UPPSC (UP) Exam  >  UPPSC (UP) Tests  >  UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025  >  UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - UPPSC (UP) MCQ

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - UPPSC (UP) MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern)

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) for UPPSC (UP) 2024 is part of UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPPSC (UP) exam syllabus.The UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) MCQs are made for UPPSC (UP) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) below.
Solutions of UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) questions in English are available as part of our UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 for UPPSC (UP) & UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) solutions in Hindi for UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPPSC (UP) Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPPSC (UP) preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 for UPPSC (UP) Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 1

Match the following:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 1
The correct answer is 1(B), 2(C), 3(D), 4(A).

Key-Points

  • Fundamental rights are the rights that are essential for human survival.

  • The Indian Constitution accommodates fundamental rights that are Justiciable subject to reasonable restrictions.

  • They are derived from the constitution of the USA- the Bill of Rights.

  • Part 3 of the Indian Constitution is also described as the Magna Carta of India as it contains a long and comprehensive list of fundamental rights.

There are six fundamental rights, namely

  • Right to Equality (Article 14-18)

  • Right to freedom (Article 19-22)

  • Right against exploitation (Article 23 and 24)

  • Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28)

  • Cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30)

  • Rights to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

Important Points

  • Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

  • Article 19: Right to Freedom of speech and expression, assemble peacefully without arms, form associations and unions, move freely, reside and settle throughout India, and to practice any profession.

  • Article 21: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.

  • Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 2

Consider the following pairs :

National Park Location

1. Buxa National Park - Jharkhand

2. Indravati National Park - Karnataka

3. Rajaji National Park - Uttarakhand

Which of the pairs mentioned above are incorrectly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 2
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key-Points

Buxa National Park -

  • Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR) lies in the Alipurduar sub-division of the Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

  • Its northern boundary runs along the international border with Bhutan.

  • The Sinchula hill range lies all along the northern side of BTR and the Eastern boundary touches that of the Assam State.

Indravati National Park -

  • Indravati National Park is a national park located in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh state of India. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

  • It derives its name from the nearby Indravati River.

  • It is home to one of the last populations of rare wild buffalo.

  • Indravati National Park is the finest and most famous wildlife park in Chhattisgarh.

  • It is one of the two project tiger sites in Chhattisgarh along with Udanti-sitanadi.

  • Rajaji National Park -

  • Rajaji National Park is situated in the state of Uttarakhand. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

  • In the year 1983, the Rajaji Wildlife Sanctuary of Uttaranchal was merged with Motichur and Chilla wildlife sanctuaries and made into Rajaji National Park.

  • The park has been named after Late Shri C. Rajgopalachari (also known as Rajaji), a famous freedom fighter and first governor-general of India.

Important Points

National Park -

  • It is an area set aside by a national government for the preservation of the natural environment.

  • A national park may be set aside for purposes of public recreation and enjoyment or because of its historical or scientific interest.

  • Most of the landscapes and their accompanying plants and animals in a national park are kept in their natural state.

  • The national parks in the United States and Canada tend to focus on the protection of both land and wildlife, those in the United Kingdom focus mainly on the land, and those in Africa primarily exist to conserve animals. ​

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 3

Where was the declaration of the Queen of Britain read on 1 November 1858 AD?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 3
The correct answer is Allahabad.

Key-Points

  • Allahabad was the declaration of the Queen of Britain read on 1 November 1858 AD.

  • A grand Durbar was held at Allahabad on 1 November 1858.

Additional Information

  • This proclamation announced the future policy of British rule in India.

  • The document was called “Magna Carta of the People of India”.

  • It was declared in eloquent words the principles of justice and religious toleration as the guiding policy of the queen’s rule.

  • Peace was proclaimed throughout India on 8 July 1859.

  • Under this declaration, the East India Company's armies ceased to exist and India's armies were included as an integral part of the British Army.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 4

The Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case case was against the leaders of which movement?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 4
The correct answer is Non-Cooperation Movement.

Key-Points

  • The Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case case was against the leaders of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

  • The Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case was also against the newbie communists who were abhorred by the British Government.

  • The case was a controversial court case initiated in British India in 1924.

  • In this case, newly emerged communists of India were execrated by the British Government. M N Roy, Muzaffar Ahamed, S A Dange, Shaukat Usmani, Nalini Gupta, Singaravelu Chettiar, Ghulam Hussain were caught by the Government and were trailed for conspiring against the Government.

  • The case attracted the interest of the people towards the Comintern plan to bring about a violent revolution in India.

Additional Information

  • The Non-cooperation movement was organized by Mohandas (Mahatma) Gandhi.

  • The movement aims to induce the British government of India to grant self-government, or swaraj, to India.

  • It was one of Gandhi’s first organized acts of large-scale civil disobedience (satyagraha).irst

  • Khilafat movement was a pan-Islamic force in India that arose in 1919 in an effort to salvage the Ottoman caliph as a symbol of unity among the Muslim community in India during the British raj.

  • The movement was initially bolstered by Gandhi’s noncooperation movement but fell apart after the abolition of the caliphate in 1924.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 5

Concerning the Udaygiri-Khandagiri caves, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They are examples of the rock-cut cave tradition.

2. These caves have inscriptions of Kharavela kings.

3. The caves were primarily meant for Buddhist monks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 5
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key-Points

  • The rock-cut cave tradition also existed in Odisha.

  • The earliest examples are the Udaygiri-Khandagiri caves in the vicinity of Bhubaneswar.

  • These caves are scattered and have inscriptions of Kharavela Jain kings.

  • Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

  • According to the inscriptions, the caves were meant for Jain monks.

  • Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Additional Information

  • There are numerous single-cell excavations.

  • Some have been carved in huge independent boulders and given the shape of animals.

  • The big caves include a cave with a pillared veranda with cells at the back.

  • The upper part of the cells is decorated with a series of chaitya arches and narratives that still continue in the folklores of the region.

  • The figures in this cave are voluminous, move freely in the picture space, and are an excellent example of qualitative carving.

  • Some caves in this complex were excavated later, some time in the eighth–ninth centuries CE.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 6

Where was sustainable development explained for the first time?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 6
The correct answer is Brundtland Commission Report.
  • Sustainable development was developed for the first time in the Brundtland Commission Report in 1987.

  • The Brundtland Report was published by the United Nations World Commission on Environment and Development in 1987.

  • According to the report, "Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs."

Additional Information

  • The first Earth Summit took place in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992.

  • The Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, Agenda 21, Convention on Biological Diversity, Forest Principles, and the Framework Convention on Climate Change came out of the 1992 Earth Summit.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 7

Consider the following events associated with reference to the Round Table Conferences held in the early 1930s:

A) Gandhi-Irwin pact

B) First Round Table Conference

C) Poona Pact

D) Communal Award

Which of the following is the correct sequence in chronological order of the given events.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 7
The correct answer is B-A-D-C.

Important Points

First Round Table Conference-

  • The First Round Table Conference was held from 12 November 1930 to 19 January 1931.

  • The Congress boycotted the conference as its demand for a discussion on Poorna Swaraj of India was rejected by the British Government.

  • The representatives of the Princely states, minority communities, and depressed classes attended the conference.

  • But without the congress, the conference failed to reach any settlement on Indian problems.

Gandhi Irwin Pact-

  • After the failure of the First Round Table Conference efforts were made by the Government to make an agreement with the congress so that it would attend the next Round Table Conference.

  • The Viceroy, Lord Irwin, was authorised to hold talks with Mahatma Gandhi.

  • Finally, Gandhi and Irwin reached an agreement on 5 March 1931.

  • The agreement is called the Gandhi-Irwin pact. By this pact, the Government agreed to release most of the civil disobedience volunteers, against whom there was no allegation of violence.

  • The Congress suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement and agreed to participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

Communal Award-

  • In August 1932, the Government announced the communal Award which provided separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, and depressed classes.

  • Gandhi strongly opposed the order by undertaking a fast unto death in the Yerawada Jail. The nation was shocked at Gandhi‘s decision. The leaders immediately negotiated with the representatives of the backward castes and compromise was affected.

  • Poona Pact and Third Round Table Conference-

  • Poona Pact (Sept 24, 1932) was signed with B.R Ambedkar as a means to end the fast that Gandhi was undertaking in jail.

  • The Third Round Table Conference (Nov. 17–Dec. 24, 1932) was shorter and less important, with neither the Congress nor the British Labour Party attending.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 8

Match the northeastern states tribe:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 8
The correct answer is 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a.

Tribes in different northeastern states:

Notes:

Sikkim:

Mizoram:

Nagaland:

Manipur:

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 9

Consider the following agricultural practices:

1. Contour bunding

2. Relay cropping

3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/helps in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 9
The correct answer is 3 only.

Key-Points

  • Carbon sequestration is the long-term storage of carbon in plants, soils, geologic formations, and the ocean.

  • It occurs both naturally and as a result of anthropogenic activities and typically refers to the storage of carbon.

Types Carbon Sequestration :

Ocean Carbon Sequestration :

  • Oceans absorb, release and store large amounts of Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

  • An abundance of phytoplankton production in oceans leads to enhanced photosynthesis which helps in Carbon dioxide absorption.

Terrestrial Carbon Sequestration :

  • Terrestrial carbon sequestration is the process through which Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is absorbed by trees and plants through photosynthesis and stored as carbon in soils and biomass (tree trunks, branches, foliage, and roots).

Geologic Carbon Sequestration :

  • CO2 can be stored, including oil reservoirs, gas reservoirs, unmineable coal seams, saline formations and shale formations with high organic content.

Zero tillage :

  • It is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without prior land preparation and disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are present.

  • Zero tillage not only reduces the cost of cultivation it also reduces the soil erosion, crop duration, and irrigation requirement, and weed effect which is better than tillage.

Advantages of zero tillage :

  • Reduction in the crop duration and thereby early cropping can be obtained to get higher yields.

  • Reduction in the cost of inputs for land preparation and therefore a saving of around 80%.

  • Residual moisture can be effectively utilized and the number of irrigations can be reduced.

  • Dry matter and organic matter get added to the soil.

  • Environmentally safe - The greenhouse effect will get reduced due to carbon sequestration. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  • No-tillage reduces the compaction of the soil and reduces the water loss by runoff and prevents soil erosion.

  • As the soil is intact and no disturbance is done, No-Till lands have more useful flora and fauna.

Additional Information

  • Contour bunding (or contour bundling), which involves the placement of lines of stones along with the natural rises of a landscape, and contour farming. These techniques help to capture and hold rainfall before it can become runoff. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Relay cropping is essentially a special version of double cropping, where the second crop is planted into the first crop before harvest, rather than waiting until after harvest as in true double-cropping. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 10

What is the magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium on either side of the mean value called?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 10
The correct answer is Amplitude.
  • The amplitude of a wave refers to the maximum amount of displacement of a particle on the medium from its rest position.

  • Amplitude determines the loudness, the more amplitude of a wave, the more the loudness produces.

  • Oscillation is a periodic motion that repeats itself in a regular cycle. Such as Sine waves, the side-to-side swing of a pendulum, or the up-and-down motion of spring with a weight.

  • In an oscillating system, the force always acts in a direction opposite to the displacement of the particle from the equilibrium point.

  • In a pendulum clock, there is a change from potential energy to kinetic energy with each swing.

  • Frequency is the number of compressions or rarefactions taken together passing through a point in one second.

  • The pitch is determined by the frequency of the wave. Higher the frequency of a wave more its pitch.

  • The wavelength is the distance between adjacent identical parts of a wave.

Additional Information

  • The relationship of the speed of sound, its frequency, and wavelength is the same as for all waves: v = fλ, where v is the speed of sound, f is its frequency, and λ is its wavelength.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 11

A body of frozen gases, rock and dust traveling in an elongated orbit around the Sun is called:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 11
The correct answer is Comet.

Key-Points

  • A body of frozen gases, rock, and dust traveling in an elongated orbit around the Sun is called a comet.

  • When a comet’s orbit comes close to the sun, the ice in its central nucleus turns into gas that shoots out of the comet’s sunlit side, carried by the solar wind outward to form into a long tail.

  • Halley's comet is a short-period comet visible from Earth every 75–76 years. Halley last appeared in the inner parts of the Solar System in 1986 and will next appear in mid-2061.

Additional Information

Satellite:

A satellite is an object in space that orbits or circles around a bigger object.

There are two kinds of satellites: natural (such as the moon orbiting the Earth) or artificial (such as the International Space Station orbiting the Earth).

Star:

Stars are huge celestial bodies made mostly of hydrogen and helium that produce light and heat from the churning nuclear forges inside their cores.

Aside from our sun, the dots of light we see in the sky are all light-years from Earth.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 12

Who led the archeological digging of Paleolithic culture in Uttar Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 12
The correct answer is Prof. G. R. Sharma.

Key-Points

  • Exploration and Excavation of Belan River Valley Places were conducted Under the direction of Prof. Allahabad University Mr. G. R. Sharma.

  • Evidence of Palaeolithic civilization in Uttar Pradesh has been found in the places called Belan Valley of Allahabad, Singrauli Valley of Sonbhadra, and Chakia of Chandauli.

  • Along with stone tools, a statue of a bone-built mother goddess has also been found from a place called the Lohada Nala area of ​​Belan Valley.

  • Almost all the tools of this civilization are made of quartzite stones.

Additional Information

  • Shrimati Meera Kumar was the 15th Speaker of Lok Sabha from 2009 to 2014.

  • She became just the second woman to be nominated for president of India.

  • Jagannath Mishra was an Indian politician who served as Chief Minister of Bihar.

  • He was also a Member of Parliament, Rajya Sabha between 1988 - 1990 and 1994 – 2000.

  • He was elected Chief Minister of Bihar three times.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 13

Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing the Output and National Strength (CHAMPIONS), recently seen in news, aims to empower which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 13
The correct answer is MSMEs.

In News

  • Prime Minister Modi launched the technology platform CHAMPIONS to empower MSMEs.

Key-Points

  • CHAMPIONS stands for Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing the Output and National Strength.

  • The portal is basically for making the smaller units big by solving their grievances, encouraging, supporting, helping and handholding.

  • It is a real one-stop-shop solution of the MSME Ministry.

  • This ICT based system is set up to help the MSMEs in the present difficult situation and also to handhold them to become national and international champions.

  • As part of the system, a network of control rooms is created in a Hub & Spoke Model.

  • The Hub is situated in New Delhi in the Secretary MSME’s office.

  • The spokes are in the States in various offices and institutions of the MSME Ministry.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 14

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 14
The correct answer is option b i.e Economic liberty.
  • The preamble of the Indian Constitution provides for the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.

  • There was no Economic liberty embodied in the preamble.

  • The preamble declares India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.

  • The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens, and promote fraternity to maintain unity and integrity of the nation.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding the Partition Of Bengal :

1. As per Lord Curzon, after the partition, the two provinces would be Bengal (including modern West Bengal, Odisha and Bihar) and Eastern Bengal and Assam.

2. Bengal would also lose five Hindi-speaking states to the Central Provinces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 15
The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key-Points

The Partition Of Bengal

  • In 1874, Assam was sliced away from Bengal and put under a Chief Commissioner.

  • Initially, Lord Curzon proposed the partitioning of the province as an administrative measure solely.

  • In 1904, he undertook a tour of eastern Bengal.

  • The idea of using the Bengal partition as a political tool to undermine the growing nationalism in Bengal and other parts of India occurred later.

  • As per Curzon, after the partition, the two provinces would be Bengal (including modern West Bengal, Odisha and Bihar) and Eastern Bengal and Assam.

  • Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Bengal would also lose five Hindi-speaking states to the Central Provinces.

  • It would gain Odia-speaking states from the Central Provinces.

  • Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Eastern Bengal would consist of Hill Tripura, Chittagong, Rajshahi and Dhaka divisions.

  • Its capital would be Dhaka.

  • Bengal would have a Hindu majority and Eastern Bengal and Assam would have a Muslim majority population. Its capital would remain Calcutta.

Additional Information

Partition annulled

  • Owing to mass political protests, the partition was annulled in 1911.

  • New provinces were created based on linguistic lines rather than religious lines.

  • Bihar and Orissa Province was carved out of Bengal. (Bihar and Orissa became separate provinces in 1936).

  • A separate Assam province was created.

  • The capital of British India was moved to Delhi from Calcutta in 1911.

  • Despite the annulment, the partition did create a communal divide among the Hindus and Muslims of Bengal.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 16

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 16
The correct answer is Gorakhpur - Sports Goods Industry

Key-Points

  • The district Gorakhpur takes its name and fame from renowned ascetic saint ‘Gorakhnath’, an eminent pro-founder of ‘Nath Sampradaya.’

  • Gorakhpur is famous as a religious center - The city was home to Buddhist, Hindu, Jain, and Sikh saints and is named after the medieval saint Gorakhnath.

Additional Information

  • Gorakhpur was a part of the famous kingdom of Koshal, one of sixteen Mahajanpadas in the 6th Century B.C.

  • The ancient Gorakhpur, in addition to modern, comprised the districts of Basti, Deoria, Azamgarh, and parts of Nepal Terai.

  • The region, called Gorakhpur Janpad, had been an important center of Aryan culture and civilization.

  • Varanasi is famous for Sericulture.

  • Noida is famous for Software and IT Industries.

  • Sitapur is famous for the Plywood Industry.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 17

The National Highway which is also called the Grand Trunk Road, connects which of the following pair of cities?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 17
The Grand Trunk Road, a national highway, is one of the oldest road routes in India. Sher Shah Suri built the Shahi (Royal) road to strengthen and consolidate his empire from the Indus Valley to the Sonar Valley in Bengal.

Important Points

The Grand Trunk Road covers a distance of over 2,500 kilometres (1,600 mi).

  • At present, it extends from Amritsar to Kolkata.

  • It is split into two segments:

  • National Highway(NH)-1 from Delhi to Amritsar

  • NH-2 from Delhi to Kolkata

  • From its origin at Chittagong, it traverses to Sonargaon in the Narayanganj District of central Bangladesh, it reaches India, passing through Howrah, Bardhaman, Panagarh, Durgapur, Asansol, Dhanbad, Aurangabad, Dehri-on-sone, Sasaram, Mohania, Mughalsarai, Varanasi, Allahabad, Kanpur, Kalianpur, Kannauj, Etah, Aligarh, Ghaziabad, Delhi, Panipat, Karnal, Ambala, Ludhiana, Jalandhar, Amritsar.

From the above, it is clear that Grand Trunk Road connects Kolkata-Delhi.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 18

Which of the following is the first surface to surface ballistic missile of India?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 18
The correct answer is Prithvi.​

Important Points

  • The Prithvi was India's first indigenously developed ballistic missile produced by the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program(IGMDP)
  • It is a road-mobile, short range ballistic missile (SRBM) powered by a single- stage, two engines, and liquid- fuel.
  • Development of Prithvi began in 1983, and it was first tested on February 25, 1988
  • Till now, three versions of Prithvi are- Prithvi-I, Prithvi-II, Prithvi-III.

Additional Information

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 19

Which among the following is the common basin state of Krishna and Kaveri rivers?

1. Karnataka

2. Kerala

3. Tamil Nadu

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 19
The correct answer is Only 1.

Key-Points

  • The Krishna river rises in the Western Ghats, at an elevation of about 1,337 m just north of Mahabaleshwar, about 64 km (40 mi) from the Arabian Sea.

  • The Krishna river basin lies in the states of Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra.

  • The Kaveri river rises at Talakaveri on the Brahmagiri range in the Western Ghats, Kodagu district of the state of Karnataka.

  • The Kaveri river basin covers three states and a Union Territory as follows: Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and Puducherry.

  • So, the common basin state of Krishna and Kaveri rivers in Karnataka.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 20

Which one of the following names is NOT related to economic theory?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 20
The correct answer is Niels Henrik David Bohr.

Important Points

  • Niels Henrik David Bohr was a physicist who made foundational contributions to understanding atomic structure and quantum theory. So, option 4 is NOT correct.

  • He also won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1922.

  • Thomas Robert Malthus was an economist who worked in the fields of political economy and demography.

  • David Ricardo was a British political economist.

  • John Maynard Keynes was a British economist, who gave ideas and modified the macroeconomics and the economic policies of governments.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 21

Mention the correct data of the last meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 21
The correct answer is 24 Jan. 1950.

Key-Points

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and it came into force on 26th of January 1950.

  • The Assembly met for the first time on 9 December 1946, and its last session was held on 24 January 1950.

  • Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the “Objectives Resolution” in the Constituent Assembly on 13 December 1946.

  • The Constitution was signed in December 1949 after three years of debate.

  • On 29th August 1947, the Drafting Committee was set up by the constituent assembly under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.

  • Dr. B. R. Ambedkar served as the chairman of the Drafting Committee in his capacity as the Law Minister.

  • The drafts of the Constitution were discussed deliberately in the Constituent Assembly for three years.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 22

In which state is the 'Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra' located?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 22
The Correct Answer is Option 3, i.e. Rajasthan.
  • The "Adhai Din ka Jhonpra" is located in Ajmer district, Rajasthan.

  • It is one of India's oldest mosques and the oldest standing Ajmer shrine.

  • The mosque was designed by Abu Bakr of Herat and built in 1192 CE by Qutb-ud-Din-Aibak and is an example of early Indo-Islamic architecture.

  • The system was completed in 1199 CE and was further embellished in 1213 CE by Iltutmish of Delhi.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 23

With reference to characteristics of natural vegetation in India, consider the following statements:

1. These are a mixture of trees and grasses.

2. Mean annual temperature of about 27°C.

3. Annual rainfall is 100 cm to 200 cm.

4. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla.

​Which of the following forests is best characterised by the features given above?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 23
The correct answer is Tropical Moist Deciduous forests.

Key-Points

  • Moist deciduous forest​s are a mixture of trees and grasses. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The moist deciduous forests are found in the regions, which record rainfall between 100 and 200 cm. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Mean annual temperature of about 27°C and average annual relative humidity of 60 to 75 per cent. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood, etc. are the main species of the moist deciduous forests. Hence statement 4 is correct.

  • Dry deciduous forests are found in the regions that receive precipitation between 70 and 100 cm.

Additional Information

  • As the dry season begins, the trees of deciduous forests shed their leaves completely.

  • Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, Khair, axlewood, etc. are the major trees of dry deciduous forests.

  • The moist deciduous forests are found along the foothills of the Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and Odisha.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 24

Which of the following is NOT based on the heating effect of current?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 24
The correct answer is the Microwave.

Important Points

  • A microwave oven uses microwaves to heat food.

  • In the case of microwave ovens, the commonly used radio wave frequency is roughly 2,500 megahertz (2.5 gigahertz).

  • Radio waves in this frequency range are absorbed by water, fats, and sugars. When they are absorbed they are converted directly into atomic motion or vibration.

  • Therefore heavy motion or vibration is converted into heat.

Key-Points

  • Microwaves are not absorbed by most plastics, glass, or ceramics.

  • The frequency of Microwave equals the resonance frequency of water. Therefore foods could be heated up by oscillation of water molecules.

Additional Information

  • An Electric heater, Electric bulb (with filament), Electric iron is the electrical device that converts an electric current into heat.

  • They are working on the principle of the Joule heating effect.

  • An electric current passing through a resistor will convert that electrical energy into heat energy.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding the Causes of Polluted River Stretches:

1. Rapid urbanisation and lack of efficient waste disposal systems.

2. Industrial Cities on the banks of rivers.

3. Run-off from agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 25
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

In News -

  • Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) directed the Ministry of Jal Shakti to devise an appropriate National River Rejuvenation Mechanism for effective monitoring of steps to curb pollution and for rejuvenation of all polluted river stretches across the country.

Important Points

Causes of Polluted River Stretches:

  • Rapid urbanisation and lack of efficient waste disposal systems.

  • Industrial Cities on the banks of rivers.

  • Run-off from agricultural activities.​

  • Sewage and Wastewater.

  • Accidental Oil Leakage

  • Hence option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

Impact of Pollution:

  • The World Bank estimates that the health costs of water pollution in India equal three percent of India's GDP.

  • It has also been suggested that eighty percent of all illnesses in India and one-third of deaths can be attributed to water-borne diseases.

  • The danger Ganga’s polluted water poses is not only to humans but also to animals.

  • Some of the important threatened species include more than 140 fish species, 90 amphibian species, reptiles such as the Gharials, and mammals such as the South Asian River Dolphin.

Related Constitutional Provisions:

  • Article 21: The fundamental right to clean the environment, and further, pollution-free water, have been protected under the broad rubric of the right to life.

  • Article 51-A (g): It mandates a fundamental duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 26

On the bank of which river was Harappa situated?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 26
The correct answer is Ravi.

Key-Points

  • Ravi river's Banks was situated on Harappa.

  • The Indus Valley civilization was discovered first in 1921 at the modern site of Harappa situated in the province of West Punjab in Pakistan.

  • The city lies on the banks of the river Ravi, a left-bank tributary of river Indus.

  • Harappan civilization is also known as Indus Valley Civilization for being situated on and around the banks of the Indus river.

  • It flourished around 2,500 BCE in the western part of South Asia, in contemporary Pakistan, western India, and parts of Afghanistan.

  • Hence, option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

Indus River :

  • The Indus River is one of the main rivers of the Indo-Gangetic Plain in the Indian subcontinent.

  • It flows through the Indian state of Jammu & Kashmir and along the length of Pakistan to the Arabian Sea.

  • Originating in the Tibetan Plateau in the vicinity of Lake Manasarovar, the river runs a course through the Ladakh region of India towards Gilgit-Baltistan.

  • Then flows in a southerly direction along the entire length of Pakistan to merge into the Arabian Sea near the port city of Karachi in Sindh.

Luni River :

  • Luni is the largest river in the Thar desert in north-west India.

  • It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer.

  • It passes through the southeastern portion of the Thar Desert.

  • It ends in the marshy lands of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, after travelling a distance of 495 km.

  • It serves as an essential source of irrigation water.

  • Luni is a major west-flowing river that originates from the western slopes of Naga hills, at an elevation of 772 m in the Ajmer district of Rajasthan.

Bhogwa River :

  • Bhogwa River is a river in Gujarat, India.

  • It is a major right tributary of the Sabarmati River.

  • The city of Surendranagar is on the banks of the Bhogavo.

  • Dholidhaja Dam is located on the river.

  • Was the solution helpful?

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 27

With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of an organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?

1. Virus

2. Fungi

3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 27
The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key-Points

  • Bacteria and Fungi both are known as decomposer organisms.
  • Bacteria are important decomposers; they can break down any kind of organic matter.
  • Fungi are primary decomposers, they not only decompose the surface organisms but can also penetrate deep into the organic matters.
  • Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

Grazing food chain

  • The consumers which start the food chain, utilizing the plant or plant part as their food, constitute the grazing food chain.
  • For example, in a terrestrial ecosystem, the grass is eaten by a caterpillar, which is eaten by a lizard, and the lizard is eaten by a snake.
  • In the Aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton (primary producers) are eaten by zooplanktons which are eaten by fishes and fishes are eaten by pelicans.

Detritus food chain

  • This type of food chain starts from the organic matter of dead and decaying animals and plant bodies from the grazing food chain.
  • Dead organic matter or detritus feeding organisms are called detritivores or decomposers.
  • The detritivores are eaten by predators.
  • In an aquatic ecosystem, the grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.
  • As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the grazing food chain.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 28

Examine the following statements:

A. The non-cooperation movement brought all sections of Indians into the freedom struggle.

B. Violent incident took place at Chauri-Chaura

Choose the correct answer:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 28
The correct answer is Both A and B are correct.

Non-Cooperation movement

  • The Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 1, 1920.

  • It was the first mass movement organized nationwide during India's struggle for freedom.

  • The movement could cement Hindu-Muslim unity and bring Muslim masses into the national movement.

  • It was a platform from which mass united non-cooperation could be declared against the government. Hence statement A is correct.

  • The program included the boycott of govt schools, colleges, law courts, foreign cloth, and Legislative Councils. It was a boycott of everything foreign.

  • It also included renunciation of govt honours and titles. This was an act of defiance against the imperial government.

  • Use of khadi and practice of hand-spinning were encouraged - this is a feature reminiscent of self-reliance advocated by the Swadeshi Movement post-Bengal Partition.

  • The Movement was supposed to be firmly based on non-violence, but people failed to learn or fully understand the method of non-violence.

  • Gandhi premised his idea of movement on the idea that a violent movement could be easily suppressed by the colonial regime who could use the incidents of violence as an excuse to use their armed might against people.

  • But Violent incident took place at Chauri-Chaura in 1922 February which forced Gandhi to withdraw the movement. Hence statement B is also correct.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 29

According to the 2011 census, what is the percentage of literacy of male in Uttar Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 29
The correct answer is 77.30%

Key-Points

  • Average literacy rate of Uttar Pradesh is 67.68 percent.

  • Male literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh is 77.28 percent.

  • Female literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh is 57.18 percent.

  • Total literates in Uttar Pradesh are 114,397,555 people.

  • Male literates in Uttar Pradesh are 68,234,964.

  • Female literates in Uttar Pradesh are 46,162,591.

Additional Information

  • As per details from Census 2011, Uttar Pradesh has a population of 19.98 Crores, an increase from the figure of 16.62 Crore in the 2001 census.

  • Total population of Uttar Pradesh as per 2011 census is 199,812,341 of which male and female are 104,480,510 and 95,331,831 respectively.

  • The population of Uttar Pradesh forms 16.50 percent of India in 2011.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding Climate Adaptation Summit 2021.

1. The Indian government hosted an online international Climate Adaptation Summit (CAS Online) on 25 January 2021.

2. The summit will have a significant focus on securing new investments to ensure that millions of smallholder farmers can adapt to the stresses of climate on food production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) - Question 30
The correct answer is 2 only.

In News -

  • Prime Minister Modi addressed the Climate Adaptation Summit 2021.

Key-Points

  • The Netherlands government hosted an online international Climate Adaptation Summit (CAS Online) on 25 January 2021. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The summit will have a significant focus on securing new investments to ensure that millions of smallholder farmers can adapt to the stresses of climate on food production. Hence statement 2 is correct.

During the summit, PM Modi said that –

  • We are targeting 450 gigawatts of renewable energy capacity by 2030.

  • We are promoting LED lights and saving 38 million tons of carbon dioxide emissions annually.

  • We are going to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030.

  • We are providing clean cooking fuel to 80 million rural households.

  • We are connecting 64 million households to the piped water supply.

View more questions
2 docs|37 tests
Information about UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern) solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 15 (Old Pattern), EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Up next

Download as PDF

Up next