NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 04


200 Questions MCQ Test NABARD Assistant Manager Grade A Mock Test Series | NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 04


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This mock test of NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 04 for Banking Exams helps you for every Banking Exams entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for Banking Exams NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 04 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 04 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Banking Exams students definitely take this NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 04 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NABARD Assistant Manager Grade 'A' 2019 Mock 04 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Banking Exams on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table. Four of them face inside and like different car brands i.e. Bentley, Audi, Porsche and Volvo. Remaining four persons face outside and like different bike brands i.e. Yamaha, KTM, Triumph and Kawasaki. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Two persons sit between P and the one who likes KTM. The one who likes Volvo is not immediate neighbor of P and the one who likes KTM. Three persons sit between R and S. Two persons sits between the one who likes Bentley and the one who likes Porsche. R is immediate neighbor of the person who likes KTM. Two persons sit between S and U. Three persons sits between V and U. The person who likes Kawasaki sits third to the right of V. The person who likes Porsche sits second to the left of R, who likes bike. U does not like bike. V does not like car. Two persons sits between the one who likes Kawasaki and W. The person who likes Volvo is immediate neighbor of one who likes Triumph. U does not sit opposite to the one who likes triumph. Q does not like KTM.

Q. Who among the following sits 3rd to the right of person who likes Yamaha? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table. Four of them face inside and like different car brands i.e. Bentley, Audi, Porsche and Volvo. Remaining four persons face outside and like different bike brands i.e. Yamaha, KTM, Triumph and Kawasaki. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Two persons sit between P and the one who likes KTM. The one who likes Volvo is not immediate neighbor of P and the one who likes KTM. Three persons sit between R and S. Two persons sits between the one who likes Bentley and the one who likes Porsche. R is immediate neighbor of the person who likes KTM. Two persons sit between S and U. Three persons sits between V and U. The person who likes Kawasaki sits third to the right of V. The person who likes Porsche sits second to the left of R, who likes bike. U does not like bike. V does not like car. Two persons sits between the one who likes Kawasaki and W. The person who likes Volvo is immediate neighbor of one who likes Triumph. U does not sit opposite to the one who likes triumph. Q does not like KTM.

Q. How many persons are sitting between the one who likes Audi and T. when counted from left of T? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table. Four of them face inside and like different car brands i.e. Bentley, Audi, Porsche and Volvo. Remaining four persons face outside and like different bike brands i.e. Yamaha, KTM, Triumph and Kawasaki. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Two persons sit between P and the one who likes KTM. The one who likes Volvo is not immediate neighbor of P and the one who likes KTM. Three persons sit between R and S. Two persons sits between the one who likes Bentley and the one who likes Porsche. R is immediate neighbor of the person who likes KTM. Two persons sit between S and U. Three persons sits between V and U. The person who likes Kawasaki sits third to the right of V. The person who likes Porsche sits second to the left of R, who likes bike. U does not like bike. V does not like car. Two persons sits between the one who likes Kawasaki and W. The person who likes Volvo is immediate neighbor of one who likes Triumph. U does not sit opposite to the one who likes triumph. Q does not like KTM.

Q. How many persons are sitting between S and T when counted from left of S? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table. Four of them face inside and like different car brands i.e. Bentley, Audi, Porsche and Volvo. Remaining four persons face outside and like different bike brands i.e. Yamaha, KTM, Triumph and Kawasaki. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Two persons sit between P and the one who likes KTM. The one who likes Volvo is not immediate neighbor of P and the one who likes KTM. Three persons sit between R and S. Two persons sits between the one who likes Bentley and the one who likes Porsche. R is immediate neighbor of the person who likes KTM. Two persons sit between S and U. Three persons sits between V and U. The person who likes Kawasaki sits third to the right of V. The person who likes Porsche sits second to the left of R, who likes bike. U does not like bike. V does not like car. Two persons sits between the one who likes Kawasaki and W. The person who likes Volvo is immediate neighbor of one who likes Triumph. U does not sit opposite to the one who likes triumph. Q does not like KTM.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding V? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table. Four of them face inside and like different car brands i.e. Bentley, Audi, Porsche and Volvo. Remaining four persons face outside and like different bike brands i.e. Yamaha, KTM, Triumph and Kawasaki. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Two persons sit between P and the one who likes KTM. The one who likes Volvo is not immediate neighbor of P and the one who likes KTM. Three persons sit between R and S. Two persons sits between the one who likes Bentley and the one who likes Porsche. R is immediate neighbor of the person who likes KTM. Two persons sit between S and U. Three persons sits between V and U. The person who likes Kawasaki sits third to the right of V. The person who likes Porsche sits second to the left of R, who likes bike. U does not like bike. V does not like car. Two persons sits between the one who likes Kawasaki and W. The person who likes Volvo is immediate neighbor of one who likes Triumph. U does not sit opposite to the one who likes triumph. Q does not like KTM.

Q. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a group, find the one which does not belong to that group? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In certain code language, 
‘Development Trend People’ is coded as ‘tr le me’ 
‘Follow Sequence Order’ is coded as ‘ow qu rl’ 
‘Trend development Sequence’ is coded as ‘me tr qu’ 
‘Order Common Square’ is coded as ‘rl co re’

Q. What is the code for ‘Common’ in the given code language? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In certain code language,
‘Development Trend People’ is coded as ‘tr le me’
‘Follow Sequence Order’ is coded as ‘ow qu rl’
‘Trend development Sequence’ is coded as ‘me tr qu’
‘Order Common Square’ is coded as ‘rl co re’

Q. What is the code for ‘Development’ in the given code language? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In certain code language,
‘Development Trend People’ is coded as ‘tr le me’
‘Follow Sequence Order’ is coded as ‘ow qu rl’
‘Trend development Sequence’ is coded as ‘me tr qu’
‘Order Common Square’ is coded as ‘rl co re’

Q. What may be the code for ‘People Follow Trend’ in the given code language? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All Red are Bull. All Wings are Fly. No Red is Wings. 
Conclusion
I: Some fly are not Bull
II: Some Bull can be fly 

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All Logical are critical. Some logical are Puzzle. 
Conclusion
I: All Puzzle are Critical
​II: Some Puzzle are not Critical 

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different floors of eight floored building. Each of them teaches different subjects i.e. Hindi, English, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Accounts, Economics and Biology. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Three persons live between D and G. D lives at odd numbered floor. G does not live on 5th floor. One person lives between the one who teaches Biology and D. B does not live at odd numbered floor. Three persons live between the one who teaches Physics and the one who teaches English. The person who teaches physics lives at odd numbered floor. D does not teach Physics. A lives on second floor. One person lives between one who teaches accounts and the one who teaches Economics. The one who teaches Biology does not live above the one who teaches Chemistry. Two persons live between C and the one, who teaches Chemistry, who lives immediate above floor of the one who teaches English. Four persons live between the one who teaches accounts and the person who teaches Hindi. H lives above B and below E. A does not teaches Accounts.

Q. Who among the following person teaches Economics? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different floors of eight floored building. Each of them teaches different subjects i.e. Hindi, English, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Accounts, Economics and Biology. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Three persons live between D and G. D lives at odd numbered floor. G does not live on 5th floor. One person lives between the one who teaches Biology and D. B does not live at odd numbered floor. Three persons live between the one who teaches Physics and the one who teaches English. The person who teaches physics lives at odd numbered floor. D does not teach Physics. A lives on second floor. One person lives between one who teaches accounts and the one who teaches Economics. The one who teaches Biology does not live above the one who teaches Chemistry. Two persons live between C and the one, who teaches Chemistry, who lives immediate above floor of the one who teaches English. Four persons live between the one who teaches accounts and the person who teaches Hindi. H lives above B and below E. A does not teaches Accounts.

Q. How many persons lives between the person who teaches accounts and G? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different floors of eight floored building. Each of them teaches different subjects i.e. Hindi, English, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Accounts, Economics and Biology. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Three persons live between D and G. D lives at odd numbered floor. G does not live on 5th floor. One person lives between the one who teaches Biology and D. B does not live at odd numbered floor. Three persons live between the one who teaches Physics and the one who teaches English. The person who teaches physics lives at odd numbered floor. D does not teach Physics. A lives on second floor. One person lives between one who teaches accounts and the one who teaches Economics. The one who teaches Biology does not live above the one who teaches Chemistry. Two persons live between C and the one, who teaches Chemistry, who lives immediate above floor of the one who teaches English. Four persons live between the one who teaches accounts and the person who teaches Hindi. H lives above B and below E. A does not teaches Accounts.

Q. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a group, find the one that does not belong to that group? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different floors of eight floored building. Each of them teaches different subjects i.e. Hindi, English, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Accounts, Economics and Biology. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Three persons live between D and G. D lives at odd numbered floor. G does not live on 5th floor. One person lives between the one who teaches Biology and D. B does not live at odd numbered floor. Three persons live between the one who teaches Physics and the one who teaches English. The person who teaches physics lives at odd numbered floor. D does not teach Physics. A lives on second floor. One person lives between one who teaches accounts and the one who teaches Economics. The one who teaches Biology does not live above the one who teaches Chemistry. Two persons live between C and the one, who teaches Chemistry, who lives immediate above floor of the one who teaches English. Four persons live between the one who teaches accounts and the person who teaches Hindi. H lives above B and below E. A does not teaches Accounts.

Q. Which of the following subject C likes? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different floors of eight floored building. Each of them teaches different subjects i.e. Hindi, English, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Accounts, Economics and Biology. All information is not necessarily in the same order. 
Three persons live between D and G. D lives at odd numbered floor. G does not live on 5th floor. One person lives between the one who teaches Biology and D. B does not live at odd numbered floor. Three persons live between the one who teaches Physics and the one who teaches English. The person who teaches physics lives at odd numbered floor. D does not teach Physics. A lives on second floor. One person lives between one who teaches accounts and the one who teaches Economics. The one who teaches Biology does not live above the one who teaches Chemistry. Two persons live between C and the one, who teaches Chemistry, who lives immediate above floor of the one who teaches English. Four persons live between the one who teaches accounts and the person who teaches Hindi. H lives above B and below E. A does not teaches Accounts.

Q. Which of the following combination is true? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

Statement-Terming the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a “revolutionary step”, Minister Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi said that the historic step has been taken in the interest of common people and small traders and is believed to be a game changer for Indian economy. GST is a Great Step towards Transparency by removing multiple taxes and procedures into One Tax regime. 

Q. Which of the following negates the given statement? 
(I) GST is a “good and simple tax” which will eliminate the compounding effects of multi-layered tax system. There will be absolutely no problem to common people and small traders or big industrialists. 
(II) One of the major benefits of GST is that it will ensure transparency in the entire taxation system. It is an historic step, a historic achievement for India. In the new system, there will be “one country, one tax”. 
(III) GST is a mystifying term where double tax is charged in the name of a single tax. 

Solution:

In the above question we have to find which statement does not support the given statement. 
For I-This statement supports the given statement because it states that GST is a good and simple tax which eliminates multi layered tax system and will be helpful to common people which is also mentioned in the given statement that GST will remove multiple taxes and taken in the interest of common people. 
For II-This statement also supports the given statement as it describes thatof GST will ensure transparency in the entire taxation system and there will be “one country, one tax” which is also given that GST is a Great Step towards Transparency by removing multiple taxes and procedures into One Tax regime. 
For III-This statement negates or does not support the given statement because it states that GST is mysterious and charge double tax in name of single tax whereas given statement states that GST will be a game changer for Indian economy and will remove multiple taxes.

QUESTION: 17

Statement-A five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court will hear a bunch of petitions urgently, challenging the constitutionality of the Aadhaar project, primarily whether the parting of biometric details by citizens to access welfare and benefits under the scheme is a violation of the right to privacy.

Q. Which of the following can be hypothesized from the given statement? 
(I) Constitution Bench will decide whether a person can voluntarily shed his right to privacy by enrolling for Aadhaar to access government welfare services. 
(II) This is the first time that the Centre has formally joined the petitioners' side and agreed to hear a set of petitions. 
(III) The Aadhaar scheme touched the lives of millions of people and its validity required immediate adjudication by an appropriate larger Bench. 

Solution:

In this question we have to find which statement can be assumed from the given statement. 
For I-This can be hypothesized from the given statement because it states that constitution bench will decide whether a person should provide its details by shedding its right to privacy for Adhaar scheme or not which is also mentioned in the given statement that Constitution Bench will hear petitions challenging the constitutionality of the Aadhaar project, for parting of biometric details by citizens to access the scheme. 
For II-This cannot be hypothesized as it is not mentioned in the given statement whether it is first time Center agreed to hear a set of petition or not. 
For III- This can also be hypothesized from the given statement as it states that Aadhar scheme matters to a lot of people and it require immediate action which is also mentioned in the given statement that a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court will set up for urgent hearing of petitions

QUESTION: 18

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:

Six Boxes P, Q, R, S, T and U are kept one above the other than Which box is placed just above box S?
I. Box U placed above box T and below box P but not immediate above or below.
II. Box R placed immediate below box T. one box is placed between S and Q. 

Solution:

Combine statement I and II.
 

QUESTION: 19

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:

Among P, Q, R, S and T each one of them has different age, who is the youngest person?
I. Q is elder than only two persons. P is elder than S.
II. R is younger than T. S is elder than T. 

Solution:

​Combine Statement I and II P>S>Q>T>R  

QUESTION: 20

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:

Who among L, O, S and T reached school second? 
I. O reached after L and before T. S reached before only one person. 
II. Two person reached after O. 

Solution:

From statement I
T>L>S>O From statement II
_>O>_>_ 

QUESTION: 21

In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option :

A boat can cover 28.8 km distance in downstream in 48 min. and ratio between speed of stream and speed of boat in still water is 2 : 7. 
Quantity I –'x' : ‘x’ is the time taken by car to cover a distance of 520 km. Speed of car is 300% more than speed of the boat in upstream. 
Quantity II –'y': ‘y’ is the time taken by boat to cover distance of 210 km in Still water. 

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option :

Quantity I – ‘x’ ; In ‘x’ ways a word of 5 different letter can be formed via using only 2 vowel at a time. 
Quantity II – 2.5 × 619200 

Solution:

Quantity I-
No. of way to choose two vowels =5C2
Three Consonant = 21C3
Total ways → 5! 21C3 5C2 = 1596000
Quantity II-
2.5 X 619200 = 1548000
So, Quantity I > Quantity II 

QUESTION: 23

In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option :

Quantity I - ‘x’ : ‘x’ is total number of outlet pipes. Tank is attached by 8 taps. some of which are outlet and some are inlet. Efficiency of all outlet pipe and inlet pipes are same. Time taken by an outlet pipe to empty the tank is double of the time taken by all the pipes (8 pipes) to fill the tank. 
Quantity II – 3 

Solution:

Quantity I -
Let efficiency of all pipes → x unit/time
Let 'a' number of outlet pipes and 't' time taken by them.
Now,
+ (8 - a)xt - (a × x) × t = Total work ...(i)
And
One outlet pipe → 1 × x × 2t = total work ...(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii)
8xt - 2axt = 2xt
a = 3
Quantity II - 3
So, Quantity I = Quantity II 

QUESTION: 24

In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option :

Quantity I – ‘x’ : , x : y = 5 : 9 and z = x + 6 
Quantity II- Area of circle is 472 sq. cm more than area of square, and perimeter of square is 48 cm. Radius of circle. 

Solution:

Quantity I —
x + y + z = 63 ..(i)

z = x + 6 ..(iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii)

19x = 285
x = 15
Quantity II —
Given 4a = 48 cm
a = 12 cm
Area of square = (12)2 = 144 sq. cm
Area of circle = (472 + 144) sq. cm
= 616 sq. cm
πr2 = 616 sq. cm
r2 = 196 sq. cm
r = 14 cm
Quantity I > Quantity II 

QUESTION: 25

Given below bar graph shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of total crop (Rice + wheat) and also shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of rice in the five successive years. Read the data carefully and answer the question.


Note - Out of total production of crop in the year 2010, 60% crop is wheat.

Q. If Difference between total rice & wheat production in the year 2011 is 270 kg, then find the Total crop production in the year 2014? 

Solution:

Let total production of crop in the year 2010 = 100x 
So, total wheat production in the year 2010 = 60x 
Total production of rice in the year 2010 = 40x
Total production of crop in the year 2011

Total production of rice in the year 2011
= 40x X 1.05 = 42x
Total wheat production in the year 2011
= 120x - 42x = 78x 
ATQ - 
78x - 42x = 270 
36x = 270 
x = 7.5 
Total production of crop in the year 2014 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 × 1.5 = 247.5x 
Total production of crop in the year 2014 = 247.5 × 7.5 = 1856.25 kg 

QUESTION: 26

Given below bar graph shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of total crop (Rice + wheat) and also shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of rice in the five successive years. Read the data carefully and answer the question.


Note - Out of total production of crop in the year 2010, 60% crop is wheat.

Q. Total wheat production in the year 2013 is approximate what percent of total crop production in the year 2015? 

Solution:

Let total production of crop in the year 2010 = 100x 
So, total wheat production in the year 2010 = 60x 
Total production of rice in the year 2010 = 40x 
Total production of crop in the year 2015 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 × 1.5 × 1.6 = 396x 
Total crop production In the year 2013 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 = 165x 
Total wheat production in the year 2013 = 165x – 40x × 1.05 × 1.2 × 1.25 = 102x 

QUESTION: 27

Given below bar graph shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of total crop (Rice + wheat) and also shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of rice in the five successive years. Read the data carefully and answer the question.


Note - Out of total production of crop in the year 2010, 60% crop is wheat.

Q. Total wheat production in the year 2012 is 4980 kg, then find total wheat production in the year 2014? 

Solution:

Let total production of crop in the year 2010 = 100x 
So, total wheat production in the year 2010 = 60x 
Total production of rice in the year 2010 = 40x 
Total crop production in the year 2012 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 = 150x 
Total wheat production in the year 2012 = 150x - 40x × 1.05 × 1.2 = 99.6x 
ATQ - 
150x – 50.4x = 99.6x 
99.6x = 4980 
x = 4980/99.6 = 50 kg 
Total crop production in the year 2014 =100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 × 1.5 = 247.5x 
Total wheat production in the year 2014 = 247.5x - 40x × 1.05 × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.4 = 159.3x
Total wheat production in the year 2014 = 159.3 × 50 = 7965 kg 

QUESTION: 28

Given below bar graph shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of total crop (Rice + wheat) and also shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of rice in the five successive years. Read the data carefully and answer the question.


Note - Out of total production of crop in the year 2010, 60% crop is wheat.

Q. Find the ratio between total wheat productions in the year 2013 to total crop production in the year 2014? 

Solution:

Let total production of crop in the year 2010 = 100x 
So, total wheat production in the year 2010 = 60x 
Total production of rice in the year 2010 = 40x 
Total crop production in the year 2013 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 = 165x 
Total wheat production in the year 2013 = 165x – 40x × 1.05 × 1.2 × 1.25 = 102x 
Total production of crop in the year 2014 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 × 1.5 = 247.5x 
Required ratio = 102x/247.5x = 68 :165 

QUESTION: 29

Given below bar graph shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of total crop (Rice + wheat) and also shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of rice in the five successive years. Read the data carefully and answer the question.


Note - Out of total production of crop in the year 2010, 60% crop is wheat.

Q. If total wheat production in the year 2015 is 1450.8 kg, then find the rice production in the year 2013? 

Solution:

Let total production of crop in the year 2010 = 100x 
So, total wheat production in the year 2010 = 60x 
Total production of rice in the year 2010 = 40x 
Total production of crop in the year 2015 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 × 1.5 × 1.6 = 396x 
Total wheat production in the year 2015 = 396x - 40x × 1.05 × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.4 × 1.2 = 290.16x 
290.16x = 1450.8 
x = 5 kg 
Total rice production in the year 2013 = 40x × 1.05 × 1.2 × 1.25 = 63x 
Total rice production in the year 2013 = 63 × 5 = 315 kg

QUESTION: 30

Given below bar graph shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of total crop (Rice + wheat) and also shows percentage increment (in kg) in production of rice in the five successive years. Read the data carefully and answer the question.


Note - Out of total production of crop in the year 2010, 60% crop is wheat.

Q. Total wheat production in the year 2013 is approximate what percent less than of total crop production in the year 2014? 

Solution:

Let total production of crop in the year 2010 = 100x 
So, total wheat production in the year 2010 = 60x 
Total production of rice in the year 2010 = 40x 
Total wheat production in the year 2013 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 - 40x × 1.05 × 1.2 × 1.25 = 102x 
Total crop production in the year 2014 = 100x × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.1 × 1.5 = 247.5x 

QUESTION: 31

P, Q & R started to complete a work. Efficiency of Q is 2 times of P & efficiency of R is 2 times more than P. If P alone can complete the same work in 96 days then, find in how many days P, Q & R together can complete the work? 

Solution:

Effficiency ratio

Time taken by P alone to complete work = 96 days
∴ Time taken by Q alone to complete work = 96/2 = 48 days
Time taken by R alone to complete work = 96/3 = 32 days
So,
Time taken by P, Q & R together to complete work

x = 16 days

QUESTION: 32

Aman lent Rs 80,000 to Vikram at the rate of 12.5% per annum on CI & at the end of the year Vikram paid Rs 30,000 to aman. Find how much money Vikram have to pay to Aman to clear his debt at the end of 2nd year, if CI for the 2nd year is 18.5%. 

Solution:

Amount after 1st year
Amount paid by vikram at the end of the year = 30,000
Remaining money = 90,000 - 30,000 = 60,000
Amount after 2nd year
∴ Required amount = Rs 71,100 

QUESTION: 33

Kunal & Hemant invested Rs 28000 & Rs 40,000 in a business respectively. After 4 months, Hemant invested Rs 10,000 more while Kunal withdraws 20% of the money he invested in starting. Find the share of Hemant in total profit if total profit in the business in Rs 26600 at the end of the year. 

Solution:

Money invested by kunal = 28000 x 4 + 28000 (4/5) × 8 = 291200
Money invested by Hemant = 40,000 x 4 + 50,000 x 8
= 160,000 + 4, 00, 000 = 5,60,000
Ratio of share of profit  

Let total profit = 266x
∴ 266x = 26600
x = 100
so, share of kunal in total profit = 91 X 100 = Rs 9100
& share of Hemant in total profit = 175 x 100 = Rs 17500 

QUESTION: 34

A boat covers a distance of 56 km in 40 minutes in downstream. Speed of boat in still water is 48 km/hr. Then in how much time boat can cover the same distance in upstream. 

Solution:

Speed of boat in still water = 48 km/hr
Speed of boat in downstream  km/hr
Let speed of stream be 'x' km/hr.
So, x + 48 = 84
x =36 km/hr
So, speed of boat in upstream = 48 - 36 = 12 km/hr
So, the time taken by boat in upstream  min

QUESTION: 35

A shopkeeper bought 40 kg wheat at the rate of Rs 12.5 per kg & 80 kg rice at the rate of Rs 20 per kg. If he sells the mixture of wheat & rice at the rate of Rs 19 per kg then, find the percentage profit/loss.

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

Find the wrong number in given number series:​

210, 70, 280, 56, 336, 49 

Solution:


Wrong no. = 49
Right no. 336 ÷ 7= 48

QUESTION: 37

Find the wrong number in given number series:

13, 20, 37, 69, 133, 261 

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

Find the wrong number in given number series:

11, 13, 30, 99, 412, 2085 

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

Find the wrong number in given number series:

20, 10, 20/3, 5, 4, 11/3 

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

Find the wrong number in given number series:

16, 22, 34, 54, 85, 126 

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q. Despite of the best efforts (A)/ made by the government (B)/ the condition of the country is (C)/ going from bad to worse. (D)/ No error. (E) 

Solution:

After ‘despite’, ‘of’ will not be used because ‘Despite = In spite of’.
Ex. Despite his good performance, he was not selected.
In spite of his good performance, he was not selected. 

QUESTION: 42

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q. The captain distributed (A)/ the sweets among our (B)/ friends who (C)/ had invited him (D)/ No error. (E) 

Solution:

Use ‘amongst’ in place of ‘among’ as ‘amongst’ is used before a vowel sound and ‘among’ is used before a consonant sound. 

QUESTION: 43

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q. Numerous people in India (A)/ are dying from hunger (B)/ but the government seems (C)/ to be ignorant of this fact. (D)/ No error. (E) 

Solution:

​In place of ‘from’, ‘of’ will be used because ‘die of a disease’, ‘die of hunger’ is used.
Ex. The old woman died of hunger.

QUESTION: 44

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q. The sum and substance (A)/ of the speech of the leader was (B)/ that the country’s (C)/ future was bleak. (D)/ No error. (E) 

Solution:

The sentence is grammatically correct. 

QUESTION: 45

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q. I thought that he (A)/ would come and give (B)/ me the latest information (C)/ about the patient. (D)/ No error. (E) 

Solution:

​The sentence is grammatically correct. 

QUESTION: 46

Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) In many ways, it was. 
(B) This could have made defending the region difficult for us. 
(C) Loss of these heights would have given the enemy, power to dominate the axis leading to Ladakh, as also the complete area. 
(D) Pakistan was certain that India would approach the world community but not launch an attack. 
(E) The main contention by many strategists has been that by reclaiming the heights that was occupied by Pakistan, can we call it a victory? 
(F) It was a loss of face for the government and the Army.

Q. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement? 

Solution:

The sequence after rearranging the sentences is EACBFD 

QUESTION: 47

Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) In many ways, it was. 
(B) This could have made defending the region difficult for us. 
(C) Loss of these heights would have given the enemy, power to dominate the axis leading to Ladakh, as also the complete area. 
(D) Pakistan was certain that India would approach the world community but not launch an attack. 
(E) The main contention by many strategists has been that by reclaiming the heights that was occupied by Pakistan, can we call it a victory? 
(F) It was a loss of face for the government and the Army.

Q. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement? 

Solution:

​The sequence after rearranging the sentences is EACBFD 

QUESTION: 48

Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) In many ways, it was. 
(B) This could have made defending the region difficult for us. 
(C) Loss of these heights would have given the enemy, power to dominate the axis leading to Ladakh, as also the complete area. 
(D) Pakistan was certain that India would approach the world community but not launch an attack. 
(E) The main contention by many strategists has been that by reclaiming the heights that was occupied by Pakistan, can we call it a victory? 
(F) It was a loss of face for the government and the Army.

Q. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement? 

Solution:

The sequence after rearranging the sentences is EACBFD 

QUESTION: 49

Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) In many ways, it was. 
(B) This could have made defending the region difficult for us. 
(C) Loss of these heights would have given the enemy, power to dominate the axis leading to Ladakh, as also the complete area. 
(D) Pakistan was certain that India would approach the world community but not launch an attack. 
(E) The main contention by many strategists has been that by reclaiming the heights that was occupied by Pakistan, can we call it a victory? 
(F) It was a loss of face for the government and the Army.

Q. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence after rearrangement? 

Solution:

The sequence after rearranging the sentences is EACBFD 

QUESTION: 50

Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) In many ways, it was. 
(B) This could have made defending the region difficult for us. 
(C) Loss of these heights would have given the enemy, power to dominate the axis leading to Ladakh, as also the complete area. 
(D) Pakistan was certain that India would approach the world community but not launch an attack. 
(E) The main contention by many strategists has been that by reclaiming the heights that was occupied by Pakistan, can we call it a victory? 
(F) It was a loss of face for the government and the Army.

Q. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement? 

Solution:

The sequence after rearranging the sentences is EACBFD  

QUESTION: 51

In each of the questions given below, two parts of the sentence are given in underline which is then followed by four possible alternatives. You have to choose the option which fits the sentence most appropriately. If all the four alternatives are incorrect choose option (e) as your correct choice.

Q. Satyagraha is Gandhi’s greatness in gifting mankind. Etymologically, the term means passion for, or firmness in Truth satya in Sanskrit means Truth and agraha that define passion and firmness

Solution:

“greatest gift to mankind, denotes passion or firmness” is the correct set of phrases in context of the sentence structure and subsequent grammar usage. 

QUESTION: 52

In each of the questions given below, two parts of the sentence are given in underline which is then followed by four possible alternatives. You have to choose the option which fits the sentence most appropriately. If all the four alternatives are incorrect choose option (e) as your correct choice.

Q. The AIP module is not part of the original Scorpene contract but the Navy has been keen on having them fitted on the last two of the six Scorpene submarines being manufactured by Mazgaon Docks Limited (MDL) in Mumbai.

Solution:

​As the sentence is in passive form, “has been keen on having them fitted, being manufactured by” are the correct phrases in context of the sentence structure and grammatical usage. Hence it doesn’t require any correction. 

QUESTION: 53

In each of the questions given below, two parts of the sentence are given in underline which is then followed by four possible alternatives. You have to choose the option which fits the sentence most appropriately. If all the four alternatives are incorrect choose option (e) as your correct choice.

Q. The Trump administration’s renewed focus on hard approaches to counter terrorism could provide these elites with more excuses in continuation of living in their mental comfort zones. 

Solution:

“to countering terrorism, more excuses to continue living” is the correct set of phrases in context of the sentence structure and subsequent grammar usage. 

QUESTION: 54

In each of the questions given below, two parts of the sentence are given in underline which is then followed by four possible alternatives. You have to choose the option which fits the sentence most appropriately. If all the four alternatives are incorrect choose option (e) as your correct choice.

Q. In the parliamentary democratic system of governance in India, the responsibility for running the administration rest with the electing representatives of the people. 

Solution:

​“as in India, rests with the elected” is the correct set of phrases in context of the sentence structure and subsequent grammar usage.  

QUESTION: 55

In each of the questions given below, two parts of the sentence are given in underline which is then followed by four possible alternatives. You have to choose the option which fits the sentence most appropriately. If all the four alternatives are incorrect choose option (e) as your correct choice.

Q. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was an early initiative by China to knit together important regional countries in Asia in an organisation that had significant security overtones. 

Solution:

The given sentence is grammatically correct. 

QUESTION: 56

There are two different sentences with a blank space in each question. Choose the word from the given options which fits into both the blanks appropriately without altering their meanings.

(1) The only difficulty in this ______________ is to secure debtors that will not die. 
(2) She was in a state of rare contentment, an _____________ to the gaiety that was hers by nature. 

Solution:

Accretion means a thing formed or added by gradual growth or increase. 

QUESTION: 57

There are two different sentences with a blank space in each question. Choose the word from the given options which fits into both the blanks appropriately without altering their meanings.

(1) He issued what was in reality an _________________ proclamation, which President Lincoln was compelled to modify. 
(2) Friction increased between the races at the South after ___________________. 

Solution:

Emancipation means the fact or process of being set free from legal, social, or political restrictions; liberation. 

QUESTION: 58

There are two different sentences with a blank space in each question. Choose the word from the given options which fits into both the blanks appropriately without altering their meanings.

(1) It was feared that there could be a __________________ unsettling of established governments and a new political order could come into being, oriented away from the traditional leadership of the region. 
(2) On the other hand, __________________ emigration was not sufficient to remove the evil. 

Solution:

Wholesale means done on a large scale; extensive.  

QUESTION: 59

There are two different sentences with a blank space in each question. Choose the word from the given options which fits into both the blanks appropriately without altering their meanings.

(1) The French President Emmanuel Macron’s new centrist party is ______________ poised for a landslide victory in the parliamentary elections. 
(2) The opinion of parliament on two other questions during the session was, ______________, influenced by events in France. 

Solution:

All the given options fit into the blanks appropriately as all four words mean the same i.e. so as to give the impression of having a certain quality; apparently. 

QUESTION: 60

There are two different sentences with a blank space in each question. Choose the word from the given options which fits into both the blanks appropriately without altering their meanings.

(1) Parliament takes pride in asserting the supremacy of the institution, at times even ignoring what it perceives as judicial _______________ in its functioning. 
(2) It would have been enough to have cured the whole Roxburghe Club from _______________ with libraries and books forever and ever. 

Solution:

Meddling means interfering in something that is not one's concern.  

QUESTION: 61

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.61

Solution:

Combative means ready or eager to fight or argue. Fervid means intensely enthusiastic or passionate. 

QUESTION: 62

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.62

Solution:

Barbarousness means Characterized by savagery; very cruel. 

QUESTION: 63

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.63

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.64

Solution:

​Affluence means the state of having a great deal of money; wealth. 

QUESTION: 65

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.65

Solution:

Gloom means a state of depression. Poise means graceful and elegant bearing in a person. 

QUESTION: 66

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.66

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.67

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.68

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.69

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.

ACCENTURE, advertorial, jeggings. The competition for ugliest portmanteau is combative (61). Few constructions, though, can match “bleisure” for abuse (62). For the uninitiated, the word is a alloy (63) of business and prosperity (64). But ugly as it is, it exists for a reason: the practice of adding a few days of pleasure (65) to a work trip is becoming increasingly popular. 
The latest research to bear this out was recalled (66) this week by the Global Business Travel Association. Its review (67) of North American business travellers found that 37% had extended a work trip to include some leisure since ( 68) the past year. This, typically, might mean stetching a break in a city into the weekend, possibly shipping in the family to join the fun. Often, such travellers will stay in the same hotel for the duration, making up the extra cost themselves. 
Interestingly, the older the travellers the less likely they are to do this. While 48% of 18-34-year-olds in the GBTA survey said they had taken a leisure trip, only 33% of travellers aged 35-54 and 23% of over 55s did. The researchers could not be sure why the dispute (69) occur, but a few reasons suggest themselves. First, younger worker are probably more likely to still see business travel as exotic and exciting (70).

Q. Choose the correct option for blank no.70

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. How the economic approach can be efficacious according to the Monetary Policy Committee?
(i) By raising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem.
(ii) By cutting the Gross Value added growth forecast.
(iii) By improving banking sector’s condition. 

Solution:

Refer to the last few lines of second
paragraph of the passage “the MPC has said
monetary policy can be effective only when private
investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored”.
Hence only sentence (iii) is correct. 

QUESTION: 72

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. According to the passage, what is the RBI’s strategy for reinforcing economic growth? 

Solution:

Refer to the first few lines of first paragraph “ The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth”. 

QUESTION: 73

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. What is the author’s tone in the passage? 

Solution:

The tone of the author here is descriptive as the author presents the detail report of the news. 

QUESTION: 74

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. What is the major concern of RBI regarding farm loan waivers? 

Solution:

Refer to the last lines of first paragraph
“And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers”.
Hence sentence (b) is true. 

QUESTION: 75

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. Which of the following is an appropriate title in context of the passage? 

Solution:

The author describes about the RBI’s monetary policy decision of unchanging policy rates.
Hence sentence (d) is the correct choice. 

QUESTION: 76

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. Which of the following is false in context of the passage? 

Solution:

All of the given statements are true in context of the passage. 

QUESTION: 77

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in underline as used in passage.

Benign 

Solution:

Benign means benevolent or favourable. Hence it has same meaning as favourable. Previse means predict. 

QUESTION: 78

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in underline as used in passage.

Pertinent 

Solution:

Pertinent means relevant or applicable to a particular matter; apposite. Hence it has same meaning as appropriate.
Straggle means an untidy or irregularly arranged mass or group. 

QUESTION: 79

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in passage.

Undergird 

Solution:

Undergird means provide support or a firm basis for. Hence it has opposite meaning asundermine
Fractious means easily irritated or annoyed. 
Inure means cause to accept or become hardened to. 
Construe means make sense of. 
Enervate means weaken mentally or morally. 

QUESTION: 80

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spillovers from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”. 
The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.

Q. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in passage.

Bottlenecks 

Solution:

Bottlenecks means blockage/impediment. Hence it has opposite meaning as aid
Adamant means refusing to be persuaded or to change one's mind. 
Admonish means scold. 
Hapless means unfortunate and deserving pity.

QUESTION: 81

The feature in database language that allows us to access certain records in database is called __________. 

Solution:

​Query allows us to access certain records in database. 

QUESTION: 82

In MS Word 2010 the feature for Word Count is available in Proofing under which of the following tab? 

Solution:

​Word Count is available in Proofing under Review tab. 

QUESTION: 83

Personnel who design, program, operate and maintain computer equipment refers to 

Solution:

​Peopleware refers to the role of people in the computing process. While hardware and software make up a computer system, both are designed to be used by humans. Therefore, peopleware is sometimes considered the third component of computing. 

QUESTION: 84

Copying a process from memory to disk to allow space for other processes is called __________. 

Solution:

​Swapping concept comes in terms of process scheduling. Scheduler removes process from CPU for duration and reduces the degree of multiprogramming. And after some time these process can again be reintroduced into main memory. 

QUESTION: 85

Software you can use to create a budget is called: 

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

In MS Excel, if we want to select an entire column, which of the following is used? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

LINUX is an example of which among the following? 

Solution:

​Linux is an open source operating system. Linux OS is a freely distributable, cross-platform operating system based on Unix that can be installed on PCs, laptops, netbooks, mobile and tablet devices, video game consoles, servers, supercomputers and more. 

QUESTION: 88

To minimize all open windows and display the desktop? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

Which of the following communication modes provides bidirectional data transmission? 

Solution:

Simplex is unidirectional while half duplex and full duplex communication modes are bidirectional. Difference between half duplex and full duplex is that the transmission of data is done one at a time in half duplex while simultaneous data transmission takes place in full duplex communication. 

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following heading elements displays text with the same size as the normal text written in an HTML document? 

Solution:

​The text written within the H4 element has the same size as the normal plain text, whereas the text written within the H1, H2 and H3 elements are larger than the normal text. Text written within the H5 and H6 elements has smaller size than the normal text. 

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following is an option available when shutting down your computer? 

Solution:

​All among the given options are available while shutting down computer. 

QUESTION: 92

In Windows, Icons such as Add / Remove program Add New Hardware, Modems etc, are found in— 

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

What does the computer Motherboard contains that houses setting configurations and is powered by the on board battery? 

Solution:

​The CMOS is a physical part of the motherboard: it is a memory chip that houses setting configurations and is powered by the onboard battery. The CMOS is reset and loses all custom settings in case the battery runs out of energy, additionally, the system clock resets when the CMOS loses power. 

QUESTION: 94

Which among the following is a self-contained step-by-step set of operations to be performed? 

Solution:

​Algorithm is a self-contained step-by-step set of operations. 

QUESTION: 95

What is Remote Desktop Connection? 

Solution:

Remote Desktop Services (RDS), known as Terminal Services in Windows Server 2008 and earlier, is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allows a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection. 

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following option in MS Word 2010 may be used to change page-size and margins? 

Solution:

​In MS Word, Margins, Size and Orientation is available in Page Setup under Page Layout Tab. 

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following devices is mainly used to draw objects in CAD? 

Solution:

​Joystick is used to draw objects in Computer-Aided Design (CAD). 

QUESTION: 98

CCFL is used in LCD monitors for display. It stands for : 

Solution:

​CCFLs stands for Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamps. 

QUESTION: 99

The ………………. manual tells you how to use a software program. 

Solution:

​User manual provides you detailed installation and un-installation instructions, system requirements, step-by-step operation, etc. 

QUESTION: 100

If a new device is attached to a computer, such as a printer or scanner, its……………. must be installed before the device can be used. 

Solution:

​A device driver or hardware driver is a group of files that enable one or more hardware devices to communicate with the computer's operating system. Without drivers, the computer would not be able to send and receive data correctly to hardware devices, such as a printer. 

QUESTION: 101

The government has announced ____________________ rupee award for states that would complete the household electrification early under the Saubhagaya scheme. 

Solution:

​The government has announced 100 crore rupee award for states that would complete the household electrification early under the Saubhagaya scheme. Apart from discoms, employees would also collectively get 50 lakh rupees award for completing the task of electrifying households under the scheme.

QUESTION: 102

Which of the following small finance bank (SFB) has got RBI approval to operate as a scheduled bank? 

Solution:

ESAF small finance bank which received the first banking license in Kerala since independence has got RBI approval to operate as scheduled bank. 

QUESTION: 103

Online financial services marketplace BankBazaar has appointed former RBI Deputy Governor ________ as an advisor to the company. 

Solution:

​Online financial services marketplace BankBazaar has appointed former RBI Deputy Governor (DG) SS Mundra as an advisor to the company. Mundra was a deputy governor at the RBI for three years till July 2017. 

QUESTION: 104

Wicketkeeper-batter Alyssa Healy has been named as ICC Women’s T20I Player of the Year. She belongs to which of the following country? 

Solution:

​Alyssa Healy has been named the International Cricket Council's T20 international Player of the Year, the Australian wicketkeeper/batter also featuring in the best team of the year for Twenty20 and one-dayers. 

QUESTION: 105

Which of the following regulatory body has released operational guidelines to facilitate payments among prepaid instruments (PPI) such as mobile wallets? 

Solution:

​In a move aimed at promoting digital transactions, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released operational guidelines to facilitate payments among prepaid instruments (PPI) such as mobile wallets. 

QUESTION: 106

Who among the following has been appointed as the Acting Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India? 

Solution:

​The government appointed Life Insurance Corporation's (LIC) senior-most Managing Director Hemant Bhargava as the insurer's interim chairman, in place of V K Sharma who retired 

QUESTION: 107

The Minister of State for Commerce & Industry C. R. Chaudhary attended the 6th RCEP Inter-Sessional Ministerial Meeting (IMM) in Singapore. What does E stands for in RCEP? 

Solution:

​RCEP stands for Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership. RCEP negotiations were formally launched in November 2012 at the ASEAN Summit in Cambodia. 

QUESTION: 108

As per the latest data available with Association of Mutual funds in India (Amfi), which of the following organisation has become India’s largest asset management company after a gap of over two years? 

Solution:

HDFC Mutual Fund has pipped ICICI Prudential MF to become the country’s largest asset management company after a gap of over two years. As of December-end, HDFC MF manages assets to the tune of Rs 3.35 lakh crore, while those of ICICI Prudential MF stood at Rs 3.08 lakh crore, as per the latest data available with Association of Mutual funds in India (Amfi). 

QUESTION: 109

Which country has launched the world’s first Sovereign Blue Bond, a financial instrument designed to support sustainable marine and fisheries projects? 

Solution:

​The Republic of Seychelles launched the world’s first Sovereign Blue Bond, a financial instrument designed to support sustainable marine and fisheries projects. The bond raised USD 15 million from international investors. The bond demonstrates the potential for countries to harness capital markets for financing the sustainable use of marine resources. 

QUESTION: 110

Who has become the first woman chief economist of International Monetary Fund? 

Solution:

​Prominent Indian-American economist Gita Gopinath has joined as the chief economist of the International Monetary Fund, becoming the first woman to occupy the top post at the global lender. 

QUESTION: 111

IRCTC will offer insurance of up to INR50 lakh for free for air passengers who book their tickets through its portal. IRCTC has tied up with ___________ for the offer. 

Solution:

Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC), the Railways’ subsidiary, will offer insurance of up to INR50 lakh for free for air passengers who book their tickets through its portal. IRCTC has tied up with Bharti-Axa for the offer. 

QUESTION: 112

Who among the following has been chosen for this year’s META Lifetime Achievement Award? 

Solution:

​Eminent Indian playwright Mahesh Elkunchwar has been chosen for this year's META Lifetime Achievement Award. 

QUESTION: 113

Which of the following bank and SBI Life Insurance has announced that they have signed a bancassurance pact to offer a comprehensive financial planning solution to its customers? 

Solution:

​Syndicate Bank and SBI Life Insurance has announced that they have signed a bancassurance pact to offer a comprehensive financial planning solution to its customers. The agreement was signed in the presence of Syndicate Bank Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer Mrutyunjay Mahapatra and MD and CEO of SBI Life. 

QUESTION: 114

The Expert Committee has submitted its report on “Determining the Methodology for Fixation of the National Minimum Wage” to the Government. This Committee was led by___________. 

Solution:

The Expert Committee led by Anoop Satpathy, Fellow of V. V. Giri National Labour Institute (VVGNLI), submitted its report on “Determining the Methodology for Fixation of the National Minimum Wage” to the Government.

QUESTION: 115

Which of the following e-commerce company has partnered with the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to offer online insurance premium payments on its platform?

Solution:

​Paytm (One 97 Communications Limtied) and arch rival Mobikwik, have simultaneously announced entry into online insurance payments and purchase of digital insurance on their platforms, respectively. Paytm has partnered with the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to offer online insurance premium payments on its platform. Softbank-backed Paytm will provide premium payment solutions from over 30 insurance companies including LIC, ICICI Prudential Life, Reliance Life and Max Life Insurance among others. 

QUESTION: 116

The inaugural Africa-India Field Training Exercise-2019 for India and African nations called AFINDEX-19 held at___________. 

Solution:

​As part of the inaugural Africa-India Field Training Exercise , AFINDEX-19 which commenced at Pune, a number of activities in planning and conduct of Humanitarian Mine Assistance has been undertaken by all 18 participating nations. The activities includes demonstrations and training on establishing & functioning of Mine Action Center, identification and survey of contaminated areas, mechanical and manual demining, disposal of improvised explosives devices and air causality disposal. 

QUESTION: 117

Digital wallet company Paytm has launched 'Paytm Money' app for mutual fund investments. The Paytm Money platform will be offering systematic investment plans (SIPs), starting at how much rupees per month? 

Solution:

​Digital wallet company Paytm launched 'Paytm Money' app for mutual fund investments. The Paytm Money platform will be offering systematic investment plans (SIPs), starting at Rs 100 per month. 

QUESTION: 118

Which company has launched ‘bank locker protector policy’, the first stand-alone bank locker cover offered by any insurance company with a plan to protect the contents of a bank locker such as jewelry, title documents, and other valuables? 

Solution:

​IFFCO Tokio General Insurance has launched ‘bank locker protector policy’, the first stand-alone bank locker cover offered by any insurance company with a plan to protect the contents of a bank locker such as jewelry, title documents, and other valuables. The policy offers a cover against various risks including fire, earthquake, burglary, holdup or any act of terrorism. It offers 7 options of sum insured ranging from Rs 3 lakh to Rs 40 lakh and above and the premium rate is affordable with a cover of Rs 3 lakh available at just Rs 300. 

QUESTION: 119

Which of the following organisation has approved a $25-30 billion commitment plan for India for the 2019-22 period? 

Solution:

The World Bank Group (WBG) has approved a $25-30 billion commitment plan for India for the 2019-22 period. The new Country Partnership Framework (CPF), endorsed by the WBG board of executive directors focuses on the development priorities of the country - resource efficient and inclusive growth, job creation and building its human capital. The WBG institution comprises of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), International Finance Corporation (IFC) and the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA).

QUESTION: 120

ASSOCHAM has conferred ‘Non-Life Insurer of the Year Award 2019' to- 

Solution:

​Bharti AXA General Insurance has been conferred with the 'Non-Life Insurer of The Year Award 2019 by the Assocham, one of the apex trade associations of India.
The Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (Assocham) honored Bharti AXA General Insurance with this recognition for its excellence and contribution to the non-life insurance sector during the recently-held Insurance Leaders Meet 2019 (Regulation, Disruption and Product Dynamics) and Excellence Awards in Kolkata. 

QUESTION: 121

Which one of the following pairs of the age is used as the minimum and maximum values of age to determine the life expectancy at the birth by UNDP, 

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

Food and Agriculture organisation (FAO) Council has approved India’s proposal to observe an International Year of Millets in- 

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

Which of the following state government has launched an ambitious project State of SMART in 10,000 villages with an objective to achieve sustainable farming within the next three years? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

‘Yuva Sahakar-Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation Scheme’ of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) was recently launched by which ministry?

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

NABARD was established on the recommendations of which Committee and it is established on which date? 

Solution:

​NABARD was established on the recommendations of B.Sivaraman Committee, (by Act 61, 1981 of Parliament) on 12 July 1982 to implement the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981. It replaced the Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of Reserve Bank of India, and Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). It is one of the premier agencies providing developmental credit in rural areas. NABARD is India's specialized bank for Agriculture and Rural Development in India. 

QUESTION: 126

What was the initial corpus of NABARD and the paid up capital as on 31 March 2015, stood at Rs.5000 crore, then what is the total holding stake of government of India in NABARD? 

Solution:

​The initial corpus of NABARD was Rs.100 crores. Consequent to the revision in the composition of share capital between Government of India and RBI, the paid up capital as on 31 March 2015, stood at Rs.5000 crore with Government of India holding Rs.4,980 crore (99.60%) and Reserve Bank of India Rs.20.00 crore (0.40%). RBI sold its stake in NABARD to the Government of India, which now holds 99% stake. 

QUESTION: 127

Who was the only governor, never to sign on currency?

Solution:

​The inaugural officeholder or the first Governor of RBI was the Britisher Sir Osborne Smith, while C. D. Deshmukh was the first Indian RBI governor. Sir Osborn Smith was the only governor, never to sign on currency. 

QUESTION: 128

NABARD was dedicated to the service of the nation by the late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi on- 

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

The mission of NABARD is Promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural prosperity through effective credit support, related services, institution development and other innovative initiatives. What is meaning of "R" IN NABARD? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

NABARD was set up with an initial capital of- 

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

Which organization holding the highest/maximum share in NABARD as on 31st March 2016? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

Which of the following is the basic characteristic of Oligopoly? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

Census in India is being held regularly after every 

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

Which Indian state has the largest number of cotton textile mills? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

Agriculture employs almost what percent of the Indian population? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

Which one of the following is a rabi crop? 

Solution: