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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 - BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 is part of BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 preparation. The BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus.The BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 below.
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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

Chronologically arrange the following treaties/conventions signed between the Marathas and the British (starting with the earliest) :

  1. Treaty of Salbai
  2. Treaty of Purandar
  3. Convention of Wadgaon
  4. Treaty of Surat

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

This is the correct chronological arrangement of the treaties/conventions signed between the Marathas and the British, starting with the earliest.
Important Points

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

Which of the following newspapers were started by Mahatma Gandhi?

  1. Young India
  2. New India
  3. Indian Opinion

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

Below are some key points related to the newspapers started by Mahatma Gandhi:

  • In 1903, in South Africa, Gandhi initiated a weekly newspaper called Indian Opinion.
    • Gandhi supported Indian Opinion throughout his life from India by providing editorial content and moral and financial assistance.
  • In 1919, Gandhi launched two weeklies in India, namely Young India and Navjivan.
  • In 1933, Gandhi introduced a third weekly publication, Harijan (meaning 'the children of God').
  • In the early part of 1915, Annie Besant initiated a campaign through her newspapers, New India and Commonweal, advocating for self-government in India similar to White colonies post-War. Therefore, Option 2 is incorrect.
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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

About 80% of the coal reserves of India lie in the

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 3
  • Coal reserves in India are predominantly found in two main formations: Older Gondwana Formation in the Indian Peninsula and younger Tertiary Formation in the Northeastern region.
  • Classification of coal is based on its carbon content, with three main categories: anthracite (80-90%), bituminous (60-80%), and lignite (40-55%).
  • About 55% of India's energy requirements are met by coal.
  • The history of coal mining in India dates back to 1774 when it first began in Raniganj during the rule of the East India Company.
  • The Damodar region holds approximately 80% of the coal reserves in India.
  • States with significant geological coal resources in India are ranked as follows: Jharkhand > Odisha > Chhattisgarh > West Bengal > Madhya Pradesh.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

Who functions as Secretary to the District Planning Committee?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 4
  • The District Collector functions as the Secretary to the District Planning Committee.
  • The District Planning Committee is created as per Article 243ZD of the Constitution of India.
  • Its role is to consolidate the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities within the district.
  • The Committee also prepares a draft development plan for the district.
  • Historically, the main functions of the district collector included supervising general administration, collecting land revenue, maintaining law and order, and even performing judicial functions.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

Modified Mixed Reference Period or MMRP method, to calculate poverty was used by which of the following committees/agencies? 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

Poverty:

  • Poverty can be defined as a condition in which an individual or household lacks the financial resources to afford a basic minimum standard of living.
  • The official poverty line is the expenditure incurred to obtain the goods in a “poverty line basket” (PLB).
  • Poverty can be measured in terms of the number of people living below this line.

C. Rangarajan Committee (2014):

  • The C Rangarajan Committee was formed to Review the Poverty Measurement Methodology and presented its report.
  • It calculated the Poverty Line (PL) using the expenditure on food and non-food items.
  • The minimum nutrient requirement of calories is 2155 cal. & 2090 cal. For rural and urban respectively.
  • It used the Modified mixed reference period or MMRP methodology to calculate poverty which includes:
    • Mixed Reference Period (MRP) for some food items, instead of a 30-day recall, only a 7-day recall is collected for fruits, vegetables, meat & fish, Beverages, spices, Tobacco, and intoxicant.
  • The Rangarajan committee estimation is based on an independent large survey of households by the Center for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE).
  • Nutritional Requirement: For normative levels of adequate nutrition – average requirements of calories, proteins, and fats based on Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) norms, differentiated by age, gender, and activity for all-India rural and urban regions is considered:
    • Calories: 2090 kcal in urban areas and 2155 Kcal in rural areas.
    • Protein: For rural areas 48 gm and for urban areas 50 gm.
    • Fat: For urban areas 28 gm and for rural areas 26 gm.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Lymphoid organs play a crucial role in immunity. Which among the following is a primary lymphoid organ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Role of Lymphoid Organs in Immunity

  • Lymphoid organs are essential components of the human immune system where the production, maturation, and proliferation of lymphocytes take place.
  • These organs can be categorized into two main types:
  1. Primary Lymphoid Organs
    • This category includes the bone marrow and thymus.
    • Primary lymphoid organs provide specialized microenvironments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
    • Immature lymphocytes undergo differentiation to become antigen-sensitive lymphocytes within these organs.
    • Once mature, the lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid organs to carry out immune responses.
  2. Secondary Lymphoid Organs
    • These organs serve as sites where lymphocytes interact with antigens, leading to their proliferation and transformation into effector cells.
    • Secondary lymphoid organs include the spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer's patches in the small intestine, and the appendix.
  • Bone Marrow
    • The bone marrow is a primary lymphoid organ responsible for the production of all blood cells, including lymphocytes.
  • Thymus
    • The thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart, beneath the breastbone.
    • It is relatively large at birth but gradually diminishes in size with age.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

Which is the only event to prove that light is a transverse wave?
A. Scattering of light
B. Interference
C. Diffraction
D. Polarisation

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

Understanding the Concept of Polarisation as a Proof of Light being a Transverse Wave

  • Polarisation: It is a property that applies to transverse waves and specifies the geometric orientation of the oscillations.
  • In a transverse wave, the direction of oscillation is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the wave.
  • Some common examples of polarisation include surfaces that reflect polarized light such as undisturbed glass, sheet plastics, water, and highways.
  • In these instances, light waves with electric field vectors parallel to the surface are reflected to a greater degree than those with different orientations.

Key Points

  • Polarization: A property applying to transverse waves specifying the geometrical orientation of oscillations.
  • In transverse waves, oscillation direction is perpendicular to the wave's motion direction.
  • Common examples of polarisation include surfaces like glass, plastics, water, and highways that reflect polarized light.

Additional Information

  • Interference: When light falls on a soap bubble, it reflects part of the light, creating a visual interference pattern.
  • Scattering of Light: Light rays get deviated from their straight path when striking obstacles like dust, gas molecules, or water vapors, leading to phenomena like the Tyndall effect.
  • Diffraction: Occurs when a light wave passes by a corner or through an opening similar to or smaller than the wavelength of light, resulting in diffraction patterns.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

Alpha particles are ________.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

Key Points

  • Alpha particles consist of two protons and two neutrons bound together into a particle identical to a helium nucleus.
  • An alpha particle is like a Helium nucleus that has no electrons and has a valency 2+.
  • Alpha particles are emitted by radioactive nuclei such as uranium or radium, in a process known as alpha decay.

Additional Information

  • Characteristic of an alpha particle
    • An alpha particle is a fast-moving packet containing two protons and two neutrons (a helium nucleus). Alpha particles carry a charge of +2 and strongly interact with matter.
    • Produced during alpha decay, alpha particles can travel only a few inches through the air and can be easily stopped with a sheet of paper.
  • Characteristic of a beta particle
    • A beta particle also called beta ray or beta radiation (symbol β), is a high-energy, high-speed electron or positron emitted by the radioactive decay of an atomic nucleus during the process of beta decay.
    • There are two forms of beta decay, β− decay and β+ decay, which produce electrons and positrons respectively.
  • Characteristic of a gamma-ray
    • A gamma-ray, or gamma radiation (symbol γ), is penetrating electromagnetic radiation arising from the radioactive decay of atomic nuclei.
    • It consists of the shortest wavelength electromagnetic waves and so imparts the highest photon energy.
  • Characteristics of an X-ray 
    •  X-rays are produced when an element is bombarded with high-energy particles, which can be photons, electrons or ions (such as protons). 
    • When the incident particle strikes a bound electron (the target electron) in an atom, the target electron is ejected from the inner shell of the atom.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

If A, B, and C together can complete a piece of work in 20 days and A alone in 24 days, then in how many days can B & C together complete the work?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Calculation:

  • A, B, and C can complete a piece of work in 20 days.
  • One day's work of A, B, and C together is 1/20.
  • So, A + B + C = 1/20 -----(1)
  • A alone can complete the work in 24 days.
  • One day's work of A is 1/24.
  • So, A = 1/24 -----(2)
  • Subtracting equation (2) from equation (1):
  • (A + B + C) - (A) = 1/20 - 1/24
  • LCM of 20 and 24 is 120.
  • (B + C) = (6 - 5) / 120
  • Therefore, B + C = 1/120
  • Thus, B & C together can complete the work in 120 days.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 10
What is the primary hazard associated with the river Kosi in Bihar?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 10
The primary hazard associated with the river Kosi in Bihar is frequent flooding. Known as the "Sorrow of Bihar," the river's unpredictable water flow and tendency to change course result in severe annual floods that affect large areas and disrupt lives and agriculture.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

Which ministry has set up Energy Transition Advisory Committee (ETAC) to Prepare Energy Transition Roadmap for India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

The Ministry Responsible for Setting up Energy Transition Advisory Committee (ETAC)

  • Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas

Key Points

  • Establishment: The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas formed the Advisory Committee for the Energy Transition.
  • Leadership: Tarun Kapoor, a former secretary for the petroleum ministry, is leading the committee.
  • Focus Areas: The committee aims to increase the use of renewable energy sources such as hydrogen, biofuel, nuclear, geothermal, and tidal energy in India's energy mix.
  • Objectives: It is tasked with creating an energy transition roadmap within six months to help India achieve its goal of net zero emissions by 2070. Additionally, it will devise a strategy for transitioning from fossil fuels to green energy.
  • Transition Plans: The committee will assist oil corporations in launching their transition plans.
  • Collaborative Efforts: Bharat Petroleum, Indian Oil, and Hindustan Petroleum have jointly announced plans to set up 22,000 charging stations.

Additional Information

  • National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
  • The Central Government introduced the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) as a comprehensive national approach to combat air pollution.
  • NCAP aims to reduce Particulate Matter concentrations by 20% to 30% by 2024, with 2017 as the baseline year.
  • 122 non-attainment cities have been identified across India based on air quality data from 2014 to 2018 under NCAP.
  • Air Quality Monitoring: State Pollution Control Boards monitor air quality in cities, with Smart Cities setting up Integrated Command and Control Centres connected to Air Quality Monitors for effective monitoring.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 12
Which crop is Bihar urging the Centre to declare a Minimum Support Price (MSP) for?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 12
Bihar is urging the Centre to declare a Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Makhana, an important aquatic crop cultivated extensively in the region. This support would help stabilize the income of farmers engaged in Makhana cultivation, reflecting its economic and nutritional importance.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

What is the number of members in Bihar Legislative Council?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

The number of members in Bihar Legislative Council

  • After the first General Elections in 1952, the number of members in the Bihar Legislative Council was increased up to 72.
  • By 1958, the number of members in the Bihar Legislative Council was raised to 96.
  • With the creation of Jharkhand due to the Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000 passed by the Parliament, the strength of the Bihar Legislative Council was reduced from 96 to 75 members.

Therefore, the correct answer is 75.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

Dagmara Hydro-Electric Project of Bihar is located on which of the following river?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

The Dagmara Hydro-Electric Project

  • Dagmara Hydro-Electric Project Location:
    • The project is situated near village Dagmara on the right bank and Simri on the left bank, approximately 22.5 km downstream of the Bhimnagar barrage on the Kosi river.
    • This project is specifically located on the Kosi river.
  • Run-of-the-River Scheme:
    • This project follows a Run-of-the-River scheme, which utilizes the natural flow of rivers and microturbine generators to harness the kinetic energy carried by water.
    • In this scheme, water is diverted from the river at a higher point and channeled through a pipeline or penstock to generate electricity.
  • Generating Capacity:
    • The Dagmara Hydro-Electric Project has a total capacity of producing 130 MW of energy.
    • It will consist of 17 units, each with a capacity of 7.65 MW, for power generation purposes.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Who was the convener of boycott of Simon Commission in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Details of the Convener of Boycott of Simon Commission in Bihar

  • Simon Commission arrived in Bihar on 12 December 1928.
  • In an All-party meeting chaired by Sir Ali Imam, the decision to boycott the commission was made.
  • Devki Nandan was the convener of the boycott.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding Rashtrakutas

  1. The Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin and Kannada language was their mother tongue.
  2. Amoghavarsha I built the magnificent rock-cut monolithic Kailasa temple at Ellora.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Key Points

  • The Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin and the Kannada language was their mother tongue. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
  • Krishna I was also a great conqueror.
  • He defeated the Gangas and the Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi.
  • He built the magnificent rock-cut monolithic Kailasa temple at Ellora. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information
Rashtrakutas (755 – 975 A.D.)

  • Rashtrakutas meaning ‘the chief of a Rashtra’, are considered as the feudatory of the Chalukyas.
  • Their capital city was  Manyakheta or Malkhed near Solapur which is in present-day Maharashtra. 
  • Rashtrakuta fought constantly against the eastern Chalukyas of Vengi and Pallavas of Kanchi and Pandya of Madurai.
  • They were tolerant in their religious views and patronized Shaivism, Vaishnavism, and Jainism.
  • Krishna III was the last great ruler of Rashtrakutas. In 972 CE, the Capital city was burnt to ashes. This marks the end of Rashtrakutas. 
  • The system of administration in these empires was based upon the ideas and practices of the Gupta empire.
  • Amoghavarsha I (815- 880 A.D.) ruled for a long period of 64 years.
  • He had lost control over Malwa and Gangavadi.
  • Yet, his reign was popular for cultural development. He was a follower of Jainism.
  • He was also a patron of letters and he himself wrote the famous Kannada work, Kavirajamarga.
  • He had also built the Rashtrakuta capital, the city of Malkhed or Manyakheda.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

  1. Narayan Malhar Joshi was the first general secretary of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC).
  2. Jawahar Lal Nehru was the President of the AITUC in 1928.
  3. AITUC in its first session adopted a resolution of Swaraj.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

  • Narayan Malhar Joshi was not the first general secretary of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC).
  • Jawahar Lal Nehru was the President of the AITUC in 1928.
  • AITUC did not adopt a resolution of Swaraj in its first session.

Key Points

  • Narayan Malhar Joshi (5th June 1879 – 30th May 1955) was an Indian trade union leader and follower of Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
  • Joshi, along with Lala Lajpat Rai, started the All India Trade Union Congress in 1920. Lala Lajpat Rai was its first president and Dewan Chaman Lal was its first general secretary.
  • In 1928, there were several strikes involving 5 lakh workers.
  • Jawahar Lal Nehru served as the President of the AITUC in 1928.
  • AITUC adopted a resolution of Swaraj in its second session in 1921 in Jharia, eight years before the Indian National Congress adopted a similar resolution in 1929.
  • Since 1945, the AITUC has been politically associated with the Communist Party of India.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Consider the followings:

  1. Pressure gradient force
  2. Coriolis force
  3. Friction force generated by surface

Which of the following geographical factors and processes control the flow and direction of the wind in India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Understanding the Factors Controlling Wind Flow in India

  • Pressure Gradient Force
    • This force initiates the flow and direction of the wind.
    • Wind flows from high pressure to low pressure at right angles to isobars.
    • The wind velocity is directly related to the pressure gradient force.
  • Coriolis Force/Deflection Force
    • This force deflects the wind direction.
    • The rotation of the Earth around its axis causes the Coriolis force.
    • It significantly influences wind direction, deflecting winds to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.
    • The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force.
  • Friction Force Generated by Surface
    • Friction acts as a restraining force on wind flow.
    • The level of friction depends on surface irregularities and natural landform orientations.
    • Friction is minimal over smooth ocean surfaces.
    • Frictional force impacts the wind flow up to a few thousand meters above the surface.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 as all these factors play a crucial role in controlling wind flow in India.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Consider the following difference between Union Territories with the States:

  1. They do not have any autonomy.
  2. In normal times Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists.
  3. Unitary relationship with the Centre.

Which of the above are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Understanding the Difference between Union Territories and States

  • Autonomy: States have autonomy, while Union Territories do not have any autonomy.
  • Legislative Power: In normal circumstances, Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists in Union Territories.
  • Relationship: Union Territories have a unitary relationship with the Centre.

Key Points

  • Difference of Union Territories with the States:

  • Hence option 4 is correct.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

Demand for a commodity refers to

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

Understanding Demand for a Commodity

  • What is Demand?
    • The quantity of a commodity that a consumer is willing to buy and can afford, based on prices of goods and the consumer's income, constitutes the demand for that commodity.
    • Demand for a commodity is influenced by various factors such as prices of other goods, consumer income, and consumer tastes and preferences.
  • A consumer typically determines their demand for a commodity based on the utility, or satisfaction, they derive from it.
  • Understanding Utility:
    • Utility of a commodity refers to its ability to satisfy wants.
    • Greater need or desire for a commodity results in higher utility derived from it.
    • Utility is subjective, varying among individuals. For instance, someone who enjoys chocolates will derive more utility from them compared to someone who doesn't. Additionally, utility can vary with location and time. For example, the utility of a room heater differs based on whether one is in Ladakh or Chennai and whether it is summer or winter.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Read the statements below:

  1. All protozoans are unicellular 
  2. All bacteria are unicellular 
  3. All fungi are unicellular 

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Bacteria:

  • Bacteria belong to the kingdom Monera.
  • They are prokaryotic organisms with cell walls.
  • Bacteria are considered unicellular because they are made up of a single cell and lack a well-defined nucleus.
  • Mycoplasma is known as the smallest living organism among bacteria.
  • Bacteria can be either photosynthetic autotrophs or chemosynthetic autotrophs.
  • Based on their shapes, bacteria are classified into four groups: cocci, Bacillus, Vibrio, and spirilla.

Fungi:

  • Fungi are non-green organisms and are heterotrophic in nature.
  • They can exist as both unicellular and multicellular organisms, comprising single-celled and multi-celled species.
  • Fungi can be saprophytes, parasites, or symbiotic, as seen in lichens.
  • These organisms are eukaryotes possessing cell walls made of chitin.

Protozoa:

  • Protozoa are heterotrophic microorganisms that function as predators or parasites.
  • They are categorized as unicellular due to their single-cell structure.
  • Protozoans are classified into four main groups:
    • Amoeboid protozoans, for example, Amoeba.
    • Flagellated protozoans, for example, Trypanosoma.
    • Ciliated protozoans, for example, Paramoecium.
    • Sporozoans, for example, Plasmodium.

Therefore, the correct statements from the given options are A & B.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

When a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Reasoning behind Energy Conservation during Free Fall

  • Law of Conservation of Energy:
    • According to this fundamental law, energy cannot be created or destroyed.
    • Energy can only change forms, being transformed from one type to another.
    • In an isolated system, the total energy within it remains constant.
    • When a body is in free fall towards the Earth, the total energy of the system stays the same.

Additional Insights

  • Freefall:
    • During free fall, a body moves solely under the influence of Earth's gravity.
    • The body experiences accelerated motion due to the gravitational force acting on it.
    • This scenario is practically achievable only under vacuum conditions.
    • The height and velocity of a body in free fall can be determined using equations of motion by substituting acceleration with 'g' and initial velocity as zero:
    • Height: h = ½ gt2
    • Velocity: v = gt, v2 = 2gh
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

Which fuel has the highest calorific value from among the following.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

Understanding Calorific Value of Fuels

  • Fuel: Fuels are sources of energy used for various purposes, such as domestic and industrial activities. Examples of fuels include wood, charcoal, petrol, and kerosene.
  • Qualities of a Good Fuel: - A good fuel should be readily available, affordable, burn easily in the air at a moderate rate, and produce a significant amount of heat.
  • Efficiency of Fuel: - The efficiency of a fuel is determined by its calorific value.
  • Calorific Value: - Calorific value refers to the amount of heat energy generated upon complete combustion of 1 kg of a fuel. It is measured in kilojoules per kilogram (kJ/kg).
  • Comparison of Calorific Values: - The table provided shows the calorific values of various fuels, such as cow dung cake, wood, coal, petrol, kerosene, diesel, methane, CNG, LPG, and biogas.
  • Highest Calorific Value: - Among the options listed, hydrogen has the highest calorific value of 150,000 kJ/kg.Therefore, based on the given information, the fuel with the highest calorific value among the options is hydrogen.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 24
What unique feature does the Viraat Ramayan Mandir possess compared to the Ram Mandir in Ayodhya?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 24
The Viraat Ramayan Mandir is distinctive because it is three times larger than the Ram Mandir in Ayodhya. This massive scale highlights its ambition to be a major pilgrimage and tourist attraction, embodying a grand vision of architectural and spiritual grandeur.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

 In an exam, 70% of the candidates passed in English, 80% passed in maths, 10% failed in both the subjects. If 144 candidates passed in both, the total number of candidates were ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Given:
In an exam, 70% of the candidates passed in English, 80% passed in maths, and 10% failed in both subjects. If 144 candidates passed in both.
Concept used:
Percentage
Calculation:
Percentage of students who failed in both subjects = 10%

  • We convert the percentage of passed candidates in English and maths into failed percentage
  • Total fail in maths = 100 - 80 = 20%
  • Total fail in English = 100 - 70 = 30%
  • The common region shows the candidates who failed in both subjects.
  • Total failed = 10 + 10 + 20 = 40%
  • Total passed = 100 - 40 = 60%
  • As per the question,
    ⇒ 60% = 144
  • ⇒ 1% = 144/60
  • ⇒ 100% = (144/60) × 100 = 240
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

Which company established its factory in 1632 at Patna, Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 26
  • Dutch East India Company
    • The Dutch East India Company was a significant corporation established through a government-directed merger of various Dutch trading companies in the early 17th century.
    • In 1632, the Dutch East India Company set up its factory in Patna, Bihar, which is now recognized as the location of the Patna Collectorate.

The Dutch East India Company's decision to establish its factory in Patna showcases its strategic approach to expanding trade and influence in the region during that period.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 27
What significant legal provision does the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024 include for service providers involved in malpractices?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 27
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, includes a stringent provision of imposing a fine of Rs. 1 crore on service providers involved in malpractices during public examinations. This harsh penalty is intended to deter unethical behavior and maintain the credibility of the examination process.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 28
Which temple is known for a distinct 33-foot-tall Shivling in its sanctum sanctorum?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 28
The Viraat Ramayan Mandir is noted for having a distinct 33-foot-tall Shivling in its sanctum sanctorum. This feature is a central element of the temple, reflecting its dedication to Lord Shiva and its architectural uniqueness.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Deodhar Trophy is associated to which sport?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Deodhar Trophy and Associated Sports

  • Deodhar Trophy: This trophy is associated with the sport of Cricket.
  • Other significant trophies related to Cricket include the Bose trophy, Wisden trophy, Merchant cup, Ranji trophy, and Titan cup.

Trophies associated with other sports are as follows:

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 30
What is the primary purpose of establishing the National Research Centre for Makhana in Darbhanga?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 30
The primary purpose of establishing the National Research Centre for Makhana in Darbhanga is to conduct research and development on Makhana cultivation and processing. This center aims to enhance the agricultural practices and economic viability of Makhana, which is crucial for the region's economy.
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