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BPSC (Bihar) Exam  >  BPSC (Bihar) Tests  >  BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024  >  BPSC Practice Test - 20 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 - BPSC Practice Test - 20

BPSC Practice Test - 20 for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 is part of BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 preparation. The BPSC Practice Test - 20 questions and answers have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus.The BPSC Practice Test - 20 MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC Practice Test - 20 below.
Solutions of BPSC Practice Test - 20 questions in English are available as part of our BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 for BPSC (Bihar) & BPSC Practice Test - 20 solutions in Hindi for BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for BPSC (Bihar) Exam by signing up for free. Attempt BPSC Practice Test - 20 | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for BPSC (Bihar) preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 for BPSC (Bihar) Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 1
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Which of the following statements is correct about the Khilafat Movement?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 1
The Khilafat Movement, (1919-1920) was a movement of Indian Muslims, led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad one of the founders of the Khilafat movement.

Khilafat movement leaders demanded that the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa must retain control over the Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman empire; the jazirat-ul-Arab (Arabia, Syria, Iraq, Palestine) must remain under Muslim sovereignty; and the Khalifa must be left with sufficient territory to enable him to defend the Islamic faith. The Khilafat Movement did bring the Urban Muslims into the fold of the National Movement.

Hence, the correct option is (e).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 2
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Which among the following sections opposed council entry during the passive phase of movement in 1922?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 2
The school of thought led by Vallabhbhai Patel, Rajendra Prasad, C. Rajagopalachari and M.A. Ansari came to be known as the 'No-changers'. The 'No-changers' opposed council entry, advocated, concentration on constructive work, and continuation of boycott and noncooperation, and quiet preparation for the resumption of the suspended civil disobedience programme. While Those advocating entry into legislative councils came to be known as the Swarajists. By 1924, the Swarajists position had weakened and a split among themselves was observed on communal and Responsivist-Non-responsivist lines.

The Responsivists among Swarajists which were led by Lala Lajpat Rai, Madan Mohan Malaviya and N.C. Kelkar advocated cooperation with the Government and holding of office wherever possible to protect the so called Hindu interests. They accused the Non-responsivists like Motilal Nehru of being anti-Hindu.

Hence, the correct option (b).

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BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 3
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Which of the following is correct about vitamin C?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 3
Vitamin C

  1. Scientific name- ascorbic acid.

  2. Found in fruits and vegetables, especially citrus fruits.

  3. Scurvy is caused by lack of vitamin C is in our diet.

  4. Vitamin C is a strong antioxidant that may reduce the risk of chronic diseases.

Other important vitamins and their importance-

  1. Healthy skin and normal vision – vitamin A.

  2. RBC formation – Vitamin B12.

  3. Assists in absorption and metabolism of calcium – Vitamin D.

Not getting enough calcium or lack of calcium and vitamin D can cause rickets.

Hence, the correct option (e).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 4
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Hilton Young Commission is related to the-
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 4

  1. Hilton Young Commission formed in 1926 was an inquiry commission of British. It recommended to establish a central bank to be called as Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

  2. Shivaraman Committee (1979) recommended for the establishment of NABARD.

  3. Radha Krishnan Commission (1948) recommended for establishment of UGC.

  4. Amitava Roy (2018) committee is related to Prison reforms.

Hence, the correct option (c).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 5
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According to Bombay Plan, which of the following sector was not the focus area?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 5
Bombay Plan was formulated by the industrialists such as G.D.Birla, JRD Tata and Lal Shri Ram in 1944. It laid down the roadmap for India’s development after independence. The Bombay Plan aimed to achieve free-market model through three five-year plans. The focus areas included the following-

  1. Heavy industries including Iron and Steel, cement, coal etc.

  2. Heavy engineering

  3. Agriculture which supported Ryotwari System and cooperative farming

  4. Social Sector including education and healthcare.

Hence, the correct option (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 6
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Which of the following gases have the highest Global Warming Potential?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 6
Sulphur hexafluoride is a man-made chemical. The Releases of Sulphur hexafluoride occur from electrical substations, magnesium smelters and from some other consumer goods. On a global scale, it is a greenhouse gas contributing to global warming. It has an extremely high "global warming potential" (23,000 times that of carbon dioxide) but does not contribute particularly significantly to global warming because of the small amounts released. Sulphur hexafluoride can persist in the atmosphere for up to thousands of years.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 7
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What is correct regarding the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 7
Wildlife protection act 1972

  1. This was the first umbrella act which established schedules of protected plant and animal species. By this act, hunting or harvesting these species was largely outlawed.

  2. It extends to the whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir which has its own wildlife act. There are six schedules which give a varying degree.

  3. Schedule V includes the animals which may be hunted. These are Common crow, Fruit bats, Mice & Rats only.

  4. Schedule VI contains the plants, which are prohibited from cultivation and planting. These plants are as follows: Beddomes’ cycad (Cycas beddomei), Blue Vanda (Vanda soerulec), Kuth (Saussurea lappa), Ladies slipper orchids (Paphiopedilum spp.), Pitcher plant (Nepenthes khasiana), Red Vanda (Renanthera imschootiana).

Hence, the correct option is (a).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 8
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From which of the following events did the concept of ‘Carbon Credits’ developed?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 8
A carbon credit is a permit or certificate allowing the holder, such as a company, to emit carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases. The credit limits the emission to a mass equal to one ton of carbon dioxide. The ultimate goal of carbon credits is to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

The United Nations' Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) developed a carbon credit proposal as a market-oriented mechanism to slow worldwide carbon emissions. A 1997 agreement known as the Kyoto Protocol set binding emission reduction targets for the countries that signed it, set to go into force in 2005.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 9
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Which of the following men’s cricket team has scored the highest ever total in T20s cricket?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 9
Afghanistan scored 278 for the loss of 3 wickets (in 20 overs) to register the highest-ever total in T20s at the Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium in Dehradun, Uttarakhand against Ireland.

They toppled Australia's record score of 263/3 which they achieved back in 2016 against Sri Lanka.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 10
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The heritage town of Orchha has been included in the tentative list of UNESCO world heritage sites. The heritage town of ‘Orchha’ is located in which state?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 10
The architectural heritage of Orchha town in Madhya Pradesh has been included in UNESCO’s tentative list of world heritage sites following a proposal sent by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to the U.N. body.

Orchha is situated on the banks of the Betwa river, located around 80 km away from Tikamgarh district in Madhya Pradesh.

Orchha was built by King Rudra Pratap Singh of Bundela dynasty in the 16th century.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 11
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In the light of events that occurred after the General Elections of 1937 and the subsequent formation of Indian ministries in various provinces, identify the incorrect statement
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 11

  1. The Congress swept the polls. It won absolute majority in 5 provinces viz. Madras, United Provinces, Central provinces, Bihar & Orissa, Bombay, Assam and North West Frontier Province it emerged at the largest political party and formed the governments. Later Assam and NWFP also came under Congress rule.

  2. In Bengal, Muslim league formed a coalition government with Krishak Praja Party.

  3. In Punjab, the Muslim League with Unionist Party formed a coalition government.

  4. To investigate Muslim grievances under Congress rule, the Muslim League formulated the “Pirpur Report” under the chairmanship of Raja Syed Muhammad Mehdi of Pirpur. Other reports concerning Muslim grievances in Congress run provinces were A. K. Fazl-ul-Haq’s “Muslim Sufferings Under Congress Rule”, and “The Sharif Report”. The allegation that Congress was representing Hindus only was voiced also by eminent British personalities.

Hence, the correct option (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 12
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Which of the following sequence is correct?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 12
Succession is a scientific term describing the long-term progression of biological communities that occurs in a given area. Ecological succession breaks down into three fundamental phases: primary and secondary succession, and a climax state.

  1. Nudation: Succession begins with the development of a bare site, called Nudation (disturbance).

  2. Migration: refers to arrival of propagules.

  3. Ecesis: involves establishment and initial growth of vegetation.

  4. Competition: as vegetation becomes well established, grows, and spreads, various species begin to compete for space, light and nutrients.

  5. Reaction: during this phase autogenic changes such as the buildup of humus affect the habitat, and one plant community replaces another.

  6. Stabilization: a supposedly stable climax community forms.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 13
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The Earth Hour Day 2020 was observed on which date?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 13
The 2020 Earth Hour was observed on 28th March.

The theme for Earth Hour 2020 will be based on “Climate Action” and sustainable development. For Earth Hour 2020, climate change will be an unforgettable theme where millions of people will come together and do something innovative and revolutionary to save the world and save a life.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 14
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Which of the following cities hosted the ISA's first joint security exercise ‘ISALEX19’ ?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 14
Representatives of 50 law enforcement agencies of the International Security Alliance took part in the first joint security exercise ‘ISALEX19’ in Abu Dhabi, UAE.

Joint Security Exercise took test the readiness of the different teams and to evaluate the tools, strategies and procedures developed jointly between member countries.

International Security Alliance

It is an international working group to confront organised, transnational and extremist crimes by joint security cooperation projects and exchange of expertise on practices implemented across ISA member countries. International Security Alliance was launched in 2017 in Abu Dhabi, UAE. The headquarters of International Security Alliance is in Abu Dhabi.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 15
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Which of the following space agencies has announced the launch of a spacecraft in 2026 to explore the Saturn’s exotic moon, Titan?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 15
The US space agency ‘NASA’ has announced to launch a spacecraft in 2026 to explore the richly organic world of Titan.

A rotorcraft called 'Dragonfly' will arrive at the Saturn's moon in 2034, looking for prebiotic chemical processes common on both Titan and Earth.

Titan is the second-largest moon in the solar system and is an icy world whose surface is completely obscured by a nitrogen-based golden atmosphere four times denser than Earth atmosphere.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 16
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A train travels 25% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B, 180 km away at the same time. On the way the train takes 45 minutes for stopping at the stations. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the train?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 16
Let speed of train =5x

So speed of car =4x

So, time taken by car to cover 180 km= time taken by train to cover 180 km + (45/60) hours

speed of train =12×5=60 km/hr

Hence, the correct option is (c).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 17
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The difference between CI and SI on a certain sum at 10% for 2 years is Rs. 10.50, Find the sum:
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 17
Simple rate of interest for 2 years = 10+10 = 20%

Compound rate of interest for 2 years = 10 + 10 + (10×10)/100 = 21%

Difference rate = Rate of CI− Rate of SI = 21−20 = 1%

1% of Sum = 1 0.50

100% of Sum = 10.50 × (100/1) = Rs.1050

Hence, the correct option is (b).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 18
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Which of the following women is known for working in close association with Chadra Shekhar Azad in the famous Kakori train dacoity?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 18
Rajkumari Gupta belongs to that clan of freedom fighters who are unlikely to have found a mention in any standard history of the freedom movement. She got married at an early age of 13 to Madan Mohan Gupta who was a revolutionary but was also an active participant in the activities of the Congress. Both she and her husband were drawn towards the ideals of Mahatma Gandhi and joined the freedom struggle on his call.

However, she later got influenced by the revolutionaries who believed in armed rebellion against Britishers. She was closely associated with Chandra Shekhar Azad and began supporting him by secretly carrying messages and materials to other revolutionaries, without the knowledge of her husband and her in-laws. She got closely connected with Azad’s group in Allahabad, which was later led by Bhagat Singh.

Hence, the correct option (a).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 19
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Choose the correct chronological order
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 19
On 14 June 1945 Lord Wavell announced a plan for a new Executive Council in which all members except the Viceroy and the Commander in Chief would be Indians.

Cabinet Mission Plan 1946- The Cabinet Mission came to India aimed to discuss the transfer of powers from the British government to the Indian leadership, with the aim of preserving India's unity and granting its independence.

Cripps Mission: March 1942- The Cripps Mission was a failed attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II. The mission was headed by a senior minister Sir Stafford Cripps.

CR Formula: 1944- Rajagopalachari's formula (or C. R. formula or Rajaji formula) was a proposal formulated by Chakravarti Rajagopalachari to solve the political deadlock between the All India Muslim League and the Indian National Congress on the independence of British India.

Hence, the correct option (c).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 20
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The ‘August Offer’ of 1940 accepted which of these important demands of the Indian National Congress leadership?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 20
It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democratism. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected based on the adult franchise'. The demand was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the' August Offer' of 1940.

Therefore, "Constitution-Making Body shall be appointed" this statement is correct and remaining other statements are incorrect regarding the ‘August Offer’ of 1940.

Hence, the correct option (c).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 21
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Which of the following statements is not correct?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 21
An atom has a nucleus which is positively charged. On the atomic scale, mass is measured in atomic mass units (U). By Definition, 1 atomic mass unit (1u) is the 1/12th mass of an atom of 12c;

1u = 1.660563 × 10–27 kg. The neutron mass is almost identical to the proton. Atomic number Z is the number of protons in an atomic nucleus of an element. The mass number A is the total number of protons and neutrons in the atomic nucleus; A = Z + N; Here N denotes the number of neutrons in the nucleus.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 22
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The Procedure of amendment of the constitution is taken from _____.
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 22

  1. The procedure to amend the constitution is taken from South Africa. Other than this, the procedure for the elections of the members of Rajya Sabha is also taken from South Africa.

  2. From Australia, concurrent list, joint sitting, and freedom of commerce and trade are taken.

  3. From Japan, the only provision which has been derived is the procedure established by law.

  4. From Weimar (Germany), the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency is taken.

Hence, the correct option (a).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 23
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The Indian Railways’ second luxury double-decker UDAY (Utkrisht Double-decker Air-conditioned Yatri) Express will run between which of the following route?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 23

  1. In order to cater to the busy route in the East Coast Railway zone, The Indian Railways’ second luxury double-decker Uday (Utkrisht Double-decker Air-conditioned Yatri) Express is to be run between Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada.

  2. The 1st double-decker UDAY Express started service between Coimbatore and Bangalore in June 2018. Another Uday Express is proposed between Bangalore City and Chennai Central.

  3. The train consists of 9 double-decker coaches and 2 power cars. It will have a carrying capacity of 50 passengers on the upper deck, 48 on lower deck and 22 on ends.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 24
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Which of the following statements is not correct?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 24
The Indira Gandhi Canal irrigates a vast amount of land in the Indian portion of the Thar. The canal begins at the Harike Barrage - at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers in the Punjab - and continues in a southwesterly direction for about 470 km.

All the seven states of north-east India shares an international boundary; following is the list of northeast states which shares international boundary with a country-

  1. Assam: Bhutan and Bangladesh

  2. Arunachal Pradesh: Myanmar, China and Bhutan

  3. Manipur: Myanmar

  4. Meghalaya: Bangladesh

  5. Mizoram: Bangladesh and Myanmar

  6. Nagaland: Myanmar

  7. Tripura: Bangladesh

In India Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 States which are as follows: Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.

India's total international land boundary is higher than its coastline stretch. Total coastline stretch of India: 7517 km. The total international land boundary of India: 15,106 km. Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

Hence, the correct option (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 25
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Find the incorrect statement about Rajya Sabha elections:
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 25
Members of a state's Legislative Assembly vote in the Rajya Sabha elections through proportional representation with the single transferable vote (STV) system. Each MLA’s vote is counted only once. In this system, MLAs don’t vote for each seat. If that were the case, then only ruling party representatives would make it through. Instead, the MLAs are given a paper with the names of all candidates. They have to give their order of preference for each candidate, marking 1,2,3… against their names. If 10 or more members choose a candidate as their first choice, he/she gets elected. Therefore, (d) is the incorrect statement. It is conducted via open ballot. And the provision of compulsory domicile is no more in place. The candidate elected to fill a vacancy will only server for the remaining period and not the full term of 6 years.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 26
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What is true about the Mauryan architecture and sculpture?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 26
By the third century, a large part of India was under Maurya control. Construction of stupas and viharas (dwelling place of monks) became part of the Buddhist tradition. In this period apart from stupas and viharas, stone pillars, rock cut caves and monumental figure sculptures were carved in several places. Even though constructing pillars are very old, Mauryan pillars are different from the pillars in the other parts of the world (like Achaemenian pillars) as they are rock cut pillars thus displaying the carver’s skills.Large statues of Yakshas and Yakshinis are found at many places like Patna, Vidisha and Mathura. The events from life of Buddha, the Jataka stories, etc. were depicted.

Hence, the correct option (e).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 27
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Which one of the following is not a site for the in-situ method of conservation of flora?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 27

  1. In-situ (on-site) conservation includes the protection of plants and animals within their natural habitats or in protected areas. Protected areas are land or sea dedicated to protect and maintain biodiversity.

  2. Ex-situ (off-site) conservation of plants and animals outside their natural habitats. These include botanical gardens, zoo, gene banks, seek bank, tissue culture and cryopreservation.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 28
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Which act introduced local representation in the legislative council?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 28

  1. The Indian Councils Act of 1892 was the first achievement of the Indian National Congress. It had increased the number of "additional members" in the Central Legislative Council.

  2. Charter Act of 1853 was framed based on reports made by the Select Committees of Enquiry in 1852. The Act for the first time introduced Local Representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council.

  3. The main features of the Government of India Act, 1919 were as follows: Dyarchy, Subjects were divided into two lists: “reserved” and “transferred”.

  4. The Act of 1861 was important in the constitutional history because it enabled the Governor-General to associate the people of the land with work of legislation. And by vesting legislative powers in the Governments of Bombay and Madras which ultimately culminated in grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937.

Hence, the correct option (d).

BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 29
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Who heads the Market Data Advisory Committee constituted by SEBI?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 29
In an effort to set up Data Culture through Data Democratization in the Indian securities market, The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has constituted a Market Data Advisory Committee (MADC), Standing Committee. The committee is headed by Madhabi Puri Buch, Whole Time Member, SEBI and has CEOs of stock exchanges and depositories, representatives of various stakeholders and senior officials of SEBI as members.
BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 30
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System of cultivation using large amount of labour and capital with application of fertilizers and insecticides is called ______.
Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test - 20 - Question 30

  1. System of cultivation using large amount of labour and capital with application of fertilizers and insecticides is called intensive agriculture. This kind of farming use high efficiency machinery for planting, cultivating and harvesting as well as latest irrigation equipment.

  2. The focus of intensive farming is to produce maximum output per unit of land. It is common in India as well as South East Asian countries such as Thailand.

  3. In this type of farming system, crops are grown mainly for local consumption. If there is a surplus, then it is solution in the market. This type of farming is largely found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia.

  4. Basically, there are two types of intensive subsistence agriculture. One is dominated by wet paddy and other is dominated by crops such as sorghum, soybeans, sugarcane, maize, and vegetables. Areas of Intensive Subsistence Farming are: Tonking Delta (Vietnam), lower Menem (Thailand); lower Irrawaddy (Myanmar); and the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta, Eastern Coastal Plains (India).

  5. Extensive Agriculture- System of crop cultivation using small amounts of labour and capital in relation to area of land being farmed. The crop yield in extensive agriculture depends primarily on the natural fertility of the soil, terrain, climate, and the availability of water.

Hence, the correct option (a).

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