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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 - BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 is part of BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 preparation. The BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus.The BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 below.
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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Which stone age in India can be closely associated with the people of Homo sapiens group?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

The Stone Age in India Associated with Homo sapiens

  • The Lower Stone Age, also known as the Lower Paleolithic, is closely associated with the Homo sapiens group.
  • This age lasted until 100,000 B.C. and was primarily found in Africa and Western Europe.
  • Scholars believe that Neanderthal-like Palaeolithic men contributed to this period.
  • In India, this age can be linked to the people of the Homo sapiens group.
  • During this period, populations preferred to live near water sources as stone tools were abundant near river valleys.
  • The earliest stone tool manufacture began during this time period, known as the Oldowan tradition.
  • Tools such as hand axes, choppers, and cleavers were commonly used for chopping, excavating, and skinning prey.
  • Various tools like scrapers, hammer stones, choppers, and awls were utilized for different purposes.
  • Important archaeological sites for these tools in India include Belan Valley (Mirzapur), Didwana (Rajasthan), Narmada Valley, and Bhimbetka (near Bhopal).

Additional Information

  • Middle Stone Age:
    • Neanderthals were mostly associated with the middle Paleolithic Age and were early hunters.
    • They derived their name from the Neander Valley in Germany.
  • Upper Stone Age:
    • The Upper Paleolithic period extended from 40,000 to 8,000 BC.
    • This period saw the emergence of new flint industries and the arrival of Homo sapiens globally.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was related to which of the following Movements?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

The Significance of Aligarh Movement

  • Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was a socio-religious reformer who aimed to blend Western scientific education with the teachings of the Quran.
  • He was a dedicated educationist, establishing schools in various towns and translating books into Urdu. In 1875, he founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh.
  • The Aligarh Movement initiated by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan represented a modern and liberal approach among Muslim intellectuals associated with the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College.
  • The movement's primary objective was to promote modern education among Muslims while maintaining their commitment to Islam. It was based on a liberal interpretation of Islam combined with modern cultural values.
  • Aligarh emerged as a focal point for the religious and cultural renaissance of the Muslim community.
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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Who gave the hypothesis of continental drift?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 3
  • Alfred Wegener: Alfred Wegener proposed the hypothesis of continental drift in 1915. He suggested that continents were once part of a single landmass called 'Pangaea' which later split and drifted apart.
  • Continental Drift Theory: According to Wegener, Pangaea began to break apart during the Jurassic period around 200 million years ago, forming Laurasia and Gondwanaland. These larger landmasses eventually separated into the continents we recognize today.
  • Evidence: Wegener supported his theory with evidence such as radiometric dating, matching geological features across continents, and similarities in fossil records and paleoclimates.

Geographers Hypothesis and Theory Parker and Morgan Theory of plate tectonics Pratt and Airy Concept of Isostasy Arthur Holmes Theory of convectional current

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Which of the following constitutional provision was borrowed by Indian Constitution from British Constitution?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 4
  • Features borrowed from the British Constitution are:
    • Parliamentary government,
    • Rule of Law,
    • Legislative procedure,
    • Single citizenship,
    • Cabinet system,
    • Prerogative writ,
    • Parliamentary privileges and bicameralism.
  • Parliamentary privileges:
    • Parliamentary Privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament.
    • It is enjoyed individually and collectively so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”.
    • Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentions two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.
    • Apart from the privileges as specified in the Constitution, the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the continuance of the meeting of the House or of a committee thereof and forty days before its commencement and forty days after its conclusion.

Additional Information
CountryFeatures borrowedUS

  • Fundamental rights
  • Independence of judiciary
  • Judicial review
  • Impeachment of the president
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges
  • Post of vice-president

Japan

  • The procedure established by Law

Germany

  • Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of different stages a budget has to go through in the Parliament?

  1. Presentation of the Budget
  2. Scrutiny by Departmental Committees
  3. Passing of Finance Bill
  4. Passing of Appropriation Bill

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

The correct sequence of stages a budget has to go through in Parliament is 1 - 2 - 4 - 3.
Stages in ParliamentDetailsPresentation of the BudgetAccording to Article 112 of the Constitution of India, the Union Budget of a year is known as the Annual Financial Statement (AFS).Scrutiny by Departmental CommitteesIn Parliament, the budget goes through 6 stages, including the presentation of the budget with the Finance Minister’s speech and general discussion. Additionally, standing committees scrutinize the demand for grants for a month.Passing of Appropriation BillAfter the scrutiny, there is voting on demand for grants in Lok Sabha, followed by the passing of appropriation bills.Passing of Finance BillFinally, the budget process concludes with the passing of Finance bills, completing the stages in Parliament.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

Which of the following organelles shows similarity to a prokaryotic cell?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

Concept: Theory of Endosymbiosis

  • Symbiotic relationship, where one organism lives inside the other, is known as endosymbiosis.
  • The theory proposed that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from engulfed prokaryotes.
  • A large anaerobic bacteria engulfed an aerobic prokaryote, which then formed an endosymbiotic relationship with the host, gradually developing into a mitochondrion.
  • It is believed that chloroplasts originated from a cyanobacterial endosymbiont.


Similarities between Prokaryotic cells, Mitochondria, and Chloroplast:

  • Mitochondria and chloroplast are of the same size as prokaryotic cells.
  • Mitochondria and prokaryotic cells both have their own circular DNA.
  • The ribosome of bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts have a 70S type of ribosome.
  • Divides by binary fission.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

When a bus starts suddenly, the passengers are pushed back. This is an example of which of the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

The correct answer is Newton's first law and its explanation:

  • Newton’s first law of motion: It is also known as the law of inertia. Inertia refers to the property of a body that resists a change.
  • According to Newton’s first law of motion, an object will stay at rest or continue moving at a constant speed in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force.
  • The inertia of rest: An object at rest will remain at rest until an external force is applied to move it. This property is termed as inertia of rest.
  • The inertia of motion: An object in uniform motion will remain in motion until an external force is applied to stop it. This property is known as inertia of motion.

Explanation:

  • When a bus suddenly starts moving, the passengers fall backward due to the law of inertia of rest or the 1st law of Newton.
  • As the passengers were initially at rest, when the bus abruptly starts moving, the lower body tries to move forward while the upper body remains at rest, causing a backward fall. This phenomenon aligns with Newton's first law.

 Additional Information
Laws of Motion given by Newton:

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Which of the following has a similar physical state as water at room temperature?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Key Points

  • Bromine (Br) is a halogen group or Group 17 (Group VIIa) chemical element with atomic number 35.
  • It is a fuming red-brown liquid at room temperature.
  • Bromine vapour is amber in colour.
    • Bromine is a liquid because electrons are so apart from the nuclei therefore easily distorted.
    • Intermolecular forces are Intermediate, thus it is in a liquid state.
    • The average kinetic energy of the Br atoms is intermediated.

Additional Information

  • Iodine (I) is a halogen group element with atomic number 53. It is a solid-state at room temperature.
  • Chlorine (Cl) is a halogen group gas with atomic number 17. It is a toxic, corrosive, greenish-yellow gas. Harmful to the eyes and respiratory system.
  • Fluorine (F) is the most reactive and the lightest member of the halogen group with atomic number 9.
  • It has a faintly yellow gas with an irritating odour at room temperature.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Which of the following gases is NOT a major greenhouse gas that causes climate change?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Understanding Greenhouse Gases and Climate Change

  • Carbon monoxide is NOT considered a major greenhouse gas.
  • Greenhouse gases are gases that absorb and emit radiant energy within the thermal infrared range.
  • These gases contribute to the greenhouse effect on planets, including Earth.
  • The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are:
    • Water vapor
    • Carbon dioxide
    • Methane
    • Nitrous oxide
    • Ozone

Key Points
Methane

  • A hydrocarbon gas produced both through natural sources and human activities.
  • Methane is a far more active greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide, but also one which is much less abundant in the atmosphere.

Carbon dioxide

  • A minor but very important component of the atmosphere.
  • Released through human activities such as deforestation and burning fossil fuels, as well as natural processes such as respiration and volcanic eruptions.
  • Carbon dioxide is the most important of Earth’s long-lived greenhouse gases.

Nitrous oxide

  • Nitrous oxide, commonly known as laughing gas or nitrous.
  • A powerful greenhouse gas produced by soil cultivation practices.
  • Nitrous oxide is a powerful oxidizer similar to molecular oxygen.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Out of 8 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Given:
8 consonants and 4 vowels
Calculation:

  • According to the question, 3 consonants out of 8 can be selected in 8C3 = 56 ways
  • 2 vowels out of 4 can be selected in 4C2 = 6 ways
  • Therefore, five letters of the word can be chosen in 56 x 6 = 336 ways
  • But all these five alphabets can permute among themselves in 5! ways

Hence, the total number of words = 336 x 5! = 40320

  • Result: The required number of words that can be formed is 40320.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

In which Sea was the maiden India-ASEAN naval exercise conducted?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

The maiden India-ASEAN naval exercise concluded in the South China Sea on 8 May 2023.
In News

  • The maiden India-ASEAN naval exercise concluded in the South China Sea on 8 May 2023.

Key Points

  • Navy Chief Admiral R Hari Kumar had inaugurated the exercise along with Rear Admiral Sean Wat, Chief of Navy, Republic of Singapore Navy.
  • Two Indian warships which took part in the exercise are now proceeding to their next port of call towards Vietnam.
  • This was the first such naval exercise with the ASEAN grouping.
  • ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) is a political and economic union of ten member states in Southeast Asia.

Additional Information

  • Recent Defence News
    • 10th edition of SLINEX 2023: India-Sri Lanka bilateral maritime Exercise begins at Colombo
    • Exercise Cope India 23 begins between Indian Air Force and US Air Force in West Bengal.
    • Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC), the first and only Tri-Service theatre command in India, conducted a large-scale Joint Military Exercise “Exercise KAVACH” (Ex KAVACH) involving the assets of the Indian Armed forces – Army, Navy, Air Force, and Indian Coast Guard (ICG) from 23rd February 2023 to 7th April 2023.
    • On April 6th, 2023, the Indian Navy conducted the offshore security exercise Prasthan, a bi-annual coordinated exercise along with other defense, state, and civilian agencies on the Greatdrill Chaaya platform about 30 nautical miles South West of Mumbai harbor, Maharashtra.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Which of the following has unveiled an AI service called “Bard”?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Unveiling of AI Service "Bard"

  • Google has unveiled an AI service called “Bard,” aiming to compete with the popular chatbot ChatGPT.

Key Points

  • Bard is powered by LaMDA (Language Model for Dialogue Applications), a significant language model developed and released by Google in 2021.
  • Initially, Bard will be accessible to “trusted testers” before being made available to the public.
  • This new AI-powered conversation service is built on Google’s LaMDA technology, designed for Language Model for Dialogue applications.
  • Bard is intended to assist users in comprehending complex topics, such as understanding the James Webb Space Telescope.
  • Another tech giant, Baidu Inc., announced the completion of internal testing for an AI chatbot project named “Ernie Bot” in March.
  • Ernie, short for “Enhanced Representation through Knowledge Integration,” is a large AI-powered language model introduced in 2019.

Additional Information

  • ChatGPT is an AI service from the Microsoft-backed firm OpenAI.
  • It functions as a chatbot that generates human-like responses to text input.
  • ChatGPT utilizes cutting-edge advancements in natural language processing and machine learning to produce intelligent and engaging responses to user inputs.
  • It is based on the robust GPT 3.5 series of language learning models (LLM) and interacts in a conversational manner.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Sewerage Treatment Plant (STP) will be built in 23 cities along the banks of which among the following river in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 13
  • The Sewerage Treatment Plant (STP) will be constructed in 23 cities situated along the banks of the Ganga river in Bihar.
  • In addition to the cities along the Ganga river, STP will also be built in 16 cities along the tributaries of the Ganga river in Bihar.
  • Furthermore, efforts are being made to establish Fecal Sludge Treatment Plants (FSTP) in 76 small towns to manage waste effectively.
  • These FSTPs will collect waste from private septic tanks, treat it, and convert it into manure. Suitable locations are currently being identified for the construction of FSTPs in the designated areas.
  • The total capacity of the FSTP plants to be installed in 76 cities will be 1287 KLD. This means that these plants will have the capability to process and dispose of 1287 kilo-liters of septic and contaminated waste on a daily basis.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

How much money has been provisioned for Indira Awas Yojana in the Bihar Budget 2022-23?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 14
  • Budget Allocation for Indira Awas Yojana: The Bihar Budget 2022-23 has provisioned Rs. 8,689 crore for the Indira Awas Yojana, making option 4 the correct answer.
  • About Indira Awas Yojana:
    • The Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY) is implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development.
    • It was launched in 1985-86 as a sub-scheme of the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP).
    • Initially part of Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY), it became an independent scheme on January 1, 1996.
    • Also known as Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana [PMGAY], it aims to provide housing for below poverty line citizens.
  • Additional Information:
    • The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar for 2022-23 is projected to be Rs 7,45,310 crore.
    • Expenditure in 2022-23 is estimated at Rs 2,23,021 crore, a 9% decrease from the previous year.
    • Fiscal deficit for 2022-23 is targeted at 3.47% of GSDP.
    • Other allocations include Rs 3,156 crore for health services in urban areas, Rs 2,500 crore for MGNREGS, and Rs 3,821 crore for roads and bridges.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Which of the following Music originated in Bihar state? 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Key Points
Other major folk music traditions from the country are:
Sr  No Music State of Origin 1 Nyioga Arunachal Pradesh 2 Heliamleu Nagaland 3 Sohar Bihar 4 Tikir Assam

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Classical Dance - Which of the following pairs of states is correct?

  1. Bharatanatyam - Karnataka
  2. Mohiniyattam - Kerala
  3. Sattriya - Manipur
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
  • Bharatanatyam is the oldest Indian classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu hundreds of years ago.
    • Hence, the first statement is incorrect.
  • Mohiniyattam is one of the two classical dance forms that originated in Kerala, the other being Kathakali.
    • Hence, the second statement is correct.

Additional Information
The classical dance forms recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi and the Ministry of Culture are:

  • Bharatanatyam, from Tamil Nadu.
  • Kathak, from Uttar Pradesh.
  • Kathakali, from Kerala.
  • Kuchipudi, from Andhra Pradesh.
  • Odissi, from Odisha.
  • Sattriya, from Assam.
  • Manipuri, from Manipur.
  • Mohiniyattam, from Kerala.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

The central and provincial budgets were separated for the first time through which of the following Acts?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Government of India Act, 1919

  • Government of India Act 1919 was the consolidated form of the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms.
  • In August 1917, the British government announced its intention to gradually introduce responsible government in India as part of the British Empire.
  • Key provisions of the act include:
    • Replacing the Indian legislative council in the center with a bicameral system comprising a Council of States and the Legislative Assembly.
    • Introduction of direct elections with a majority of directly elected members in each house.
    • Communal representation expanded with separate electorates for Sikhs, Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Muslims.
    • Introduction of dyarchy in the provinces, a significant step towards transferring power to the Indian people.
    • Separation of provincial and Central budgets, allowing provincial legislatures to create their own budgets.
    • The Secretary of State of India, previously paid from Indian revenue, was now funded by the British exchequer.

Additional Information

  • Indian Council Act, 1861:
    • Added a fifth member to the Council for executive functions.
    • Introduced the portfolio system assigning specific departments to each member.
    • Nominated three Indians to the Council in 1862.
    • Restored legislative powers of the Governor-in-Councils of Madras and Bombay.
  • Government of India Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms):
    • Increased the size of legislative councils.
    • Allowed non-official majority in provincial legislative councils.
    • Enhanced deliberative functions of the councils.
    • Introduced Indian association with executive councils.
    • Implemented communal representation for Muslims.
  • The Indian Councils Act 1892:
    • Introduced additional members through indirect election.
    • First inclusion of elections in the Indian political system.
    • Increased non-official members in legislative councils.
    • Granted members the right to question on the budget and public interest matters.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

The term demography was first used by

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

The term demography was first used by Achille Guillard

  • The term demography has been ascribed to a Belgian statistician, Achille Guillard, who coined it in 1855. However, the origins of modern demography are usually traced back to John Graunt’s quantitative analyses of the “Bills of Mortality” published in 1662. The “Bills of Mortality” provided weekly lists of burials and baptisms in the parishes of London.
  • Demography is the study of human populations concerning their size, structure, and dynamics. For demographers, a population is a group of individuals that coexist at a point in time and share a defining characteristic such as residence in the same geographical area. The structure or composition of a population refers to the distribution of its members by age, sex, and other characteristics, such as place of residence and marital or health status.
  • The age and sex structure of the population results from past trends in fertility, mortality, and migration. Thus, these processes comprise the components of demographic change. The age and sex structure of a population, in turn, affect birth rates, death rates, and rates of migration. Changes in status such as getting married or divorced similarly interact with population structure.
  • In its simplest definition, demography is the scientific study of human populations. According to Landry (1945), the term demography was first used by the Belgian statistician Achille Guillard in his 1855 publication: Eléments de statistique humaine, ou démographie comparée.
  • However, John Graunt’s Natural and Political Observations Mentioned in a Following Index, and Made Upon the Bills of Mortality, published in 1662 in London, is generally acknowledged to be the first published study in the field of demography. The book demonstrated the usefulness of compilations of information relating to the population of London by presenting statistics on a wide range of characteristics such as employment, age and sex composition, health, and environment.
  • John Graunt also published an early version of the life table which, having been further developed by Edmund Halley and Joshua Milne, led to the publication in 1840 of the first official life table by William Farr, compiler of scientific abstracts in the General Register Office for England and Wales.
  • The life table describes the ages at which an event, death, occurs in a population. The statistical concepts of the life table remain today the fundamental elements of demographic methods.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with regard to the formation of new States and alteration of boundaries of existing' States :

  1. Parliament may increase the area of any State.
  2. Parliament may diminish the area of any State.
  3. Parliament cannot alter the boundary of any State.
  4. Parliament cannot alter the name of any State.

Which of the statements given above is not correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Key Points
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution

  • Article 3 empowers the Parliament to:
    • Form new states by separating a part from any state, uniting two or more states, or attaching a territory to a state.
    • Increase or decrease the area of a state.
    • Alter the boundary of a state.
    • Change the name of a state.
  • Therefore, since altering the boundary and name of a state are permissible, statements 3 and 4 are incorrect, making option 3 the correct choice.
  • Article 3 also sets forth specific conditions:
    • A bill proposing such changes requires the prior recommendation of the President.
    • Before recommending the bill, the President must consult the State Legislature, which must respond within a specified time frame.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

As per RBI norms, what is the capital adequacy ratio that Indian scheduled commercial banks are required to maintain?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

According to RBI norms, Indian scheduled commercial banks are required to maintain a Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of 9%.
Key Points

  • As per RBI norms, Indian scheduled commercial banks are required to maintain a CAR of 9%.
  • Indian public sector banks are emphasized to maintain a CAR of 12%.

Important Points

  • The Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is a measurement of a bank's available capital expressed as a percentage of a bank's risk-weighted credit exposures.
  • The Capital Adequacy Ratio, also known as the capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), is used to protect depositors and promote the stability and efficiency of financial systems around the world.
  • It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Match the following:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Key Points:

  • Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
  • Blood is a part of extracellular fluid within the cardiovascular system.
  • Blood contains:
    • Plasma (55%) + blood cells (44%) + white blood cells and platelets (1%).
    • There are 5-6 liters of blood in a human body.
    • Functions:
      • Transport oxygen, hormones, and energy.
      • pH buffer – Blood pH value is around 7.4.
      • Temperature or thermal maintenance – 98.4°F.
      • Immunity and defense.

Blood Components:

  • Plasma: 55% of Blood
  • Platelets - 250 – 400 thousand
  • Erythrocytes or RBC - 4.2 – 5.8 million
  • Leukocytes or WBC - 5-9 thousand
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Phycology is the study of ______.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 22
  • Phycology Defined:
    • Phycology is the scientific study of algae, also known as algology.
    • It is a branch of life science that focuses on algae.
  • Importance of Algae:
    • Algae play a crucial role as primary producers in aquatic ecosystems.
    • They are mostly eukaryotic, photosynthetic organisms thriving in wet environments.

Key Points

  • Phycology is the scientific study of algae.
  • Also known as algology, phycology is a branch of life science.
  • Algae are important as primary producers in aquatic ecosystems.
  • Most algae are eukaryotic, photosynthetic organisms that live in a wet environment.

Additional Information
The study of FungiMycologyThe study of VirusVirologyThe study of Bacteria Microbiology

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Which of the following pairs will form the most stable ionic bond ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Understanding Ionic Bonds

  • Ionic Bond:
    • The ionic bond is the electrostatic force of attraction that holds two oppositely charged ions together.
    • It involves the complete transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to another, resulting in the atoms achieving their closest inert gas configuration.
    • Examples of ionic bonds include KCl, AlCl3, NaCl.
    • Factors affecting the stability of ionic compounds include the charge and size of the cation and anion.

Explanation of Most Stable Ionic Bond

  • The strength of an ionic bond is influenced by the charges and sizes of the ions involved.
  • Stronger bonds are formed with higher charges and smaller sizes.
  • For example, Mg2+ has a small size and high charge, making its interaction with F- the strongest.
  • Due to these factors, the electrostatic force of attraction in this bond is maximized.

Additional Information on Bonding

  • Covalent Bond:
    • A covalent bond is established when electrons from each participating atom are shared equally.
    • The shared pair of electrons is known as the bonding pair.
    • Covalent bonding is also referred to as molecular bonding.
    • Atoms achieve stability in their outer shell through the sharing of bonding pairs, similar to noble gas atoms.
    • Examples of covalent bonds are CH4, H2O, NH3.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Which is not part of physiological division of Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Physiographical Division of Bihar:

  • Shiwalik Range: The Shiwalik range in Bihar extends from the Northern part of West Champaran district over an area 32 km long and 6-8 km wide. It is further divided into three parts based on variation:
    • Ramanagar Doon
    • Someshwar Range
    • Harha Valley
  • Bihar Plain: The Bihar plain is situated between the Northern Mountains and the Southern Plateau region. It is bounded by a 150m contour line in the North and South.
  • Southern Plateau Region: This region spans from the Kaimur district in the West to Banka in the East. Comprising hard rocks like gneiss, schist, and granite, the southern plateau region features numerous conical hills including Pretshil, Ramshila, and Jethian Hill.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Consider the following:

  1. Bihar Millet Mission
  2. Bihar Pulses and Oilseeds Development Mission 
  3. Crop Diversification Mission

Which among the above-given mission has/have been proposed to be launched as mentioned in the Bihar state Budget 2023-24?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 25
  • Rs. 7,726 Crore has been provisioned for Agriculture and Allied Activities in Bihar State budget 2023-24.
  • Bihar has allocated 3.3% of its expenditure towards agriculture. 
  • This is significantly lower than the average allocation towards agriculture by states (5.8%).
  • Rs 415 crore has been allocated towards subsidies under various schemes administered by the Agriculture Department.
  • This includes a subsidy of Rs 100 crore for agricultural mechanization.
  • Multiple missions are proposed to be launched which includes: 
    • Bihar Millet Mission
    • Bihar Pulses and Oilseeds Development Mission
    • Crop Diversification Mission --- Hence 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
  • Fourth Agriculture Roadmap will be implemented with a special focus on pulses and oilseeds. 
  • The infrastructure of state agricultural market yards will be modernized.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Ravi got married 8 years ago. His present age is 6/5 times his age at the time of his marriage. Ravi's sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The present age of Ravi's sister is:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Calculation:
Ravi's present age is 6/5 times his age at the time of his marriage. 
Present age = 6/5 ×  Age at the time of marriage
Let's assume Ravi's present age is 'x' years and his age at the time of marriage is 'y' years.
x = 6/5y    ----(1)
Ravi got married 8 years ago. So
6/5y - y = 8
y = 40 years
Now, let's calculate the age of Ravi's sister:
y - 10 = 40 - 10 = 30 years
The present age of Ravi's sister = 30 + 8 = 38 years
Hence, The correct option is 3.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

The two Buddhist sects Hinyana and Mahayana were given recognition by 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Key Points
The Fourth Buddhist Council 

  • The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in 72 AD in Kundalavana (near Srinagar, Kashmir)
  • It was patronized by the Kushan king Kanishka and presided over by Vasumitra with Asvaghosa as his deputy
  • The purpose of the council was to resolve a critical dispute between the Gandhara and Sarvastivada teachers of Kashmir
  • The council divided Buddhism into two sects: Mahayana and Hinayana. Hence, option (2) is correct.
  • The council consisted of two separate Buddhist councils; one in Anuradhapura, Sri Lanka (traditionally ascribed to 1st century BCE) and the other in Kundalavana, Kashmir
  • The council aimed to resolve differences peacefully and democratically among Buddhist followers
  • The council resulted in the creation of the Mahavibhasa, a compilation of Sarvastivadin beliefs with three large commentaries on the Pitakas
  • The four Buddhist councils are considered milestones in the history of Buddhism.​

Key Points

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Recently Shyamala Gopinath Committee’s formula was in news, it is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

The Shyamala Gopinath Committee Formula Explained
In News: The Shyamala Gopinath Committee formula was in the news recently.

  • Key Points: Shyamala Gopinath panel formula:
    • Interest rates on small savings schemes are revised quarterly based on benchmark government bonds by the Ministry of Finance.
    • The Shyamala Gopinath panel in 2010 recommended a market-linked interest rate system for small savings schemes.

Additional Information: Small Saving Schemes:

  • Small savings schemes are a significant source of household savings in India.
  • Depositors receive assured interest on their savings.
  • Collections from all small savings instruments are deposited into the National Small Savings Fund (NSSF).
  • Classification: Small savings instruments include:
    • Postal Deposits (savings account, recurring deposits, time deposits of varying maturities, and monthly income scheme).
    • Savings Certificates like National Small Savings Certificate (NSC) and Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP).
    • Social Security Schemes such as Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme, Public Provident Fund (PPF), and Senior Citizens' Savings Scheme (SCSS).
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Recently a controversial Rule known as 'Title 42' has been in news, it is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

In News

  • THE HINDU: UN rights chief warned that a new U.S. border enforcement plan risks undermining the basic foundations of international human rights and refugee law.

Key Points Title 42:

  • It is an immigration policy enacted by US health officials in March 2020, during the early stages of the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • The policy was put in place to allow border agents to quickly return migrants crossing the US-Mexico border to Mexico or other countries.
  • The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) in the United States stated at the time that it was necessary to stop the spread of COVID-19 in crowded detention settings.
  • The policy was put in place by Republican former President Donald Trump.
  • The United States announced that it will extend COVID-19 pandemic-era restrictions, known as Title 42, to expel migrants from Nicaragua, Cuba and Haiti caught crossing the U.S.-Mexico border back to Mexico.
  • The move would block more nationalities from seeking asylum in the United States and raises questions about the implications of this policy expansion and its legality.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

In J&K, the Indian Army installed the tallest 'Iconic National Flag' in which district on March 9, 2023?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

In News

  • In J&K, the Indian Army installed the tallest 'Iconic National Flag' in the hilly Doda district on March 9, 2023.

Key Points

  • The tricolour has been installed on a 100 feet-high pole, making it the highest Tricolour in the Doda district.
  • General Officer Commanding of the Army's Delta Force, Maj Gen Ajay Kumar, unfurled the flag.
  • He also honored the next of kin of soldiers who had died in the service of the nation.

Additional Information

  • Jammu and Kashmir:
    • Lieutenant Governor - Manoj Sinha.
    • Number of Districts - 20.
    • Dams - Baglihar Dam (Chenab River), Dulhasti Dam (Chenab River), Uri-II Dam (Jhelum River).
    • National Parks - Dachigam National Park, Salim Ali National Park, Kazinag National Park, Kishtwar High Altitude National Park.
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