has inked an agreement to invest USD 50 million in solar energy project developer Avaada Energy Pvt Ltd to help the company scale up rapidly. The investment will come equally from ADB's Ordinary Capital Resources and Leading Asia's Private Infrastructure Fund (LEAP). 

QUESTION: 112

Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the country’s newest satellite named _________, from Sriharikota launch station. The spacecraft meant to provide electronic intelligence to the Armed Forces is the first of its kind for the country. 

Solution:

​Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the country’s newest satellite named EMISAT, from Sriharikota launch station. The spacecraft meant to provide electronic intelligence to the Armed Forces is the first of its kind for the country. 

QUESTION: 113

India signed an agreement with the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Consultancy Service (NABCONS) for setting up the agriculture institute in which African country? 

Solution:

India has decided to set up an unique institute in Africa to augment efforts to develop agro-financing and agrarian economy in the continent of Africa. In order to complement the efforts of the Government of India to enhance capacity in the areas of agro-financing and entrepreneurship development for African countries, Ministry of External Affairs signed an MoU on Tuesday with National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Consultancy Service (NABCONS) for setting up India-Africa Institute of Agriculture and Rural Development (IAIARD) in Malawi in Southern Africa. 

QUESTION: 114

The Reserve Bank of India fixed the Repo Rate at what percent in its First Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement 2019-20? 

Solution:

The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI has cut the policy repo rate by 25 basis points to 6.0 per cent from 6.25 per cent with immediate effect. 

QUESTION: 115

The theme of the National Youth Parliament Festival 2019 is_______________. 

Solution:

​Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports, Col Rajyavardhan Rathore launched the National Youth Parliament Festival 2019 at a function in New Delhi. The theme of the festival is- ‘Be the Voice of New India and Find solutions and contribute to policy’. 

QUESTION: 116

Sir Michael Atiyah passed away at the age of 89. He was a well-known_______. 

Solution:

​One of the world's foremost mathematicians, Prof Sir Michael Atiyah, has died at the age of 89. 

QUESTION: 117

The International Day of Solidarity with Detained and Missing Staff Members is observed every year on which date by United Nations? 

Solution:

​The International Day of Solidarity with Detained and Missing Staff Members is observed every year on 25th of March by United Nations to mobilize action, demand justice and strengthen resolve to protect UN staff and peacekeepers, as well as colleagues in the non-governmental community and the press. 

QUESTION: 118

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has given approval to which of the following firm for the investment and wealth management platform of the mobile payments company to start offering broking services? 

Solution:

​Paytm Money, the investment and wealth management arm of mobile payment platform Paytm, has received approval from securities and capital markets regulator Sebi (Securities & Exchange Board of India) to start stock broking services. 

QUESTION: 119

The book titled “Diary of an Awesome Friendly Kid: Rowley Jefferson’s Journal” is authored by ? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 120

Pobitora wildlife sanctuary is famous for its great Indian ____________? 

Solution:

​Pobitora is mainly famous for its great Indian One-horned rhinoceros. Besides rhinoceros, the other animals are leopard, wild boar, Barking deer, wild buffalo etc. Assam's Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is also home to more than 2000 migratory birds and various reptiles. It is also an Important Bird Area. 

QUESTION: 121

Which of the following crops are sowed in October to December and Harvested in February to April? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

What is the name of citizen centric mobile app on MGNREGA launched by department of rural development for providing information of the MGNREGA program? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

The soil which is found in the areas having heavy rainfall and high humidity, contains large quantity of organic matter and heavy and black in colour – 

Solution:

​Peaty soil – It occurs widely in northern parts of Bihar, Southern parts of Uttaranchal and coastal areas of west Bengal, Orissa and Tamil Nadu. 

QUESTION: 124

The process of covering the top layer of the soil with plant materials to prevent the soil from soil erosion is known as – 

Solution:

​Mulching – It is the process of applying a layer of mulch and fertilizer over the soil. A mulch cover enhances the activity of soil organisms such as earthworms. They help to create a soil structure with plenty of smaller and larger pores through which rainwater can easily infiltrate into the soil, thus reducing surface runoff. As the mulch material decomposes, it increases the content of organic matter in the soil. Soil organic matter helps to create a good soil with stable crumb structure. Thus, the soil particles will not be easily carried away by water. Therefore, mulching plays a crucial role in preventing soil erosion. 

QUESTION: 125

Who is known as father of agriculture? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

The first forest survey of India was conducted in which year? 

Solution:

​State of Forests Report is published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) on a biennial basis since 1987. State of Forests Report is published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) on a biennial basis since 1987. 

QUESTION: 127

Which of the following is correct about the photorespiration? 

Solution:

Photorespiration - A respiratory process in many higher plants by which they take up oxygen in the light and give out some carbon dioxide, contrary to the general pattern of photosynthesis. 

QUESTION: 128

The central sector scheme which will supplement agriculture, modernize processing of Agricultural products and decrease their wastage is known as? 

Solution:

​SAMPADA – Scheme for Agro-Marine processing and development of agro-processing clusters. It will help in providing better prices to farmers and doubling farmer’s income.

QUESTION: 129

Where is the National Fisheries Development Board headquarter situated? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

The growing of grass or legumes in rotation with grain or tilled crops as a soil conservation measure is termed as? 

Solution:

​In ley farming, the field is alternately used for grain or other cash crops for a number of years and “laid down to ley” i.e. left fallow, used for growing hay or used for pasture for another number of years. After that period it is again ploughed and used for cash/field crops.