SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1

# SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1

Test Description

## 155 Questions MCQ Test Mock Tests for Banking Exam and Past Year Papers | SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 for Banking Exams 2023 is part of Mock Tests for Banking Exam and Past Year Papers preparation. The SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Banking Exams exam syllabus.The SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 MCQs are made for Banking Exams 2023 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 below.
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SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

### Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statements from given columns are sufficient to answer the given question.Eight boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are kept one above the other in a form of a stack. Which of the following box is kept immediately above D?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 1 From II, IV, and VIII we have

Clearly, box A is kept immediate above D.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

### Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follow.Two persons X and Y starts from a point G. X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G. He then turns left from point F and walks 6 m. He then moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A. X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m. He then turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A. Point C is in north of point K. Y moves 12 m in west from point G. He then turns left from point H and walks for 4 m. He then turns right from point I and walks for 5 m. He then turns right from point J and walks for 4 m. He then turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.What is the shortest distance between point (A) and point E?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 2 Given,

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G.

X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G.

Then he turns left from point F and walks 6 m.

Then he moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A.

X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m.

Then he turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A.

Point C is in north of point K.

Y moves 12 m in west from point G.

Then he turns left from point H and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns right from point I and walks for 5 m.

Then he turns right from point J and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Shortest distance between A and E

Hence, the correct option is (D).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

### Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follow.Two persons X and Y starts from a point G. X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G. He then turns left from point F and walks 6 m. He then moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A. X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m. He then turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A. Point C is in north of point K. Y moves 12 m in west from point G. He then turns left from point H and walks for 4 m. He then turns right from point I and walks for 5 m. He then turns right from point J and walks for 4 m. He then turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.What is the shortest distance between D and H?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 3 Given,

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G.

X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G.

Then he turns left from point F and walks 6 m.

Then he moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A.

X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m.

Then he turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A.

Point C is in north of point K.

Y moves 12 m in west from point G.

Then he turns left from point H and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns right from point I and walks for 5 m.

Then he turns right from point J and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Shortest distance between D and H = FG – BC = 12 – 8 = 4

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follow.

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G. X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G. He then turns left from point F and walks 6 m. He then moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A. X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m. He then turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A. Point C is in north of point K. Y moves 12 m in west from point G. He then turns left from point H and walks for 4 m. He then turns right from point I and walks for 5 m. He then turns right from point J and walks for 4 m. He then turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

In which direction is point D with respect to point H?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 4 Given,

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G.

X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G.

Then he turns left from point F and walks 6 m.

Then he moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A.

X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m.

Then he turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A.

Point C is in north of point K.

Y moves 12 m in west from point G.

Then he turns left from point H and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns right from point I and walks for 5 m.

Then he turns right from point J and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

Who sits fourth to the right of G?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 5 Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

Who sits fifth to the right of Z?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 6 Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

How many persons sit between R and B when counted from the left of R?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 7 Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

What is the shortest distance between Q and U?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 8 Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

How many persons sit in the inner arrangement?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 9 Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statements from given columns are sufficient to answer the given question.

Seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V visited a place during a week starting from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following person visited immediately before T?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

Clearly, V visited immediately before T.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Direction: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) forecasted an increase in growth rate for India in the following years. If the projections are taken into the account, then by the upcoming year India would surpass China as the world’s fastest-growing major economy.

China is currently the world’s fastest-growing major economy.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 11 It can be inferred that by the upcoming year, India would surpass China as the world’s fastest-growing major economy. So, China is currently the world’s fastest-growing major economy.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

In the question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.’

Strong’ arguments are one which are both important and directly related to the question.

‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to trivial aspect of the question.

Statement: Many schools are having to do away with their music education programs. This is a mistake, with schools losing not only an enjoyable subject, but a subject that can enrich students’ lives and education.

Which of the following steps weakens the above thoughts?

(I) Students who have early musical training will develop the areas of the brain related to language and reasoning. The left side of the brain is better developed with music, and songs can help imprint information on young minds.

(II) The programs for foreign language learning or legitimate computer programming classes at a young age would help provide our children with more value in the future since they shall always be in demand.

(III) There aren't many musicians that make more than 100k a year, while there are many engineers who do.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 12 Statement (I) supports the fact that music classes should be continued

Statement (II) weakens the thought since it says other courses yield better results than the music class

Statement (III) weakens the thought since it says music as a career option is not good.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

In a family of eight members – B, F, G, H, L, M, R, and S. Two married couples are there in the family. Each person has different number of toffees. M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R. R’s father-in-law is married to L. S is the only daughter of L. R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law. S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member. F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G. G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B. F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.

How the one who has 14 toffees is related to M?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 13 We have:
• M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R.
• R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law.
• R’s father-in-law is married to L.
• S is the only daughter of L.
• S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member.
• F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G.
• G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B.
• F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.
• Each person has different number of toffees.

Since, two married couples are there in the family, thus G must be married to R.

Based on the above given information we have:

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

In a family of eight members – B, F, G, H, L, M, R, and S. Two married couples are there in the family. Each person has different number of toffees. M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R. R’s father-in-law is married to L. S is the only daughter of L. R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law. S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member. F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G. G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B. F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.

How the one who has 147 toffees is related to H?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 14 We have:
• M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R.
• R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law.
• R’s father-in-law is married to L.
• S is the only daughter of L.
• S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member.
• F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G.
• G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B.
• F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.
• Each person has different number of toffees.
• Since, two married couples are there in the family, thus G must be married to R.

Based on the above given information we have:

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

In a family of eight members – B, F, G, H, L, M, R, and S. Two married couples are there in the family. Each person has different number of toffees. M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R. R’s father-in-law is married to L. S is the only daughter of L. R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law. S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member. F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G. G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B. F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.

What is the sum of the number of toffees does M’s father and H’s wife have?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 15 We have:
• M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R.
• R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law.
• R’s father-in-law is married to L.
• S is the only daughter of L.
• S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member.
• F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G.
• G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B.
• F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.

Each person has different number of toffees.

Since, two married couples are there in the family, thus G must be married to R.

Based on the above given information we have:

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols /\, \/, <>, >< and () are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘P /\ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P \/ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P () Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’

‘P >< Q’ means P is greater than Q’.

‘P <> Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements:

R <> S, S >< Q, R <> T, P \/ Q

Conclusions:

I. R >< P

II. S () T

III. R >< Q

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 16 According to the given information,

Statements: R < /> S, S >< q,="" r="" />< /> T, P \/ Q

On converting: R ≥ S, S > Q, R ≥ T, P ≤ Q

On combining: P ≤ Q < s="" ≤="" r;="" t="" ≤="" />

Conclusions:

I. R >< p="" →="" r="" /> P → True (as P ≤ Q < s="" ≤="" />

II. S () T → S = T → False (as S ≤ R; T ≤ R → T ≤ R ≥ S)

III. R >< q="" →="" r="" /> Q → True (as Q < s="" ≤="" />

So, only the conclusions I and III are True.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols /\, \/, <>, >< and () are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘P /\ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P \/ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P () Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’

‘P >< Q’ means P is greater than Q’.

‘P <> Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements:

C () B, C \/ D, A /\ C, E \/ F, B >< E

Conclusions:

I. B \/ D

II. F /\ B

III. C /\ D

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 17 According to the given information,

Given Statement: C () B, C \/ D, A /\ C, E \/ F, B >< />

On converting: C = B, C ≤ D, A < c,="" e="" ≤="" f,="" b="" /> E

On combining: A < c="B" ≤="" d;="" e="" />< b="C" ≤="" d;="" e="" />< />

Conclusions:I. B \/ D → B ≤ D → True (as B ≤ D)

II. F /\ B → F < b="" →="" false="" (as="" f="" /> E < b="C" ≤="" d="" relation="" between="" f="" and="" b="" can’t="" be="" />

III. C /\ D → C < d="" →="" false="" (as="" e="" />< b="C" ≤="" />

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols /\, \/, <>, >< and () are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘P /\ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P \/ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P () Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’

‘P >< Q’ means P is greater than Q’.

‘P <> Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements:

F <> I, E >< G, H /\ I, F ( ) G

Conclusions:

I. G ( ) I

II. F <> E

III. G >< I

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 18 According to the given information,

Statements: F < /> I, E >< g,="" h="" i,="" f="" ()="" />

On converting: F ≥ I, E > G, H < i,="" f="" />

On combining: H < i="" ≤="" f="G" />< />

Conclusions:

I. G () I → G = I → False (as I ≤ F = G → I ≤ G)

II. F < /> E → F ≥ E → False (as F = G < e="" →="" f="" />< />

III. G >< i="" →="" g="" /> I → False (as I ≤ F = G → G ≥ I)

Conclusion I and III are complementary pair.

So, either conclusion I or III is True.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of persons are living in a building having four floors. Also each of the floor having three flats such as flat-2 is in east of flat-1 but west of flat-3. Ground floor is numbered floor 1 and top most floor is floor 4. Each flat is built in such a way that Flat 1 of floor 2 is just above Flat 1 of floor 1 and just below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Only the given persons are considered to be living in the building. No flat is vacant. No two floors having same number of persons living in it. J is not living on even numbered floor. E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. Y~ is living on an even numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. No one lives to the east to O. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. H is living on a floor having least number of persons. J? is living to the west of L. Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in same flat number as H. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. No one is living with J?. O is living on even numbered floor. No one is living with H in the same flat. L is not living in the same flat with T!.

Who among the following is living on floor 4 of flat 1?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 19 Y~ is living on an even-numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I.

H is living on a floor having least number of persons. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. So, it is clear that least no of persons are living on floor-3. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H.

Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in the same flat number as H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. J is not living on an even-numbered floor.

E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. J? is living to the west of L. No one is living with J?. O is living on even-numbered floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. No one lives to the east to O. L is not living in the same flat with T!. As we know that no two floors having the same number of persons living in it. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. No flat is vacant. From this case-1 gets eliminated. So, the final arrangement is—

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of persons are living in a building having four floors. Also each of the floor having three flats such as flat-2 is in east of flat-1 but west of flat-3. Ground floor is numbered floor 1 and top most floor is floor 4. Each flat is built in such a way that Flat 1 of floor 2 is just above Flat 1 of floor 1 and just below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Only the given persons are considered to be living in the building. No flat is vacant. No two floors having same number of persons living in it. J is not living on even numbered floor. E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. Y~ is living on an even numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. No one lives to the east to O. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. H is living on a floor having least number of persons. J? is living to the west of L. Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in same flat number as H. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. No one is living with J?. O is living on even numbered floor. No one is living with H in the same flat. L is not living in the same flat with T!.

How many persons are living to the west of ‘I’?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 20 Y~ is living on an even-numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I.

H is living on a floor having least number of persons. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. So, it is clear that least no of persons are living on floor-3. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H.

Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in the same flat number as H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. J is not living on an even-numbered floor.

E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. J? is living to the west of L. No one is living with J?. O is living on even-numbered floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. No one lives to the east to O. L is not living in the same flat with T!. As we know that no two floors having the same number of persons living in it. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. No flat is vacant. From this case-1 gets eliminated. So, the final arrangement is—

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of persons are living in a building having four floors. Also each of the floor having three flats such as flat-2 is in east of flat-1 but west of flat-3. Ground floor is numbered floor 1 and top most floor is floor 4. Each flat is built in such a way that Flat 1 of floor 2 is just above Flat 1 of floor 1 and just below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Only the given persons are considered to be living in the building. No flat is vacant. No two floors having same number of persons living in it. J is not living on even numbered floor. E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. Y~ is living on an even numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. No one lives to the east to O. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. H is living on a floor having least number of persons. J? is living to the west of L. Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in same flat number as H. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. No one is living with J?. O is living on even numbered floor. No one is living with H in the same flat. L is not living in the same flat with T!.

Who among the following lives just below ‘S&’ in the same flat number?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 21 Y~ is living on an even-numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I.

H is living on a floor having least number of persons. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. So, it is clear that least no of persons are living on floor-3. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H.

Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in the same flat number as H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. J is not living on an even-numbered floor.

E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. J? is living to the west of L. No one is living with J?. O is living on even-numbered floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. No one lives to the east to O. L is not living in the same flat with T!. As we know that no two floors having the same number of persons living in it. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. No flat is vacant. From this case-1 gets eliminated. So, the final arrangement is—

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of persons are living in a building having four floors. Also each of the floor having three flats such as flat-2 is in east of flat-1 but west of flat-3. Ground floor is numbered floor 1 and top most floor is floor 4. Each flat is built in such a way that Flat 1 of floor 2 is just above Flat 1 of floor 1 and just below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Only the given persons are considered to be living in the building. No flat is vacant. No two floors having same number of persons living in it. J is not living on even numbered floor. E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. Y~ is living on an even numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. No one lives to the east to O. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. H is living on a floor having least number of persons. J? is living to the west of L. Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in same flat number as H. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. No one is living with J?. O is living on even numbered floor. No one is living with H in the same flat. L is not living in the same flat with T!.

Who among the following lives just below P% in the same flat number?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 22 Y~ is living on an even-numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I.

H is living on a floor having least number of persons. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. So, it is clear that least no of persons are living on floor-3. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H.

Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in the same flat number as H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. J is not living on an even-numbered floor.

E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. J? is living to the west of L. No one is living with J?. O is living on even-numbered floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. No one lives to the east to O. L is not living in the same flat with T!. As we know that no two floors having the same number of persons living in it. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. No flat is vacant. From this case-1 gets eliminated. So, the final arrangement is—

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of persons are living in a building having four floors. Also each of the floor having three flats such as flat-2 is in east of flat-1 but west of flat-3. Ground floor is numbered floor 1 and top most floor is floor 4. Each flat is built in such a way that Flat 1 of floor 2 is just above Flat 1 of floor 1 and just below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Only the given persons are considered to be living in the building. No flat is vacant. No two floors having same number of persons living in it. J is not living on even numbered floor. E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. Y~ is living on an even numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. No one lives to the east to O. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. H is living on a floor having least number of persons. J? is living to the west of L. Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in same flat number as H. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. No one is living with J?. O is living on even numbered floor. No one is living with H in the same flat. L is not living in the same flat with T!.

How many persons live above J in the same flat?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 23 Y~ is living on an even-numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I.

H is living on a floor having least number of persons. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. So, it is clear that least no of persons are living on floor-3. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H.

Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in the same flat number as H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V\$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V\$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. J is not living on an even-numbered floor.

E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. J? is living to the west of L. No one is living with J?. O is living on even-numbered floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. No one lives to the east to O. L is not living in the same flat with T!. As we know that no two floors having the same number of persons living in it. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. No flat is vacant. From this case-1 gets eliminated. So, the final arrangement is—

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

If 1st letter of each word from (I) group, 2nd letter of each word from (II) group, 3rd letter of each word from (III) group are taken to form a single meaningful 6 letter word, then which of the following is the third letter from the left end of the newly formed word? If no such word is formed, mark your answer as ‘X’, or else if more than one word is formed; mark your answer as ‘M’.

I. PEN LAME

II. INK THEN

III. PRICE PIT

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 24 I. PEN LAME → PL

II. INK THEN → NH

III. PRICE PIT → IT

We get Letter PLNHIT → “PLINTH” → this is the meaningful word we get.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

% R 9 W 2 7 C # 1 O 5 Q & 8 D E 2 6 * 3 K 7 ! P A M 4 ^

Step I: Numbers are interchanged with immediately preceded elements in the series.

Step II: The letter which is immediately preceded by a number to be arranged in alphabetical order immediately after the last element of the series.

Step III: Multiples of 3 are interchanged with first letter occurring after them in the series.

Step IV: Perfect cubes interchanged with succeeding elements in the series.

Note: Step 2 is performed after the completion of step 1 and step 3 is performed after the completion of step 2 and so on.

How many numbers are there between the sixth element from the left and ninth element from the right in step IV?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 25 Given

Series: % R 9 W 2 7 C # 1 O 5 Q & 8 D E 2 6 * 3 K 7 ! P A M 4 ^

Step I: % 9 R 2 7 W C 1 # 5 O Q 8 & D 2 6 E 3 * 7 K ! P A 4 M ^

Step II: % 9 2 7 C 1 # 5 Q 8 & D 2 6 3 * 7 ! P A 4 ^ E K M O R W

Step III: % C 2 7 9 1 # 5 Q 8 & D 2 P A * 7 ! 6 3 4 ^ E K M O R W

Step IV: % C 2 7 9 # 1 5 Q & 8 D 2 P A * 7 ! 6 3 4 ^ E K M O R W

In step IV,

Sixth element from the left = #

Ninth element from the right = 3

So, there are six numbers between ‘#’ and ‘3’ i.e., 1, 5, 8, 2, 7 and 6.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

% R 9 W 2 7 C # 1 O 5 Q & 8 D E 2 6 * 3 K 7 ! P A M 4 ^

Step I: Numbers are interchanged with immediately preceded elements in the series.

Step II: The letter which is immediately preceded by a number to be arranged in alphabetical order immediately after the last element of the series.

Step III: Multiples of 3 are interchanged with first letter occurring after them in the series.

Step IV: Perfect cubes interchanged with succeeding elements in the series.

Note: Step 2 is performed after the completion of step 1 and step 3 is performed after the completion of step 2 and so on.

Which among the following is immediate left of the tenth from the left in step I?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 26 Given

Series: % R 9 W 2 7 C # 1 O 5 Q & 8 D E 2 6 * 3 K 7 ! P A M 4 ^

Step I: % 9 R 2 7 W C 1 # 5 O Q 8 & D 2 6 E 3 * 7 K ! P A 4 M ^

Step II: % 9 2 7 C 1 # 5 Q 8 & D 2 6 3 * 7 ! P A 4 ^ E K M O R W

Step III: % C 2 7 9 1 # 5 Q 8 & D 2 P A * 7 ! 6 3 4 ^ E K M O R W

Step IV: % C 2 7 9 # 1 5 Q & 8 D 2 P A * 7 ! 6 3 4 ^ E K M O R W

Element which is tenth from the left end = 5

Immediate left of “5” is “#”

So, ‘#’ is immediate left of the tenth from the left in step I.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

% R 9 W 2 7 C # 1 O 5 Q & 8 D E 2 6 * 3 K 7 ! P A M 4 ^

Step I: Numbers are interchanged with immediately preceded elements in the series.

Step II: The letter which is immediately preceded by a number to be arranged in alphabetical order immediately after the last element of the series.

Step III: Multiples of 3 are interchanged with first letter occurring after them in the series.

Step IV: Perfect cubes interchanged with succeeding elements in the series.

Note: Step 2 is performed after the completion of step 1 and step 3 is performed after the completion of step 2 and so on.

What is the sum of the numbers which are present between ‘&’ and ‘^’ in step III?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 27 Given

Series: % R 9 W 2 7 C # 1 O 5 Q & 8 D E 2 6 * 3 K 7 ! P A M 4 ^

Step I: % 9 R 2 7 W C 1 # 5 O Q 8 & D 2 6 E 3 * 7 K ! P A 4 M ^

Step II: % 9 2 7 C 1 # 5 Q 8 & D 2 6 3 * 7 ! P A 4 ^ E K M O R W

Step III: % C 2 7 9 1 # 5 Q 8 & D 2 P A * 7 ! 6 3 4 ^ E K M O R W

Step IV: % C 2 7 9 # 1 5 Q & 8 D 2 P A * 7 ! 6 3 4 ^ E K M O R W

In step III, the numbers present between ‘&’ and ‘^’ are 2, 7, 6, 3 and 4.

2 + 7 + 6 + 3 + 4 = 22

So, ‘22’ is the sum of the numbers which are present between ‘&’ and ‘^’ in step III.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

% R 9 W 2 7 C # 1 O 5 Q & 8 D E 2 6 * 3 K 7 ! P A M 4 ^

Step I: Numbers are interchanged with immediately preceded elements in the series.

Step II: The letter which is immediately preceded by a number to be arranged in alphabetical order immediately after the last element of the series.

Step III: Multiples of 3 are interchanged with first letter occurring after them in the series.

Step IV: Perfect cubes interchanged with succeeding elements in the series.

Note: Step 2 is performed after the completion of step 1 and step 3 is performed after the completion of step 2 and so on.

Which among the following is third from the right of fifth from the left after the completion of all the steps?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 28 Given

Series: % R 9 W 2 7 C # 1 O 5 Q & 8 D E 2 6 * 3 K 7 ! P A M 4 ^

Step I: % 9 R 2 7 W C 1 # 5 O Q 8 & D 2 6 E 3 * 7 K ! P A 4 M ^

Step II: % 9 2 7 C 1 # 5 Q 8 & D 2 6 3 * 7 ! P A 4 ^ E K M O R W

Step III: % C 2 7 9 1 # 5 Q 8 & D 2 P A * 7 ! 6 3 4 ^ E K M O R W

Step IV: % C 2 7 9 # 1 5 Q & 8 D 2 P A * 7 ! 6 3 4 ^ E K M O R W

Third from the right + fifth from the left = eight from the left

So, ‘5’ is third from the right of fifth from the left after the completion of all the steps.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

In a competition, Raiyansh got more scores than Mahi but not as many as Pooja. Pooja got more scores than Gautam and Karan. Gautam got less scores than Mahi but this scores are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of scores?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 29 Score obtained,

Pooja > Raiyansh > Mahi, Pooja > Gautam and Karan, Mahi > Gautam

So, Pooja > Raiyansh > Mahi > Gautam > Karan

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

“P@Q(12)” means “P is 16m north of Q”.

“P%Q(14)” means “P is 17m west of Q”.

“P&Q(21)” means “P is 17m south of Q”.

“P#Q(18)” means “P is 15m east of Q”.

Condition: Q@R(36), R%S(25), P#Q(35), S&T(28), U#T(10), W%V(12), V&U(14)

What is the shortest distance and direction of T with respect to P?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 30 We have

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 31

Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

“P@Q(12)” means “P is 16m north of Q”.

“P%Q(14)” means “P is 17m west of Q”.

“P&Q(21)” means “P is 17m south of Q”.

“P#Q(18)” means “P is 15m east of Q”.

Condition: Q@R(36), R%S(25), P#Q(35), S&T(28), U#T(10), W%V(12), V&U(14)

A person from point V walks for 12m south then he takes a right turn and walks for 20m, then what is the position of R with respect to that person?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 31 We have

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 32

Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

“P@Q(12)” means “P is 16m north of Q”.

“P%Q(14)” means “P is 17m west of Q”.

“P&Q(21)” means “P is 17m south of Q”.

“P#Q(18)” means “P is 15m east of Q”.

Condition: Q@R(36), R%S(25), P#Q(35), S&T(28), U#T(10), W%V(12), V&U(14)

If point Z is exactly between line ST then what is the position of W with respect to Z?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 32

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 33

Direction: Given below is a passage followed by a question. Select the option that best answers the question.

Passage: There was a break-in at the central police station and all the boxes of evidence in the Evidence room were vandalized. Some of the evidences were even burnt and destroyed. However, the culprits were smart enough to damage multiple boxes and leave no traces or links. The incident occurred even though the entire building is under CCTV surveillance and 24 hour security.

Courses of action:

I. The police should identify the security in-charge at the time of the break-in and take actions against them.

II. The culprits should be identified from the CCTV footage and be arrested immediately.

III. The authority responsible for the security management of the building should be inspected and modified.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 33 The incident occurred in a police station, so it is important that sincere action is taken against the irresponsibility of the security in-charge during the break-in. So course of action I follows.

Since the passage mentions that the building is under CCTV surveillance it is obvious that the culprits can be identified from the footage; so course of action II also follows.

The management of security is questioned due to the break-in, So it is important that the authority responsible should be inspected and modified accordingly.

So, course of action III also follows.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 34

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code language,

‘urban houses submerge opened’ is written as ‘11^Q ----a----- 25!N 18!O ’

‘helplines people partially format’ is written as '28/D 17!D 20/Z 27!N '

‘staffers ----b---- about private’ is written as ’16*S 31^A 18&Q 22*Z ’

‘visited actions taken marriage’ is written as ’12&H 33&B 12^Z 22*Z ’

What may be the code for ‘wilful life tutor’?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 34 Number = Reverse of first letter + total letters

Symbol = total number of letters

5 = ^, 6 = !, 7 = &, 8 = *, 9 = /,

Letter = Preceding letter of 2nd letter of the word

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 35

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code language,

‘urban houses submerge opened’ is written as ‘11^Q ----a----- 25!N 18!O ’

‘helplines people partially format’ is written as '28/D 17!D 20/Z 27!N '

‘staffers ----b---- about private’ is written as ’16*S 31^A 18&Q 22*Z ’

‘visited actions taken marriage’ is written as ’12&H 33&B 12^Z 22*Z ’

What is the code word for ‘learning slippers unopposed cards’?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 35 Number = Reverse of first letter + total letters

Symbol = total number of letters

5 = ^, 6 = !, 7 = &, 8 = *, 9 = /,

Letter = Preceding letter of 2nd letter of the word

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 36

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code language,

‘urban houses submerge opened’ is written as ‘11^Q ----a----- 25!N 18!O ’

‘helplines people partially format’ is written as '28/D 17!D 20/Z 27!N '

‘staffers ----b---- about private’ is written as ’16*S 31^A 18&Q 22*Z ’

‘visited actions taken marriage’ is written as ’12&H 33&B 12^Z 22*Z ’

What will come in place of ‘a’?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 36 Number = Reverse of first letter + total letters

Symbol = total number of letters

5 = ^, 6 = !, 7 = &, 8 = *, 9 = /,

Letter = Preceding letter of 2nd letter of the word

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 37

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code language,

‘urban houses submerge opened’ is written as ‘11^Q ----a----- 25!N 18!O ’

‘helplines people partially format’ is written as '28/D 17!D 20/Z 27!N '

‘staffers ----b---- about private’ is written as ’16*S 31^A 18&Q 22*Z ’

‘visited actions taken marriage’ is written as ’12&H 33&B 12^Z 22*Z ’

What may come in place of ‘b’?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 37 Number = Reverse of first letter + total letters

Symbol = total number of letters

5 = ^, 6 = !, 7 = &, 8 = *, 9 = /,

Letter = Preceding letter of 2nd letter of the word

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 38

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 @ L N Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 \$ T U ¥ 6

Step I: If the symbols are immediately preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by a consonant, then the symbols are placed immediately right of N in the same order from left to right.

Step II: After completing step I, if the letters are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by another letter, then the letters are placed immediately right of ‘5’ in alphabetical order.

Step III: After completing step II, if the digits are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol, then the digits are placed immediately right of ‘L’ in ascending order.

Note: Step III is the final arrangement and answer the following question based on the final arrangement.

How many such digits are there in the final arrangement which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a vowel?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 38 We have

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 @ L N Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 \$ T U ¥ 6

For step I: If the symbols are immediately preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by a consonant, then the symbols are placed immediately right of N in the same order from left to right.

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 L N @ \$ Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 T U ¥ 6

For step II: If the letters are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by another letter, then the letters are placed immediately right of ‘5’ in alphabetical order.

# 2 K 5 H L T % E 1 N @ \$ Q 7& 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 U ¥ 6

For step III: If the digits are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol, then the digits are placed immediate right of ‘L’ in ascending order.

# 2 K 5 H L 7 T % E 1 N @ \$ Q & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 U ¥ 6

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 39

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 @ L N Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 \$ T U ¥ 6

Step I: If the symbols are immediately preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by a consonant, then the symbols are placed immediately right of N in the same order from left to right.

Step II: After completing step I, if the letters are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by another letter, then the letters are placed immediately right of ‘5’ in alphabetical order.

Step III: After completing step II, if the digits are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol, then the digits are placed immediately right of ‘L’ in ascending order.

Note: Step III is the final arrangement and answer the following question based on the final arrangement.

Q. Four of the five are related to each other in a certain way, then find the odd one out?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 39 We have

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 @ L N Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 \$ T U ¥ 6

For step I: If the symbols are immediately preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by a consonant, then the symbols are placed immediately right of N in the same order from left to right.

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 L N @ \$ Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 T U ¥ 6

For step II: If the letters are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by another letter, then the letters are placed immediately right of ‘5’ in alphabetical order.

# 2 K 5 H L T % E 1 N @ \$ Q 7& 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 U ¥ 6

For step III: If the digits are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol , then the digits are placed immediate right of ‘L’ in ascending order.

# 2 K 5 H L 7 T % E 1 N @ \$ Q & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 U ¥ 6

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 40

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 @ L N Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 \$ T U ¥ 6

Step I: If the symbols are immediately preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by a consonant, then the symbols are placed immediately right of N in the same order from left to right.

Step II: After completing step I, if the letters are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by another letter, then the letters are placed immediately right of ‘5’ in alphabetical order.

Step III: After completing step II, if the digits are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol, then the digits are placed immediately right of ‘L’ in ascending order.

Note: Step III is the final arrangement and answer the following question based on the final arrangement.

Q. If all the letters are immediately followed by a digit are dropped then, which of the following element is fifteenth from the left end?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 40 We have

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 @ L N Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 \$ T U ¥ 6

For step I: If the symbols are immediately preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by a consonant, then the symbols are placed immediately right of N in the same order from left to right.

# 2 H K 5 % E 1 L N @ \$ Q 7 & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 T U ¥ 6

For step II: If the letters are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by another letter, then the letters are placed immediately right of ‘5’ in alphabetical order.

# 2 K 5 H L T % E 1 N @ \$ Q 7& 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 U ¥ 6

For step III: If the digits are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol , then the digits are placed immediate right of ‘L’ in ascending order.

# 2 K 5 H L 7 T % E 1 N @ \$ Q & 4 A ^ 8 £ 3 C 9 U ¥ 6

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 41

Eight people A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing both north and south direction. Three people are facing north while others are facing south. They bought cars in different years such as 1974, 1987, 1999, 2003, 2008, 2011, 2016 and 2019. Assuming they bought the cars in the same month.

The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008. The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest. R is an immediate neighbor of D and A. Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7. S bought the car five years after C but three years before R. B faces the same direction as A and three people sit between them. S sits on one of the extreme ends. C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction. Difference between the years in which Q and P bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars. R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5. Q is an immediate neighbor of A, who faces the opposite direction to S. B does not sit at the second position from the left end. Q faces the same direction as B who bought the car earliest. C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

In which year did A buy the car?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 41 Three people are facing north while others are facing south.

7) S sits on one of the extreme ends.

4) Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7.

8) C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction.

11) Q is an immediate neighbor of (A), who faces the opposite direction to S.

6) B faces the same direction as (A) and three people sit between them.

13) Q faces the same direction as (B) who bought the car earliest.

So, B bought car in 1974.

12) B does not sit at the second position from the left end.

So, case 2 is eliminated.

3) R is an immediate neighbor of D and A.

So, case 1.1 and 2.1 are eliminated as there is no such place for R and D.

10) R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5.

So, the year is 2019 as 9 + 1 = 10 is a multiple of 5.

14) C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

So, the years can be either 2003 or 2011.

5) S bought the car five years after C but three years before R.

S bought the car = R – 3 = 2019 – 3 = 2016.

So, C bought the car 2016 - 5 = 2011.

9) Difference between the years in which Q and (P) bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars.

(Q – P) = 3 (Q – D)

(1999 – 1987) = 3 (1999 – 2003)

12 = 4 × 3

12 = 12

So, P bought the car in 1987 and D bought in 2003.

1) The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008.

A bought the car in the year 2008 and faces south so P faces north.

2) The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest.

So, D faces south and so R faces north.

So, in 2008 A bought the car.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 42

Eight people A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing both north and south direction. Three people are facing north while others are facing south. They bought cars in different years such as 1974, 1987, 1999, 2003, 2008, 2011, 2016 and 2019. Assuming they bought the cars in the same month.

The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008. The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest. R is an immediate neighbor of D and A. Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7. S bought the car five years after C but three years before R. B faces the same direction as A and three people sit between them. S sits on one of the extreme ends. C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction. Difference between the years in which Q and P bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars. R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5. Q is an immediate neighbor of A, who faces the opposite direction to S. B does not sit at the second position from the left end. Q faces the same direction as B who bought the car earliest. C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

Who sits second to the right of the person who bought a car in 1987?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 42 Three people are facing north while others are facing south.

7) S sits on one of the extreme ends.

4) Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7.

8) C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction.

11) Q is an immediate neighbor of (A), who faces the opposite direction to S.

6) B faces the same direction as (A) and three people sit between them.

13) Q faces the same direction as (B) who bought the car earliest.

So, B bought car in 1974.

12) B does not sit at the second position from the left end.

So, case 2 is eliminated.

3) R is an immediate neighbor of D and A.

So, case 1.1 and 2.1 are eliminated as there is no such place for R and D.

10) R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5.

So, the year is 2019 as 9 + 1 = 10 is a multiple of 5.

14) C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

So, the years can be either 2003 or 2011.

5) S bought the car five years after C but three years before R.

S bought the car = R – 3 = 2019 – 3 = 2016.

So, C bought the car 2016 - 5 = 2011.

9) Difference between the years in which Q and (P) bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars.

(Q – P) = 3 (Q – D)

(1999 – 1987) = 3 (1999 – 2003)

12 = 4 × 3

12 = 12

So, P bought the car in 1987 and D bought in 2003.

1) The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008.

A bought the car in the year 2008 and faces south so P faces north.

2) The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest.

So, D faces south and so R faces north.

So, S sits second to the right of the person who bought the car in 1987.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 43

Eight people A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing both north and south direction. Three people are facing north while others are facing south. They bought cars in different years such as 1974, 1987, 1999, 2003, 2008, 2011, 2016 and 2019. Assuming they bought the cars in the same month.

The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008. The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest. R is an immediate neighbor of D and A. Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7. S bought the car five years after C but three years before R. B faces the same direction as A and three people sit between them. S sits on one of the extreme ends. C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction. Difference between the years in which Q and P bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars. R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5. Q is an immediate neighbor of A, who faces the opposite direction to S. B does not sit at the second position from the left end. Q faces the same direction as B who bought the car earliest. C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

Who bought the car in 2003?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 43 Three people are facing north while others are facing south.

7) S sits on one of the extreme ends.

4) Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7.

8) C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction.

11) Q is an immediate neighbor of (A), who faces the opposite direction to S.

6) B faces the same direction as (A) and three people sit between them.

13) Q faces the same direction as (B) who bought the car earliest.

So, B bought car in 1974.

12) B does not sit at the second position from the left end.

So, case 2 is eliminated.

3) R is an immediate neighbor of D and A.

So, case 1.1 and 2.1 are eliminated as there is no such place for R and D.

10) R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5.

So, the year is 2019 as 9 + 1 = 10 is a multiple of 5.

14) C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

So, the years can be either 2003 or 2011.

5) S bought the car five years after C but three years before R.

S bought the car = R – 3 = 2019 – 3 = 2016.

So, C bought the car 2016 - 5 = 2011.

9) Difference between the years in which Q and (P) bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars.

(Q – P) = 3 (Q – D)

(1999 – 1987) = 3 (1999 – 2003)

12 = 4 × 3

12 = 12

So, P bought the car in 1987 and D bought in 2003.

1) The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008.

A bought the car in the year 2008 and faces south so P faces north.

2) The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest.

So, D faces south and so R faces north.

So, D bought the car in 2003.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 44

Eight people A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing both north and south direction. Three people are facing north while others are facing south. They bought cars in different years such as 1974, 1987, 1999, 2003, 2008, 2011, 2016 and 2019. Assuming they bought the cars in the same month.

The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008. The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest. R is an immediate neighbor of D and A. Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7. S bought the car five years after C but three years before R. B faces the same direction as A and three people sit between them. S sits on one of the extreme ends. C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction. Difference between the years in which Q and P bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars. R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5. Q is an immediate neighbor of A, who faces the opposite direction to S. B does not sit at the second position from the left end. Q faces the same direction as B who bought the car earliest. C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

Who bought the car in the year 2011?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 44 Three people are facing north while others are facing south.

7) S sits on one of the extreme ends.

4) Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7.

8) C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction.

11) Q is an immediate neighbor of (A), who faces the opposite direction to S.

6) B faces the same direction as (A) and three people sit between them.

13) Q faces the same direction as (B) who bought the car earliest.

So, B bought car in 1974.

12) B does not sit at the second position from the left end.

So, case 2 is eliminated.

3) R is an immediate neighbor of D and A.

So, case 1.1 and 2.1 are eliminated as there is no such place for R and D.

10) R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5.

So, the year is 2019 as 9 + 1 = 10 is a multiple of 5.

14) C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

So, the years can be either 2003 or 2011.

5) S bought the car five years after C but three years before R.

S bought the car = R – 3 = 2019 – 3 = 2016.

So, C bought the car 2016 - 5 = 2011.

9) Difference between the years in which Q and (P) bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars.

(Q – P) = 3 (Q – D)

(1999 – 1987) = 3 (1999 – 2003)

12 = 4 × 3

12 = 12

So, P bought the car in 1987 and D bought in 2003.

1) The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008.

A bought the car in the year 2008 and faces south so P faces north.

2) The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest.

So, D faces south and so R faces north.

So, C bought the car in the year 2011.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 45

Eight people A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing both north and south direction. Three people are facing north while others are facing south. They bought cars in different years such as 1974, 1987, 1999, 2003, 2008, 2011, 2016 and 2019. Assuming they bought the cars in the same month.

The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008. The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest. R is an immediate neighbor of D and A. Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7. S bought the car five years after C but three years before R. B faces the same direction as A and three people sit between them. S sits on one of the extreme ends. C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction. Difference between the years in which Q and P bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars. R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5. Q is an immediate neighbor of A, who faces the opposite direction to S. B does not sit at the second position from the left end. Q faces the same direction as B who bought the car earliest. C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

In which year did S buy the car?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 45 Three people are facing north while others are facing south.

7) S sits on one of the extreme ends.

4) Q sits sixth to the left of S and bought a car in the year whose sum of its all digits is a common multiple of 4 and 7.

8) C is an immediate neighbor of Q and faces south direction.

11) Q is an immediate neighbor of (A), who faces the opposite direction to S.

6) B faces the same direction as (A) and three people sit between them.

13) Q faces the same direction as (B) who bought the car earliest.

So, B bought car in 1974.

12) B does not sit at the second position from the left end.

So, case 2 is eliminated.

3) R is an immediate neighbor of D and A.

So, case 1.1 and 2.1 are eliminated as there is no such place for R and D.

10) R bought a car in the year whose last two digits form a prime number but their sum is multiple of 5.

So, the year is 2019 as 9 + 1 = 10 is a multiple of 5.

14) C bought the car in the year whose last two digits do not form a composite number.

So, the years can be either 2003 or 2011.

5) S bought the car five years after C but three years before R.

S bought the car = R – 3 = 2019 – 3 = 2016.

So, C bought the car 2016 - 5 = 2011.

9) Difference between the years in which Q and (P) bought the cars is thrice the difference between the years in which Q and D bought their cars.

(Q – P) = 3 (Q – D)

(1999 – 1987) = 3 (1999 – 2003)

12 = 4 × 3

12 = 12

So, P bought the car in 1987 and D bought in 2003.

1) The person who bought a car in the year 1987 faces the opposite direction to the person who bought a car in the year 2008.

A bought the car in the year 2008 and faces south so P faces north.

2) The person who bought a car in the year 2003 faces the same direction as the person who bought the car earliest.

So, D faces south and so R faces north.

So, S bought the car in 2016.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 46

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:

Data given below is related to the temperature (in ˚c) of 3 cities A, B and C recorded on 5 different days Mon, Tue, Wed, Thu and Fri.

Pie chart given below shows the degree distribution of temperature of city A in the given 5 days.

In city A, if average temperature of that week is 38˚c and ratio of temperature on Sat to that on Sun is 20: 23, then find that temperature on Sun is what per cent more than that on Mon in city A.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 46 Let temperature of city B on Mon = p˚c

So, temperature of city A on Mon = 64% of ‘p’ = (16p/25)˚c

And temperature of city C on Mon = (p – 6)˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Mon = 180 * (84/360) = 42˚c

So,

(16p/25) + p + (p – 6) = 3 * 42

16p + 50p = 3300

p = 50

Temperature of city A on Mon = 50 * (16/25) = 32˚c

Temperature of city B on Mon = 50˚c

Temperature of city C on Mon = 50 – 6 = 44˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Tue = 180 * (72/360) = 36˚c

Temperature of city A on Tue = 32 * (80/64) = 40˚c

Let temperature of city B on Tue = q˚c

And temperature of city C on Tue = (q + 4)˚c

So, q + (q + 4) = 3 * 36 – 40

q = 32

Temperature of city B on Tue = 32˚c

Temperature of city C on Tue = (32 + 4) = 36˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Wed = 180 * (80/360) = 40˚c

Temperature of city A on Wed = 32 * (70/64) = 35˚c

Let temperature of city B on Wed = r˚c

And temperature of city C on Wed = (r + 5)˚c

So, r + (r + 5) = 3 * 40 – 35

r = 40

Temperature of city B on Wed = 40˚c

Temperature of city C on Wed = (40 + 5) = 45˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Thu = 180 * (60/360) = 30˚c

Temperature of city A on Thu = 32 * (86/64) = 43˚c

Let temperature of city B on Thu = s˚c

And temperature of city C on Thu = (s + 3)˚c

So, s + (s + 3) = 3 * 30 – 43

s = 22

Temperature of city B on Thu = 22˚c

Temperature of city C on Thu = (22 + 3) = 25˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Fri = 180 * (64/360) = 32˚c

Temperature of city A on Fri = 32 * (60/64) = 30˚c

Let temperature of city B on Fri = t˚c

And temperature of city C on Fri = (t – 2)˚c

So, t + (t – 2) = 3 * 32 – 30

t = 34

Temperature of city B on Fri = 34˚c

Temperature of city C on Fri = (34 – 2) = 32˚c

Average temperature on that week in city A = 38˚c

So, sum of temperature on Sat and Sun in city A:

7 * 38 – (32 + 40 + 35 + 43 + 30) = 86˚c

Since, in city A, ratio of temperature on Sat to that on Sun is 20: 23.

So, temperature on Sun in city A = 86 * (23/43) = 46˚c

Temperature on Mon in city A = 32˚c

Required percentage = [(46 – 32)/32] * 100 = 43.75%

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 47

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:

Data given below is related to the temperature (in ˚c) of 3 cities A, B and C recorded on 5 different days Mon, Tue, Wed, Thu and Fri.

Pie chart given below shows the degree distribution of temperature of city A in the given 5 days.

In city B, if temperature on Sat and Sun is 92% and 112% of that on Mon, then find the average temperature of that week in city B.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 47 Let temperature of city B on Mon = p˚c

So, temperature of city A on Mon = 64% of ‘p’ = (16p/25)˚c

And temperature of city C on Mon = (p – 6)˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Mon = 180 * (84/360) = 42˚c

So,

(16p/25) + p + (p – 6) = 3 * 42

16p + 50p = 3300

p = 50

Temperature of city A on Mon = 50 * (16/25) = 32˚c

Temperature of city B on Mon = 50˚c

Temperature of city C on Mon = 50 – 6 = 44˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Tue = 180 * (72/360) = 36˚c

Temperature of city A on Tue = 32 * (80/64) = 40˚c

Let temperature of city B on Tue = q˚c

And temperature of city C on Tue = (q + 4)˚c

So, q + (q + 4) = 3 * 36 – 40

q = 32

Temperature of city B on Tue = 32˚c

Temperature of city C on Tue = (32 + 4) = 36˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Wed = 180 * (80/360) = 40˚c

Temperature of city A on Wed = 32 * (70/64) = 35˚c

Let temperature of city B on Wed = r˚c

And temperature of city C on Wed = (r + 5)˚c

So, r + (r + 5) = 3 * 40 – 35

r = 40

Temperature of city B on Wed = 40˚c

Temperature of city C on Wed = (40 + 5) = 45˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Thu = 180 * (60/360) = 30˚c

Temperature of city A on Thu = 32 * (86/64) = 43˚c

Let temperature of city B on Thu = s˚c

And temperature of city C on Thu = (s + 3)˚c

So, s + (s + 3) = 3 * 30 – 43

s = 22

Temperature of city B on Thu = 22˚c

Temperature of city C on Thu = (22 + 3) = 25˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Fri = 180 * (64/360) = 32˚c

Temperature of city A on Fri = 32 * (60/64) = 30˚c

Let temperature of city B on Fri = t˚c

And temperature of city C on Fri = (t – 2)˚c

So, t + (t – 2) = 3 * 32 – 30

t = 34

Temperature of city B on Fri = 34˚c

Temperature of city C on Fri = (34 – 2) = 32˚c

Temperature on Mon in city B = 50˚c

So, temperature on Sat in city B = 92% of 50 = 46˚c

And temperature on Sun in city B = 112% of 50 = 56˚c

Temperature on Tue in city B = 32˚c

Temperature on Wed in city B = 40˚c

Temperature on Thu in city B = 22˚c

Temperature on Fri in city B = 34˚c

Required average = (50 + 32 + 40 + 22 + 34 + 46 + 56)/7 = 40˚c

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 48

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:Data given below is related to the temperature (in ˚c) of 3 cities A, B and C recorded on 5 different days Mon, Tue, Wed, Thu and Fri.

Pie chart given below shows the degree distribution of temperature of city A in the given 5 days.

Find the average of temperatures of all the 5 days in city C.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 48 Let temperature of city B on Mon = p˚c

So, temperature of city A on Mon = 64% of ‘p’ = (16p/25)˚c

And temperature of city C on Mon = (p – 6)˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Mon = 180 * (84/360) = 42˚c

So,

(16p/25) + p + (p – 6) = 3 * 42

16p + 50p = 3300

p = 50

Temperature of city A on Mon = 50 * (16/25) = 32˚c

Temperature of city B on Mon = 50˚c

Temperature of city C on Mon = 50 – 6 = 44˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Tue = 180 * (72/360) = 36˚c

Temperature of city A on Tue = 32 * (80/64) = 40˚c

Let temperature of city B on Tue = q˚c

And temperature of city C on Tue = (q + 4)˚c

So, q + (q + 4) = 3 * 36 – 40

q = 32

Temperature of city B on Tue = 32˚c

Temperature of city C on Tue = (32 + 4) = 36˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Wed = 180 * (80/360) = 40˚c

Temperature of city A on Wed = 32 * (70/64) = 35˚c

Let temperature of city B on Wed = r˚c

And temperature of city C on Wed = (r + 5)˚c

So, r + (r + 5) = 3 * 40 – 35

r = 40

Temperature of city B on Wed = 40˚c

Temperature of city C on Wed = (40 + 5) = 45˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Thu = 180 * (60/360) = 30˚c

Temperature of city A on Thu = 32 * (86/64) = 43˚c

Let temperature of city B on Thu = s˚c

And temperature of city C on Thu = (s + 3)˚c

So, s + (s + 3) = 3 * 30 – 43

s = 22

Temperature of city B on Thu = 22˚c

Temperature of city C on Thu = (22 + 3) = 25˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Fri = 180 * (64/360) = 32˚c

Temperature of city A on Fri = 32 * (60/64) = 30˚c

Let temperature of city B on Fri = t˚c

And temperature of city C on Fri = (t – 2)˚c

So, t + (t – 2) = 3 * 32 – 30

t = 34

Temperature of city B on Fri = 34˚c

Temperature of city C on Fri = (34 – 2) = 32˚c

Temperature on Mon in city C = 44˚c

Temperature on Tue in city C = 36˚c

Temperature on Wed in city C = 45˚c

Temperature on Thu in city C = 25˚c

Temperature on Fri in city C = 32˚c

Required average = (44 + 36 + 45 + 25 + 32)/5 = 36.4˚c

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 49

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:Data given below is related to the temperature (in ˚c) of 3 cities A, B and C recorded on 5 different days Mon, Tue, Wed, Thu and Fri.

Pie chart given below shows the degree distribution of temperature of city A in the given 5 days.

Find the ratio between temperatures in city A, city B and city C respectively on Wed.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 49 Let temperature of city B on Mon = p˚c

So, temperature of city A on Mon = 64% of ‘p’ = (16p/25)˚c

And temperature of city C on Mon = (p – 6)˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Mon = 180 * (84/360) = 42˚c

So,

(16p/25) + p + (p – 6) = 3 * 42

16p + 50p = 3300

p = 50

Temperature of city A on Mon = 50 * (16/25) = 32˚c

Temperature of city B on Mon = 50˚c

Temperature of city C on Mon = 50 – 6 = 44˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Tue = 180 * (72/360) = 36˚c

Temperature of city A on Tue = 32 * (80/64) = 40˚c

Let temperature of city B on Tue = q˚c

And temperature of city C on Tue = (q + 4)˚c

So, q + (q + 4) = 3 * 36 – 40

q = 32

Temperature of city B on Tue = 32˚c

Temperature of city C on Tue = (32 + 4) = 36˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Wed = 180 * (80/360) = 40˚c

Temperature of city A on Wed = 32 * (70/64) = 35˚c

Let temperature of city B on Wed = r˚c

And temperature of city C on Wed = (r + 5)˚c

So, r + (r + 5) = 3 * 40 – 35

r = 40

Temperature of city B on Wed = 40˚c

Temperature of city C on Wed = (40 + 5) = 45˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Thu = 180 * (60/360) = 30˚c

Temperature of city A on Thu = 32 * (86/64) = 43˚c

Let temperature of city B on Thu = s˚c

And temperature of city C on Thu = (s + 3)˚c

So, s + (s + 3) = 3 * 30 – 43

s = 22

Temperature of city B on Thu = 22˚c

Temperature of city C on Thu = (22 + 3) = 25˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Fri = 180 * (64/360) = 32˚c

Temperature of city A on Fri = 32 * (60/64) = 30˚c

Let temperature of city B on Fri = t˚c

And temperature of city C on Fri = (t – 2)˚c

So, t + (t – 2) = 3 * 32 – 30

t = 34

Temperature of city B on Fri = 34˚c

Temperature of city C on Fri = (34 – 2) = 32˚c

Temperature of city A on Wed = 35˚c

Temperature of city B on Wed = 40˚c

Temperature of city C on Wed = 45˚c

Required ratio = 35 : 40 : 45 = 7 : 8 : 9

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 50

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:Data given below is related to the temperature (in ˚c) of 3 cities A, B and C recorded on 5 different days Mon, Tue, Wed, Thu and Fri.

Pie chart given below shows the degree distribution of temperature of city A in the given 5 days.

In which day, difference between temperature in city A and that in city B is minimum?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 50 Let temperature of city B on Mon = p˚c

So, temperature of city A on Mon = 64% of ‘p’ = (16p/25)˚c

And temperature of city C on Mon = (p – 6)˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Mon = 180 * (84/360) = 42˚c

So,

(16p/25) + p + (p – 6) = 3 * 42

16p + 50p = 3300

p = 50

Temperature of city A on Mon = 50 * (16/25) = 32˚c

Temperature of city B on Mon = 50˚c

Temperature of city C on Mon = 50 – 6 = 44˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Tue = 180 * (72/360) = 36˚c

Temperature of city A on Tue = 32 * (80/64) = 40˚c

Let temperature of city B on Tue = q˚c

And temperature of city C on Tue = (q + 4)˚c

So, q + (q + 4) = 3 * 36 – 40

q = 32

Temperature of city B on Tue = 32˚c

Temperature of city C on Tue = (32 + 4) = 36˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Wed = 180 * (80/360) = 40˚c

Temperature of city A on Wed = 32 * (70/64) = 35˚c

Let temperature of city B on Wed = r˚c

And temperature of city C on Wed = (r + 5)˚c

So, r + (r + 5) = 3 * 40 – 35

r = 40

Temperature of city B on Wed = 40˚c

Temperature of city C on Wed = (40 + 5) = 45˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Thu = 180 * (60/360) = 30˚c

Temperature of city A on Thu = 32 * (86/64) = 43˚c

Let temperature of city B on Thu = s˚c

And temperature of city C on Thu = (s + 3)˚c

So, s + (s + 3) = 3 * 30 – 43

s = 22

Temperature of city B on Thu = 22˚c

Temperature of city C on Thu = (22 + 3) = 25˚c

Average temperature of all the 3 cities on Fri = 180 * (64/360) = 32˚c

Temperature of city A on Fri = 32 * (60/64) = 30˚c

Let temperature of city B on Fri = t˚c

And temperature of city C on Fri = (t – 2)˚c

So, t + (t – 2) = 3 * 32 – 30

t = 34

Temperature of city B on Fri = 34˚c

Temperature of city C on Fri = (34 – 2) = 32˚c

Difference between temperature in city A and city B on Mon = 50 – 32 = 18˚c

Difference between temperature in city A and city B on Tue = 40 – 32 = 8˚c

Difference between temperature in city A and city B on Wed = 40 – 35 = 5˚c

Difference between temperature in city A and city B on Thu = 43 – 22 = 21˚c

Difference between temperature in city A and city B on Fri = 34 – 30 = 4˚c

So, difference between temperature in city A and that of city B is minimum on Fri.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 51

Direction: question below followed by three quantities. Find the relationship between them.

Quantity I: Kevin deposits 30% of his savings in bank. What amount is left with him after depositing money from his savings?

Quantity II: If 10% of travelling by Kevin is spent on Flight tickets, 50% of remaining amount on Train and Bus tickets, then what amount spent on Train, Bus and Flight Tickets?

Quantity III: What is the Kevin’s average expense on House rent, Savings and Food?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 51 Required amount left

Quantity II:

Spent on Travelling

10% spent on flight ticket

Remaining amount = 5760 − 576 = Rs. 5184

Amount spent on Train and Bus tickets

Required answer = 576 + 2592 = Rs. 3168

Quantity III:

Expense on House rent

Expense on Savings

Expense on Food

Required average

∴ Quantity I> Quantity II < quantity="" />

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 52

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are three boxes ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’. Each of them contains some red bottles, some blue bottles and some black bottles.

Box A: The number of red bottles is 40% more than that in box ‘B’. The number of blue bottles is (x + y). The probability of picking 2 black bottles is 13/85. The number of black bottles in the box is ‘z’.

Box B: The number of blue bottles is 6 more than the number of red bottles in box ‘C’. The number of black bottles is 4 more than the number of black bottles in box ‘C’. The number of red bottles is ‘x’. The probability of picking 2 red bottles is 2/87.

Box C: There are 20 bottles in the box such that the number of black bottles is 20% more than that of blue bottles. The total number of red bottles is ‘y’ such that y ≤ 10.

In another box, there are (x + y) red bottles, 2z blue bottles and (8x + 2) black bottles. If three bottles are drawn at random with replacement from this box, then find the probability of getting each bottle of different colour.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 52 Box A

Number of red bottles = 1.4 × 5 = 7

Number of blue bottles = (9 + 5) = 14

According to the question,

{zC2/ (21+z)C2} = 13/85

Or, 72z2 – 618z – 5460 = 0

Or, 72z2 – 1008x + 390x – 5460 = 0

Or, 72z(z – 14) + 390z(z – 14) = 0

Or, (z – 14)(72z + 390) = 0

Since, the number of bottles cannot be negative

Therefore, number of black bottles = z = 14

Box B:

Number of blue bottles = 9 + 6 = 15

Number of black bottles = 6 + 4 = 10

According to the question,

{xC2/(25+x)C2} = 2/87

Or, 85x2 – 185x – 1200 = 0

Or, 85x2 – 425x + 240x – 1200 = 0

Or, 85x(x – 5) + 240x(x – 5) = 0

Or, (x – 5)(85x + 240) = 0

Since the number of bottles cannot be negative

Therefore, number of red bottles = x = 5

Box C:

For y = 1 to 8, the number of blue and black bottles will be in decimals

Therefore, y = 9

Number of red bottles = 9

Let the number of blue bottles be ‘a’

Therefore, number of black bottles = 1.2a

Therefore, Number of blue bottles = a = 11/2.2 = 5

Number of black bottles = 1.2 × 5 = 6

Number of red bottles = (x + y) = 14

Number of red bottles = (x + y) = 14

Number of blue bottles = 2z = 28

Number of black bottles = (8x + 2) = 42

Required probability = 3! × (14/84) × (28/84) × (42/84) = ⅙

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 53

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are three boxes ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’. Each of them contains some red bottles, some blue bottles and some black bottles.

Box A: The number of red bottles is 40% more than that in box ‘B’. The number of blue bottles is (x + y). The probability of picking 2 black bottles is 13/85. The number of black bottles in the box is ‘z’.

Box B: The number of blue bottles is 6 more than the number of red bottles in box ‘C’. The number of black bottles is 4 more than the number of black bottles in box ‘C’. The number of red bottles is ‘x’. The probability of picking 2 red bottles is 2/87.

Box C: There are 20 bottles in the box such that the number of black bottles is 20% more than that of blue bottles. The total number of red bottles is ‘y’ such that y ≤ 10.

Find the total number of bottles in box ‘B’.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 53 Box A

Number of red bottles = 1.4 × 5 = 7

Number of blue bottles = (9 + 5) = 14

According to the question,

{zC2/ (21+z)C2} = 13/85

Or, 72z2 – 618z – 5460 = 0

Or, 72z2 – 1008x + 390x – 5460 = 0

Or, 72z(z – 14) + 390z(z – 14) = 0

Or, (z – 14)(72z + 390) = 0

Since, the number of bottles cannot be negative

Therefore, number of black bottles = z = 14

Box B:

Number of blue bottles = 9 + 6 = 15

Number of black bottles = 6 + 4 = 10

According to the question,

{xC2/(25+x)C2} = 2/87

Or, 85x2 – 185x – 1200 = 0

Or, 85x2 – 425x + 240x – 1200 = 0

Or, 85x(x – 5) + 240x(x – 5) = 0

Or, (x – 5)(85x + 240) = 0

Since the number of bottles cannot be negative

Therefore, number of red bottles = x = 5

Box C:

For y = 1 to 8, the number of blue and black bottles will be in decimals

Therefore, y = 9

Number of red bottles = 9

Let the number of blue bottles be ‘a’

Therefore, number of black bottles = 1.2a

Therefore, Number of blue bottles = a = 11/2.2 = 5

Number of black bottles = 1.2 × 5 = 6

Total number of bottles in box ‘B’ = 5 + 15 + 10 = 30

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 54

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are three boxes ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’. Each of them contains some red bottles, some blue bottles and some black bottles.

Box A: The number of red bottles is 40% more than that in box ‘B’. The number of blue bottles is (x + y). The probability of picking 2 black bottles is 13/85. The number of black bottles in the box is ‘z’.

Box B: The number of blue bottles is 6 more than the number of red bottles in box ‘C’. The number of black bottles is 4 more than the number of black bottles in box ‘C’. The number of red bottles is ‘x’. The probability of picking 2 red bottles is 2/87.

Box C: There are 20 bottles in the box such that the number of black bottles is 20% more than that of blue bottles. The total number of red bottles is ‘y’ such that y ≤ 10.

Find the value of (z – x).

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 54 Box A

Number of red bottles = 1.4 × 5 = 7

Number of blue bottles = (9 + 5) = 14

According to the question,

{zC2/ (21+z)C2} = 13/85

Or, 72z2 – 618z – 5460 = 0

Or, 72z2 – 1008x + 390x – 5460 = 0

Or, 72z(z – 14) + 390z(z – 14) = 0

Or, (z – 14)(72z + 390) = 0

Since, the number of bottles cannot be negative

Therefore, number of black bottles = z = 14

Box B:

Number of blue bottles = 9 + 6 = 15

Number of black bottles = 6 + 4 = 10

According to the question,

{xC2/(25+x)C2} = 2/87

Or, 85x2 – 185x – 1200 = 0

Or, 85x2 – 425x + 240x – 1200 = 0

Or, 85x(x – 5) + 240x(x – 5) = 0

Or, (x – 5)(85x + 240) = 0

Since the number of bottles cannot be negative

Therefore, number of red bottles = x = 5

Box C:

For y = 1 to 8, the number of blue and black bottles will be in decimals

Therefore, y = 9

Number of red bottles = 9

Let the number of blue bottles be ‘a’

Therefore, number of black bottles = 1.2a

Therefore, Number of blue bottles = a = 11/2.2 = 5

Number of black bottles = 1.2 × 5 = 6

Required value = (14 – 5) = 9

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 55

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:

Four trains A, B, C and D take different – different time from station P to reach station Q, when they run at their original speeds (in m/s).

Table given below shows the departure time (hh:mm) of each train from station P and arrival time (hh:mm) of each train at station Q.

Note:1: If train A runs at 5m/s less than its original speed, it reaches station Q 1 hour 10 minutes late from the arrival time.

2: Length of a train can be different for a particular question.

If train A crosses train B in 7 seconds, while running in opposite direction, then what can be the possible lengths of trains A and B?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 55 Train A

Departure time of train A from station P = 13:10

Arrival time of train A at station Q = 17: 50

Running time of train,A from station P to station Q:

4 hours 40 minutes = 280 minutes = 16800 seconds

Extra time taken by train A, when it runs at 5 m/s less than its original speed:

1 hour 10 minutes = 70 minutes = 4200 seconds

So, total time taken by train A to reach station Q with its new speed:

16800 + 4200 = 21000 seconds

Let original speed of train A = ‘x’ m/s

Also let distance between station P and station Q = ‘d’ m

So,

x = d/16800 ----------------(1)

And,

(x – 5) = d/21000 ----------------(2)

From equations (1) and (2):

16800x = (x – 5) * 21000

16800x = 21000x – 105000

x = 25, d = 420000

Original speed of train A = 25 m/s

Distance between station P and station Q = 420000 m = 420 km

Train B:

Departure time of train B from station P = 06:50

Arrival time of train B at station Q = 10:10

Running time of train B from station P to station Q:

3 hours 20 minutes = 200 minutes = 12000 seconds

So, speed of train B = 420000/12000 = 35 m/s

Train C:

Departure time of train C from station P = 23:30

Arrival time of train C at station Q = 05:20

Running time of train C from station P to station Q:

5 hours 50 minutes = 350 minutes = 21000 seconds

So, speed of train C = 420000/21000 = 20 m/s

Train D:

Departure time of train D from station P = 18:10

Arrival time of train D at station Q = 05: 50

Running time of train D from station P to station Q:

11 hours 40 minutes = 700 minutes = 42000 seconds

So, speed of train D = 420000/42000 = 10 m/s

If train A crosses train B in 7 seconds, while running in opposite direction, then what can be the possible lengths of trains A and B

Speed of train A = 25 m/s

Speed of train B = 35 m/s

Relative speed when train A crosses train B while running in opposite direction:

25 + 35 = 60 m/s

Time taken by train A to cross train B while running in opposite direction = 7 sec

So, sum of their lengths will be = 60 * 7 = 420 m

From option (a):

Sum of length of trains A and B = 165 + 275 = 440 m

From option (b):

Sum of length of trains A and B = 145 + 265 = 410 m

From option (c):

Sum of length of trains A and B = 165 + 255 = 420 m

From option (d):

Sum of length of trains A and B = 155 + 275 = 430 m

From option (e):

Sum of length of trains A and B = 155 + 245 = 400

Hence, option (c) is correct.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 56

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:Four trains A, B, C and D take different – different time from station P to reach station Q, when they run at their original speeds (in m/s).

Table given below shows the departure time (hh:mm) of each train from station P and arrival time (hh:mm) of each train at station Q.

Note:1: If train A runs at 5m/s less than its original speed, it reaches station Q 1 hour 10 minutes late from the arrival time.

2: Length of a train can be different for a particular question.

If train B crosses train C in 25 seconds while running in same direction and length of train C is 200 m, then find the length of train B.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 56 Train A

Departure time of train A from station P = 13:10

Arrival time of train A at station Q = 17: 50

Running time of train,A from station P to station Q:

4 hours 40 minutes = 280 minutes = 16800 seconds

Extra time taken by train A, when it runs at 5 m/s less than its original speed:

1 hour 10 minutes = 70 minutes = 4200 seconds

So, total time taken by train A to reach station Q with its new speed:

16800 + 4200 = 21000 seconds

Let original speed of train A = ‘x’ m/s

Also let distance between station P and station Q = ‘d’ m

So,

x = d/16800 ----------------(1)

And,

(x – 5) = d/21000 ----------------(2)

From equations (1) and (2):

16800x = (x – 5) * 21000

16800x = 21000x – 105000

x = 25, d = 420000

Original speed of train A = 25 m/s

Distance between station P and station Q = 420000 m = 420 km

Train B:

Departure time of train B from station P = 06:50

Arrival time of train B at station Q = 10:10

Running time of train B from station P to station Q:

3 hours 20 minutes = 200 minutes = 12000 seconds

So, speed of train B = 420000/12000 = 35 m/s

Train C:

Departure time of train C from station P = 23:30

Arrival time of train C at station Q = 05:20

Running time of train C from station P to station Q:

5 hours 50 minutes = 350 minutes = 21000 seconds

So, speed of train C = 420000/21000 = 20 m/s

Train D:

Departure time of train D from station P = 18:10

Arrival time of train D at station Q = 05: 50

Running time of train D from station P to station Q:

11 hours 40 minutes = 700 minutes = 42000 seconds

So, speed of train D = 420000/42000 = 10 m/s

Speed of train B = 35 m/s

Speed of train C = 20 m/s

Length of train C = 200 m

Let the length of train B = ‘b’ m

So,

35 – 20 = (b + 200)/25

b = 175

Length of train B = 175 m

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 57

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:Four trains A, B, C and D take different – different time from station P to reach station Q, when they run at their original speeds (in m/s).

Table given below shows the departure time (hh:mm) of each train from station P and arrival time (hh:mm) of each train at station Q.

Note:1: If train A runs at 5m/s less than its original speed, it reaches station Q 1 hour 10 minutes late from the arrival time.

2: Length of a train can be different for a particular question.

Train C started running from station P on time at 80% of its original speed. After travelling for 4 hours 10 minutes, by what per cent will train C have to increase its speedto reach station Q on time?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 57 Train A

Departure time of train A from station P = 13:10

Arrival time of train A at station Q = 17: 50

Running time of train, A from station P to station Q:

4 hours 40 minutes = 280 minutes = 16800 seconds

Extra time taken by train A, when it runs at 5 m/s less than its original speed:

1 hour 10 minutes = 70 minutes = 4200 seconds

So, total time taken by train A to reach station Q with its new speed:

16800 + 4200 = 21000 seconds

Let original speed of train A = ‘x’ m/s

Also let distance between station P and station Q = ‘d’ m

So,

x = d/16800 ----------------(1)

And,

(x – 5) = d/21000 ----------------(2)

From equations (1) and (2):

16800x = (x – 5) * 21000

16800x = 21000x – 105000

x = 25, d = 420000

Original speed of train A = 25 m/s

Distance between station P and station Q = 420000 m = 420 km

Train B:

Departure time of train B from station P = 06:50

Arrival time of train B at station Q = 10:10

Running time of train B from station P to station Q:

3 hours 20 minutes = 200 minutes = 12000 seconds

So, speed of train B = 420000/12000 = 35 m/s

Train C:

Departure time of train C from station P = 23:30

Arrival time of train C at station Q = 05:20

Running time of train C from station P to station Q:

5 hours 50 minutes = 350 minutes = 21000 seconds

So, speed of train C = 420000/21000 = 20 m/s

Train D:

Departure time of train D from station P = 18:10

Arrival time of train D at station Q = 05: 50

Running time of train D from station P to station Q:

11 hours 40 minutes = 700 minutes = 42000 seconds

So, speed of train D = 420000/42000 = 10 m/s

Original speed of train C = 20 m/s

The speed, at which train C started running from station P = 80% of 20 = 16 m/s

The time, for which train C travelled at 16 m/s = 4 hours 10 minutes = 15000 seconds

Distance covered by train C in 15000 seconds at 16 m/s:

16 * 15000 = 240000 m

Distance between station P and station Q = 420 km = 420000 m

Remaining distance to be travelled by rain C = 420000 – 240000 = 180000 m

Remaining time = 350 – 250 = 100 minutes = 6000 seconds

So, the speed, at which train C will have to cover remaining distance:

180000/6000 = 30 m/s

Required percentage = [(30 – 16)/16] * 100 = 87.5%

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 58

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:Four trains A, B, C and D take different – different time from station P to reach station Q, when they run at their original speeds (in m/s).

Table given below shows the departure time (hh:mm) of each train from station P and arrival time (hh:mm) of each train at station Q.

Note:1: If train A runs at 5m/s less than its original speed, it reaches station Q 1 hour 10 minutes late from the arrival time.

2: Length of a train can be different for a particular question.

If train D increases its speed by ‘x’%, it reaches station Q 3 hours 20 minutes earlier than the arrival time, then find the value of ‘x’.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 58 Train A

Departure time of train A from station P = 13:10

Arrival time of train A at station Q = 17: 50

Running time of train,A from station P to station Q:

4 hours 40 minutes = 280 minutes = 16800 seconds

Extra time taken by train A, when it runs at 5 m/s less than its original speed:

1 hour 10 minutes = 70 minutes = 4200 seconds

So, total time taken by train A to reach station Q with its new speed:

16800 + 4200 = 21000 seconds

Let original speed of train A = ‘x’ m/s

Also let distance between station P and station Q = ‘d’ m

So,

x = d/16800 ----------------(1)

And,

(x – 5) = d/21000 ----------------(2)

From equations (1) and (2):

16800x = (x – 5) * 21000

16800x = 21000x – 105000

x = 25, d = 420000

Original speed of train A = 25 m/s

Distance between station P and station Q = 420000 m = 420 km

Train B:

Departure time of train B from station P = 06:50

Arrival time of train B at station Q = 10:10

Running time of train B from station P to station Q:

3 hours 20 minutes = 200 minutes = 12000 seconds

So, speed of train B = 420000/12000 = 35 m/s

Train C:

Departure time of train C from station P = 23:30

Arrival time of train C at station Q = 05:20

Running time of train C from station P to station Q:

5 hours 50 minutes = 350 minutes = 21000 seconds

So, speed of train C = 420000/21000 = 20 m/s

Train D:

Departure time of train D from station P = 18:10

Arrival time of train D at station Q = 05: 50

Running time of train D from station P to station Q:

11 hours 40 minutes = 700 minutes = 42000 seconds

So, speed of train D = 420000/42000 = 10 m/s

Time taken by train D to reach station Q, when runs with original speed:

11 hours 40 minutes = 700 minutes

Time taken by train D to reach station Q, when runs with new speed:

(11 hours 40 minutes) – (3 hours 20 minutes) = 700 – 200 = 500 minutes

Since, ratio of original time to new time = 700: 500 = 7: 5

So, ratio of original speed to new speed = 5: 7

So, x = [(7 – 5)/5] * 100 = 40%

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 59

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:

Four trains A, B, C and D take different – different time from station P to reach station Q, when they run at their original speeds (in m/s).

Table given below shows the departure time (hh:mm) of each train from station P and arrival time (hh:mm) of each train at station Q.

Note:1: If train A runs at 5m/s less than its original speed, it reaches station Q 1 hour 10 minutes late from the arrival time.

2: Length of a train can be different for a particular question.

Find the average of speeds of all the 4 trains (in m/s).

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 59 Train A

Departure time of train A from station P = 13:10

Arrival time of train A at station Q = 17: 50

Running time of train, A from station P to station Q:

4 hours 40 minutes = 280 minutes = 16800 seconds

Extra time taken by train A, when it runs at 5 m/s less than its original speed:

1 hour 10 minutes = 70 minutes = 4200 seconds

So, total time taken by train A to reach station Q with its new speed:

16800 + 4200 = 21000 seconds

Let original speed of train A = ‘x’ m/s

Also let distance between station P and station Q = ‘d’ m

So,

x = d/16800 ----------------(1)

And,

(x – 5) = d/21000 ----------------(2)

From equations (1) and (2):

16800x = (x – 5) * 21000

16800x = 21000x – 105000

x = 25, d = 420000

Original speed of train A = 25 m/s

Distance between station P and station Q = 420000 m = 420 km

Train B:

Departure time of train B from station P = 06:50

Arrival time of train B at station Q = 10:10

Running time of train B from station P to station Q:

3 hours 20 minutes = 200 minutes = 12000 seconds

So, speed of train B = 420000/12000 = 35 m/s

Train C:

Departure time of train C from station P = 23:30

Arrival time of train C at station Q = 05:20

Running time of train C from station P to station Q:

5 hours 50 minutes = 350 minutes = 21000 seconds

So, speed of train C = 420000/21000 = 20 m/s

Train D:

Departure time of train D from station P = 18:10

Arrival time of train D at station Q = 05: 50

Running time of train D from station P to station Q:

11 hours 40 minutes = 700 minutes = 42000 seconds

So, speed of train D = 420000/42000 = 10 m/s

Speed of train A = 25 m/s

Speed of train B = 35 m/s

Speed of train C = 20 m/s

Speed of train D = 10 m/s

Required average = (25 + 35 + 20 + 10)/4 = 22.5 m/s

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 60

In the income statement of Amir and Rachel, the ratio of their income in the year 2019 was 15 : 13. The ratio of Amir’s income in the year 2020 to that in 2019 is 3 : 2 and the ratio of Rachel’s income in the year 2020 to that in 2019 is 3 : 2. If Rs. 84000 is the sum of the income of Amir and Rachel in the year 2020, then find the income of Rachel in the year 2019?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 60 Given

Income of Amir and Rachel in 2019 were in the ratio 15: 13.

Ratio of Amir’s income in the year 2020 to that in 2019 is 3 : 2

Ratio of Rachel’s income in the year 2020 to that in 2019 is 3 : 2

Sum of income of Amir and Rachel in the year 2020 is Rs. 58000.

Let the income of Amir in 2020 and 2019 are 3a and 2a.

Let the income of Rachel in 2020 and 2019 are 3b and 2b.

According to question,

⇒ a = 15,000

⇒ b = 13,000

∴ Income of Rachel in 2019 = 2 × 13000 = Rs. 26,000

Hence, the correct option is (C).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 61

The following questions are accompanied by three statement A, B and C. you have to determine which statement (s) is /are necessary/ sufficient to answer the question.

P, Q and R together invested an amount of Rs. 55,000 in the ratio of 5:2:4 for different period of time. What was the amount of profit earned by them individually at the end of one year?

A. They invested for the period in the ratio 1:3:1.

B. R’s profit is 600 less than Q’s profit.

C. Total amount of profit at the end of one year is Rs. 4,500

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 61 The given question gives the amount of investment of p, q and R which is P = Rs. 25,000, Q= Rs. 10,000 and R = 20,000.

Statement A combined with the question’s information will give us the ratio of their profit i.e. 5 `xx` 1 : 2 `xx` 3 : 4 `xx` 1; 5:6:4. Now, combine this either with B or C, and profit earned by them can be determined. Therefore, Only A and either B or C together is sufficient.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 62

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:

A shopkeeper has 5 items M, N, O, P and Q and marked price of each item is different. He gives certain different discounts on marked price of each item and gives different additional discounts on each item after the 1st discount.

Selling price of an item = Price of item after additional discount on the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Radar graph given below shows the 1st discount (in rupees) on marked price of each item.

Line graph given below, showsadditional discount (in rupees) as per cent of the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Table given below shows the following data.

If marked price of item N is Rs.300 more than its cost price, then find the profit/loss per cent on item N.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 62 M + P = 2050 ----------------(1)

N + Q = 2975 ----------------(2)

M + N + O = 3051 ----------------(3)

N – O = 743 ----------------(4)

P – Q + O = 366 ----------------(5)

By equation (1) + (2) – (3):

M + P + N + Q – M – N – O = 2050 + 2975 – 3051

P + Q – O = 1974 ----------------(6)

From equations (5) and (6):

P = 1170

From equation (1):

M = 880

From equation (3):

N + O = 2171 ----------------(7)

From equations (4) and (7):

N = 1457, O = 714

From equation (2):

Q = 1518

Item M:Selling price of item M = Rs.880

1st discount on marked price = Rs.100

Additional discount on item M = 20%

So, marked price of item M = 880 * (100/80) + 100 = Rs.1200

Item N:Selling price of item N = Rs.1457

1st discount on marked price = Rs.250

Additional discount on item N = 6%

So, marked price of item N = 1457 * (100/94) + 250 = Rs.1800

Item O:Selling price of item O = Rs.714

1st discount on marked price = Rs.150

Additional discount on item O = 16%

So, marked price of item O = 714 * (100/84) + 150 = Rs.1000

Item P:Selling price of item P = Rs.1170

1st discount on marked price = Rs.300

Additional discount on item P = 10%

So, marked price of item P = 1170 * (100/90) + 300 = Rs.1600

Item Q:Selling price of item Q = Rs.1518

1st discount on marked price = Rs.350

Additional discount on item Q = 8%

So, marked price of item Q = 1518 * (100/92) + 350 = Rs.2000

MP of item N = Rs.1800

So, CP of item N = 1800 – 300 = Rs.1500

Since, SP of item N = Rs.1457

So, loss per cent on item N = [(1500 – 1457)/1500] * 100 = 2.87%

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 63

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:A shopkeeper has 5 items M, N, O, P and Q and marked price of each item is different. He gives certain different discounts on marked price of each item and gives different additional discounts on each item after the 1st discount.

Selling price of an item = Price of item after additional discount on the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Radar graph given below shows the 1st discount (in rupees) on marked price of each item.

Line graph given below, showsadditional discount (in rupees) as per cent of the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Table given below shows the following data.

If marked up per cent on item M is 20% and that on item O is 25%, then find the ratio of cost price of item M to that of item O.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 63 M + P = 2050 ----------------(1)

N + Q = 2975 ----------------(2)

M + N + O = 3051 ----------------(3)

N – O = 743 ----------------(4)

P – Q + O = 366 ----------------(5)

By equation (1) + (2) – (3):

M + P + N + Q – M – N – O = 2050 + 2975 – 3051

P + Q – O = 1974 ----------------(6)

From equations (5) and (6):

P = 1170

From equation (1):

M = 880

From equation (3):

N + O = 2171 ----------------(7)

From equations (4) and (7):

N = 1457, O = 714

From equation (2):

Q = 1518

Item M:Selling price of item M = Rs.880

1st discount on marked price = Rs.100

Additional discount on item M = 20%

So, marked price of item M = 880 * (100/80) + 100 = Rs.1200

Item N:Selling price of item N = Rs.1457

1st discount on marked price = Rs.250

Additional discount on item N = 6%

So, marked price of item N = 1457 * (100/94) + 250 = Rs.1800

Item O:Selling price of item O = Rs.714

1st discount on marked price = Rs.150

Additional discount on item O = 16%

So, marked price of item O = 714 * (100/84) + 150 = Rs.1000

Item P:Selling price of item P = Rs.1170

1st discount on marked price = Rs.300

Additional discount on item P = 10%

So, marked price of item P = 1170 * (100/90) + 300 = Rs.1600

Item Q:Selling price of item Q = Rs.1518

1st discount on marked price = Rs.350

Additional discount on item Q = 8%

So, marked price of item Q = 1518 * (100/92) + 350 = Rs.2000

MP of item M = Rs.1200

So, CP of item M = 1200 * (100/120) = Rs.1000

MP of item O = Rs.1000

So, CP of item O = 1000 * (100/125) = Rs.800

Required ratio = 1000: 800 = 5: 4

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 64

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:A shopkeeper has 5 items M, N, O, P and Q and marked price of each item is different. He gives certain different discounts on marked price of each item and gives different additional discounts on each item after the 1st discount.

Selling price of an item = Price of item after additional discount on the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Radar graph given below shows the 1st discount (in rupees) on marked price of each item.

Line graph given below, showsadditional discount (in rupees) as per cent of the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Table given below shows the following data.

Find the average price of each item after the 1st discount.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 64 M + P = 2050 ----------------(1)

N + Q = 2975 ----------------(2)

M + N + O = 3051 ----------------(3)

N – O = 743 ----------------(4)

P – Q + O = 366 ----------------(5)

By equation (1) + (2) – (3):

M + P + N + Q – M – N – O = 2050 + 2975 – 3051

P + Q – O = 1974 ----------------(6)

From equations (5) and (6):

P = 1170

From equation (1):

M = 880

From equation (3):

N + O = 2171 ----------------(7)

From equations (4) and (7):

N = 1457, O = 714

From equation (2):

Q = 1518

Item M:Selling price of item M = Rs.880

1st discount on marked price = Rs.100

Additional discount on item M = 20%

So, marked price of item M = 880 * (100/80) + 100 = Rs.1200

Item N:Selling price of item N = Rs.1457

1st discount on marked price = Rs.250

Additional discount on item N = 6%

So, marked price of item N = 1457 * (100/94) + 250 = Rs.1800

Item O:Selling price of item O = Rs.714

1st discount on marked price = Rs.150

Additional discount on item O = 16%

So, marked price of item O = 714 * (100/84) + 150 = Rs.1000

Item P:Selling price of item P = Rs.1170

1st discount on marked price = Rs.300

Additional discount on item P = 10%

So, marked price of item P = 1170 * (100/90) + 300 = Rs.1600

Item Q:Selling price of item Q = Rs.1518

1st discount on marked price = Rs.350

Additional discount on item Q = 8%

So, marked price of item Q = 1518 * (100/92) + 350 = Rs.2000

Price of item M after 1st discount = 1200 – 100 = Rs.1100

Price of item N after 1st discount = 1800 – 250 = Rs.1550

Price of item O after 1st discount = 1000 – 150 = Rs.850

Price of item P after 1st discount = 1600 – 300 = Rs.1300

Price of item Q after 1st discount = 2000 – 350 = Rs.1650

Required average = (1100 + 1550 + 850 + 1300 + 1650)/5 = Rs.1290

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 65

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:A shopkeeper has 5 items M, N, O, P and Q and marked price of each item is different. He gives certain different discounts on marked price of each item and gives different additional discounts on each item after the 1st discount.

Selling price of an item = Price of item after additional discount on the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Radar graph given below shows the 1st discount (in rupees) on marked price of each item.

Line graph given below, shows additional discount (in rupees) as per cent of the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Table given below shows the following data.

Find the average of additional discounts on items N and that on item P.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 65 M + P = 2050 ----------------(1)

N + Q = 2975 ----------------(2)

M + N + O = 3051 ----------------(3)

N – O = 743 ----------------(4)

P – Q + O = 366 ----------------(5)

By equation (1) + (2) – (3):

M + P + N + Q – M – N – O = 2050 + 2975 – 3051

P + Q – O = 1974 ----------------(6)

From equations (5) and (6):

P = 1170

From equation (1):

M = 880

From equation (3):

N + O = 2171 ----------------(7)

From equations (4) and (7):

N = 1457, O = 714

From equation (2):

Q = 1518

Item M:Selling price of item M = Rs.880

1st discount on marked price = Rs.100

Additional discount on item M = 20%

So, marked price of item M = 880 * (100/80) + 100 = Rs.1200

Item N:Selling price of item N = Rs.1457

1st discount on marked price = Rs.250

Additional discount on item N = 6%

So, marked price of item N = 1457 * (100/94) + 250 = Rs.1800

Item O:Selling price of item O = Rs.714

1st discount on marked price = Rs.150

Additional discount on item O = 16%

So, marked price of item O = 714 * (100/84) + 150 = Rs.1000

Item P:Selling price of item P = Rs.1170

1st discount on marked price = Rs.300

Additional discount on item P = 10%

So, marked price of item P = 1170 * (100/90) + 300 = Rs.1600

Item Q:Selling price of item Q = Rs.1518

1st discount on marked price = Rs.350

Additional discount on item Q = 8%

So, marked price of item Q = 1518 * (100/92) + 350 = Rs.2000

MP of item N = Rs.1800

So, additional discount on item N = 6% of (1800 – 250) = Rs.93

MP of item P = Rs.1600

So, additional discount on item P = 10% of (1600 – 300) = Rs.130

Required average = (93 + 130)/2 = Rs.111.5

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 66

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:A shopkeeper has 5 items M, N, O, P and Q and marked price of each item is different. He gives certain different discounts on marked price of each item and gives different additional discounts on each item after the 1st discount.

Selling price of an item = Price of item after additional discount on the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Radar graph given below shows the 1st discount (in rupees) on marked price of each item.

Line graph given below, showsadditional discount (in rupees) as per cent of the price after 1st discount on marked price.

Table given below shows the following data.

On which of the following item, additional discount is maximum?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 66 M + P = 2050 ----------------(1)

N + Q = 2975 ----------------(2)

M + N + O = 3051 ----------------(3)

N – O = 743 ----------------(4)

P – Q + O = 366 ----------------(5)

By equation (1) + (2) – (3):

M + P + N + Q – M – N – O = 2050 + 2975 – 3051

P + Q – O = 1974 ----------------(6)

From equations (5) and (6):

P = 1170

From equation (1):

M = 880

From equation (3):

N + O = 2171 ----------------(7)

From equations (4) and (7):

N = 1457, O = 714

From equation (2):

Q = 1518

Item M:Selling price of item M = Rs.880

1st discount on marked price = Rs.100

Additional discount on item M = 20%

So, marked price of item M = 880 * (100/80) + 100 = Rs.1200

Item N:Selling price of item N = Rs.1457

1st discount on marked price = Rs.250

Additional discount on item N = 6%

So, marked price of item N = 1457 * (100/94) + 250 = Rs.1800

Item O:Selling price of item O = Rs.714

1st discount on marked price = Rs.150

Additional discount on item O = 16%

So, marked price of item O = 714 * (100/84) + 150 = Rs.1000

Item P:Selling price of item P = Rs.1170

1st discount on marked price = Rs.300

Additional discount on item P = 10%

So, marked price of item P = 1170 * (100/90) + 300 = Rs.1600

Item Q:Selling price of item Q = Rs.1518

1st discount on marked price = Rs.350

Additional discount on item Q = 8%

So, marked price of item Q = 1518 * (100/92) + 350 = Rs.2000

MP of item M = Rs.1200

So, additional discount on item M = 20% of (1200 – 100) = Rs.220

MP of item N = Rs.1800

So, additional discount on item N = 6% of (1800 – 250) = Rs.93

MP of item O = Rs.1000

So, additional discount on item O = 16% of (1000 – 150) = Rs.136

MP of item P = Rs.1600

So, additional discount on item P = 10% of (1600 – 300) = Rs.130

MP of item Q = Rs.2000

So, additional discount on item Q = 8% of (2000 – 350) = Rs.132

Hence, additional discount is maximum on item M.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 67

A swimmer swims from point A against a current for 8 minutes and then swims backwards in favor of the current for next 8 minutes and comes to the point B. If AB = 200 meter, then what is the speed of the current (in kmph)?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 67 Given

Man swimmer swims from point A against a current for 8 minutes.

Man Swims backwards in favor of the current for next 8 minutes and comes to the point B.

Distance between A and B = 200 m

Speed upstream = (x + y) km/hr

Speed downstream = (x – y) km/hr

Where x and y are speed of boat and speed of stream respectively.

Let speed of swimmer be x km/hr and speed of current be y km/hr

⇒ Downstream speed = (x + y) km/hr

⇒ Upstream speed = (x – y) km/hr

Downstream distance covered in 8 minutes by swimmer

Upstream distance covered in 8 minutes by swimmer

∴ Speed of stream = 0.75 km/hr

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 68

Directions: The following questions are accompanied by three statement A, B and C. you have to determine which statement (s) is /are necessary/ sufficient to answer the question.

What was the sum of the ages of the father and the daughter 5 years earlier?

A. Ratio of the father’s present age to the daughter’s age after 5 years is 5 : 2.

B. The difference between twice the present age of the father and five times the daughter‘s present age is 20 years.

C. The ratio of the age of the father after 5 Years to tha age of the daughter after 6 years is 5: 2.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 68 Let the present ages of father and daughter be F and D years respectively.

A. = `(F)/(D + 5)` = `(5)/(2)`

2F = 5D + 20

2F – 5 D = 20

B. 2 F – 5 D = 20

C. = `(F + 5)/(D + 6)` = `(5)/(2)`

2 F + 10 = 5 D + 30

2 F – 5 D = 20

Here, all the three equations are the same.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 69

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:

There are 5 different schools P, Q, R, S and T. In each school, number of students and number of teachers is different.

Bar graph given below shows the average age (in years) of students in each school and average age (in years) of students including teachers in each school.

Table given below shows the average age (in years) of teachers in each school and difference between number of students and number of teachers in each school.

In school R, number of male students is 75 more than that of female students and average age of male students is 22 years, then find the average age of female students.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 69 School PLet number of students = a

And number of teachers = (a – 280)

So,

18a + 50a – 14000 = 40a – 5600

a = 300

School Q:Let number of students = b

And number of teachers = (b – 150)

So,

15b + 36b – 5400 = 36b – 2700

b = 180

School R:Let number of students = c

And number of teachers = (c – 200)

So,

20c + 40c – 8000 = 44c – 4400

c = 225

School S:Let number of students = d

And number of teachers = (d – 180)

So,

20d + 60d – 10800 = 50d – 4500

d = 210

School T:Let number of students = e

And number of teachers = (e – 130)

So,

15e + 30e – 3900 = 32e – 2080

e = 140

Total number of students in school R = 225

Since, number of male students is 75 more than that of female students.

So, number male students in school R = (225 + 75)/2 = 150

And number of female students in school R = 225 – 150 = 75

Since, average age of all students in school R = 20 years

And average age of male students in school R = 22 years

So, average age of female students in school R:

[(225 * 20) – (150 * 22)]/75 = 16 years

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 70

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:There are 5 different schools P, Q, R, S and T. In each school, number of students and number of teachers is different.

Bar graph given below shows the average age (in years) of students in each school and average age (in years) of students including teachers in each school.

Table given below shows the average age (in years) of teachers in each school and difference between number of students and number of teachers in each school.

Total number of teachers in school S and T together is what per cent of total number of students in these two schools together?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 70 School PLet number of students = a

And number of teachers = (a – 280)

So,

18a + 50a – 14000 = 40a – 5600

a = 300

School Q:Let number of students = b

And number of teachers = (b – 150)

So,

15b + 36b – 5400 = 36b – 2700

b = 180

School R:Let number of students = c

And number of teachers = (c – 200)

So,

20c + 40c – 8000 = 44c – 4400

c = 225

School S:Let number of students = d

And number of teachers = (d – 180)

So,

20d + 60d – 10800 = 50d – 4500

d = 210

School T:Let number of students = e

And number of teachers = (e – 130)

So,

15e + 30e – 3900 = 32e – 2080

e = 140

Total number of students in school S = 210

Total number of students in school T = 140

Total number of teachers in school S = 30

Total number of teachers in school T = 10

Required percentage = [(30 + 10)/ (210 + 140)] * 100 = 11.5% (approx.)

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 71

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:There are 5 different schools P, Q, R, S and T. In each school, number of students and number of teachers is different.

Bar graph given below shows the average age (in years) of students in each school and average age (in years) of students including teachers in each school.

Table given below shows the average age (in years) of teachers in each school and difference between number of students and number of teachers in each school.

Find the ratio of number of students in the school, in which number of teachers is 2nd maximum to the number of students in the school, in which number of teachers is 2nd minimum.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 71 School PLet number of students = a

And number of teachers = (a – 280)

So,

18a + 50a – 14000 = 40a – 5600

a = 300

School Q:Let number of students = b

And number of teachers = (b – 150)

So,

15b + 36b – 5400 = 36b – 2700

b = 180

School R:Let number of students = c

And number of teachers = (c – 200)

So,

20c + 40c – 8000 = 44c – 4400

c = 225

School S:Let number of students = d

And number of teachers = (d – 180)

So,

20d + 60d – 10800 = 50d – 4500

d = 210

School T:Let number of students = e

And number of teachers = (e – 130)

So,

15e + 30e – 3900 = 32e – 2080

e = 140

The school, in which number of teachers is 2nd maximum, is school R.

So, number of students in school R = 225

The school, in which number of teachers is 2nd minimum, is school P.

So, number of students in school P = 300

Required ratio = 225: 300 = 3: 4

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 72

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:There are 5 different schools P, Q, R, S and T. In each school, number of students and number of teachers is different.

Bar graph given below shows the average age (in years) of students in each school and average age (in years) of students including teachers in each school.

Table given below shows the average age (in years) of teachers in each school and difference between number of students and number of teachers in each school.

If number of female teachers in school T is 40% of total number of teachers in that school and number of female teachers in school P is thrice of those in school T, then find the percentage of male teachers in school P out of total number of teachers in that school.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 72 School PLet number of students = a

And number of teachers = (a – 280)

So,

18a + 50a – 14000 = 40a – 5600

a = 300

School Q:Let number of students = b

And number of teachers = (b – 150)

So,

15b + 36b – 5400 = 36b – 2700

b = 180

School R:Let number of students = c

And number of teachers = (c – 200)

So,

20c + 40c – 8000 = 44c – 4400

c = 225

School S:Let number of students = d

And number of teachers = (d – 180)

So,

20d + 60d – 10800 = 50d – 4500

d = 210

School T:Let number of students = e

And number of teachers = (e – 130)

So,

15e + 30e – 3900 = 32e – 2080

e = 140

Total number of teachers in school T = 10

So, number of female teachers in school T = 40% of 10 = 4

And number of female teachers in school P = 3 * 4 = 12

Total number of teachers in school P = 20

So, number of male teachers in school P = 20 – 12 = 8

Required percentage = (8/20) * 100 = 40%

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 73

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:There are 5 different schools P, Q, R, S and T. In each school, number of students and number of teachers is different.

Bar graph given below shows the average age (in years) of students in each school and average age (in years) of students including teachers in each school.

Table given below shows the average age (in years) of teachers in each school and difference between number of students and number of teachers in each school.

Find the average age of all the students at schools S and T.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 73 School PLet number of students = a

And number of teachers = (a – 280)

So,

18a + 50a – 14000 = 40a – 5600

a = 300

School Q:Let number of students = b

And number of teachers = (b – 150)

So,

15b + 36b – 5400 = 36b – 2700

b = 180

School R:Let number of students = c

And number of teachers = (c – 200)

So,

20c + 40c – 8000 = 44c – 4400

c = 225

School S:Let number of students = d

And number of teachers = (d – 180)

So,

20d + 60d – 10800 = 50d – 4500

d = 210

School T:Let number of students = e

And number of teachers = (e – 130)

So,

15e + 30e – 3900 = 32e – 2080

e = 140

Total number of students in school S = 210

Average age of students at school S = 20

Total number of students in school T = 140

Average age of students at school T = 15

Required average:

[(210 * 20) + (140 * 15)]/ (210 + 140) = 18 years

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 74

A well which is in the shape of equilateral triangle having side 6 cm has to be dug 22√3 cm deep. The mud taken out of the well is used to fill a cylindrical tank having diameter 6 cm. Find the height up to which mud is filled in the tank?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 74 Given

Side of equilateral triangle = 6 cm

Height of equilateral mud = 22√3 cm

Diameter of cylindrical vessel = 6 cm

Area of equilateral triangle = √3/4 (side)2Volume of equilateral well = Area of equilateral triangle × height

Volume of cylinder = π × (radius)2 × height.

Let the height of cylinder be h,

As the mud dug out from the tank is filled in the cylindrical tank.

So,

Volume of equilateral triangle well = Volume of cylindrical tank filled.

Now,

∴ Height up to which mud is filled in the tank is 21 cm.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 75

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are four boats P, Q, R and S which are travelling in four different streams. The speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water is equal to the upstream speed of boat ‘P’ such that the difference between the upstream speed of boat ‘Q’ and downstream speed of boat ‘P’ is 27 km/hr. The time taken by boat ‘P’ to travel 510 km in downstream is 15 hours. The ratio of the speeds of boat ‘P’ and boat ‘R’, in still water is 5:8, respectively. If the speed of boat ‘R’ in still water had been 30% less then it would take 13.8 hours to cover 690 km in downstream. The speed of the current for boat ‘S’ is 6 km/h less than that of the speed of current for boat ‘R’. If the speed of the boat ‘S’ in still water had been 4 km/hr more, then the time taken by boat ‘S’ to travel 330 km in upstream would have been 27.5 hours. The speed of the current for boats ‘P’ and ‘Q’ is same.

Which of the following cannot be determined using the information given above?

I. Speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water

II. Speed of current for boat ‘S’

III. Upstream speed of boat ‘R’

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 75 Let the speed of the boat ‘P’ in still water and the speed of the current be ‘x’ km/hr and ‘y’ km/hr, respectively

Therefore, speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water = (x – y) km/hr

According to the question,

(x + y) – (x – y – y) = 27

Or, 3y = 27

Or, y = 9

Also, (x – y – y) – (x + y) = 27

Or, -3y = 27 (not possible because the speed of the current cannot be negative)

Therefore, speed of the current = 9 km/hr

According to the question,

(x + 9) = 510/15

Or, x = 34 – 9 = 25

Therefore, speed of boat ‘P’ in still water = 25 km/hr

Speed of current = y = 9 km/hr

Speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water = (x – y) = 16 km/hr

Therefore, speed of boat ‘R’ in still water = 25 × 8/5 = 40 km/hr

Let the speed of the current for boat ‘R’ be ‘z’ km/hr

According to the question,

0.70 × 40 + z = 690/13.8

Or, z = 50 – 28 = 22

Therefore, speed of the current for boat ‘R’ = 22 km/hr

Speed of current for boat ‘S’ = 22 – 6 = 16 km/hr

Let the speed of boat ‘S’ in still water be ‘m’ km/hr

Therefore,

(m + 4 – 16) = 330/27.5

Or, m = 12 + 12 = 24

Therefore, speed of boat ‘S’ in still water = 24 km/hr

For I:

Speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water = 16 km/hr

So, I can be determined.

For II:

Speed of current for boat ‘S’ = 16 km/hr

So, II can be determined

For III:

Upstream speed of boat ‘R’ = 40 – 25 = 24 km/hr

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 76

There are four boats P, Q, R and S which are travelling in four different streams. The speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water is equal to the upstream speed of boat ‘P’ such that the difference between the upstream speed of boat ‘Q’ and downstream speed of boat ‘P’ is 27 km/hr. The time taken by boat ‘P’ to travel 510 km in downstream is 15 hours. The ratio of the speeds of boat ‘P’ and boat ‘R’, in still water is 5:8, respectively. If the speed of boat ‘R’ in still water had been 30% less then it would take 13.8 hours to cover 690 km in downstream. The speed of the current for boat ‘S’ is 6 km/h less than that of the speed of current for boat ‘R’. If the speed of the boat ‘S’ in still water had been 4 km/hr more, then the time taken by boat ‘S’ to travel 330 km in upstream would have been 27.5 hours. The speed of the current for boats ‘P’ and ‘Q’ is same.

The downstream speed of boat ‘R’ is how much percent more/less than that of boat ‘Q’?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 76 Let the speed of the boat ‘P’ in still water and the speed of the current be ‘x’ km/hr and ‘y’ km/hr, respectively

Therefore, speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water = (x – y) km/hr

According to the question,

(x + y) – (x – y – y) = 27

Or, 3y = 27

Or, y = 9

Also, (x – y – y) – (x + y) = 27

Or, -3y = 27 (not possible because the speed of the current cannot be negative)

Therefore, speed of the current = 9 km/hr

According to the question,

(x + 9) = 510/15

Or, x = 34 – 9 = 25

Therefore, speed of boat ‘P’ in still water = 25 km/hr

Speed of current = y = 9 km/hr

Speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water = (x – y) = 16 km/hr

Therefore, speed of boat ‘R’ in still water = 25 × 8/5 = 40 km/hr

Let the speed of the current for boat ‘R’ be ‘z’ km/hr

According to the question,

0.70 × 40 + z = 690/13.8

Or, z = 50 – 28 = 22

Therefore, speed of the current for boat ‘R’ = 22 km/hr

Speed of current for boat ‘S’ = 22 – 6 = 16 km/hr

Let the speed of boat ‘S’ in still water be ‘m’ km/hr

Therefore,

(m + 4 – 16) = 330/27.5

Or, m = 12 + 12 = 24

Therefore, speed of boat ‘S’ in still water = 24 km/hr

Downstream speed of boat ‘Q’ = 16 + 9 = 25 km/hr

Downstream speed of boat ‘R’ = 40 + 22 = 62 km/hr

Required percentage = {(62 – 25)/25} × 100 = 148%

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 77

There are four boats P, Q, R and S which are travelling in four different streams. The speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water is equal to the upstream speed of boat ‘P’ such that the difference between the upstream speed of boat ‘Q’ and downstream speed of boat ‘P’ is 27 km/hr. The time taken by boat ‘P’ to travel 510 km in downstream is 15 hours. The ratio of the speeds of boat ‘P’ and boat ‘R’, in still water is 5:8, respectively. If the speed of boat ‘R’ in still water had been 30% less then it would take 13.8 hours to cover 690 km in downstream. The speed of the current for boat ‘S’ is 6 km/h less than that of the speed of current for boat ‘R’. If the speed of the boat ‘S’ in still water had been 4 km/hr more, then the time taken by boat ‘S’ to travel 330 km in upstream would have been 27.5 hours. The speed of the current for boats ‘P’ and ‘Q’ is same.

Find the time taken by boat ‘Q’ to cover 576 km downstream in the current in which boat ‘S’ is travelling.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 77 Let the speed of the boat ‘P’ in still water and the speed of the current be ‘x’ km/hr and ‘y’ km/hr, respectively

Therefore, speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water = (x – y) km/hr

According to the question,

(x + y) – (x – y – y) = 27

Or, 3y = 27

Or, y = 9

Also, (x – y – y) – (x + y) = 27

Or, -3y = 27 (not possible because the speed of the current cannot be negative)

Therefore, speed of the current = 9 km/hr

According to the question,

(x + 9) = 510/15

Or, x = 34 – 9 = 25

Therefore, speed of boat ‘P’ in still water = 25 km/hr

Speed of current = y = 9 km/hr

Speed of boat ‘Q’ in still water = (x – y) = 16 km/hr

Therefore, speed of boat ‘R’ in still water = 25 × 8/5 = 40 km/hr

Let the speed of the current for boat ‘R’ be ‘z’ km/hr

According to the question,

0.70 × 40 + z = 690/13.8

Or, z = 50 – 28 = 22

Therefore, speed of the current for boat ‘R’ = 22 km/hr

Speed of current for boat ‘S’ = 22 – 6 = 16 km/hr

Let the speed of boat ‘S’ in still water be ‘m’ km/hr

Therefore,

(m + 4 – 16) = 330/27.5

Or, m = 12 + 12 = 24

Therefore, speed of boat ‘S’ in still water = 24 km/hr

Required time taken = 576/(16 + 16) = 18 hours

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 78

There are 3 series, you have to find the value of a, b and c and then establish the relation among a, b and c.

I) 0, 6, 24, 60, (a), 210

II) 10, 24, 68, (b), 222, 336

III) 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, (c)

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 78 Series I pattern

13 – 1 = 0

23 – 2 = 6

33 – 3 = 24

43 – 4 = 60

53 – 5 = 120

63 – 6 = 210

Series II pattern:

23 + 2 = 10

33 – 3 = 24

43 + 4 = 68

53 – 5 = 120

63 + 6 = 222

73 – 7 = 336

Series III pattern:

12 + 2 = 3

22 + 3 = 7

32 + 4 = 13

42 + 5 = 21

52 + 6 = 31

62 + 7 = 43

120 = 120 > 43.

Hence a = b > c

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 79

In a shop, T - shirts are sold, some of them are of Nike brand, some are Blue and some are having long sleeves. The total number of Nike brand T - shirts is 10% more than the total number of Long sleeves T - shirts in the shop. Out of Total T - shirts in the shop, 37.5% are Blue in color, and the number of Blue color T - shirts is 3000. The total number of Blue color long sleeves Nike T - shirts in the shop is 1000 which is one - fifth of the total number of long sleeves T - shirts in the shop. The total number of blue color Nike T - shirts in the shop is 1500 and the total number of Long sleeves Nike T - shirts in the shop is 3500. The total number of long sleeves T - shirts of Brand other than Nike and of color other than Blue is the same as the total number of Blue color T - shirts of Brand other than Nike and other than Long sleeves T - shirts. The total number of long sleeves Blue color T - shirts is 1500.

The total number of Nike T - shirts with either Full sleeves or Blue color or both is what percent of the total number of T - shirts in the shop?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 79 Total number of Blue color T - shirts in the shop = 3000

⇒ Total number of t - shirts in the shop

Total number of Blue color Nike long sleeves T - shirts in the shop = 1000

⇒ Total number of Long sleeves T - shirts in the shop = 1000 × 5 = 5000

⇒ Total number of Nike T - shirts in the shop = 110% of 5000 = 5500

Total number of Blue color Nike T - shirts in the shop = 1500

⇒ Total number of Blue color Nike T - shirts but not of Long sleeves = 1500 - 1000 = 500

Total number of Long sleeves Nike T - shirts in the shop = 3500

Total number of long sleeves Nike T - shirts but not of blue color = 5500 - (2500 + 500 + 1000) = 1500

Let the total number of Long sleeves T - shirts of other brands than Nike and of color other than Blue be x.

Total number of Blue color T - shirts of Brand other Nike and other than long Sleeves t - shirts = x

Let the total number of Long sleeves blue color T - shirts be y.

Total number of Blue color T - shirts = 1000 + y = 1500

⇒ y = 500

Total number of Blue color T - shirts = 500 + 1000 + 500 + x = 3000

⇒ x = 1000

Total number of Long sleeves T - shirts of Brand other than Nike and of color other than Blue = x = 1000

Total number of Blue color T - shirts of brands other than Nike and other than Long sleeves T - shirts = x = 1000

Total number of Nike T-shirts of either Long sleeves or color blue or both = 2500 + 1000 + 500 = 4000

Total number of T-shirts in the shop = 8000

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 80

In a shop, T - shirts are sold, some of them are of Nike brand, some are Blue and some are having long sleeves. The total number of Nike brand T - shirts is 10% more than the total number of Long sleeves T - shirts in the shop. Out of Total T - shirts in the shop, 37.5% are Blue in color, and the number of Blue color T - shirts is 3000. The total number of Blue color long sleeves Nike T - shirts in the shop is 1000 which is one - fifth of the total number of long sleeves T - shirts in the shop. The total number of blue color Nike T - shirts in the shop is 1500 and the total number of Long sleeves Nike T - shirts in the shop is 3500. The total number of long sleeves T - shirts of Brand other than Nike and of color other than Blue is the same as the total number of Blue color T - shirts of Brand other than Nike and other than Long sleeves T - shirts. The total number of long sleeves Blue color T - shirts is 1500.

What is the ratio of the total number of Long sleeves T-shirts of brand Nike but not of Blue color to the number of blue color Long sleeves Nike T-shirts?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 80 Total number of Blue color T - shirts in the shop = 3000

⇒ Total number of t - shirts in the shop

Total number of Blue color Nike long sleeves T - shirts in the shop = 1000

⇒ Total number of Long sleeves T - shirts in the shop = 1000 × 5 = 5000

⇒ Total number of Nike T - shirts in the shop = 110% of 5000 = 5500

Total number of Blue color Nike T - shirts in the shop = 1500

⇒ Total number of Blue color Nike T - shirts but not of Long sleeves = 1500 - 1000 = 500

Total number of Long sleeves Nike T - shirts in the shop = 3500

Total number of long sleeves Nike T - shirts but not of blue color = 5500 - (2500 + 500 + 1000) = 1500

Let the total number of Long sleeves T - shirts of other brands than Nike and of color other than Blue be x.

Total number of Blue color T - shirts of Brand other Nike and other than long Sleeves t - shirts = x

Let the total number of Long sleeves blue color T - shirts be y.

Total number of Blue color T - shirts = 1000 + y = 1500

⇒ y = 500

Total number of Blue color T - shirts = 500 + 1000 + 500 + x = 3000

⇒ x = 1000

Total number of Long sleeves T - shirts of Brand other than Nike and of color other than Blue = x = 1000

Total number of Blue color T - shirts of brands other than Nike and other than Long sleeves T - shirts = x = 1000

Total number of Long sleeves of brand Nike but not of blue color = 2500

Total number of long sleeves blue color Nike T-shirts = 1000

Required Ratio = 2500 : 1000 = 5 : 2

Hence, the correct option is (D).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 81

In 2009 year, the Ganga River Dolphin Day was formally adopted as the National Aquatic Animal. What is the name of campaign of Dolphin Day?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 81 The National Mission for Clean Ganga celebrates 5th October as National Ganga River Dolphin Day.

The day is celebrated since 2010. This is because, it was on October 5, 2009, the dolphins were declared as National Aquatic Animal.

A new campaign called “My Ganga My Dolphin” was also launched in the 250 km stretch of the river.

The Gangetic Dolphins are included under First Schedule of Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. They have been declared “Endangered” under IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 82

Who has launched digitized versions of flagship health schemes on National Health Authority, NHA’s IT platform?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 82 Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan has launched digitized versions of flagship health schemes on the National Health Authority, NHA’s IT platform.

The schemes are now cashless, paperless, and citizen-centric.

The initiative will enable seamless delivery of healthcare services to eligible beneficiaries under these schemes by making the whole process paperless.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 83

Who has been elected as the Chairman of Indian Banks Association for 2011 -22?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 83 He replaced Rajkiran Rai G who was the MD and CEO of Union Bank.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 84

IFC Asset Management Company has acquired ______% (approximately) stake in Federal Bank Limited for Rs 916 crore

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 84 IFC and two investment funds managed by IFC Asset Management Company--IFC Financial Institutions Growth Fund, LP and IFC Emerging Asia Fund, LP--have picked 4.99% stake in Federal Bank Limited (FBL) for Rs 916 crore, the lender said.

The investment will aid Federal Bank’s commitment towards maintaining environmental, social and governance (ESG) standards, and strengthen its Tier-1 capital adequacy ratio. It will also held the lender expand its micro, small and medium sized enterprises (MSME) and climate finance portfolios.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 85

The World Expo 2020 has been organised in which city of the country UAE(United Arab Emirates).

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 85 Expo 2020 is a World Expo, currently hosted by Dubai in the United Arab Emirates from 1 October 2021 to 31 March 2022.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 86

As per the Reserve Bank of India Report, which among the following bank has become second Public Sector Banks in writing off loans in FY21?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 86 State Bank of India (SBI) topped the list of Public Sector Banks (PSB) writing off loans in FY21 Followed by Union Bank of India (UB).

Top 3 list of PSBs wrote off bad loans in FY21:

• State Bank of India – Rs. 34402 Crore

• UBI – 16983 Crore

• PNB – 15877 Crore

As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Report, the reduction in NPAs through write-off by PSBs in FY21 stood at Rs 1,31,894 crore from Rs 1,75,877 crore in FY20. The NPAs of banks in FY21 declined by Rs 61,180 crore to Rs 8.34 lakh Crore.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 87

China has reported the world's first case of a human infected with H10N3 avian influenza in which of the following provinces?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 87 China has reported the world's first case of a human infected with H10N3 avian influenza in its eastern province of Jiangsu.

China’s National Health Commission (NHC) confirmed this on 1 June 2021.

The case, detected in a male aged 41 and living in Zhenjiang, a city in the eastern part of the province, was an occasional poultry-to-human transmission.

China:

Capital - Beijing.

Currency - Chinese Yuan, Renminbi.

President - Xi Jinping.

National Sport - Table Tennis.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 88

China and _______started joint naval exercise in the Sea of Japan?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 88 The naval exercise started on 15 October in Russia's Peter the Great Gulf in the Sea of Japan.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 89

The Ministry of Science and Technology has set up a first-of-its-kind Centre of Excellence in the Northeast with an outlay of nearly Rs 50 crore in which among the following state?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 89 The Ministry of Science and Technology is setting up a first-of-its-kind Centre of Excellence in the Northeast. The project for establishing the Centre for Bio-Resources and Sustainable Development as a Centre of Excellence was sanctioned by the Department of Biotechnology and is complete for formal inauguration soon, it said.

Built at a cost of nearly Rs 50 crore, the project will come up at Kimin in Papum Pare district of Arunachal Pradesh and the construction of the new building as well other infrastructure has been completed.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 90

In May 2021, the Research Design and Standards Organization (RDSO) has now been recognized as a 'Standard Developing Organization' by which of the following?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 90 RDSO, which sets standards for the railway sector, has become the first standards body in the country to join the central government's 'One Nation, One Standard' scheme that aims to ensure quality products to Indian consumers.

The Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) has now been recognised as a 'Standard Developing Organisation' by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).

The partnership will help RDSO, the sole R&D wing of the railways ministry, to realign its standard formulation procedures as per the code of good practices mentioned under the WTO-Technical Barriers to Trade (WTO-TBT).

The recognition will be valid for three years.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 91

National Securities Depositories (NSDL) has appointed ____ as its MD and CEO for 2021.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 91 Padmaja Chunduru assumed charge as MD & CEO of NSDL on September 22, 2021.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 92

How much financial assistance has been allotted by the government to set up over 42 virology research and diagnostic laboratories under a central scheme during the period of 15th Finance Commission?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 92 The Union government will set up over 42 virology research and diagnostic laboratories under a central scheme during the period of 15th Finance Commission (2021-22 to 2025-26) at a cost of Rs324 crore.

The scheme under the Department of Health Research (DHR), Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) aims to help boost coverage of timely diagnosis and identification of viruses during an epidemic outbreak, generation of data about viral diseases for facilitating quick deployment of resources and measures to save human lives.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 93

Consider the following statements with respect to the Constituent Assembly:

1. Dr Sachchidananda Sinha acted as the temporary Chairman of the Assembly.

2. Members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.

3. It appointed a States Committee under the chairmanship of Vallabhbhai Patel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 93 The Constituent Assembly -

The Constituent Assembly met for the first time in New Delhi on 9 December 1946 in the Constitution Hall which is now known as the Central Hall of Parliament House.

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary president of the Assembly. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The Constituent Assembly took almost three years (two years, eleven months, and seventeen days to be precise) to complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for Independent India.

During this period, it held eleven sessions covering a total of 165 days. Of these, 114 days were spent on the consideration of the Draft Constitution.

As to its composition, members were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, according to the scheme recommended by the Cabinet Mission. So, statement 2 is correct.

The arrangement was:

292 members were elected through the Provincial Legislative Assemblies;

93 members represented the Indian Princely States; and

4 members represented the Chief Commissioners' Provinces.

The total membership of the Assembly thus was to be 389. However, as a result of the partition under the Mountbatten Plan of 3 June 1947, a separate Constituent Assembly was set up for Pakistan, and representatives of some Provinces ceased to be members of the Assembly. As a result, the membership of the Assembly was reduced to 299.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 94

Recently “ La Soufriere Volcano ” has erupted in the islands of?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 94 La Soufriere Volcano is an active stratovolcano on the Caribbean island of Saint Vincent in Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, West Indies.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 95

On which among the following date the World Tsunami Day has been observed across the globe?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 95 Every year, November 5 marks the World Tsunami Awareness Day to spread awareness about the deadly natural disaster which claimed lives over 260,000 people.

The UN General Assembly (UNGA) in December 2015 declared November 5 as World Tsunami Awareness Day.

In 2021, World Tsunami Awareness Day will promote the ‘Sendai Seven Campaign’ which aims to substantially enhance international cooperation to developing countries through adequate and sustainable support to complement their national actions for implementation of the present Framework by 2030.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 96

In June 2021, which of the following schemes has been launched with an aim to synergize standards adopted by various Standard Development Organizations in the country?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 96 One Nation, One Standard scheme has been launched with an aim to synergize standards adopted by various Standard Development Organizations in the country.

The voluntary integration scheme of multiple standard formulating bodies will bring uniformity in the quality of goods and services produced in the country.

It will be subjected to review at least once every five years.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 97

_______ has been chosen for the Changemaker Award 2021?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 97 Fairooz Faizah Beether got this award for her work promoting good health and well-being by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 98

How much amount has been released by the Centre under the back -to - loan facility in lieu of GST compensation in November 2021?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 98 The Centre in November 2021, released the balance Rs 44,000 crore to states under the back-to-back loan facility in-lieu of GST compensation, taking the total to Rs 1.59 lakh crore, the full amount that the government had planned to pay to states for FY 22 for compensation shortfall.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 99

Consider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy.

1. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

2. Open Market Operations is the instrument of Monetary Policy in which RBI buys and sells government securities in the open market.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 99 Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to achieve the goals specified in the Act.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth. So, statement 1 is correct.

There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy-

• Repo Rate

• Reverse Repo Rate

• Marginal Standing Facility

• Corridor

• Bank Rate

• Cash Reserve Ratio

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio

• Open Market Operations

• Market Stabilisation Scheme

In order to control the money supply, the RBI buys and sells government securities in the open market. These operations conducted by the Central Bank in the open market are referred to as Open Market Operations. So, statement 2 is correct.

The objective of OMOs is to keep a check on temporary liquidity mismatches in the market, owing to foreign capital flow.

When the RBI sells government securities, the liquidity is sucked from the market, and the exact opposite happens when RBI buys securities. The latter is done to control inflation.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 100

Who has been awarded with the Aryabhatta 2021 award?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 100 For his outstanding life-time contribution to the promotion of astronautics in India, Dr G Satheesh Reddy has been conferred the prestigious Aryabhata Award by Astronautical Society of India (ASI).
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 101

Who would be the chairperson of the committee formed to monitor the mechanism and development of the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 101 The Government of India has constituted a 20-member Empowered Group of Secretaries to monitor the development and implementation of the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (NMP).

The plan comprises a Rs 100 lakh-crore project for the development of 'holistic infrastructure' that would allow India to raise the global profile of its local manufacturers and help them compete with their counterparts across the world.

The cabinet secretary will lead the committee.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 102

Who informed that the country will achieve the target for making India free from Foot and Mouth Disease with vaccination by 2025.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 102 Agriculture and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority, APEDA organized a webinar to commemorate World Milk Day.

Secretary of Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying Atul Chaturvedi informed that the country will achieve the target for making India free from Foot and Mouth Disease with vaccination by 2025.

APEDA:

It is an apex body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, responsible for the export promotion of agricultural products.

Founded - 13 February 1986.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 103

NITI Aayog released the "Building Urban Planning Capacity in India" Scheme in which how many clean cities will be built?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 103 In the scheme a target is to make 500' healthy cities' over the following five years.

This Scheme also emphasizes reducing carbon footprint in urbanization and concrete India will power India's economic process.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 104

In November 2021, The Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal has inaugurated a new lighthouse in which among the following state?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 104 Union Minister for ports , shipping & waterways and AYUSH shrisabananda Sonowal inaugurated a new lighthouse at valiyazhikkal in Alapuzzha district of Kerla .

Shri Sonowal stated in his address that the Govt has approved development of 75 lighthouses for tourism as a part of the 75thAzaadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav and Valiyazhikkal lighthouse is one of them.

11 other Lighthouses in Kerala have been earmarked for development of Tourism.

Construction of the lighthouse will immensely benefit the mariners plying in this Kerala region and the local fishermen will benefit for Day mark in day time and Safe return in Night time from the sea.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 105

Which among the following convention of an International labor organization has been ratified by India?

1. Minimum Age Convention

2. Right to Organize and Collective Bargaining

3. Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organized convention

4. Forced Labor Convention

5. Equal remuneration

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 105 India and ILO:

India is a founding member of the ILO and it has been a permanent member of the ILO Governing Body since 1922.

In India, the first ILO Office was started in 1928. The decades of productive partnership between the ILO and its constituents has mutual trust and respect as underlying principles and is grounded in building sustained institutional capacities and strengthening capacities of partners.

India has ratified six out of the eight-core/fundamental ILO conventions.

These conventions are:

Forced Labor Convention (No. 29)

Abolition of Forced Labor Convention (No.105)

Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100)

Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111)

Minimum Age Convention (No.138)

Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182)

India has not ratified the two core/fundamental conventions, namely Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organize Convention, 1948 (No. 87) and Right to Organize and Collective Bargaining Convention, 1949 (No. 98). So option (C) is correct.

The main reason for the non-ratification of ILO conventions No.87 & 98 is due to certain restrictions imposed on the government servants.

The ratification of these conventions would involve granting of certain rights that are prohibited under the statutory rules, for the government employees, namely, the right to strike, to openly criticize government policies, to freely accept a financial contribution, to freely join foreign organizations, etc.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 106

A company which has launched an automated fuelling technology called UFiLL?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 106 The BPCL (Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited) has launched an automated filling technology UFiLL to provide a swift, secure and smart experience to its customers at outlets by providing them with control of fuelling.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 107

Which among the following organisation has cancelled the Prepaid Payment Instrument of 3 operators recently?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 107 Three prepaid payment instrument operators, Digit Secure India Pvt Ltd, KediaInfotech Ltd and Oxigen Services (India) Pvt Ltd and Muthoot Finance Ltd, the white-label automated teller machine (ATM) operator, have surrendered their certificate of authorisations (CoA).

Accordingly, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has cancelled their CoA.

Digit Secure India operated an e-wallet known as ‘HotRemit’. Kedia Infotech’s e-wallet was known as ‘Etran Wallet’, while Oxigen Services operated its ‘Oxigen Wallets’ as PPI.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 108

Recently appointed Norway’s new Prime Minister?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 108 From 14 October, Jonas Gahr Store has been elected as the Prime Minister of Norway. He will surpass Erna Solberg, former PM of the country.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 109

Manu Bhakar has recently won the 10m air pistol mixed team gold in Poland with her counterpart Javad Foroughi. Javad Foroughi belongs to which country?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 109 India’s pistol ace Manu Bhaker and Iran’s reigning Olympics champion Javad Foroughi won the 10m air pistol mixed team gold at the inaugural ISSF President’s Cup in Wroclaw, Poland.

The Indo-Iranian pair got the better of the French-Russian duo of Mathilde Lamolle and Artem Chernousov 16-8 in the gold medal match.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 110

Which of the following pairs of list and contents is/are correctly matched?

1. State list: Regulation of mines and mineral development

2. Union list: Legal, medical and other professions

3. Concurrent list: Inter-state trade and commerce

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 110 Distribution of Legislative Subjects

The Constitution provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Centre and the states, viz., List-I (the Union List), List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule.

Union List:

At present, 100 Subjects. (Originally 97)

eg. Inter-state trade and commerce. So, 3 is not Correctly matched.

Only Parliament can make laws over subjects included in this List.

Concurrent List:

At present, 52 subjects. (Originally 47 subjects)

eg. Legal, medical and other professions. So, 2 is not Correctly matched.

Both Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws over the subjects in this List.

State List:

​At present, 61 subjects. (Originally 66 subjects)

eg. Regulation of mines and mineral development. So, 1 is Correctly matched.

Only state Legislature can make laws over the Subjects included in State List. (Under some circumstances, Parliament can make laws)

Residuary Subjects:

The matters which are not enumerated in any of the three lists.

The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects is vested in Parliament.

eg. Cyber Laws.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 111

There is a military hotline established between India and _______ to strengthen the relations between the two.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 111 The hotline between the two countries was made to strengthen the relationship and communicate the thoughts between them.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 112

Recently RBI has imposed a monetary penalty of _____________on State Bank of India for contravention of norms.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 112 The RBI has imposed a monetary penalty of Rs. 1cr on State Bank of India for contravention of sub-section (2) of section 19 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949 (the Act).

This fine has been imposed in the exercise of powers vested in RBI under the provisions of section 47 A (1) (c) read with sections 46 (4) (i) and 51 (1) of the Act.

This action is based on deficiencies in regulatory compliance.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 113

India's first International Financial Service Centre (IFSC) is located in ____.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 113 An International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) is set up at Gandhinagar, Gujarat as a part of a Special Economic Zone (SEZ).

To operationalize the IFSC, a Notification under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) shall be issued by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in March 2015, making regulations relating to financial institutions set up in the IFSC.

The key features of these regulations will be that any financial institution (or its branch) set up in the IFSC,-

a) Shall be treated as a non-resident Indian located outside India,

b) Shall conduct business in such foreign currency and with such entities, whether resident or non-resident, as the Regulatory Authority may determine, and

c) Subject to certain provisions, nothing contained in any other regulations shall apply to a unit located in IFSC.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 114

Who is the author of the book titled “The Dream of Revolution: A Biography of Jayaprakash Narayan”?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 114 Bimal Prasad and Sujata Prasad are the authors of ‘The Dream of Revolution: A Biography of Jayaprakash Narayan’.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 115

Which among the following stock exchanges has received an approval from SEBI to act as an accreditation agency for prospective accredited investors?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 115 Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) Ltd. wholly owned subsidiary BSE Administration and Supervision Ltd. (BASL) has received approval from SEBI to act as an accreditation agency for prospective accredited investors.

BASL shall be responsible for verification of documents submitted by applicants for accreditation, issuance of accreditation certificate, and maintaining data of accredited investors.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 116

Who has been conferred with the National Teachers Award 2021?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 116 Khurshid Sheikh of Z.P. Upper Primary School, Gadchiroli, Maharashtra has been conferred with National Teachers Award 2021 and the ceremony will take place on 5th September.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 117

The Himachal Pradesh government appointed senior IAS officer Ram Subhag Singh as the chief secretary replacing Whom among the following?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 117 The Himachal Pradesh government appointed senior IAS officer Ram Subhag Singh as the chief secretary replacing Anil Kumar Khachiwho was made the state election commissioner, prompting the opposition Congress to stage a walkout in the Assembly in protest.
• The Congress alleged that a Himachal Pradesh resident was removed from the post of chief secretary to elevate an “outsider".

• In an order, the state government appointed Khachi as the state election commissioner (SEC) with immediate effect.

• Khachi, a 1986-batch IAS officer, served as the chief secretary for over one year and seven months.

• The senior most IAS officer after Khachi, Singh was appointed as the new chief secretary. Singh, a 1987-batch IAS officer, was the additional chief secretary (industries, transport, labour and employment) before his elevation.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 118

The IBBI is one of the most important institutional arrangements that India has. What does the abbreviation 'IBBI' stand for?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 118 The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulator for overseeing insolvency proceedings and entities like Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPA), Insolvency Professionals (IP) and Information Utilities (IU) in India.

It covers Individuals, Companies, Limited Liability Partnerships and Partnership firms.

It handles the cases using two tribunals like NCLT (National company law tribunal) and Debt recovery tribunal.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 119

Pradhna Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana has completed many successful years recently?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 119 The yojana was launched in the year 2014 and PMJDY is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, basic savings & deposit accounts, remittance and alos under the scheme, a basic savings bank deposit (BSBD) account can be opened in any bank branch by persons not having any other account.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 120

Amazon India has partnered with ICICI bank to offer an overdraft facility of up to Rs ……. lakhs to individual sellers and small businesses

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 120 ICICI Bank has partnered with Amazon India to offer overdraft (OD) facility of up to Rs 25 lakh to individual sellers and small businesses registered on the e-commerce player's online marketplace, the private lender said on September 27.

"Driven by API integration, the partnership enables sellers to avail an OD from the bank in a process—from application to sanction to disbursement—that is entirely digital. Even customers of other banks can avail the OD facility from ICICI Bank if they are registered as sellers with Amazon.in.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 121

In the questions given below, a phrase/idiom has been underline. This sentence is then followed by few other sentences which try to infer the correct meaning of the underline phrase. Identify the sentences which infer the correct meaning of the given underline phrase/ idiom.

My husband really had to twist my arm to get me to apologize to my boss.

(A) She was forced to withdraw from the competition because of a back injury.

(B) Shareholders have been patiently waiting for the payoff.

(C) It is not a good idea to pressurize children into playing a musical instrument.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 121 The idiom ‘twist someone’s arm’ means ‘to try to force someone to do something’. Here, (A) and (C) infer the correct meaning of the given idiom. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 122

Direction: Below, a passage is given with ten blanks labelled (A)-(J). Below the passage, five options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

Companies in India are side-stepping the anti-dumping measures imposed by the government by deliberately misclassifying items imported from China, according to a report tabled by the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Commerce. The report also notes that the government has been ___(A)___ to review the effectiveness of its anti-dumping measures. “The anti-dumping framework also suffers with ___(B)___ implementation,” the report on the impact of Chinese goods on the Indian economy said. “The ___(C)___ elements are able to import the Chinese goods by ___(D)___ the goods, put them under the anti-dumping framework through misclassification of products.” “This mis-declaration while importing the goods which otherwise have been put under anti-dumping measures ___(E)___ the whole effort to protect the domestic industry from unfair trade practices,” the report added. The Standing Committee named the steel industry as one of the major ___(F)___ in this regard, saying that there have been complaints from the domestic steel industry that Chinese non-alloy steel is being imported by being declared as alloy steel. The committee noted that though nearly 75-80% of Chinese steel imports are covered under the anti-dumping duty, the import of such steel products have increased 8%. “The committee feels that the government must take strong ___(G)___ measures so that the importers ___(H)___ from such activities,” the report said. “The committee finds that while anti-dumping measures are being ___(I)___ on the one hand proving to be ineffective; on the other hand, there is a general reluctance on the part of the government to review the effectiveness of anti-dumping measures undertaken by it.” The committee recommended that the Ministry of Steel, in consultation with the Directorate General Of Anti-Dumping And Allied Duties, look into the rationalization of anti-dumping duties and make them realistic to “ward off any ___(J)___ consequences of dumping of Chinese steel goods in the country”.

Q. Which of the following is the most appropriate for given blank (E)?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 122 Let's find out the meaning of following words:-

Dwindling - diminish gradually in size, amount, or strength.

Drubbing - a beating; a thrashing.

Nullify - make legally null and void; invalidate.

Clearly, since these Chinese products come into the domestic market without paying anti-dumping duty. So, it completely voids the measures to protect the domestic market.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 123

Direction: Below, a passage is given with ten blanks labelled (A)-(J). Below the passage, five options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

Companies in India are side-stepping the anti-dumping measures imposed by the government by deliberately misclassifying items imported from China, according to a report tabled by the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Commerce. The report also notes that the government has been ___(A)___ to review the effectiveness of its anti-dumping measures. “The anti-dumping framework also suffers with ___(B)___ implementation,” the report on the impact of Chinese goods on the Indian economy said. “The ___(C)___ elements are able to import the Chinese goods by ___(D)___ the goods, put them under the anti-dumping framework through misclassification of products.” “This mis-declaration while importing the goods which otherwise have been put under anti-dumping measures ___(E)___ the whole effort to protect the domestic industry from unfair trade practices,” the report added. The Standing Committee named the steel industry as one of the major ___(F)___ in this regard, saying that there have been complaints from the domestic steel industry that Chinese non-alloy steel is being imported by being declared as alloy steel. The committee noted that though nearly 75-80% of Chinese steel imports are covered under the anti-dumping duty, the import of such steel products have increased 8%. “The committee feels that the government must take strong ___(G)___ measures so that the importers ___(H)___ from such activities,” the report said. “The committee finds that while anti-dumping measures are being ___(I)___ on the one hand proving to be ineffective; on the other hand, there is a general reluctance on the part of the government to review the effectiveness of anti-dumping measures undertaken by it.” The committee recommended that the Ministry of Steel, in consultation with the Directorate General Of Anti-Dumping And Allied Duties, look into the rationalization of anti-dumping duties and make them realistic to “ward off any ___(J)___ consequences of dumping of Chinese steel goods in the country”.

Q. Which of the following is the most appropriate for given blank (H)?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 123 Let's find out the meaning of following words :-

Desist - stop doing something; cease or abstain.

Arrogate - take or claim something without justification.

Persuade - induce someone to do something through reasoning or argument.

The context explains if strong strict measures are taken then importers who import these Chinese goods will stop doing these activities.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 124

Direction: Below, a passage is given with ten blanks labelled (A)-(J). Below the passage, five options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

Companies in India are side-stepping the anti-dumping measures imposed by the government by deliberately misclassifying items imported from China, according to a report tabled by the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Commerce. The report also notes that the government has been ___(A)___ to review the effectiveness of its anti-dumping measures. “The anti-dumping framework also suffers with ___(B)___ implementation,” the report on the impact of Chinese goods on the Indian economy said. “The ___(C)___ elements are able to import the Chinese goods by ___(D)___ the goods, put them under the anti-dumping framework through misclassification of products.” “This mis-declaration while importing the goods which otherwise have been put under anti-dumping measures ___(E)___ the whole effort to protect the domestic industry from unfair trade practices,” the report added. The Standing Committee named the steel industry as one of the major ___(F)___ in this regard, saying that there have been complaints from the domestic steel industry that Chinese non-alloy steel is being imported by being declared as alloy steel. The committee noted that though nearly 75-80% of Chinese steel imports are covered under the anti-dumping duty, the import of such steel products have increased 8%. “The committee feels that the government must take strong ___(G)___ measures so that the importers ___(H)___ from such activities,” the report said. “The committee finds that while anti-dumping measures are being ___(I)___ on the one hand proving to be ineffective; on the other hand, there is a general reluctance on the part of the government to review the effectiveness of anti-dumping measures undertaken by it.” The committee recommended that the Ministry of Steel, in consultation with the Directorate General Of Anti-Dumping And Allied Duties, look into the rationalization of anti-dumping duties and make them realistic to “ward off any ___(J)___ consequences of dumping of Chinese steel goods in the country”.

Q. Which of the following is the most appropriate for given blank (F)?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 1 - Question 124 Let's find out the meaning of following words:-

hardliners - a member of a group, typically a political group, who adheres uncompromisingly to a set of ideas or policies.

Nymphs - beautiful young women.

Victims - a person harmed, injured, or killed as a result of a crime, accident, or other event or action.

Offenders - a person who commits an illegal act.

Errands - a short journey undertaken in order to deliver or collect something, especially on someone else's behalf.

Clearly, the passage focuses on domestic steel market that is majorly suffered. So, this is basically due to steel industry which import non-alloy steel from China. So, the Standing Committee named the steel industry as one of the major offenders.

Hence, the correct option is (D).