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BPSC Practice Test- 8 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 - BPSC Practice Test- 8

BPSC Practice Test- 8 for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 is part of BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 preparation. The BPSC Practice Test- 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus.The BPSC Practice Test- 8 MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC Practice Test- 8 below.
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BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 1

The cost price of an items is Rs. 8000.30% of an items is sold at a profit of 15% and 40% of the remaining items are sold at a profit of 25%. In how much percentage (approximate) he should sell the remaining items to get an overall  30% profit?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 1

Let the total item =100kg.
According to the question, 

To get 30% of the total profit,
so the required % on the remaining item

x = 46% (approximately)

BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 2

Which of the following was the cause of the First Anglo-Mysore War?
(i) Hyder Ali's friendship with the French
(ii) Border dispute between Madras and Karnataka
(iii) Giving excessive donations to the temple of Chamundeshwari Devi

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 2
  • The First Anglo-Mysore War was fought between  Hyder Ali and the British  from 1767 to 1769 AD . Hyder Ali was victorious in this   .
  • Nizam and Marathas supported the British in this war. And  it was ended by the Treaty of Madras in 1769 AD. 
  • Hyder Ali's friendship with the French is  considered the cause of the  Anglo-Mysore war.
  • Hyder Ali had appointed French officers to train his army in a modern way.
  • With the help of the French,  Hyder Ali established a modern armory in Dindigul in 1755. 
  • Another cause   of conflict was the Mysore border dispute between the Madras government and Karnataka.
  • The Madras government wanted friendship with Hyder Ali to control the northern government   , but the Nizam wanted his suzerainty over the northern government.
  • In this  war, Hyder Ali, while showing his diplomacy, dissolved  the  trinity of Marathas, Nizam and British and defeated the British and forced them to make the Treaty of Madras in 1769 AD. This war also ended the invincibility of the British.

Important facts

  • First Anglo-Mysore War  (1767-69) – Treaty of Madras on April 4, 1769
  • Third Anglo-Mysore War  (1790-92) - Treaty of Srirangapatnam in the year 1792
  • Fourth Anglo-Mysore War  (1799) - May 4, 1799 Tipu's death
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BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 3

Which of the following Governor General established the "Imperial Cadet Corps"?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 3
  • The Imperial Cadet Corps (1901–1917) was a cadet corps or military school established specifically to provide officer training to the princes and gentlemen of British India .
  • It was established in November 1901 in Meerut and Dehradun under the direct supervision of Lord Curzon .

Important facts

  • Its purpose was to arrange military education for the princes and sons of the princes of the country. 
  • During his tenure the Archaeological Survey of India was established  .

Lord Ripon

  • Lord Ripon  came   as the Viceroy of India  in 1880 AD and remained in  this post till 1884 AD .
  • With the efforts of Lord Ripon,  a network of municipalities and local bodies and boards was spread in the major cities  of India. Due to his reforms in the field of local self-government, Lord Ripon is called the 'Father of Local Self-Government in India' .  
  • Other work done by Ripon ----
  • Repeal of Vernacular Act , First Factories Act 1881, Ilbert Bill -  According to this bill Indian judges were also to be given the right to hear the trial of European criminals. But as soon as this bill was introduced in the Central Legislature,  Europeans and Anglo-Indians  strongly opposed it. As a result the bill could not be passed.

Lord Reading 

  • He was the only Jewish Viceroy of India. At the time  of Chauri Chaura incident,  Swaraj Party was formed and  the Rowlatt Act was repealed .
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 4

When among the following Hindustan Republican Association was renamed as Hindustan Socialist Republican Association?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 4

In September 1928,a meeting was held under theleadership of Chandrashekhar Azadin the grounds of Delhi's Ferozeshah Kotlaand the name ofHindustan Republican Association was changed to Hindustan Socialist Republic Association.
Important facts

  • Hindustan Republican Association was established in 1924 in Kanpur.
  • Its founding members wereShachindra Sanyal (President), Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee and Chandrashekhar Azad.
  • On 9 August 1925, "Eight Down Saharanpur-Lucknow Passenger Train" was robbed by this organization at a place called Kakori of Lucknow-Saharanpur division of Northern Railway. 
  • This was the first biggest event of Hindustan Republican Association.
  • Ram Prasad Bismil, Asfaqullah, Roshan Lal and Rajendra Lahiri were hanged for this incident, while Chandrashekhar Azad escaped.
     
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 5

Which bank has won the award for best improvement from baseline performance, under EASE3.0?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 5
  • Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman unveiled the fourth edition of Public Sector Bank (PSB) reform agenda 'EASE 4.0' for 2021-22
  • Several banks participated in the award ceremony to felicitate the best performing banks on the EASE 3.0 Banking Reforms Index.
  • Indian Bank won the award for best improvement from baseline performance.
  • SBI, BOB, Union Bank of India, Punjab National Bank and Canara Bank won top prizes in various subjects of PSB Reforms Agenda EASE 3.0.

Options explanation:-

  • Punjab National Bank is an Indian Public sector bank headquartered in Delhi.
  • Founded: 19 May 1894.

Union Bank of India:-

  • Headquarters: Mumbai
  • Founded: 11 November 1919

Canara Bank:-

  • Headquarters: Bengaluru.
  • Founded: 1 July 1906
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 6

Recently, archaeologists have discovered the world's oldest cave art, it is related to which country?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 6
  • The world's oldest cave art has been discovered in Indonesia depicting a wild boar.
  • This painting is at least 45,500 years old.

Important facts:-

  • The picture was found in the Leang Tedongnge cave in a remote valley on the island of Sulawesi, Indonesia.
  • It shows a pig with a short crest of upright hairs and a pair of horn-like facial warts in front of the eyes, a characteristic feature of adult male Sulawesi warty pigs.
  • Sulawesi warty pigs were the most commonly portrayed animal in the ice age rock art of the island, suggesting they have long been valued both as food and a focus of creative thinking and artistic expression.
  • Painted using red ochre pigment, the pig appears to be observing a fight or social interaction between two other warty pigs.

Historical aspects:-
Ajanta:-

  • This cave is located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra.
  • Famous fresco paintings of Ajanta are dying princesses, flying apsara, and preaching Buddha.

Ellora:-

  • It is located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra.

Elephanta:-

  • It is located on Elephanta Islands in Mumbai.
  • There are seven cave excavations in the Elephanta group.

Bhimbetka:-

  • It is located between Hoshangabad and Bhopal, in the foothills of the Vindhya Mountains.
  • It has one of the oldest paintings in India and the world.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 7

Which country has hosted the Climate Adaptation Summit - 2021?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 7
  • Climate Adaptation Summit - 2021 hosted by the Netherlands is attended by more than 30 world leaders, 50 ministers, and 50 international organizations from scientists, the private sector, civil society, and youth representatives, and over 18,500 registered participants.

Important facts:-

  • Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi represented India at this conference.
  • In the past, there has been a serious debate on the causes of forest fires and climate change in India, Australia, and Brazil.
  • On December 12, 2020, Climate Ambition Summit-2020 was chaired by the United Kingdom and France
  • The summit was built on the advances of the UN Climate Action Summit.
  • The summit also showcased the pioneering solutions to the climate emergency and sustained momentum through UNFCCC’s COP26.
  • CAS will help in delivering the action and inspire the change to help the societies build back better.
  • The organizers of the summit also called for major new funding for agricultural research.
  • They also expanded the access to farmer advisory services, risk management, and financial services.

Static aspects:-
Climate Adaptation Summit:-

  • The summit was organized with the aim of realizing the transitions which are required for a climate-resilient world.
  • The summit focuses on securing new investments in order to ensure that millions of smallholder farmers could adapt to the impact of climate on food production.

COP 26:-

  • The 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference is also known as COP26. 
  • It is the 26th United Nations Climate Change conference. 
  • It was held in Glasgow, Scotland from November 1 to 12, 2021. 
  • The United Kingdom chaired the summit.  
  • The conference was incorporate the 26th Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the third meeting of the parties to the Paris Agreement (CMA3), and the 16th meeting of the parties to the Kyoto Protocol (CMP16).
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 8

Where has NATO recently planned to build a new space center?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 8

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) alliance, plans to build a headquarters for space operations at its airbase in Ramstein in Germany, to counter a rising Russian and Chinese threat.
Important facts:-

  • The new centre is to be a central point of contact to support NATO missions with communication and satellite images. 
  • It will also be a place to exchange information on potential threats to satellites.
  •  It will also be a place to exchange information on potential threats to satellites. 
  • Some 2,000 satellites orbit the Earth, more than half of which are operated by NATO members, allowing everything from mobile phone services to weather forecasts. 
  • Currently, at least 40 percent of NATO’s communications are via satellite.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 9

What is not correct with respect to International Telecommunication Union?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 9

International Telecommunication Union is headquartered in Geneva (Switzerland).
Important facts:-

  • The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
  • Established in 1865, the International Telecommunication Union is the UN’s agency for Information and Communication technologies.
  • ITU has 193 member countries.
  • India is a member of the International Telecommunication Union since 1869.
  • India comes under the Asia Pacific region of the ITU with its head office in Bangkok, Thailand. 

Static aspects:-
United Nations:-

  • The United Nations (UN) is an international organization founded in 1945. 
  • It is currently made up of 193 Member States.
  • The name "United Nations", was coined by the United States, President Franklin D. Roosevelt. 
  • The UN Charter of 1945 is the foundational treaty of the United Nations, as an inter-governmental organization.

The main organs of the UN are:-

  • the General Assembly,
  • the Security Council,
  • the Economic and Social Council,
  • the Trusteeship Council,
  • the International Court of Justice,
  • and the UN Secretariat.

Note:- All 6 were established in 1945 when the UN was founded.

BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 10

Choose the correct match from the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 10
  • Swati Mohan is a resident of Bangalore, India, she played an important role in the successful landing of the rover on Mars in NASA's Mars mission in February 2021.
  • Ritu Karidhal Srivastava hails from Uttar Pradesh, she was the director of the first Mars Orbiter Mission Mangalyaan in 2013 and the Chandrayaan-2 mission in 2019.
  • Vanitha is a resident of Chennai and was awarded the Best Female Scientist Award in 2006.
  • Tassie Thomas is a resident of Kerala, she is known as Missile Woman.

Important facts:-

  • National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) is an independent agency of the executive branch of the United States federal government.
  • Established under the National Aeronautics and Space Act 1958
  • Headquarters: Washington, DC, USA.

Current aspects:-

  • Artemis Programme is an international human space flight programme funded by the US Government.
  • The main objective of the programme is to launch a manned mission to the south pole region of the moon by 2024.
  • The programme is predominantly carried out by NASA.
  • The other international partners in the programme are JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency), Italian Space Agency, UK Space Agency, UAE space Agency, Brazilian Space Agency, Australian Space Agency, State Space Agency of Ukraine, Canadian Space Agency, and the European Space Agency.
  • The programme is to be implemented in three parts. They are Artemis I, Artemis II and Artemis III.
  • scheduled to be launched on August 29, 2022.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 11

Choose the right match?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 11

All the above statements are correctly matched.
Important facts:-

  • According to the American space agency NASA, the minerals and rocks found in Salda Lake in West Turkey are exactly the same as those in the Jezero Crater of Mars.
  • Sangay Volcano is one of the most active volcanoes in Ecuador as well as in the world. It is 5230 meters high which has recently erupted..
  • Platypus is a venomous egg-laying mammal found near rivers. Conservationists in Australia are planning to set up the world's first platypus sanctuary.

Scientific aspects:-

  • Jezero crater Jezero is a crater on Mars which once may have been flooded with water. 
  • The crater contains some fan-delta deposits. 
  • The lake in the crater may have been formed when valleys were forming on Mars. 
  • A study of the delta helped in concluding that the lake inside the crater was formed during a time in which there was continuous surface runoff.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 12

India justice report released by?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 12
  • The India Justice Report (IJR) is an initiative of Tata Trusts.
  • In collaboration with the Centre for Social Justice, Common Cause, DAKSH, Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy and the Commonwealth Human Rights Initiative.

Important facts:-

  • The report analyzed expenditure, vacancies, representation of women, human resources, infrastructure, workload, diversity across 18 large and medium-sized states with a population of over 1 crore and 7 small states.

India Justice Report 2020:-

  • The overall ranking is a result of a state’s ranking across the four pillars of justice delivery system - Judiciary, Police, Prisons and Legal aid.
  • Maharashtra was ranked topmost among 18 states for the second time in a row, followed by Tamil Nadu and Telangana. Uttar Pradesh remains last.
  • Amongst the smaller states, Goa remained at the top and Arunachal Pradesh at the bottom.
  • Tamil Nadu has the highest percentage of women police officers (24.8%), followed by Mizoram (20.1%).
  • Overall, only 29% judges in High Courts across the country are women, but no state except Sikkim has over 20% women judges.
  • Four states - Bihar, Uttarakhand, Tripura and Meghalaya have no woman judges in high courts.

Note:-

  • Karnataka is the only state to meet its quotas for SC, ST and OBC in both officer cadre and constabulary.
  • Chhattisgarh being the only other state that meets the diversity requirements for constabulary.

Political aspects:-
Supreme Court of India:-

  • The Supreme Court of India is the country’s highest judicial court. 
  • The Indian constitution provides for a provision of Supreme Court under Part V (The Union) and Chapter 6 (The Union Judiciary).
  • Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction, powers and procedures of the Supreme Court.
  • Including the CJI, there are 34 judges in the Supreme Court.
  • The Federal Court of India was created as per the Government of India Act 1935.
  • After independence, the Federal Court and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council were replaced by the Supreme Court of India, which came into being in January 1950.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 13

Which of the following colours is deviated the most while passing through the prism?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 13
  • The light which has more wavelength will deviate less and will have less dispersion when it passes through a prism.
  • Each beam of light, with its own particular wavelength (or colour), is delayed differently by the glass, As violet light has a shorter wavelength, it is delayed more than the longer wavelengths of red light. Consequently, violet light is bent the most while the red light is bent the least.
  • Thus when white light undergoes scattering from prism then the red colour will deviate least and violet deviate most.

Important Points

  • When a white light beam is passed through the prism, the white light is separated into its component colours - red, orange, yellow, green, blue and violet.
  • The separation of visible light into its different colours is known as dispersion.
  • It was mentioned in the Light and Color unit that each colour is representative of a distinct wave frequency, and different frequencies of light waves will bend varying amounts when passed through a prism. 
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 14

The process of separating useful fractions from petroleum is called

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 14
  • The process by which crude oil is altered into usable, consumable products such as gasoline, jet fuel, diesel, fuel oil, and other petroleum products.
  • When crude oil is refined, it is heated until it becomes a gas.
  • The gas is transferred to the distillation container where it cools and is separated out as per requirements.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 15

Which website has been launched recently for the development of entrepreneurship in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 15

Let’s Inspire Bihar 

  • letsinspirebihar.org website was launched on 27th December 2021. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • Let’s Inspire Bihar is a voluntary social, cultural and edu-cational initiative that seeks to promote and work upon the themes of Education, Egalitarianism and Entrepreneurship in order to contribute towards the establishment of a better future for Bihar.
  • It aims to connect such committed individu-als, who have on a voluntary basis opted to contribute to-wards future building on any of the core themes. Centre.
  • The event was hosted by Mr Vikas Vaibhav IPS 2003 who is also an IIT Kanpur alumnus who has a deep interest in the history and future of India.
  • This was one of the most important meetings since the commencement of ''Let's Inspire Bihar or LIB”.
  • Conceived for creating a road map for working upon Entrepreneurship, one of the pillars of the futuristic initiative, it was proposed to organize it in a form that would set the future agenda for the LIB teams to work upon in accordance with our vision and mission.
  • The event also witnessed the felicitation of 15 successful entrepreneurs and active district coordinators of LIB.
  • The Programme at the NDMC Convention Centre included several panel discussions on the agenda “Let’s Inspire Bihar “ themed on promoting and working upon the themes of Education, Egalitarianism and Entrepreneurship.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 16

Which one of the following forces is a contact force?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 16
  • Friction is the force that resists motion when the surface of one object comes in contact with the surface of another.
  • An automobile uses one quarter of its energy on limiting the friction.
  • Yet, it is also friction in the tires that allows the car to stay on the road and friction in the clutch that makes it possible to drive.
  • From matches to machines to molecular structures, friction is one of the most significant phenomena in the physical world.

Key points:-

  • Frictional force refers to the force generated by two surfaces that contacts and slide against each other.
  • The angle and position of the object affect the amount of frictional force.
  • These forces are mainly affected by the surface texture and amount of force impelling them together.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 17

The chemical substances which are secreted from endocrine glands are called

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 17
  • Hormones are chemical messengers that are secreted directly into the blood, which carries them to organs and tissues of the body to exert their functions.
  • There are many types of hormones that act on different aspects of bodily functions and processes.

Hormones are secreted from the endocrine glands in the body.

  • These organs secrete hormones in microscopic amounts and it takes only very small amounts to bring about major changes in the body.

Key points :-

  • Hormones level in the womb before birth is linked to the risk of developing migrain in adulthood.
  • A hormones is a chemical that is made by specialist cells.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 18

Deficiency of Vitamin B3 (Niacin) causes which of the following diseases?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 18

Deficiency of vitamin B3 (niacin) causes pellagra disease.
The main symptoms of pellagra are dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and death, hence it is also called a 4D syndrome, muscle atrophy, inflammation of the mucous membrane of the intestine, nervousness, headache, fatigue, mental depression, etc.
IMPORTANT FACTS:
In the year 1912,  the vitamin was discovered by the Polish Jewish biochemist Casimir Funk and he named it an important amine or vitamin.
There are two types of vitamins: 
1. Water Soluble Vitamins:
Vitamin B and vitamin C are water-soluble vitamins.
2. Fat-Soluble Vitamins:
The following are fat soluble vitamins:
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E 
Vitamin K

BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 19

Silk fiber is obtained from-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 19
  • The rearing of silkworms by scientific method to obtain silk for a commercial purpose is called silkworm rearing. 
  • Silk is a protein secreted by the larvae of the moths of Lepidoptera, which is extracted from the silk glands of the larvae. 
  • These threads dry up after exposure to air and become stiff and form cocoons. 
  • These threads are 300 m.
  • Cocoons are collected and kept under the sun, boiled, or exposed to steam.
  • This helps in separating silk fibers. 
  • The process by which silk thread is separated from the cocoon is called reeling the silk.


Key points:-

  • Then, the spinning of silk fibers into threads is done.
  • The silk threads obtained are woven into the desired clothes.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 20

Consider the following statements related to cloud seeding-

  • It uses hygroscopic substances like silver iodide.
  • It is most effective in dry weather conditions.
  • It increases the size of condensation nuclei to increase precipitation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 20

Cloud seeding- is a weather modification technique that improves a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by artificially adding condensation nuclei to the atmosphere, providing a base for snowflakes or raindrops to form.

  • After cloud seeding takes place, precipitation falls from the clouds back to the surface of the Earth.

Mechanism of cloud seeding-

  • Clouds are made up of tiny water droplets or ice crystals that form when water vapor in the atmosphere cools and condenses around a particle of dust or salt. Without these particles, known as condensation nuclei, raindrops or snowflakes cannot form and precipitation will not occur.

How does condensation nuclei affect precipitation?

  • Condensation nuclei provide the non-gaseous surface necessary for water vapor to condense into cloud droplets. As droplets join together they grow larger and eventually fall as precipitation.

Important points-

  • The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include toxicsilver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice (solid carbon dioxide, producing the green house gas).
  • These crystals are hygroscopic in nature, they attract water particles and form tiny ice crystals around the particles that then fall as rain.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 21

Which of the following is more at risk of having anemia?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 21

Women are at higher risk of anemia. 
Important Facts 

  • Iron deficiency is the primary cause of anemia in women. 
  • Anemia is a condition when your body does not have enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin. 
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 22

DCGI granted market authorization to which drug maker to manufacture India's first indigenously developed quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus Vaccine (QHPV) against cervical cancer?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 22

The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) granted market authorisation to Serum Institute of India (SII) to manufacture India’s first Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus vaccine (qHPV) which is indigenously developed against cervical cancer. 
IMPORTANT FACTS -
What is Cervical Cancer?

  • It will be an Indian vaccine for the treatment of cervical cancer in women that is both affordable and accessible.
  • qHPV is the first indigenous vaccine developed in India against cervical cancer which is likely to be launched by the end of this year.
    • Cervical cancer starts in the cells of the cervix, the lower part of the uterus. 
    • The cervix connects the body of the uterus to the vagina. 
    • Cancer starts when cells in the body grow out of control.
    • Most cases of cervical cancer are caused by infection of the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is preventable with a vaccine.
    • Cervical cancer grows slowly, so it usually has time to be detected and treated before it causes serious problems.
    • Women between the ages of 35 and 44 are most likely to get this disease.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 23

What is the 'Yellow Revolution' related to?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 23

The Yellow revolution started with the 'Technology Mission on Oilseeds' run by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
Important Points:-

  • This revolution was launched in the year1986- 1987 to increase the production of edible oil like mustard and sesame seeds. 
  • It was to achieve self-reliance and was termed as the Yellow Revolution. 
  • Yellow Revolution targets mainly on nine oilseeds which are groundnut, mustard, soybean, safflower, sesame, sunflower, Niger, linseed, and castor.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 24

To make “panchayati raj” more effective , the Bihar govt passed the following ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 24

Bihar govt. has passed “Bihar Panchayati raj act 1993,” to make Panchayati raj structure more effective.
Important Facts -

  • Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI) is a system of rural local self-government in India.
  • Local Self Government is the management of local affairs by such local bodies who have been elected by the local people.
  • PRI was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grass roots level and was entrusted with the task of rural development in the country.

Different Aspect :-
Constitutional Aspect :
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 :

  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 came into effect during the tenure of the then Prime Minister PV Narasimha Rao.
  • After the bill was passed by the Parliament, the President's assent was received on April 20, 1993 and the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act came into force on April 24, 1993. Hence, April 24 is celebrated as 'National Panchayat Day'.
  • The provisions relating to Panchayati Raj have been discussed (Article 243) under 'Part-9  in the original constitution. Part-9 contains the provisions relating to Panchayati Raj up to  'Article 243-243O (243-243O) under the heading 'Panchayats'.
  • The 11th Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment and under this a list of 29 subjects under Panchayats was arranged.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 25

Santhal uprising was led by?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 25

Santhal Hul (1855-1856)

  • The santhal hul (also known as the Santhal Revolt ) occurred in the regions of present-day Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal against the British as well the Zamindari system from 1855 until 1856 when the movement was crushed by the British.
  • When the Zamindari system was introduced in the Bengal Presidency, the British and the Zamindari claimed the traditional Santhal land as their own.
  • The Santhals were exploited mercilessly by the landlords who charged exorbitant rates of interest (Sometimes as high as 500%) which ensured that the tribals were never able to repay their loan.
  • They lost their land and also were turned into bonded labourers.
  • They had to suffer extortions, forceful deprivation of property , abuse and violence , cheating in business deals, wilful trampling of their crops, etc.
  • The government supported  landlords instead of helping the tribls whose grievances were genuine.
  • The rebellion started in June 1855 when two brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu organised 10000 Santhals and began an armed uprising.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 26

How many central jails are in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 26

Followings are central jails in Bihar-

  • Modal central jail Patna -Beur
  • Central jail Buxar
  • Central jail Bhagalpur
  • Special central jail Bhagalpur
  • Shaheed khudiram Central jail Muzaffarpur
  • Central jail Gaya
  • Central jail Motihari
  • Central jail Purnia.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 27

How many Score has Bihar got in the Sustainable Development Goals India Index 2020-21?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 27
  • The third edition of India's Sustainable Development Goals Index was released by NITI Aayog on June 3, 2021.
  • The first Sustainable Development Goals Index was released in December 2018.

Important facts:-

  • This Index developed in collaboration with the United Nations assesses the progress made at the national and state level towards the achievement of global goals
  • Kerala has topped in NITI Aayog's Sustainable Development Goals India Index 2020-21. And Bihar is at the lowest position.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 28

Under the 'Model Code of Conduct', what is banned during elections?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 28

After the implementation of the election code of conduct, many activities are banned. 
These restrictions are not only for the candidate, political party or leader but also for the common citizens.
Important Points:-
All activities affecting voting are banned :

  • There is a ban on public opening and foundation laying.
  • Prohibition on any new work or plan approval.
  • The government cannot put up hoardings of its achievements.
  • Sirens are fired from government vehicles.
  • Photographs of the PM, CM, ministers, political persons are prohibited in government buildings.
  • The government cannot advertise its achievements in the media.
  • Taking or giving bribes will be considered an offence.
  • Any hysterical post on social media can prove fatal for you.

 Any objectionable activity related to election or candidate in areas with code of conduct leads to police custody.
Candidates or parties have to take special care of caste, religion, language.
No party or candidate may engage in any activity that may aggravate the already existing differences between castes and religious or linguistic communities. 
Religious place cannot be used for election campaign
No appeal can be made for votes on the basis of caste or sectarian sentiments.
No political party or candidate can bribe voters. Even if a voter is caught taking a bribe, it will be considered a crime.
Campaigning for elections within a distance of 100 meters from the polling stations is prohibited.
There is a ban on holding public meetings before 48 hours after the end of the voting.
Providing transport and vehicles to transport and bring back voters to the polling stations is also an offence.
No political party or candidate shall allow its workers to put up flags, hang banners, paste information, write slogans, etc., on the land, building, walls of the premises, etc.
The workers of any party cannot remove the posters put up by the workers of the other party.
The party or candidates have to inform the local police authorities well in advance about the place and time for the proposed meeting.

On the day of polling:-

  • Identity slips will be given to voters on plain (white) paper only. It shall not bear any symbol, name of the candidate or the name of the party.
  • There is a ban on giving or distributing liquor on the day of polling and 48 hours before it.
  • No person shall enter the polling booth except voters.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 29

The quorum for the meeting of the Rajya Sabha is fixed as of the total members ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 29

Under Article 100 of the Constitution, the quorum to constitute a sitting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
IMPORTANT FACTS:

  • The total membership of the Rajya Sabha is 250, so the presence of 25 members is a sufficient quorum to constitute its meeting.
  • Article 80 of the Constitution sets the maximum number of members of the Rajya Sabha at 250, of which 12 are nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of the States and Union Territories.
  • Rajya Sabha is a permanent house whose members are elected for six years. 
  • Not all its members complete their term together. The term of one-third of the members is completed every two years.
  • The term of Lok Sabha is 5 years.
BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 30

The highest legislative body of India is ____.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 8 - Question 30

Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India.
IMPORTANT FACTS:

  • Article 79- Constitution of Parliament.
  • Article 80- Composition of the Council of States.
  • Article 81- Composition of the House of the People.
  • Article 82- Readjustment after each census.
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