UPPSC (UP) Exam  >  UPPSC (UP) Tests  >  UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025  >  UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - UPPSC (UP) MCQ

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - UPPSC (UP) MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 for UPPSC (UP) 2024 is part of UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPPSC (UP) exam syllabus.The UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for UPPSC (UP) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 below.
Solutions of UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 questions in English are available as part of our UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 for UPPSC (UP) & UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 solutions in Hindi for UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPPSC (UP) Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPPSC (UP) preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 for UPPSC (UP) Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

Consider the following statements.

  1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
  2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
  3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 1
  • Credit Rating Agencies (CRA): Credit rating agencies in India assess a debtor's repayment ability and credit risk. These agencies are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • ICRA Pvt.: ICRA is one of the credit rating agencies in India, along with CRISIL, CARE, SMREA, Brickwork Rating, and India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd. ICRA Limited is a public limited company established in 1991 in Gurugram. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Brickwork Ratings: Brickwork Ratings, founded in 2007 and promoted by Canara Bank, provides ratings for various entities such as bank loans, SMEs, corporate governance, and more. It is recognized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an external credit assessment agency (ECAI) for conducting credit ratings in India. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

What was the goal of Swarajya movement started by Annie Besant?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

The Goal of Swarajya Movement by Annie Besant

  • Introducing self-government for India: The primary objective of the Swarajya movement initiated by Annie Besant was to introduce the concept of self-government for India. Annie Besant, a British socialist and women's rights activist, played a crucial role in fostering the Home Rule Movement in India. In 1916, she launched the All India Home Rule League or Swarajya movement in Madras.
  • Main Objectives of the Movement:
    • To achieve self-government in India.
    • To promote political education and discussions to initiate agitation for self-government.
    • To instill confidence among Indians to voice their opinions against government suppression.
    • To demand increased political representation for Indians from the British government.
    • To revive political activism in India while upholding the principles of the Congress Party.
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

The system of Panchayat Raj is mentioned in:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

The System of Panchayat Raj in India

  • The Union List: The system of Panchayat Raj is not mentioned in the Union List.
  • The State List: The system of Panchayat Raj is mentioned under the State List in India.
  • The Concurrent List: The system of Panchayat Raj is not mentioned in the Concurrent List.
  • None of the above: None of the above options are correct. The correct answer is that the system of Panchayat Raj is mentioned under the State List in India.

The modern system of Panchayat Raj in India was introduced through the 73rd constitutional amendment in 1993. This system is based on the historical Panchayat Raj system of the Indian subcontinent and is also found in countries like Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Nepal.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Under Sustainable Development Goal 12- Sustainable Consumption and Production, one of the targets is to reduce per capita food waste at the retail and consumer levels by:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

The Target to Reduce Food Waste

  • One of the targets under Sustainable Development Goal 12 is to reduce per capita food waste at the retail and consumer levels by 1/2.
  • The full title of Target 12.3 is to halve per capita global food waste at the retail and consumer levels and reduce food losses along production and supply chains by 2030, including post-harvest losses.
  • There are two key indicators related to this target:
    • Indicator 12.3.1.a: Food Loss Index, which focuses on losses from production to consumption level.
    • Indicator 12.3.1.b: Food Waste Index, which is a proposed indicator still under development.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 5
  • The Indian Constitution gives special autonomy to tribal regions through the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.
  • The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and tribes.
  • The Sixth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in specific states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • In the case of Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that the transfer of tribal land to private entities for mining is invalid under the Fifth Schedule.
  • Furthermore, the Recognition of Forest Rights Act, 2006 reinforces the protection of tribal and indigenous people's rights, safeguarding their individual and community rights in forest areas. It also ensures their right to free and prior informed consent in case of displacement and resettlement.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Which revolutionary organization was associated with Kakori Conspiracy in Uttar Pradesh in 1925?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

The Revolutionary Organization Associated with Kakori Conspiracy

  • The Hindustan Republican Association was the revolutionary organization involved in the Kakori Conspiracy that unfolded in Uttar Pradesh in 1925.
  • The Kakori Conspiracy Case was a daring armed robbery that occurred on August 9, 1925, on a train in central Uttar Pradesh.
  • The primary objective of the Kakori Conspiracy was to acquire funds for the HRA by forcibly taking money from the British Administration.
  • The individuals behind the Kakori Conspiracy were members of the newly formed Hindustan Republican Association.
  • Ramprasad Bismil was the mastermind behind the meticulously planned Kakori Conspiracy.
  • The key leaders of the Hindustan Republican Association included Chandra Shekar Azad, Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaq Ullah Khan, Thakur Roshan Singh, Roshan Singh, and Rajendra Lahiri.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

With reference to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), consider the following statements.

  1. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), a legally binding treaty.
  2. It aims to the sustainable use of the components of biological diversity.
  3. All countries of the world have ratified this convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 7
  • Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a legally binding treaty established to conserve biodiversity since 1993. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
  • Objectives:

    • The CBD aims to conserve biological diversity.
    • It also focuses on promoting the sustainable use of components of biological diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Additionally, it aims for the fair and equitable sharing of benefits from the utilization of genetic resources.
  • Ratification:

    • While the majority of countries have ratified the CBD, it is important to note that not all countries, including the US, have ratified it. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
    • The CBD Secretariat is located in Montreal, Canada, and operates under the United Nations Environment Programme.
    • Regular meetings of the Parties (Countries) under the CBD are known as the Conference of Parties (COP).
    • In 2000, the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety, a supplementary agreement to the CBD, was adopted to address risks posed by living modified organisms from modern biotechnology.
    • Similarly, the Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits was adopted in 2010 to further enhance biodiversity conservation efforts.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
  2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 8
  • Statement 1: The executive power of the Union of India is vested in the President, not the Prime Minister. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
    • Article 53(1) of the constitution explicitly vests the executive power of the union in the President.
    • The President can exercise this power directly or through officers subordinate to them, with ministers being considered as such officers.
    • The Council of Ministers actually wields the executive power on behalf of the President.
    • All executive decisions are made in the name of the President as per Article 77.
  • Statement 2:
    • The Prime Minister is not the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. It is actually the Cabinet Secretary who holds this position.
    • The Cabinet Secretary also serves as the ex-officio chairman of the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and is the head of all civil services, as per the rules of business of the Government of India.

Therefore, statement 2 is also incorrect.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi's Satyagraha is/are correct?

  1. It was during the course of his campaign against racialism in South Africa that Gandhiji first applied Satyagraha
  2. The two vital ingredients of Satyagraha are 'truth' and 'non-violence'
  3. The Satyagraha resists evil by inflicting suffering on himself and not by inflicting suffering in the opponent
  4. In India, Satyagraha was first tried by Gandhiji in Champaran
Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

The Correct Answer is 1, 2, and 3 Only

  • During his fight against racialism in South Africa, Mahatma Gandhi first introduced the concept of Satyagraha, making statement 1 correct.
  • Truth and non-violence are the fundamental principles of Satyagraha, as described by Gandhi. This makes statement 2 accurate.
  • In Satyagraha, Gandhi believed in resisting evil by enduring suffering himself rather than causing harm to the opponent, validating statement 3.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Which of the following are the UN Sustainable Development Goals?

a. Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas, and marine resources

b. Reduce inequality within and among countries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

The UN Sustainable Development Goals

  • Sustainable Development:
    • It refers to development that fulfills the current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to fulfill their own needs.
    • The widely accepted definition of Sustainable Development was provided by the Brundtland Commission in the report 'Our Common Future' in 1987.
    • Sustainable development aims at creating an inclusive, sustainable, and resilient future for both people and the planet.
  • UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
    • There are 17 goals in total, comprising 169 targets and 304 indicators.
    • These goals were proposed by the United Nations General Assembly's Open Working Group on Sustainable Development Goals to be achieved by 2030.
    • The agenda titled "Transforming Our World: the 2030 agenda for Sustainable Development" was adopted at the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit.
    • The SDGs are the result of the Rio+20 conference held in Rio De Janeiro in 2012 and are presented as a non-binding document.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Which of the following forts of Rajasthan is also known as 'Chidiyatunk'?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

The Significance of Mehrangarh Fort in Rajasthan

  • Mehrangarh Fort, located in Rajasthan, is famously known as 'Chidiyatunk'.
  • The fort was constructed on Chidiyatunk Hill by Rao Jodha in 1459 AD.
  • It is also recognized by other names such as Gad Chintamadi, Suryagarh, and Kagmukhi.
  • The unique shape of the fort resembles a peacock.
  • Offering a panoramic view of the city skyline, the Mehrangarh Fort spans over 5 km on a steep hill and is positioned 125 m above the city.
  • Initially built in 1459 on the guidance of a saint, the fort was intended to serve as an impregnable headquarters.
  • Noteworthy features of the fort include intricately designed lattice windows, carved panels, and the grandeur of Moti Mahal, Phool Mahal, and Sheesh Mahal.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Which layer of atmosphere is used for telecommunication?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

The ionosphere is a critical layer in the Earth's atmosphere that is utilized for telecommunication purposes.

  • It is the upper layer of the atmosphere, starting at around 80 km altitude and extending beyond 1000 km.
  • This region of the atmosphere becomes partially ionized due to solar UV-light, and this ionization can persist at high altitudes.
  • The ionosphere is composed of multiple conductive layers that have the ability to reflect radio waves. This unique property of reflecting radio waves is of significant interest to scientists and engineers, especially in the telecommunications sector.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Consider the following statements with respect to the Basholi school of paintings :

1. The most popular theme of Basohli painters was the Rasamanjari of Bhanu Datta.

2.  It is characterized by the strong use of primary colours.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Understanding the Basholi School of Paintings

  • Historical Background:
    • The Basholi school of paintings is considered the first and most dramatic example of artwork from the hill states, specifically from Basohli.
    • During the rule of Kirpal Pal from 1678 to 1695, Basohli witnessed the development of a distinctive and magnificent painting style.
  • Characteristics:
    • The school is known for its strong use of primary colors, particularly warm yellows that dominate the background and horizon.
    • The artists employed a stylized approach to vegetation and utilized raised white paint to imitate pearls in ornaments.
    • An interesting technique involved using small, shiny green particles of beetle wings to depict jewelry and create the illusion of emeralds.
  • Themes and Influence:
    • The most popular theme among Basohli painters was the Rasamanjari of Bhanu Datta, showcasing their talent in depicting various narratives.
    • In terms of aesthetics, Basohli paintings share similarities with the Chaurpanchashika group of paintings from Western India, known for their vibrant palette and elegance.

Therefore, both statements provided are correct - the strong use of primary colors and the popularity of the Rasamanjari theme among Basohli painters.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

On which date is World Leprosy Day marked in 2024?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
  • World Leprosy Day is observed annually on the last Sunday of January.
  • In 2024, World Leprosy Day falls on January 28.
  • The day aims to raise awareness about leprosy, also known as Hansen's Disease, and educate people about its impact.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Right to Livelihood as part of the Right to Life was established in

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

The Significance of Right to Livelihood in Olga Tellis vs Bombay Municipal Corporation 1985

  • Key Points:
    • In Olga Tellis vs Bombay Municipal Corporation 1985, the Supreme Court emphasized the broad scope of the Right to Life guaranteed by Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
      • 'Life' in this context extends beyond mere existence as an animal.
      • It encompasses the right to livelihood, recognizing that life cannot be sustained without adequate means of living.
      • The right to life is not limited to protection from physical harm but also includes the right to sustain oneself economically.

Important Points from Other Landmark Cases:

  • A.D.M. Jabalpur Vs S. Shukla 1976:
    • The Supreme Court in this case suspended the right to move court under Articles 14, 21, and 22 during the Emergency period.
  • Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India 1978:
    • This case sparked controversy regarding the interpretation of freedom of speech and laid down principles that emphasized fair procedures and non-violation of other fundamental rights.
  • Indira Sawhney Vs Union of India 1992:
    • The Supreme Court upheld the implementation of Mandal Commission recommendations and introduced the concept of the "creamy layer" for reservation policies, maintaining that quotas should not exceed 50 percent.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Dwarf Planet Ceres is located between -

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

The Correct Answer is: Jupiter and Mars

Key Points

  • Dwarf Planet Ceres is located between Jupiter and Mars.
  • Dwarf planet Ceres is the largest object in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
    • It is the only dwarf planet located in the inner solar system.
    • It was the first member of the asteroid belt to be discovered when Giuseppe Piazzi spotted it in 1801.
    • When NASA's Dawn spacecraft arrived in 2015, Ceres became the first dwarf planet to receive a visit from a spacecraft.
    • Despite comprising 25% of the asteroid belt's total mass, Pluto is 14 times more massive than Ceres.
    • Ceres completes one rotation around its axis every 9 hours.
    • Ceres does not have any moons.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Consider the following functions :
a. To function as the Dominion Legislature until a legislature is formed under the new constitution.
b. To continue and complete the work of constitution making.
c. To continue as the constitutional council after the commencement of the constitution.

Which among the above functions were entrusted to the Constituent Assembly of India?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Key Points

  • Constituent Assembly Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 first proposed the constituent assembly. 
  • Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. 
  • After the partition of India, the number of members of the Constituent Assembly came to 299, of whom 284 were actually present on the 26 November 1949 and signed on the final approved Constitution of India Assembly, which had been elected for undivided India. 
  • It held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, and reassembled on August 14, 1947, as the sovereign Constituent Assembly for the dominion of India. 
  • The constituent assembly of india was entrusted with the following functions:
  • To function as the Dominion Legislature until a legislature is formed under the new constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • To continue and complete the work of constitution making. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The Constituent Assembly finalized the Constitution in two years, eleven months, and eighteen days.

Important Points

  • Dr. Sachidanand Sinha was the first President of the Constituent Assembly. 
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the President of the Assembly. 
  • B.N. Rao was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor of the Assembly.
  • One of the important committees of the Constituent assembly was Drafting Committee. 
  • Members of drafting committee- 
    • Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar 
    • N. Gopalaswami 
    • B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman) 
    • K.M Munshi 
    • Mohammad Saadulla 
    • B.L. Mitter 
    • D.P. Khaitan
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

With reference to the Theories of Mountain Building, consider the following statements:
1. A mountain can be defined as an area of land that rises abruptly from the surrounding region and is higher than the hill.
2. A mountain range consists of several parallel long and narrow mountains of different periods.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

  • Theories of Mountain Building
    • mountain can be defined as an area of land that rises abruptly from the surrounding region and is higher than the hill. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
    • The term ‘orogeny was coined by the American geologist, G.K. Gilbert, in 1890 to describe the process of mountain building. The term was originally used by Gilbert to describe the fold mountain belts of the Alps and the Rockies.
    • According to the Oxford Dictionary of Geography, the term ‘orogeny’ may be defined as tectonic “movements of the earth which involve the folding of sediments, faulting, and metamorphism.
    • mountain may have several forms. Important among them are:
      • Mountain Ridge,
      • Mountain Range,
      • Mountain Chain,
      • Mountain System,
      • Mountain Group, and
      • Cordillera.

Important Points

  • Mountain Ridge: It is a linear, steep-sided high hill, or spur. The slope of one side of a ridge is steep, while the other side is of a moderate slope. A ridge, however, may have symmetrical slopes on both sides. The Shimla Ridge is a good example of a mountain ridge.
  • Mountain Range: A mountain range is a linear system of mountains and hills having several ridges, peaks, summits, and valleys. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Mountain Chain: – A mountain chain consists of several parallel long and narrow mountains of different periods.
  • Mountain System: – A mountain system consists of different mountain ranges of the same period. In a mountain system, different mountain ranges are separated by valleys.
  • Mountain Group: – A mountain group consists of several unsystematic patterns of different mountain systems.
  • Cordillera: – It is a Spanish term referring to a system or major group of mountains. A cordillera consists of several mountain groups and systems. In other words, a cordillera is a community of mountains having different ridges, ranges, mountain chains, and mountain systems. It usually refers to an orogenic belt at a continental scale, e.g., the Western Cordillera of the U.S.A., which includes all the ranges between the Pacific and the Great Plains.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

The use of 'Electors Photo Identity Cards (EPIC)' by the Election Commission of India was started in which one of the following years?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

The correct answer is 1993.

Key Points:

  • The use of Elector’s Photo Identity Cards (EPIC) by the Election Commission has simplified the electoral process, making it smoother and quicker.
  • In 1993, the Election Commission decided to issue photo identity cards to electors nationwide to prevent bogus voting and impersonation during elections.
  • EPICs are issued based on the electoral roll containing details of registered electors.
  • The electoral rolls are usually updated annually with 1st January as the qualifying date.

Important Points
Eligibility and Importance:

  • Any Indian citizen aged 18 years or above is eligible for inclusion in the electoral roll and can apply for an EPIC.
  • Once registered, the individual is eligible for an EPIC.
  • The issuance of EPICs is a continuous process, without a fixed time limit, as more individuals become eligible for voting rights upon turning 18.
  • The Election Commission constantly strives to provide EPICs to both previously missed out electors and new registrants.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 20
When was the first synchronous census in India held? 
Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 20
Explanation

The First Synchronous Census in India

  • The First Census: The first census in modern India began in 1872 under British Viceroy Lord Mayo.
  • The First Synchronous Census: The first synchronous census in India, where all areas were counted simultaneously, is considered to have started in 1881.

Key Points

  • The first census in modern India started in the year 1872.
  • The beginning of the first synchronous census is considered to be in 1881.

Additional Information

  • The census of India is conducted every 10 years.
  • The first census in independent India took place in the year 1951.
  • The 2011 census was the fifteenth national census of the country.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Which of the following is an inland "portion" of the ocean and is therefore distinguished from a lake by its salty water?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

The correct answer is Sea

Key Points

  • Sea:-
    • It is an expanse of saltwater that covers most of the Earth's surface and surrounds its land masses.
    • Large sea areas are called oceans.
    • The Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal are the two seas which surround India.

Important Points

  • Some famous Sea are :-
    • Caspian Sea, world’s largest inland body of water, lies to the east of the Caucasus Mountains and to the west of the vast steppe of Central Asia
    • Mediterranean Sea, an intercontinental sea that stretches from the Atlantic Ocean on the west to Asia on the east and separates Europe from Africa
    • Caribbean Sea, suboceanic basin of the western Atlantic Ocean,
    • Baltic Sea, arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, is the largest expanse of brackish water in the world.
    • Red Sea, narrow strip of water extending south-eastward from Suez, Egypt to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, 

Additional Information

  • A pond is a shallow water body in which all the basic components of an ecosystem are well exhibited.
  • A wetland is an area of land that is saturated with water, either permanently or seasonally. Wetlands can be freshwater, brackish (partly salty), or saline (very salty).
  • Aquifer is the place where the groundwater is stored between layers of hard rock below the water table.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Absence of minimum income to get the minimum needs of life" is concerned with which of the following types of poverty ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

The Correct answer is Absolute Poverty.

Key Points

  • Absolute poverty can be defined as the state in which a subject lacks the means to meet his or her basic needs.
  • Such basic needs are often listed in international poverty reduction programs, and usually include food, water, shelter, basic education, and basic medical care.
  • Extreme poverty is typically defined as a state in which a person lacks access to all, or several, of the goods needed for meeting these basic needs.

Additional Information

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

How much funding has been allocated for upgrading schools and Anganwadi centers in underdeveloped urban areas of Uttar Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

The Uttar Pradesh government has allocated over Rs 143 crores for the implementation of projects aimed at upgrading schools and Anganwadi centers in underdeveloped urban areas. This initiative is part of a broader effort to enhance educational infrastructure and provide better learning environments for children in these regions, reflecting a commitment to improving educational outcomes across the state.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

What is the primary objective of Project Praveen in Uttar Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

The primary objective of Project Praveen is to revamp the education system and curriculum in Uttar Pradesh, specifically to equip students with practical skills that align with the job market. This initiative focuses on providing free skill training in various sectors to students in higher secondary schools, thereby enhancing their employability and readiness for the workforce.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

What was the total value of the development projects recently inaugurated in Sonbhadra by the Minister of Housing & Urban Affairs?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

The Minister of Housing & Urban Affairs inaugurated development projects worth Rs 10 crore 41 lakh in Sonbhadra. This funding is part of efforts to enhance infrastructure and development in one of the top-performing districts under the Aspirational Districts Programme.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

What is the main purpose of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

The main purpose of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected habitations in rural areas. This initiative aims to improve the socio-economic conditions of the rural population by ensuring access to essential services.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

What is the primary purpose of Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) as imposed in Lucknow recently?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Section 144 of the CrPC empowers magistrates to prohibit the gathering of four or more people in a specified area to prevent disturbances or threats to public order. This measure is often implemented in anticipation of events that could lead to unrest, ensuring safety and maintaining peace. An interesting fact about this provision is that it can be enforced in response to anticipated disturbances, rather than only reacting to actual violence.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Which recent appointment has the Uttar Pradesh government made concerning the Home Secretary position?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

The Uttar Pradesh government has appointed Deepak Kumar, a senior IAS officer, as the new Home Secretary. His extensive experience in various administrative roles positions him well to handle the responsibilities of this critical position, especially during an election period. The role of Home Secretary is pivotal in managing law and order and coordinating with law enforcement agencies.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

What did the Allahabad High Court declare about the UP Madrasa Education Act, 2004?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

The Allahabad High Court declared the UP Madrasa Education Act, 2004, unconstitutional, stating that it violates the principle of secularism. The court directed the state government to integrate current madrasa students into the formal education system, highlighting the need for quality education that adheres to constitutional mandates. This ruling underscores the importance of ensuring that all educational institutions align with the foundational principles of the Indian Constitution.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

How many phases will the Lok Sabha elections in Uttar Pradesh occur, according to the announced schedule?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

The Lok Sabha elections in Uttar Pradesh will occur in seven phases, as per the announced election schedule. This multi-phase approach is designed to manage the large electorate effectively and ensure smooth conduct of the elections across the state. The staggered nature of the elections allows for better security arrangements and logistical planning, crucial in a state with a high population density.

View more questions
2 docs|37 tests
Information about UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 3, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for UPPSC (UP)

Download as PDF

Top Courses for UPPSC (UP)