SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 3
155 Questions MCQ Test Mock Tests for Banking Exam and Past Year Papers | SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 3
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Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
There are ten boys who sits on two parallel rows of bench containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent boys, for doing some office work and they like different laptops viz. H.P, Lenovo, Compaq, Dell, Apple, Acer, Asus, Samsung, Sony and Toshiba. In row 1 – Mehul, Varun, Sumit, Rahul and Rohit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. In row 2 – Ajay, Ajit, Ashish, Arun and Amit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row either faces another member of the other row or seated behind each other.
(i) The boy who likes Dell sits to the immediate right of Ajit, who seated exactly in the middle of the row.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony.
(iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1.
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus. Sumit sits to the immediate right of the boy who faces Arun.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Q. Which of the following is true regarding Arun?
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony. If in case 1 Sony faces north direction then Ajay will be in his right position but already Amit is sitting so this case gets violated. Now in case 2 Sony is facing towards south direction then Ajay can be his immediate neighbour.
Now, (iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
So Ajay is sitting opposite to neighbour of Lenovo and Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq. So Rahul can be at the 3rd place or at the extreme right end of Row 1. Arun doesn’t like Compaq and there is only one place left for Arun is extreme right end of Row 2. The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction that means the person liking Lenovo laptop is facing north. Ashish likes Sony. Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. If Lenovo is facing north and cannot be at position 3rd according to this so it will be at 1st position and Sumit is sitting at its third right. From
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. So its confirm Rahul is not an extreme right end he will be at the position opposite to Ajit.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction. Mehul faces north direction as opposite to him Ajit is facing south direction. Arun is facing Rahul and he is facing south direction.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple, Sumit likes HP. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1. Varun likes Samsung and Arun likes Acer.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Final arrangement is
Section_Name: Reasoning & Computer Aptitude
In the question consists of four sentences and some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Read each sentence to find out the error in the sentence (s) and select the option that indicates the grammatically incorrect and inappropriate sentence (s). Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
A. Foreign bourses, however, will likely find other ways to list derivatives linked to Indian stocks and indices without any help over Indian exchanges soon.
B. The present move, thus, is unlikely to rein in the vast offshore market for Indian derivatives.
C. It also leaves a lot to be desired.
D. Index derivatives such as the SGX Nifty that are linked to stocks that form Nifty, have gained the patronage of large foreign investors for many reasons.
‘Likely’ is an adjective used whenever we want to indicate a possibility of an event.
D. Index derivatives such as the SGX Nifty that is linked to stocks that form Nifty, have gained the patronage of large foreign investors for many reasons.
The verb needs to be in agreement with the immediate noun that precedes the verb.
A. Foreign bourses, however, will likely find other ways to list derivatives linked to Indian stocks and indices without any help from Indian exchanges soon.
‘Likely’ is an adjective used whenever we want to indicate a possibility of an event.
D. Index derivatives such as the SGX Nifty that is linked to stocks that form Nifty, have gained the patronage of large foreign investors for many reasons.
The verb needs to be in agreement with the immediate noun that precedes the verb.
Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
In a certain machine code ‘@’ means ‘0’, ‘*’ means ‘1’, and ‘*@’ means ‘2’.
A#B(*@@*) means “A is 7m west of B”.
A&B(**@@) means “A is 15m east of B”.
A%B(@*@*) means “A is 9m north of B”.
A^B(**@*) means “A is 16m south of B”.
Condition: W#V(***@), Q^V(**@@), X&U(****), W%X(*@**), S#R(*@@*@), P%R(*@@@@), T^U(*@@*), Q&P(@*@*).
What is the position of S with respect to T?
Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
In a certain machine code ‘@’ means ‘0’, ‘*’ means ‘1’, and ‘*@’ means ‘2’.
A#B(*@@*) means “A is 7m west of B”.
A&B(**@@) means “A is 15m east of B”.
A%B(@*@*) means “A is 9m north of B”.
A^B(**@*) means “A is 16m south of B”.
Condition: W#V(***@), Q^V(**@@), X&U(****), W%X(*@**), S#R(*@@*@), P%R(*@@@@), T^U(*@@*), Q&P(@*@*).
What is the position of X with respect to P?
Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
In a certain machine code ‘@’ means ‘0’, ‘*’ means ‘1’, and ‘*@’ means ‘2’.
A#B(*@@*) means “A is 7m west of B”.
A&B(**@@) means “A is 15m east of B”.
A%B(@*@*) means “A is 9m north of B”.
A^B(**@*) means “A is 16m south of B”.
Condition: W#V(***@), Q^V(**@@), X&U(****), W%X(*@**), S#R(*@@*@), P%R(*@@@@), T^U(*@@*), Q&P(@*@*).
If Ramya walks **@* meter towards west from point S, then takes a right turn of *@@** meter to reach point M, then what is the position of point U with respect to M?
Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow for pursuing.
Statement: A recent study shows that students die in Kota mainly because of depression.
Courses of action:
I. The counseling centers in cities like Kota should be encouraged for students.
II. Parents should stop sending their ward to Kota.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Given below are pairs of events A and B. You have to read both the events A and B and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in A and B is true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information while deciding the answer. Mark answer.
Event (A): More than 11.5 lakh saplings are being planned to be planted across the city and school children will be advised to take care of 2 saplings each.
Event (B): City corporation has decided to convert abandoned quarries in and around the city to be filled scientifically and reclaimed for conversion into tree parks by planting of saplings.
A phrase is coded step by step in following certain rules. Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
For step I: the first letter of the word is replaced by the second succeeding letter and the last letter is replaced by the second preceding letter in alphabetical order. After that letters are written in reverse order.
For step II: the first vowel from the right end and the first consonant from the left end are written in reverse order, whereas number represents:
If the number of letters in the word is even, then add 2 to the square of the number, and if the number of letters is odd, then subtract 2 from the square of that number.
For step III: letters are replaced by reverse letters in alphabetical order, and even number is replaced by @, whereas the odd number is replaced by %.
For step IV: a symbol which appeared only once is taken and the first letter from the remaining two words is taken in such a way that the first letter of the highest number is followed by the second letter of the lowest number from the remaining two words which have a similar symbol.
Phrase: BANKING RESULT SYSTEM
Step I: eniknad rluset ketsyu
Step II: an47 er38 uk38
A phrase is coded step by step in following certain rules. Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Q. Which of the following correctly represent “HARVEST” in step I?
For step I: the first letter of the word is replaced by the second succeeding letter and the last letter is replaced by the second preceding letter in alphabetical order. After that letters are written in reverse order.
For step II: the first vowel from the right end and the first consonant from the left end are written in reverse order, whereas number represents:
If the number of letters in the word is even, then add 2 to the square of the number, and if the number of letters is odd, then subtract 2 from the square of that number.
For step III: letters are replaced by reverse letters in alphabetical order, and even number is replaced by @, whereas the odd number is replaced by %.
For step IV: a symbol which appeared only once is taken and the first letter from the remaining two words is taken in such a way that the first letter of the highest number is followed by the second letter of the lowest number from the remaining two words which have a similar symbol.
Harvest → rsevraj
A phrase is coded step by step in following certain rules. Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
For step I: the first letter of the word is replaced by the second succeeding letter and the last letter is replaced by the second preceding letter in alphabetical order. After that letters are written in reverse order.
For step II: the first vowel from the right end and the first consonant from the left end are written in reverse order, whereas number represents:
If the number of letters in the word is even, then add 2 to the square of the number, and if the number of letters is odd, then subtract 2 from the square of that number.
For step III: letters are replaced by reverse letters in alphabetical order, and even number is replaced by @, whereas the odd number is replaced by %.
For step IV: a symbol which appeared only once is taken and the first letter from the remaining two words is taken in such a way that the first letter of the highest number is followed by the second letter of the lowest number from the remaining two words which have a similar symbol.
Phrase: BANKING RESULT SYSTEM
Step I: eniknad rluset ketsyu
Step II: an47 er38 uk38
Step III: zm% vi@ fp@
A phrase is coded step by step in following certain rules. Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Q. Which of the following correctly represent step III for phrase?MAGICAL HAVE COUNT
For step I: the first letter of the word is replaced by the second succeeding letter and the last letter is replaced by the second preceding letter in alphabetical order. After that letters are written in reverse order.
For step II: the first vowel from the right end and the first consonant from the left end are written in reverse order, whereas number represents:
If the number of letters in the word is even, then add 2 to the square of the number, and if the number of letters is odd, then subtract 2 from the square of that number.
For step III: letters are replaced by reverse letters in alphabetical order, and even number is replaced by @, whereas the odd number is replaced by %.
For step IV: a symbol which appeared only once is taken and the first letter from the remaining two words is taken in such a way that the first letter of the highest number is followed by the second letter of the lowest number from the remaining two words which have a similar symbol.
Phrase: MAGICAL HAVE COUNT
Step I: jacigao cvaj rnuoe
Step II: oj47 ac18 er23
Step III: lq% zx@ vi%
Directions: In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Statement: C ≥ M > F < A = B > S
Conclusions:
I. C > B
II. F < S
Conclusions:
I. C > B ⇒ It’s not true as C > F and B > F so no direct relationship between C and B can be established.
II. F < S ⇒ It’s not true as A > S and A > F so no direct relationship between S and F can be established.
So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Statement: “Good news for all, Vikalp is available and every passenger will get reserve seats. Waiting status will be omitted from reservation chart” quoted by Railways Ministry. Spokesperson of railways has said if confirm seat is not available in desired train, option for confirm seat in other train will be given at the time of reservation.
Which of the following can be assumed from the given statement?
(I) Commuters would have faced issues regarding confirm seats in railways.
(II) Fairs of reserved seats will be increased by Railways department.
(III) There will be increase in number of persons travelling through railways.
For II: True, As per vikalp plan it is certain everyone will get confirm seats, means facilities for passengers will be increased. Then it may be assumed that fares will get increased.
For III: True, As there is certainty of confirm seats, then it may be that number of commuters will increase.
Below questions consist of numbers in three rows. Results from each row can be obtained by applying certain rules given below. Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Condition:
I. If an even number is followed by a prime number, then the product of the tenth digit of the numbers is taken.
II. If an odd (non-prime) is followed by an even number, then the sum of numbers is taken.
III. If a prime number is followed by a perfect square number, then the difference between the numbers is taken.
IV. If a prime number is followed by a composite number, then divide the second number by the first number.
V. If an even number is followed by a perfect cube number, then the product of unit digits of numbers is taken.
If more than one condition is applied then only one condition is applied as per the order.
Q. What is the sum of the resultant of all three rows?
7 25 27
38 31 24
13 39 49
From condition III: (25 – 7) = 18
From condition V: (8 x 7) = 56
38 31 24
From condition I: (3 x 3) = 9
From condition II: (9 + 24) = 33
13 39 49
From condition IV: 39/13 = 3
From condition III: (49 – 3) = 46
Required number = (56 + 33 + 46) = 135
Below questions consist of numbers in three rows. Results from each row can be obtained by applying certain rules given below. Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Condition:
I. If an even number is followed by a prime number, then the product of the tenth digit of the numbers is taken.
II. If an odd (non-prime) is followed by an even number, then the sum of numbers is taken.
III. If a prime number is followed by a perfect square number, then the difference between the numbers is taken.
IV. If a prime number is followed by a composite number, then divide the second number by the first number.
V. If an even number is followed by a perfect cube number, then the product of unit digits of numbers is taken.
If more than one condition is applied then only one condition is applied as per the order.
Q. What is the product of the digital sum of the resultant of all three rows?
9 4 91
14 27 73
5 30 8
From condition II: (9 + 4) = 13
From condition IV: 91/13 = 7
14 27 73
From condition V: (4 x 7) = 28
From condition I: (2 x 7) = 14
5 30 8
From condition IV: 30/5 = 6
From condition V: (6 x 8) = 48
Required number = (7 * 5 * 12) = 420
Below questions consist of numbers in three rows. Results from each row can be obtained by applying certain rules given below. Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Condition:
I. If an even number is followed by a prime number, then the product of the tenth digit of the numbers is taken.
II. If an odd (non-prime) is followed by an even number, then the sum of numbers is taken.
III. If a prime number is followed by a perfect square number, then the difference between the numbers is taken.
IV. If a prime number is followed by a composite number, then divide the second number by the first number.
V. If an even number is followed by a perfect cube number, then the product of unit digits of numbers is taken.
If more than one condition is applied then only one condition is applied as per the order.
Q. If the result of the sum of all three rows is 41, then what is the value of Y?
24 29 8
13 Y 53
4 64 43
From condition I: (2 x 2) = 4
From condition V: (4 x 8) = 32
4 64 43
From condition V: (4 x 4) = 16
From condition I: (1 x 4) = 4
Since, result of the sum of all three rows = 41
Thus, result of 2nd row = 41 – (32 + 4) = 5
13 25 53
From condition III: (25 – 13) = 12
From condition I: (1 x 5) = 5
Directions: In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Statement: H = M ≤ W; C ≥ W < S
Conclusions:
I. C = M
II. C > M
On rearranging: H = M ≤ W ≤ C; W < S
Conclusions:
I. C = M (False as C ≥ M)
II. C > M (False as C ≥ M)
But both the conclusions form a complementary pair; hence either I or II follows.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
The argument about whether demonetisation was good or bad for the economy refuses to die down even a year after the event. While one can endlessly debate, with very little data, on whether the ban on high-value currency notes dealt a body blow to terrorism, corruption and counterfeiting, one area in which its impact can be quantified with data is tax compliance. In FY18, net collections increased by 17.1%.
Which of the following can be postulated from the given statement?
I. Counterfeiting of notes was one of the major concern for Government of India.
II. Many economists has termed it wrong as it has impact badly on the weaker section of the society.
III. There has been revamp in the percentage increase of direct tax with respect to indirect tax.
Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
In a machine language numbers from 0 to 9 are coded as different letters of alphabetical order. Each digit can be coded with only one letter. Now, study the below arithmetic problem given below.
B S M D + H L P S = H L M S Z
What is the perfect square of HD?
We have
From the left side, we have: B + H = H L
Since, each number represents different numbers, and the sum of two different digits gives a maximum (9 + 8) = 17. Even if we get any carry forwards we only have possible carry forward 1.
17 + 1 (carry) = 18.
But, as B is added with H, and the maximum possible number of H must be 1.
Thus, H must be 1, and we have two possible values of B must be 9 or 8.
Based on the above given information we have:
Again, we have:
Since, (S + 0) = M, thus we must get a carry forward from (M + P).
For case (1):If S = 2, then M = 3.
Similarly, (3 + P) = 12, thus, P must be 8.
Now, again (D + 2) = 1 Z (as, we have to forward carry to 3 + P)
That means, the maximum possible number for D must be 7, but (7 + 2) = 9, which never produces any carry.
Thus, S can’t be 2.
Case (1a):
Now again, let’s take S = 3, and M = 4.
Similarly, (4 + P) = 13, thus, P must be 8.
Now, again (D + 3) = 1 Z (as, we have to forward carry to 4 + P)
That means, maximum possible value of D must be 7, but (7 + 3) = 10, and Z can’t be 0.
Thus, S can’t be 3.
Case (1b):
Now again, let’s take S = 4, and M = 5.
Similarly, (5 + P) = 14, thus, P must be 8.
Now, again (D + 4) = 1 Z (as, we have to forward carry to 5 + P)
That means, maximum possible value of D must be 7, but (7 + 4) = 11, and Z can’t be 1.
Thus, S can’t be 4.
Case (1c):
Now again, let’s take S = 5, and M = 6.
Similarly, (6 + P) = 15, thus, P must be 8.
Now, again (D + 5) = 1 Z (as, we have to forward carry to 6 + P)
That means, maximum possible value of D must be 7, but (7 + 5) = 12
Thus, S = 5, and Z = 2.
Case (2):
Since, (S + 0) = 1 M, as 1 carry forward given to (B + H), thus maximum possible value of S = 9, and (9 + 0 + 1) = 10, thus value of M = 0, but already L = 0. Thus, case (2) is not valid.
Based on the above given information we have the following result:
Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
In a machine language numbers from 0 to 9 are coded as different letters of alphabetical order. Each digit can be coded with only one letter. Now, study the below arithmetic problem given below.
B S M D + H L P S = H L M S Z
What is the product of SD?
From the left side, we have: B + H = H L
Since, each number represents different numbers, and the sum of two different digits gives a maximum (9 + 8) = 17. Even if we get any carry forwards we only have possible carry forward 1.
17 + 1 (carry) = 18.
But, as B is added with H, and the maximum possible number of H must be 1.
Thus, H must be 1, and we have two possible values of B must be 9 or 8.
Based on the above given information we have:
Again, we have:
Since, (S + 0) = M, thus we must get a carry forward from (M + P).
For case (1):If S = 2, then M = 3.
Similarly, (3 + P) = 12, thus, P must be 8.
Now, again (D + 2) = 1 Z (as, we have to forward carry to 3 + P)
That means, the maximum possible number for D must be 7, but (7 + 2) = 9, which never produces any carry.
Thus, S can’t be 2.
Case (1a):
Now again, let’s take S = 3, and M = 4.
Similarly, (4 + P) = 13, thus, P must be 8.
Now, again (D + 3) = 1 Z (as, we have to forward carry to 4 + P)
That means, maximum possible value of D must be 7, but (7 + 3) = 10, and Z can’t be 0.
Thus, S can’t be 3.
Case (1b):
Now again, let’s take S = 4, and M = 5.
Similarly, (5 + P) = 14, thus, P must be 8.
Now, again (D + 4) = 1 Z (as, we have to forward carry to 5 + P)
That means, maximum possible value of D must be 7, but (7 + 4) = 11, and Z can’t be 1.
Thus, S can’t be 4.
Case (1c):
Now again, let’s take S = 5, and M = 6.
Similarly, (6 + P) = 15, thus, P must be 8.
Now, again (D + 5) = 1 Z (as, we have to forward carry to 6 + P)
That means, maximum possible value of D must be 7, but (7 + 5) = 12
Thus, S = 5, and Z = 2.
Case (2):
Since, (S + 0) = 1 M, as 1 carry forward given to (B + H), thus maximum possible value of S = 9, and (9 + 0 + 1) = 10, thus value of M = 0, but already L = 0. Thus, case (2) is not valid.
Based on the above given information we have the following result:
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.
Statement: The Indian authorities have allowed commercial operations to all the airports that were shut after a few fighter jets of the Pakistani Air Force entered the Indian side of Kashmir. The authorities had informed all airlines that airports near the Jammu & Kashmir region and Dehradun have been closed.
Assumptions:
I. The Pakistani Air Force entered the Indian side of Kashmir after the Indian Air Force entered the Pakistani territory and bombed a terrorist training center in Pakistan.
II. Several airline executives confirmed that the government has informed them that flights to Jammu, Srinagar, Leh, Amritsar, Dehradun & Dharamshala have been suspended ‘till further notice.’
III. One official added that no Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) has been issued yet. It is a notification to the government that the airlines have received, the source in the know said.
An assumption is a thing that is accepted as true or as certain to happen, without proof.
From the statement, it is evident the Indian authorities have allowed commercial operations to all the airports near the Jammu & Kashmir region and Dehradun that was shut after a few fighter jets of the Pakistani Air Force entered the Indian side of Kashmir. And further information regarding its components is also mentioned.
Assumption I can be rejected as the information stated in it is not backed by the context given.
Assumption II is not an apt assumption that can be made on the basis of the information provided. All the places mentioned for example Amritsar, Dharamshala are not evident from the given context.
Assumption III is rejected as it is contradictory to the information stated. It states that no NOTAM has been issued whereas the given information states that information has been sent to the authorities.
Thus, all of the assumptions are irrelevant and can be rejected and the most appropriate answer choice is option (A).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
In the following questions is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer from the given choices.
Energy consumption involves release of greenhouse gases resulting in global warming. Hence, it is the contention of the under-developed nations that the economically developed countries must make a higher contribution to funds constituted towards taking measures to fight global warming.
Which of the following is an assumption in the above argument?
Below questions consists of two statements. Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the question.
Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting in a square table in such a way that one person sits on each corner facing away whereas one person sits on each side facing the center. Persons in alphabetical orders are not sitting together. Who among the following sits immediate right of S?
I. P sits third to the right of T, who sits at one of the corners. One person sits between T and Q, who sits opposite to U. W and S are not sitting together. S and Q are not sitting together.
II. S sits opposite to T, who sits immediate left of W. One person sits between W and R, who sits on the sides. V and Q are sitting together.
P sits third to the right of T, who sits at one of the corners. One person sits between T and Q, who sits opposite to U. W and S are not sitting together. S and Q are not sitting together.
Based on the above given information we have:
Clearly, V sits immediate right of S.
Hence, statement I is alone sufficient.
Each consonant of the word AUSPICIOUS is changed to the three step next letter in the English alphabetical order and each vowel is changed to the three step previous letter and then arranged as an alphabetical order. Which of the following will be third to the left of fourth from the right?
P + 3 = S, U - 3 = R
C + 3 = F, I - 3 = F
S + 3 = V, O - 3 = L
After arranging alphabets in alphabetical order we get: FFFLRRSVVX
Third, to the left of fourth from the right is L.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
There are ten boys who sits on two parallel rows of bench containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent boys, for doing some office work and they like different laptops viz. H.P, Lenovo, Compaq, Dell, Apple, Acer, Asus, Samsung, Sony and Toshiba. In row 1 – Mehul, Varun, Sumit, Rahul and Rohit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. In row 2 – Ajay, Ajit, Ashish, Arun and Amit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row either faces another member of the other row or seated behind each other.
(i) The boy who likes Dell sits to the immediate right of Ajit, who seated exactly in the middle of the row.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony.
(iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1.
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus. Sumit sits to the immediate right of the boy who faces Arun.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Q. Who amongst the following sit at the left end of the row 1?
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony. If in case 1 Sony faces north direction then Ajay will be in his right position but already Amit is sitting so this case gets violated. Now in case 2 Sony is facing towards south direction then Ajay can be his immediate neighbour.
Now, (iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
So Ajay is sitting opposite to neighbour of Lenovo and Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq. So Rahul can be at the 3rd place or at the extreme right end of Row 1. Arun doesn’t like Compaq and there is only one place left for Arun is extreme right end of Row 2. The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction that means the person liking Lenovo laptop is facing north. Ashish likes Sony. Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. If Lenovo is facing north and cannot be at position 3rd according to this so it will be at 1st position and Sumit is sitting at its third right. From
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. So its confirm Rahul is not an extreme right end he will be at the position opposite to Ajit.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction. Mehul faces north direction as opposite to him Ajit is facing south direction. Arun is facing Rahul and he is facing south direction.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple, Sumit likes HP. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1. Varun likes Samsung and Arun likes Acer.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Final arrangement
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
There are ten boys who sits on two parallel rows of bench containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent boys, for doing some office work and they like different laptops viz. H.P, Lenovo, Compaq, Dell, Apple, Acer, Asus, Samsung, Sony and Toshiba. In row 1 – Mehul, Varun, Sumit, Rahul and Rohit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. In row 2 – Ajay, Ajit, Ashish, Arun and Amit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row either faces another member of the other row or seated behind each other.
(i) The boy who likes Dell sits to the immediate right of Ajit, who seated exactly in the middle of the row.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony.
(iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1.
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus. Sumit sits to the immediate right of the boy who faces Arun.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Q. Ajit likes which laptop?
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony. If in case 1 Sony faces north direction then Ajay will be in his right position but already Amit is sitting so this case gets violated. Now in case 2 Sony is facing towards south direction then Ajay can be his immediate neighbour.
Now, (iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
So Ajay is sitting opposite to neighbour of Lenovo and Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq. So Rahul can be at the 3rd place or at the extreme right end of Row 1. Arun doesn’t like Compaq and there is only one place left for Arun is extreme right end of Row 2. The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction that means the person liking Lenovo laptop is facing north. Ashish likes Sony. Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. If Lenovo is facing north and cannot be at position 3rd according to this so it will be at 1st position and Sumit is sitting at its third right. From
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. So its confirm Rahul is not an extreme right end he will be at the position opposite to Ajit.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction. Mehul faces north direction as opposite to him Ajit is facing south direction. Arun is facing Rahul and he is facing south direction.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple, Sumit likes HP. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1. Varun likes Samsung and Arun likes Acer.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Final arrangement is
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
There are ten boys who sits on two parallel rows of bench containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent boys, for doing some office work and they like different laptops viz. H.P, Lenovo, Compaq, Dell, Apple, Acer, Asus, Samsung, Sony and Toshiba. In row 1 – Mehul, Varun, Sumit, Rahul and Rohit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. In row 2 – Ajay, Ajit, Ashish, Arun and Amit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row either faces another member of the other row or seated behind each other.
(i) The boy who likes Dell sits to the immediate right of Ajit, who seated exactly in the middle of the row.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony.
(iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1.
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus. Sumit sits to the immediate right of the boy who faces Arun.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Q. Who among the following is immediate left of Ajit?
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony. If in case 1 Sony faces north direction then Ajay will be in his right position but already Amit is sitting so this case gets violated. Now in case 2 Sony is facing towards south direction then Ajay can be his immediate neighbour.
Now, (iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
So Ajay is sitting opposite to neighbour of Lenovo and Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq. So Rahul can be at the 3rd place or at the extreme right end of Row 1. Arun doesn’t like Compaq and there is only one place left for Arun is extreme right end of Row 2. The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction that means the person liking Lenovo laptop is facing north. Ashish likes Sony. Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. If Lenovo is facing north and cannot be at position 3rd according to this so it will be at 1st position and Sumit is sitting at its third right. From
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. So its confirm Rahul is not an extreme right end he will be at the position opposite to Ajit.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction. Mehul faces north direction as opposite to him Ajit is facing south direction. Arun is facing Rahul and he is facing south direction.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple, Sumit likes HP. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1. Varun likes Samsung and Arun likes Acer.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Final arrangement is
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
There are ten boys who sits on two parallel rows of bench containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent boys, for doing some office work and they like different laptops viz. H.P, Lenovo, Compaq, Dell, Apple, Acer, Asus, Samsung, Sony and Toshiba. In row 1 – Mehul, Varun, Sumit, Rahul and Rohit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. In row 2 – Ajay, Ajit, Ashish, Arun and Amit are seated and some of them are facing south and some of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row either faces another member of the other row or seated behind each other.
(i) The boy who likes Dell sits to the immediate right of Ajit, who seated exactly in the middle of the row.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony.
(iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1.
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus. Sumit sits to the immediate right of the boy who faces Arun.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Q. Which one of the following immediate neighbour of Varun?
(vi) Amit faces North Direction and sits immediate left of Ajit. Only one boy sits between the boys who like Compaq and Dell.
(viii) Only one boy sits between the boy who likes Sony and Ajit who likes Asus.
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. Ajay sits immediate right of the boy who likes Sony. If in case 1 Sony faces north direction then Ajay will be in his right position but already Amit is sitting so this case gets violated. Now in case 2 Sony is facing towards south direction then Ajay can be his immediate neighbour.
Now, (iv) Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. Ajay does not face Mehul and faces north direction.
(vii) Ajay sits opposite to one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Lenovo. Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq.
(ii) One who of the immediate neighbours of the boy, who likes Apple, sits behind the boy who likes Compaq. Arun does not like Compaq.
(x) The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction. Ashish sits one of the extreme ends of the line and likes Sony.
So Ajay is sitting opposite to neighbour of Lenovo and Rahul faces one of the immediate neighbours of the boy who likes Compaq. So Rahul can be at the 3rd place or at the extreme right end of Row 1. Arun doesn’t like Compaq and there is only one place left for Arun is extreme right end of Row 2. The boy who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who faces North Direction that means the person liking Lenovo laptop is facing north. Ashish likes Sony. Sumit sits third to the right of the boy who likes Lenovo. If Lenovo is facing north and cannot be at position 3rd according to this so it will be at 1st position and Sumit is sitting at its third right. From
(iii) Rahul likes neither Apple nor Acer. So its confirm Rahul is not an extreme right end he will be at the position opposite to Ajit.
(xi) Mehul faces the opposite direction to the boy who likes Asus. Rahul faces north direction and the one who faces Rahul, faces south direction. Varun faces north direction. Mehul faces north direction as opposite to him Ajit is facing south direction. Arun is facing Rahul and he is facing south direction.
(ix) Only two people sit between Sumit and Rohit. Arun likes neither HP nor Samsung.
(v) The boy who likes HP sits exactly between the boys who like Toshiba and Apple, Sumit likes HP. Mehul likes Apple and sits in the middle of the row 1. Varun likes Samsung and Arun likes Acer.
(xii) Sumit is facing opposite direction to Amit.
Final arrangement is
Below questions consists of two statements. Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the question.
Eight boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are kept one above the other in a form of a stack but not necessarily in the same order. Which of the following box is kept fourth from the bottom?
I. Box F is kept third from the top. Two boxes are kept between F and C. Neither C nor F is kept adjacent to box G. Two boxes are kept between E and G, which is kept adjacent to box A.
II. Five boxes are kept between G and H, none of them kept at the top. Box A is kept three positions below D. One box is kept between D and F, which is kept exactly between D and E. Neither E nor G is kept adjacent to D. Box E is not kept at prime number position from the bottom.
Five boxes are kept between G and H, none of them kept at the top. Box A is kept three positions below D. One box is kept between D and F, which is kept exactly between D and E. Neither E nor G is kept adjacent to D. Box E is not kept at prime number position from the bottom.
Based on the above given information we have:
Clearly, box E is kept fourth from the bottom.
Hence, statement II is aloe sufficient.
Direction: The question below is given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or maybe the effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of the answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Statements:
I. IIT Roorkee announced that the date of JEE Advanced is shifted from 19th May to 27th May 2019.
II. The 2019 Indian general election is scheduled to be held in seven phases from 11th April to 19th May 2019.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Input: 135 244 171 123 260 384 195 422
Step I: 42 120 54 38 128 190 62 209
Step II: 162 66 92 90 318 128 271
Step III: 09 12 11 09 12 11 10
Step IV: 18 36 22 18 36 22 30
Step IV is the last step of the arrangement.
Following the same pattern solve the given input:
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Q. Which of the following element is fifth to the right of the element which is second from the left end in Step I?
Step II – Consecutive numbers follows the pattern: +, - , +, -, +, …..
Step III – Sum of the digits within the number obtained in Step II.
Step IV – Odd number is multiplied by 2 and Even number is multiplied by 3.
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Step I: 52 80 94 112 110 146 152 58
Step II: 132 14 206 02 256 06 210
Step III: 06 05 08 02 13 06 03
Step IV: 18 10 24 06 26 18 06
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Input: 135 244 171 123 260 384 195 422
Step I: 42 120 54 38 128 190 62 209
Step II: 162 66 92 90 318 128 271
Step III: 09 12 11 09 12 11 10
Step IV: 18 36 22 18 36 22 30
Step IV is the last step of the arrangement.
Following the same pattern solve the given input:
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Q. If all the numbers in Step III are arranged in ascending order from left to right, then how many numbers will not change their position?
Step II – Consecutive numbers follows the pattern: +, - , +, -, +, …..
Step III – Sum of the digits within the number obtained in Step II.
Step IV – Odd number is multiplied by 2 and Even number is multiplied by 3.
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Step I: 52 80 94 112 110 146 152 58
Step II: 132 14 206 02 256 06 210
Step III: 06 05 08 02 13 06 03
Step IV: 18 10 24 06 26 18 06
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Input: 135 244 171 123 260 384 195 422
Step I: 42 120 54 38 128 190 62 209
Step II: 162 66 92 90 318 128 271
Step III: 09 12 11 09 12 11 10
Step IV: 18 36 22 18 36 22 30
Step IV is the last step of the arrangement.
Following the same pattern solve the given input:
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Q. Which of the following is the Middle element in last Step?
Step II – Consecutive numbers follows the pattern: +, - , +, -, +, …..
Step III – Sum of the digits within the number obtained in Step II.
Step IV – Odd number is multiplied by 2 and Even number is multiplied by 3.
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Step I: 52 80 94 112 110 146 152 58
Step II: 132 14 206 02 256 06 210
Step III: 06 05 08 02 13 06 03
Step IV: 18 10 24 06 26 18 06
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Input: 135 244 171 123 260 384 195 422
Step I: 42 120 54 38 128 190 62 209
Step II: 162 66 92 90 318 128 271
Step III: 09 12 11 09 12 11 10
Step IV: 18 36 22 18 36 22 30
Step IV is the last step of the arrangement.
Following the same pattern solve the given input:
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Q. What will be resultant if the second element from the right end in Step II is divided by fourth element from the left end in Step III?
Step II – Consecutive numbers follows the pattern: +, - , +, -, +, …..
Step III – Sum of the digits within the number obtained in Step II.
Step IV – Odd number is multiplied by 2 and Even number is multiplied by 3.
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Step I: 52 80 94 112 110 146 152 58
Step II: 132 14 206 02 256 06 210
Step III: 06 05 08 02 13 06 03
Step IV: 18 10 24 06 26 18 06
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Input: 135 244 171 123 260 384 195 422
Step I: 42 120 54 38 128 190 62 209
Step II: 162 66 92 90 318 128 271
Step III: 09 12 11 09 12 11 10
Step IV: 18 36 22 18 36 22 30
Step IV is the last step of the arrangement.
Following the same pattern solve the given input:
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Q. What is the sum all the numbers present in Step III?
Step II – Consecutive numbers follows the pattern: +, - , +, -, +, …..
Step III – Sum of the digits within the number obtained in Step II.
Step IV – Odd number is multiplied by 2 and Even number is multiplied by 3.
Input: 165 249 192 228 339 296 465 120
Step I: 52 80 94 112 110 146 152 58
Step II: 132 14 206 02 256 06 210
Step III: 06 05 08 02 13 06 03
Step IV: 18 10 24 06 26 18 06
Six boxes – B, C, D, E, F, and G are kept one above the other. Each box contains different toffies viz.- Munch, Eclairs, Melody, POLO, Jelly, and Hajmola. All the information is not necessary in the same order.
The box which contains POLO is kept second from the bottom. E neither contains Hajmola nor Jelly. Two boxes are kept between the box which contains POLO and E. The box which contains Jelly is kept immediate above box B, which doesn’t contain POLO. The number of boxes kept between box B and the box which contains Hajmola is one less than the number of boxes kept below box G.
Which of the below statement is sufficient to determine the toffies in box B?
I. At least two boxes are kept between D and C, which is kept adjacent to the box which contains Eclairs.
II. The box which contains Melody is kept immediately above box D.
III. The box which contains Melody and C are kept together.
- Box which contains POLO is kept second from the bottom.
- Two boxes are kept between the box which contains POLO and E.
- E neither contains Hajmola nor Jelly.
- The box which contains Jelly is kept immediate above box B, which doesn’t contain POLO.
That means, Box B is kept immediate above the box which contains POLO.
- The number of boxes kept between box B and the box which contains Hajmola is one less than the number of boxes kept below box G.
That means, the box which contains Hajmola is kept at the top.
Based on the above given information we have:
From II:
The box which contains Melody is kept immediate above box D.
That means, box B contains Melody.
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
In a numeric series, all the even numbers are represented as the sum of digits of its square and if the sum consists of more than 1 digit then again add the digits (For Ex. 8 square is 64 then the sum is 10 hence, 8 is coded as 1 (1 + 0)). All the odd numbers are represented as consecutive 5th alphabet of the alphabetical series starting from E (For ex. 1 is coded as E, 3 is coded as J)
In coded language:
“42765” is coded as - 74T9O
Now following operations are to be applied to the coded number:
I. If the number formed by adding all the digits in the coded number is divisible by 3 then all the digits must be again coded as the corresponding alphabets of all those digits.
II. If there is any prime number in the coded form then they are to be coded as $.
III. If there is more than 1 vowel in the coded number then all those vowels must be replaced with the next alphabet.
IV. If the coded form starts and ends with a consonant then they must be interchanged.
If the coded form does not satisfy the conditions given above then it should be kept as it is.
If both the conditions, I and II are satisfied then directions given in condition I must be followed and accept this if any two or three conditions are satisfied at the same time then the directions given in all the conditions must be followed.
Q. What will be the coded form of “762147” after applying the given conditions?
Since there is one prime number ‘7’ in the coded form, it must be replaced with $.
Since coded form starts and ends with a consonant then they must be interchanged.
So, “762147” is coded as “T94E$T”.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
In a numeric series, all the even numbers are represented as the sum of digits of its square and if the sum consists of more than 1 digit then again add the digits (For Ex. 8 square is 64 then the sum is 10 hence, 8 is coded as 1 (1 + 0)). All the odd numbers are represented as consecutive 5th alphabet of the alphabetical series starting from E (For ex. 1 is coded as E, 3 is coded as J)
In coded language:
“42765” is coded as - 74T9O
Now following operations are to be applied to the coded number:
I. If the number formed by adding all the digits in the coded number is divisible by 3 then all the digits must be again coded as the corresponding alphabets of all those digits.
II. If there is any prime number in the coded form then they are to be coded as $.
III. If there is more than 1 vowel in the coded number then all those vowels must be replaced with the next alphabet.
IV. If the coded form starts and ends with a consonant then they must be interchanged.
If the coded form does not satisfy the conditions given above then it should be kept as it is.
If both the conditions, I and II are satisfied then directions given in condition I must be followed and accept this if any two or three conditions are satisfied at the same time then the directions given in all the conditions must be followed.
Q. Which of the following number will be coded as “TGDETJD” after applying the given conditions?
T can only be the code for 7 (1 or 3 will never give T)
So, options (B) and (C) are eliminated.
Now checking option 1 and 4:
7421532 can be coded as ⇒ T74EOJ4 ⇒ TGDFPJD
7421732 can be coded as ⇒ T74ETJ4 ⇒ TGDETJD
So, the correct option is '7421732'.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
In a numeric series, all the even numbers are represented as the sum of digits of its square and if the sum consists of more than 1 digit then again add the digits (For Ex. 8 square is 64 then the sum is 10 hence, 8 is coded as 1 (1 + 0)). All the odd numbers are represented as consecutive 5th alphabet of the alphabetical series starting from E (For ex. 1 is coded as E, 3 is coded as J)
In coded language:
“42765” is coded as - 74T9O
Now following operations are to be applied to the coded number:
I. If the number formed by adding all the digits in the coded number is divisible by 3 then all the digits must be again coded as the corresponding alphabets of all those digits.
II. If there is any prime number in the coded form then they are to be coded as $.
III. If there is more than 1 vowel in the coded number then all those vowels must be replaced with the next alphabet.
IV. If the coded form starts and ends with a consonant then they must be interchanged.
If the coded form does not satisfy the conditions given above then it should be kept as it is.
If both the conditions, I and II are satisfied then directions given in condition I must be followed and accept this if any two or three conditions are satisfied at the same time then the directions given in all the conditions must be followed.
Q. Which of the following number will be coded as “P$T$P” after applying the given conditions?
Here ‘P’ will only come when there is ‘O’ in the coded form before applying the condition and ‘O’ will come when there is ‘5’ in the number.
$ will come if there is 7 in the coded form before applying the condition and ‘7’ will come when there is ‘4’ in the number.
So, “54745” is the correct number.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
In a numeric series, all the even numbers are represented as the sum of digits of its square and if the sum consists of more than 1 digit then again add the digits (For Ex. 8 square is 64 then the sum is 10 hence, 8 is coded as 1 (1 + 0)). All the odd numbers are represented as consecutive 5th alphabet of the alphabetical series starting from E (For ex. 1 is coded as E, 3 is coded as J)
In coded language:
“42765” is coded as - 74T9O
Now following operations are to be applied to the coded number:
I. If the number formed by adding all the digits in the coded number is divisible by 3 then all the digits must be again coded as the corresponding alphabets of all those digits.
II. If there is any prime number in the coded form then they are to be coded as $.
III. If there is more than 1 vowel in the coded number then all those vowels must be replaced with the next alphabet.
IV. If the coded form starts and ends with a consonant then they must be interchanged.
If the coded form does not satisfy the conditions given above then it should be kept as it is.
If both the conditions, I and II are satisfied then directions given in condition I must be followed and accept this if any two or three conditions are satisfied at the same time then the directions given in all the conditions must be followed.
Q. How many consonants will be there in the coded form of “68581247818” after applying the given conditions?
The coded form has the digits 9, 1, 1, 4, 7, 1, 1 and their sum is 24. So, it is divisible by 3, so condition 1 satisfies.
The coded form has the prime number 7 also hence condition 2 satisfies.
But we know that when both conditions I and II are satisfied then directions given in condition I must be followed.
Therefore, the coded form is “IAOAEDGTAEA"
The coded form has more than 1 vowel, hence condition 3 satisfies.
So, the coded form ⇒ “JBPBFDGTBFB”
Therefore, there are 11 consonants.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
In a numeric series, all the even numbers are represented as the sum of digits of its square and if the sum consists of more than 1 digit then again add the digits (For Ex. 8 square is 64 then the sum is 10 hence, 8 is coded as 1 (1 + 0)). All the odd numbers are represented as consecutive 5th alphabet of the alphabetical series starting from E (For ex. 1 is coded as E, 3 is coded as J)
In coded language:
“42765” is coded as - 74T9O
Now following operations are to be applied to the coded number:
I. If the number formed by adding all the digits in the coded number is divisible by 3 then all the digits must be again coded as the corresponding alphabets of all those digits.
II. If there is any prime number in the coded form then they are to be coded as $.
III. If there is more than 1 vowel in the coded number then all those vowels must be replaced with the next alphabet.
IV. If the coded form starts and ends with a consonant then they must be interchanged.
If the coded form does not satisfy the conditions given above then it should be kept as it is.
If both the conditions, I and II are satisfied then directions given in condition I must be followed and accept this if any two or three conditions are satisfied at the same time then the directions given in all the conditions must be followed.
Q. What will be the coded form of “368149” after applying all the given conditions?
Since there is one prime number ‘7’ in the coded form, it must be replaced with $.
Since coded form starts and ends with a consonant then they must be interchanged.
So, the coded form ⇒ “Y91E$J”
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In alphabetical series a-z letter except vowel is assigned a different number from 1-9. Thus b is coded as 1, c-2…… 1-9 and again these numbers get repeated (m -1, n-2…. so on).
Also vowel is assigned a different symbol, viz. @, *, $, # and %, not necessarily in that order.
In this code language,
‘flag bearer’ is coded as ‘49*5, 1#*5#5’
‘propose ground’ is coded as ‘35$3$6#, 55$%23’
Note: Besides using the above code, the fowling conditions also apply:
(i) If both the first and last letter of a word are vowels then the codes for both the letters are interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter of a word is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then bot are to be coded as +.
Q. What is the code for ‘interest users’ in the given code language?
b – 1, c – 2, d – 3, f – 4, g – 5, h - 6, j - 7, k - 8, l - 9, m - 1, n - 2, p - 3, q - 4, r - 5, s - 6, t - 7, v - 8, w - 9, x – 1, y - 2, z – 3
The vowels are assigned as follows:
a - *, e - #, I - @, o - $, u - %
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In alphabetical series a-z letter except vowel is assigned a different number from 1-9. Thus b is coded as 1, c-2…… 1-9 and again these numbers get repeated (m -1, n-2…. so on).
Also vowel is assigned a different symbol, viz. @, *, $, # and %, not necessarily in that order.
In this code language,
‘flag bearer’ is coded as ‘49*5, 1#*5#5’
‘propose ground’ is coded as ‘35$3$6#, 55$%23’
Note: Besides using the above code, the fowling conditions also apply:
(i) If both the first and last letter of a word are vowels then the codes for both the letters are interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter of a word is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then bot are to be coded as +.
Q. What is the code for ‘addition nearly outcome’ in the given code language?
b – 1, c – 2, d – 3, f – 4, g – 5, h - 6, j - 7, k - 8, l - 9, m - 1, n - 2, p - 3, q - 4, r - 5, s - 6, t - 7, v - 8, w - 9, x – 1, y - 2, z – 3
The vowels are assigned as follows:
a - *, e - #, i - @, o - $, u - %
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In alphabetical series a-z letter except vowel is assigned a different number from 1-9. Thus b is coded as 1, c-2…… 1-9 and again these numbers get repeated (m -1, n-2…. so on).
Also vowel is assigned a different symbol, viz. @, *, $, # and %, not necessarily in that order.
In this code language,
‘flag bearer’ is coded as ‘49*5, 1#*5#5’
‘propose ground’ is coded as ‘35$3$6#, 55$%23’
Note: Besides using the above code, the fowling conditions also apply:
(i) If both the first and last letter of a word are vowels then the codes for both the letters are interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter of a word is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then bot are to be coded as +.
Q. What is the code for ‘efforts develop’ in the given code language?
b – 1, c – 2, d – 3, f – 4, g – 5, h - 6, j - 7, k - 8, l - 9, m - 1, n - 2, p - 3, q - 4, r - 5, s - 6, t - 7, v - 8, w - 9, x – 1, y - 2, z – 3
The vowels are assigned as follows:
a - *, e - #, I - @, o - $, u - %
Statement: The students who are bright since the childhood are trained so that they choose to go out of the country for jobs after studies taking all our intelligent brains outside
Course of Action:
I. Students should be asked to sign a letter of consent with the college that they would be taking up a job in their own country
II. The students who are willing to go out should be given more support as they take the country’s name to the world
The second sentence also strengthens the issue further and not solves the same, so can be ruled out.
Hence, option (e) is correct.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Friday told the Supreme Court that allowing dealings in cryptocurrencies like Bitcoins would encourage illegal transactions and it has already issued a circular prohibiting use of these virtual currencies. Cryptocurrencies are ‘a stateless digital currency’ in which encryption techniques are used for trading and these 'currencies' operate independently of a central bank like the RBI, ‘rendering it immune from government interference’. A bench headed by Chief Justice was informed that a committee has been set up by the Centre to deal with the issues relating to cryptocurrencies and the matters required a final and early decision from the top court.
Q. Which of the following can be logically deduced from the above information?
(1) can be rejected as no information regarding the fact that some petitions or all, challenged the use of virtual currency is evident thus, it can be rejected.
(3) can be eliminated as exact details regarding the hearing on ‘May 17’ cannot be deduced as no information regarding it is stated in the given statement. Based on the similar grounds we can reject (4) also, as ‘three weeks’ time cannot be inferred. If it would have written ‘some weeks’ then it could have been a suitable deduction but also nothing has been mentioned about the role of ‘Federal bank’ thus, it is definitely not a deduction of the given statement.
(2) is the most promising deduction. It captures the general fact that the bench headed by the CJI has given time to the Center and the RBI for filling their responses. Moreover, we don’t have any option like ‘none can be deduced’. Therefore, option (B) is the only option choice that we have.
As all the other options except (2) are irrelevant with respect to the data provided in the statement. Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
P and Q started from point A, at same time and running towards point D. Point A, B, C and D are collinear (same order). Time taken by P to travel distance from B to C is 6 hours more than that of Q, while time taken by P to travel from A to B and from C to D respectively is 8 hours and 14 hours less than that of Q. Distance between A and B is twice as that of distance between C and D, while distance between B and C is thrice of distance between C and D. Average speed of P for overall journey is 90 km/h while of Q is 60 km/h.
Find total distance between point A and point D.
Ratio of time taken = 2:3
Difference between travelling time of P and Q = 8 + 14 – 6 = 16 hours
So, travelling time of P = [2 / (3 – 2)] x 16 = 32 hours
Travelling time of Q = 32/2 x 3 = 48 hours
Distance between A and D = 32 x 90 = 2880 km
Ratio of distance between, AB, BC, and CD respectively = 2:3:1
Distance between AB = 2/6 x 2880 = 960 km
Distance between BC = 3/6 x 2880 = 1440 km
Distance between CD = 1/6 x 2880 = 480 km
According to question,
Required distance = 2880 km
Hence answer is option D
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
P and Q started from point A, at same time and running towards point D. Point A, B, C and D are collinear (same order). Time taken by P to travel distance from B to C is 6 hours more than that of Q, while time taken by P to travel from A to B and from C to D respectively is 8 hours and 14 hours less than that of Q. Distance between A and B is twice as that of distance between C and D, while distance between B and C is thrice of distance between C and D. Average speed of P for overall journey is 90 km/h while of Q is 60 km/h.
Find total time taken by Q to travel distance from point A to point B.
Ratio of time taken = 2:3
Difference between travelling time of P and Q = 8 + 14 – 6 = 16 hours
So, travelling time of P = [2 / (3 – 2)] x 16 = 32 hours
Travelling time of Q = 32/2 x 3 = 48 hours
Distance between A and D = 32 x 90 = 2880 km
Ratio of distance between, AB, BC, and CD respectively = 2:3:1
Distance between AB = 2/6 x 2880 = 960 km
Distance between BC = 3/6 x 2880 = 1440 km
Distance between CD = 1/6 x 2880 = 480 km
Required time = 48 hours
Hence answer is option A
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
P and Q started from point A, at same time and running towards point D. Point A, B, C and D are collinear (same order). Time taken by P to travel distance from B to C is 6 hours more than that of Q, while time taken by P to travel from A to B and from C to D respectively is 8 hours and 14 hours less than that of Q. Distance between A and B is twice as that of distance between C and D, while distance between B and C is thrice of distance between C and D. Average speed of P for overall journey is 90 km/h while of Q is 60 km/h.
If speed of P for covering BC is 100% more than that while covering CD, and time taken to travel CD is 4 hours less than that of BC. Find the speed of P while travelling from BC?
Ratio of time taken = 2:3
Difference between travelling time of P and Q = 8 + 14 – 6 = 16 hours
So, travelling time of P = [2 / (3 – 2)] x 16 = 32 hours
Travelling time of Q = 32/2 x 3 = 48 hours
Distance between A and D = 32 x 90 = 2880 km
Ratio of distance between, AB, BC, and CD respectively = 2:3:1
Distance between AB = 2/6 x 2880 = 960 km
Distance between BC = 3/6 x 2880 = 1440 km
Distance between CD = 1/6 x 2880 = 480 km
Ratio of speed of P while covering BC and CD = 2:1
Ratio of distance between BC and CD = 3:1
Ratio of time taken = 3/2: 1/1 = 3:2
Time taken by P to cover BC = 3/ (3 – 2) x 4 = 12 hours
Required speed = 1440/12 = 120 km/h
Direction: The following questions have three statements. Study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question.
If n is a three-digit positive integer, what is the sum of the digits of n?
Statements:
I. The hundredth digit of n is 3 times the unit digit.
II. n is divisible by 7.
III. The hundredth digit of n is 3 more than the tens digit.
Statement I and III:
The hundredth digit of n is 3 times the unit digit and the hundredth digit of n is 3 more than the tens digit.
⇒ x = 3z and x = y +3
Here we can observe that only 3 values of z are possible that are 1, 2 and 3
So, only three values of x are possible that are 3, 6 and 9 and three values of y are 0, 3 and 6
⇒ Three possible numbers are 301, 632 and 963
Statement II:
n is divisible by 7
Only 301 is divisible by 7 here.
So, 301 is the number and sum of digits = 4
∴ All three statements together are required to answer the question.
Hence, the correct option is (E).
In the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in all the three statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer –
What is the total number of students in a college?
I. In the college 25% of the students are between 17 to 22 years of age, and 40% of the remaining are above 28 years of age group.
II. Ratio between the students of age group between 17 to 22 years and between 22 to 28 years is 4 : 5.
III. The ratio of teachers to students in the college is 1 : 50
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
There is a gambling point “KAVANDERS” in East Delhi. There are five gamblers – Arun, Raman, Rajjan, Brijesh and Aashu. They play a game called SATTE PE SATTA, includes two persons at a time. A game between two persons is called BAAJI. Each person plays one BAAJI with other person. If a person won the BAAJI, the owner of ‘KAVANDERS’ gives Rs. 8000 to a winner. If no result of a BAAJI, (called BHANCHAK) so owner of the gambling point, gives equal amount to both persons. Each BAAJI is of Rs. 8000. There is only two BHANCHAK in all BAAJI played between these five persons.
NOTE: We DON’T promote any kind of ‘GAMBLING’. It is simply a question.
The line graph given below shows the earnings of some pairs. (Out of five given persons)
Q. If Aashu won BAAJI against Raman, then Brijesh got BHANCHAK with _____.
Arun + Rajjan = 32000
Arun + Aashu = 44000
Arun + Brijesh = 40000
On adding all, we get
4 x Arun + Raman + Rajjan + Aashu + Brijesh = 48000 + 32000 + 44000 + 40000 = 164000………………… (1)
Each person plays one BAAJI with another person, total number of BAAJI = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10
In each BAAJI, Owner Spends Rs. 8000
So,
Arun + Raman + Rajjan + Brijesh + Aashu = 10 x 8000 = 80000………... (2)
On solving both equations, we get
3 x Earnings of Arun = 164000 – 80000
Earnings of Arun = 84000/3 = 28000
So, Arun won three BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK (3 x 8000 + 4000)
Earnings of Rajjan = 32000 – 28000 = 4000
So, no BAAJI won by Rajjan and there is one BHANCHAK.
Earning of Raman = 48000 – 28000 = 20000
So, Raman won two BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK.
Earnings of Aashu = 44000 – 28000 = 16000
So, Aashu won 2 BAAJI.
Earnings of Brijesh = 40000 – 28000 = 12000
So, Brijesh won One BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK.
If there is a BHANCHAK between Arun and Rajjan, and another BHANCHAK between Raman and Brijesh.
If there is BHANCHAK Between Arun and Raman, and another BHANCHAK between Brijesh and Rajjan
If there is a BHANCHAK between Arun and Brijesh, and another BHANCHAK between Raman and Rajjan.
According to Question,
We have the following possibility
So, Brijesh played BHANCHAK with Rajjan.
Hence answer is option B
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
There is a gambling point “KAVANDERS” in East Delhi. There are five gamblers – Arun, Raman, Rajjan, Brijesh and Aashu. They play a game called SATTE PE SATTA, includes two persons at a time. A game between two persons is called BAAJI. Each person plays one BAAJI with other person. If a person won the BAAJI, the owner of ‘KAVANDERS’ gives Rs. 8000 to a winner. If no result of a BAAJI, (called BHANCHAK) so owner of the gambling point, gives equal amount to both persons. Each BAAJI is of Rs. 8000. There is only two BHANCHAK in all BAAJI played between these five persons.
NOTE: We DON’T promote any kind of ‘GAMBLING’. It is simply a question.
The line graph given below shows the earnings of some pairs. (Out of five given persons)
Arun + Rajjan = 32000
Arun + Aashu = 44000
Arun + Brijesh = 40000
On adding all, we get
4 x Arun + Raman + Rajjan + Aashu + Brijesh = 48000 + 32000 + 44000 + 40000 = 164000………………… (1)
Each person plays one BAAJI with another person, total number of BAAJI = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10
In each BAAJI, Owner Spends Rs. 8000
So,
Arun + Raman + Rajjan + Brijesh + Aashu = 10 x 8000 = 80000………... (2)
On solving both equations, we get
3 x Earnings of Arun = 164000 – 80000
Earnings of Arun = 84000/3 = 28000
So, Arun won three BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK (3 x 8000 + 4000)
Earnings of Rajjan = 32000 – 28000 = 4000
So, no BAAJI won by Rajjan and there is one BHANCHAK.
Earning of Raman = 48000 – 28000 = 20000
So, Raman won two BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK.
Earnings of Aashu = 44000 – 28000 = 16000
So, Aashu won 2 BAAJI.
Earnings of Brijesh = 40000 – 28000 = 12000
So, Brijesh won One BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK.
If there is a BHANCHAK between Arun and Rajjan, and another BHANCHAK between Raman and Brijesh.
If there is BHANCHAK Between Arun and Raman, and another BHANCHAK between Brijesh and Rajjan
If there is a BHANCHAK between Arun and Brijesh, and another BHANCHAK between Raman and Rajjan.
If Arun Won Against Brijesh, So Raman played BHANCHAK against Arun or Brijesh. So, it is not exactly determined.
Hence answer is option E
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.There is a gambling point “KAVANDERS” in East Delhi. There are five gamblers – Arun, Raman, Rajjan, Brijesh and Aashu. They play a game called SATTE PE SATTA, includes two persons at a time. A game between two persons is called BAAJI. Each person plays one BAAJI with other person. If a person won the BAAJI, the owner of ‘KAVANDERS’ gives Rs. 8000 to a winner. If no result of a BAAJI, (called BHANCHAK) so owner of the gambling point, gives equal amount to both persons. Each BAAJI is of Rs. 8000. There is only two BHANCHAK in all BAAJI played between these five persons.
NOTE: We DON’T promote any kind of ‘GAMBLING’. It is simply a question.
The line graph given below shows the earnings of some pairs. (Out of five given persons)
Arun + Rajjan = 32000
Arun + Aashu = 44000
Arun + Brijesh = 40000
On adding all, we get
4 x Arun + Raman + Rajjan + Aashu + Brijesh = 48000 + 32000 + 44000 + 40000 = 164000………………… (1)
Each person plays one BAAJI with another person, total number of BAAJI = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10
In each BAAJI, Owner Spends Rs. 8000
So,
Arun + Raman + Rajjan + Brijesh + Aashu = 10 x 8000 = 80000………... (2)
On solving both equations, we get
3 x Earnings of Arun = 164000 – 80000
Earnings of Arun = 84000/3 = 28000
So, Arun won three BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK (3 x 8000 + 4000)
Earnings of Rajjan = 32000 – 28000 = 4000
So, no BAAJI won by Rajjan and there is one BHANCHAK.
Earning of Raman = 48000 – 28000 = 20000
So, Raman won two BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK.
Earnings of Aashu = 44000 – 28000 = 16000
So, Aashu won 2 BAAJI.
Earnings of Brijesh = 40000 – 28000 = 12000
So, Brijesh won One BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK.
If there is a BHANCHAK between Arun and Rajjan, and another BHANCHAK between Raman and Brijesh.
If there is BHANCHAK Between Arun and Raman, and another BHANCHAK between Brijesh and Rajjan
If there is a BHANCHAK between Arun and Brijesh, and another BHANCHAK between Raman and Rajjan.
From the table, in all cases, Aashu won BAAJI against Rajjan
Hence answer is option C
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.There is a gambling point “KAVANDERS” in East Delhi. There are five gamblers – Arun, Raman, Rajjan, Brijesh and Aashu. They play a game called SATTE PE SATTA, includes two persons at a time. A game between two persons is called BAAJI. Each person plays one BAAJI with other person. If a person won the BAAJI, the owner of ‘KAVANDERS’ gives Rs. 8000 to a winner. If no result of a BAAJI, (called BHANCHAK) so owner of the gambling point, gives equal amount to both persons. Each BAAJI is of Rs. 8000. There is only two BHANCHAK in all BAAJI played between these five persons.
NOTE: We DON’T promote any kind of ‘GAMBLING’. It is simply a question.
The line graph given below shows the earnings of some pairs. (Out of five given persons)
Q. Find total earnings of Aashu.
Arun + Rajjan = 32000
Arun + Aashu = 44000
Arun + Brijesh = 40000
On adding all, we get
4 x Arun + Raman + Rajjan + Aashu + Brijesh = 48000 + 32000 + 44000 + 40000 = 164000………………… (1)
Each person plays one BAAJI with another person, total number of BAAJI = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10
In each BAAJI, Owner Spends Rs. 8000
So,
Arun + Raman + Rajjan + Brijesh + Aashu = 10 x 8000 = 80000………... (2)
On solving both equations, we get
3 x Earnings of Arun = 164000 – 80000
Earnings of Arun = 84000/3 = 28000
So, Arun won three BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK (3 x 8000 + 4000)
Earnings of Rajjan = 32000 – 28000 = 4000
So, no BAAJI won by Rajjan and there is one BHANCHAK.
Earning of Raman = 48000 – 28000 = 20000
So, Raman won two BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK.
Earnings of Aashu = 44000 – 28000 = 16000
So, Aashu won 2 BAAJI.
Earnings of Brijesh = 40000 – 28000 = 12000
So, Brijesh won One BAAJI and there is one BHANCHAK.
If there is a BHANCHAK between Arun and Rajjan, and another BHANCHAK between Raman and Brijesh.
If there is BHANCHAK Between Arun and Raman, and another BHANCHAK between Brijesh and Rajjan
If there is a BHANCHAK between Arun and Brijesh, and another BHANCHAK between Raman and Rajjan.
Total earnings of Aashu = Rs. 16000
Hence answer is option A
Direction: The following questions have three statements. Study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question.
A person borrowed some money at compound interest for 2 years. What will be the amount required to return after 2 years?
Statements:
I. The ratio of principal and the amount of simple interest of 2 years is 25 : 3.
II. If the amount was borrowed at simple interest, then after 5 years Rs 720 was required to pay as simple interest.
III. The rate of interest is 6% per annum.
P : (SI for 2 years) = 25 : 3
⇒ r = 6%
Statement III:
r = 6%
Statement II:
Using the value of r (Either from statement I or from statement III), we can get the value of P.
Then using P and r, we can get the amount required to return after 2 years at compound interest.
∴ Either statement I or III and statement II are required to answer the question.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
In the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in all the three statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer –
What will be the cost of painting the four walls of a room if the rate of painting is Rs. 20 per square metre?
I. Perimeter of the floor is 52 m.
II. Height of the wall of the room is 15 m.
III. Ratio of length and breadth of the room is 5 : 2.
Area of four walls = 2(l + b) × h
⇒ 52 × 15 = 780 m²
∴ Cost of painting the four walls = 780 × 20 = Rs. 15,600
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The man has three daughters- Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka. Priyanka is ..A….. years younger to Rakhi and Rakhi is younger to Vibha by the same. The man was planning to invest for her daughters in a monthly scheme. According to this scheme if the man invests for 5-10 years, he will get 2 times the money invested in total while if he invests for 10-15 years, he will get 3 times the total money invested. If the man invests for more than 15 years (maximum possible investment tenure is 18 years), he will get 3.5 times of total money invested. The plan starts from 1st January and ends on 31st December such that it matures on 31st December of the year when the girl turns 18. The man planned to invest in a ratio 25:32:20 for his daughters Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka respectively. Sum of the amount invested for Rakhi and Vibha is Rs 14250 per month. Difference in amount at maturity between Rakhi and Priyanka is …..B…..Vibha and Rakhi get 3 times of the total money invested while Priyanka gets 3.5 times of the money invested. Vibha plans to buy a house whose 40% payment will be through the amount that she gets at maturity. Cost of the house is Rs ……..C……At the time of investing, Rakhi’s age is less than 5 years, while Priyanka’s age was not 1 year. Maturity value that Priyanka gets is ……D…… less than what Vibha gets. If the total amount invested by the father on his three daughters was invested at once and he was to get 10% SI on the investment, the maturity value after 10 years of investment would be…..E……
Note:- Vibha age is not less than 5 Years.
Q. The annual budget of a company was equal to Rs E. Out of it, 15% was allotted for employee cost while 10% was allotted for capex. The company board proposed to increase the capex by 25% for next year while limitingthe employee expenses to 12% of annual budget for next year. The budget was also proposed to increase by 5%. What is the difference between the budget allocated for capex and employee expenses for next year?
Priyanka is as many years younger to Rakhi as Rakhi is younger to Vibha. Thus, Vibha is eldest while Priyanka is youngest.
Vibha and Rakhi get3 times of the total money invested while Priyanka gets 3.5 times of the money invested. Thus, for Vibha and Rakhi the man must have invested for 10-15 years while for Priyanka the man must have invested for more than 15 years. Thus, maximum possible age for Vibha is 8 years and minimum possible age for Priyanka=2
Rakhi’s age is less than 5 years while Priyanka’s age was not 1 year.
If Vibha = 8, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka=0, not possible
Vibha =7, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka = 1, not possible
Vibha = 6, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka = 2. Possible case
Vibha = 5, Rakhi = 4, Priyanka = 3, not possible.
Thus, at the time of investing, Vibha’s age = 6 yrs, Rakhi’s age = 4 years and Priyanka’s age = 2 years
⇒ A = 2
The man planned to invest in a ratio 25:32:20 for his daughters Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka respectively. Sum of the amount invested for Rakhi and Vibha is Rs 14250 per month.
Let the amount invested per month for Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka be 25x, 32x and 20x respectively
⇒ 57x = 14250
⇒ x = 250
Investment for Rakhi = Rs 6250 per month (for 14 years)
Investment for Vibha = Rs 8000 per month (for 12 years)
Investment for Priyanka = Rs 5000 per month (for 16 years)
Total investment for Rakhi = Rs 6250*12*14 = Rs 1050000
Total investment for Vibha = Rs 8000*12*12 = Rs 1152000
Total investment for Priyanka = Rs 5000*12*16 = Rs 960000
Maturity Value for Rakhi = Rs 3150000
Maturity Value for Vibha = Rs 3456000
Maturity Value for Priyanka = Rs 3360000
⇒ B = Difference in maturity value for Rakhi and Priyanka = Rs 2,10,000
D = Difference in maturity value for Vibha and Priyanka = Rs 96000
Vibha’s maturity value is 40% of cost of house
⇒ C = Cost of house = Rs 3456000/0.4 = Rs 86,40,000
Total investment of the man for all his daughters = Rs 31,62,000
At 10% SI for 10 years, the money will get doubled at the end of 10th year
⇒ E = 2*3162000 = Rs 63,24,000
Annual budget of the company in present year = Rs E = Rs 6324000
Capex cost = 10% of Rs 6324000 = Rs 632400
Employee cost = 15% of Rs 6324000 = Rs 948600
Capex for next financial year = 1.25*Rs 632400 = Rs 790500
Budget for next financial year = 1.05*6324000 = Rs 6640200
Employee expenses in next financial year = 12% of Rs 6640200 = Rs 796824
Thus, the required difference = Rs 796824 - Rs 790500 = Rs 6324
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The man has three daughters- Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka. Priyanka is ..A….. years younger to Rakhi and Rakhi is younger to Vibha by the same. The man was planning to invest for her daughters in a monthly scheme. According to this scheme if the man invests for 5-10 years, he will get 2 times the money invested in total while if he invests for 10-15 years, he will get 3 times the total money invested. If the man invests for more than 15 years (maximum possible investment tenure is 18 years), he will get 3.5 times of total money invested. The plan starts from 1st January and ends on 31st December such that it matures on 31st December of the year when the girl turns 18. The man planned to invest in a ratio 25:32:20 for his daughters Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka respectively. Sum of the amount invested for Rakhi and Vibha is Rs 14250 per month. Difference in amount at maturity between Rakhi and Priyanka is …..B…..Vibha and Rakhi get 3 times of the total money invested while Priyanka gets 3.5 times of the money invested. Vibha plans to buy a house whose 40% payment will be through the amount that she gets at maturity. Cost of the house is Rs ……..C……At the time of investing, Rakhi’s age is less than 5 years, while Priyanka’s age was not 1 year. Maturity value that Priyanka gets is ……D…… less than what Vibha gets. If the total amount invested by the father on his three daughters was invested at once and he was to get 10% SI on the investment, the maturity value after 10 years of investment would be…..E……
Note:- Vibha age is not less than 5 Years.
Q. After some years, Vibha planned to renovate her house. The painting cost 7.5% of the cost of the house. The labor cost is 20% of the cost of painting. Vibha gets a quote from another contractor who offers to renovate her house in 10% less than the 1st quote and labor cost is equal to 17.5% of the cost of painting. What is the difference of painting cost and labor cost with respect to the two quotes that Vibha gets?
Priyanka is as many years younger to Rakhi as Rakhi is younger to Vibha. Thus, Vibha is eldest while Priyanka is youngest.
Vibha and Rakhi get3 times of the total money invested while Priyanka gets 3.5 times of the money invested. Thus, for Vibha and Rakhi the man must have invested for 10-15 years while for Priyanka the man must have invested for more than 15 years. Thus, maximum possible age for Vibha is 8 years and minimum possible age for Priyanka=2
Rakhi’s age is less than 5 years while Priyanka’s age was not 1 year.
If Vibha = 8, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka=0, not possible
Vibha =7, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka = 1, not possible
Vibha = 6, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka = 2. Possible case
Vibha = 5, Rakhi = 4, Priyanka = 3, not possible.
Thus, at the time of investing, Vibha’s age = 6 yrs, Rakhi’s age = 4 years and Priyanka’s age = 2 years
⇒ A = 2
The man planned to invest in a ratio 25:32:20 for his daughters Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka respectively. Sum of the amount invested for Rakhi and Vibha is Rs 14250 per month.
Let the amount invested per month for Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka be 25x, 32x and 20x respectively
⇒ 57x = 14250
⇒ x = 250
Investment for Rakhi = Rs 6250 per month (for 14 years)
Investment for Vibha = Rs 8000 per month (for 12 years)
Investment for Priyanka = Rs 5000 per month (for 16 years)
Total investment for Rakhi = Rs 6250*12*14 = Rs 1050000
Total investment for Vibha = Rs 8000*12*12 = Rs 1152000
Total investment for Priyanka = Rs 5000*12*16 = Rs 960000
Maturity Value for Rakhi = Rs 3150000
Maturity Value for Vibha = Rs 3456000
Maturity Value for Priyanka = Rs 3360000
⇒ B = Difference in maturity value for Rakhi and Priyanka = Rs 2,10,000
D = Difference in maturity value for Vibha and Priyanka = Rs 96000
Vibha’s maturity value is 40% of cost of house
⇒ C = Cost of house = Rs 3456000/0.4 = Rs 86,40,000
Total investment of the man for all his daughters = Rs 31,62,000
At 10% SI for 10 years, the money will get doubled at the end of 10th year
⇒ E = 2*3162000 = Rs 63,24,000
Cost of house = 8640000
Painting cost w.r.t to 1st quote = 7.5% of 8640000 = Rs 648000
Painting cost w.r.t to 2nd quote = 0.9*648000 = Rs 583200
Difference between two costs = Rs 64800
Now, labor cost w.r.t to 1st quote = 20% of Rs 648000 = Rs 129600
Labor cost w.r.t to 2nd quote = 17.5% of Rs 583200 = Rs 102060
Difference between the two labor costs = Rs 27540
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The man has three daughters- Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka. Priyanka is ..A….. years younger to Rakhi and Rakhi is younger to Vibha by the same. The man was planning to invest for her daughters in a monthly scheme. According to this scheme if the man invests for 5-10 years, he will get 2 times the money invested in total while if he invests for 10-15 years, he will get 3 times the total money invested. If the man invests for more than 15 years (maximum possible investment tenure is 18 years), he will get 3.5 times of total money invested. The plan starts from 1st January and ends on 31st December such that it matures on 31st December of the year when the girl turns 18. The man planned to invest in a ratio 25:32:20 for his daughters Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka respectively. Sum of the amount invested for Rakhi and Vibha is Rs 14250 per month. Difference in amount at maturity between Rakhi and Priyanka is …..B…..Vibha and Rakhi get 3 times of the total money invested while Priyanka gets 3.5 times of the money invested. Vibha plans to buy a house whose 40% payment will be through the amount that she gets at maturity. Cost of the house is Rs ……..C……At the time of investing, Rakhi’s age is less than 5 years, while Priyanka’s age was not 1 year. Maturity value that Priyanka gets is ……D…… less than what Vibha gets. If the total amount invested by the father on his three daughters was invested at once and he was to get 10% SI on the investment, the maturity value after 10 years of investment would be…..E……
Note:- Vibha age is not less than 5 Years.
Q. Three friends started a business and invested money in ratio (A+3):(A+2):(2A+3) such that the total money invested in the partnership is 3B+4D. At the end of year, the business generated a profit of Rs 64576. The third friend pulled out his capital and profits both at the end of the 1st year and invested the money in a scheme with 10% annual return (compounded yearly). What is the capital with the third friend at the end of 3rd year?
Priyanka is as many years younger to Rakhi as Rakhi is younger to Vibha. Thus, Vibha is eldest while Priyanka is youngest.
Vibha and Rakhi get3 times of the total money invested while Priyanka gets 3.5 times of the money invested. Thus, for Vibha and Rakhi the man must have invested for 10-15 years while for Priyanka the man must have invested for more than 15 years. Thus, maximum possible age for Vibha is 8 years and minimum possible age for Priyanka=2
Rakhi’s age is less than 5 years while Priyanka’s age was not 1 year.
If Vibha = 8, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka=0, not possible
Vibha =7, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka = 1, not possible
Vibha = 6, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka = 2. Possible case
Vibha = 5, Rakhi = 4, Priyanka = 3, not possible.
Thus, at the time of investing, Vibha’s age = 6 yrs, Rakhi’s age = 4 years and Priyanka’s age = 2 years
⇒ A = 2
The man planned to invest in a ratio 25:32:20 for his daughters Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka respectively. Sum of the amount invested for Rakhi and Vibha is Rs 14250 per month.
Let the amount invested per month for Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka be 25x, 32x and 20x respectively
⇒ 57x = 14250
⇒ x = 250
Investment for Rakhi = Rs 6250 per month (for 14 years)
Investment for Vibha = Rs 8000 per month (for 12 years)
Investment for Priyanka = Rs 5000 per month (for 16 years)
Total investment for Rakhi = Rs 6250*12*14 = Rs 1050000
Total investment for Vibha = Rs 8000*12*12 = Rs 1152000
Total investment for Priyanka = Rs 5000*12*16 = Rs 960000
Maturity Value for Rakhi = Rs 3150000
Maturity Value for Vibha = Rs 3456000
Maturity Value for Priyanka = Rs 3360000
⇒ B = Difference in maturity value for Rakhi and Priyanka = Rs 2,10,000
D = Difference in maturity value for Vibha and Priyanka = Rs 96000
Vibha’s maturity value is 40% of cost of house
⇒ C = Cost of house = Rs 3456000/0.4 = Rs 86,40,000
Total investment of the man for all his daughters = Rs 31,62,000
At 10% SI for 10 years, the money will get doubled at the end of 10th year
⇒ E = 2*3162000 = Rs 63,24,000
Total money invested = 3B + 4D =3*210000+4*96000 = Rs 10,14,000
The friends invested money in ratio (A+3):(A+2):(2A+3) i.e.,5:4:7
Thus, share of 3rd friend in the invested capital = 7/16*1014000 = Rs 4,43,625
Total profit at end of the year = Rs 64576
Share of 3rd friend in total profit = 7/16*64576 = Rs 28252
⇒ Total capital with the 3rd friend at the end of 3rd year = 443625+28252 = Rs 471877
He invested the money at 10% returns compounded annually.
Thus, capital at the end of 3rd year = (1+10/100)2*471877 = Rs 570971
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The man has three daughters- Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka. Priyanka is ..A….. years younger to Rakhi and Rakhi is younger to Vibha by the same. The man was planning to invest for her daughters in a monthly scheme. According to this scheme if the man invests for 5-10 years, he will get 2 times the money invested in total while if he invests for 10-15 years, he will get 3 times the total money invested. If the man invests for more than 15 years (maximum possible investment tenure is 18 years), he will get 3.5 times of total money invested. The plan starts from 1st January and ends on 31st December such that it matures on 31st December of the year when the girl turns 18. The man planned to invest in a ratio 25:32:20 for his daughters Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka respectively. Sum of the amount invested for Rakhi and Vibha is Rs 14250 per month. Difference in amount at maturity between Rakhi and Priyanka is …..B…..Vibha and Rakhi get 3 times of the total money invested while Priyanka gets 3.5 times of the money invested. Vibha plans to buy a house whose 40% payment will be through the amount that she gets at maturity. Cost of the house is Rs ……..C……At the time of investing, Rakhi’s age is less than 5 years, while Priyanka’s age was not 1 year. Maturity value that Priyanka gets is ……D…… less than what Vibha gets. If the total amount invested by the father on his three daughters was invested at once and he was to get 10% SI on the investment, the maturity value after 10 years of investment would be…..E……
Note:- Vibha age is not less than 5 Years.
Q. 3A men and 4A-2 women can finish a work in 4.5 days while 5A-1 men and 4A+1 women can finish the work in 3 days. If one man and women alternately do the work, on which day the work will get finished?
Priyanka is as many years younger to Rakhi as Rakhi is younger to Vibha. Thus, Vibha is eldest while Priyanka is youngest.
Vibha and Rakhi get3 times of the total money invested while Priyanka gets 3.5 times of the money invested. Thus, for Vibha and Rakhi the man must have invested for 10-15 years while for Priyanka the man must have invested for more than 15 years. Thus, maximum possible age for Vibha is 8 years and minimum possible age for Priyanka=2
Rakhi’s age is less than 5 years while Priyanka’s age was not 1 year.
If Vibha = 8, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka=0, not possible
Vibha =7, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka = 1, not possible
Vibha = 6, Rakhi = 4 and Priyanka = 2. Possible case
Vibha = 5, Rakhi = 4, Priyanka = 3, not possible.
Thus, at the time of investing, Vibha’s age = 6 yrs, Rakhi’s age = 4 years and Priyanka’s age = 2 years
⇒ A = 2
The man planned to invest in a ratio 25:32:20 for his daughters Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka respectively. Sum of the amount invested for Rakhi and Vibha is Rs 14250 per month.
Let the amount invested per month for Rakhi, Vibha and Priyanka be 25x, 32x and 20x respectively
⇒ 57x = 14250
⇒ x = 250
Investment for Rakhi = Rs 6250 per month (for 14 years)
Investment for Vibha = Rs 8000 per month (for 12 years)
Investment for Priyanka = Rs 5000 per month (for 16 years)
Total investment for Rakhi = Rs 6250*12*14 = Rs 1050000
Total investment for Vibha = Rs 8000*12*12 = Rs 1152000
Total investment for Priyanka = Rs 5000*12*16 = Rs 960000
Maturity Value for Rakhi = Rs 3150000
Maturity Value for Vibha = Rs 3456000
Maturity Value for Priyanka = Rs 3360000
⇒ B = Difference in maturity value for Rakhi and Priyanka = Rs 2,10,000
D = Difference in maturity value for Vibha and Priyanka = Rs 96000
Vibha’s maturity value is 40% of cost of house
⇒ C = Cost of house = Rs 3456000/0.4 = Rs 86,40,000
Total investment of the man for all his daughters = Rs 31,62,000
At 10% SI for 10 years, the money will get doubled at the end of 10th year
⇒ E = 2*3162000 = Rs 63,24,000
Let a man and a woman finish the work in ‘a’ and ‘b’ days respectively.
3A men and 4A-2 women can finish a work in 4.5 days i.e., 6 men and 6 women can finish the work in 5 days
⇒ 6/a+6/b=1/4.5
⇒27/a+27/b=1
Now, 5A-1 men and 4A+1 women can finish the work in 3 days i.e., 9 men and 9 women can finish the work in 3 days.
⇒ 9/a+9/b=1/3
⇒ 27/a+27/b=1
The two equations are the same and hence the data present in the question can’t be used to solve it.
Direction: Given below are three quantities named 1, 2 and 3. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation among the three quantities. You should use the given data and knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answer. The options represent the relations among three quantities.
A. <
B. >
C. ≤
D. ≥
E. =
Quantity 1: Find the next term.
12, 20, 28, 44, 52, (?)
Quantity 2: Find out the wrong number.
18, 48, 110, 180, 294
Quantity 3: Find the next term.
22, 30, 39, 49, (?)
The above series is based on the given pattern,
4 × 3 = 12, 4 × 5 = 20, 4 × 7 = 28, 4 × 11 = 44, 4 × 13 = 52, 4 × 17 = 68
Quantity 2:
The series given is: 33 - 32, 43 - 42, 53 - 52, 63 - 62 and 73 - 72
= 18, 48, 100, 180, 294.
So, 110 is the wrong term.
Quantity 3:
The pattern followed is:
22 + 8 = 30
30 + 9 = 39
39 + 10 = 49
As we see, every time a digit is added to the previous digit and the difference between two subsequent added digits is of ‘1’.
Now the next will be:
49 + 11 = 60
So, Quantity 1 < Quantity 2 > Quantity 3
Hence, the correct option is (A).
In the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in all the three statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer –
What is the profit percent or loss percent incurred in the transaction?
I. 5% discount is given on the marked price.
II. Cost price is 10% more than the marked price.
III. Selling price of the article is Rs. 22,800
Let MP = 100 then CP = 110 & SP = 95
So loss% = (110-95)/95 × 100 = 15/95 × 100 = 300/19%
So answer can be determined by both (1) & (2).
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Four surfaces- a cube, a cuboid, a cylinder and a sphere are in consideration. The length of the cube is (2x-8) cm while its lateral surface area is 4(yz-4y) sq cm. The length and breadth of the cuboid is (x+y) cm and (y+z) cm respectively. Volume of the cuboid is (5xyz-688) cubic cm. The radius of the cylinder is x cm and its height is (z-3) cm. If it’s dimensions were reversed, the volume of the cylinder will become 3/2 times of its original volume. The radius of the sphere is (y+1) cm. If it was melted into smaller spheres of radius (x/2) cm, the number of spheres that would be formed is 27. The radius of both the smaller and larger spheres is more than 5 cm.
Q. The cuboid is cut into 22 parts along its breadth. What is the sum of the total surface area of the 22 parts?
⇒ Lateral surface area of the cube = 4a2 = 4(2x - 8)2 = 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x)
⇒ 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x) = 4y (z - 4) ---------- (1)
Radius of cylinder = x
Height of cylinder = (z - 3)
Volume of the cylinder = π * x2 *(z - 3)
If the dimensions were reversed = π*(z - 3)2*x
Thus, π*(z - 3)2*x = 3/2* π*x2*(z - 3)
⇒ z - 3 = 3/2*x
⇒ z = (3x/2) + 3
Now, radius of sphere = y + 1 cm
Volume of sphere = 4π/3*(y + 1)3
Radius of smaller sphere = x/2
Volume of smaller sphere = 4π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ 4π/3*(y + 1)3 = 27*4 π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ y + 1 = 3(x/2) = 3x/2
⇒ y = (3x/2) -1
From equation (1) we get
4(4x2 + 64-32x) = 4y (z - 4) = 4(3x/2 - 1)(3x/2 + 3 - 4) = (3x - 2)2
⇒ 16x2 + 256 - 128x = 9x2 + 4 - 12x
⇒ 7x2 - 116x + 252 = 0
⇒ (x - 14)(7x - 18) = 0
⇒ x = 14 or x = 18/7
So, z = 3x/2+3 = 24 or 48/7
And, y = 3x/2-1 = 20 or 20/7. But y + 1 = 27/7<5
Thus, y = 20, x = 14 and z = 24
Now, length of cuboid = x + y = 14 + 20 = 34 cm
Breadth of cuboid = y + z = 20 + 24 = 44 cm
Volume of cuboid = 5xyz - 688 = 5*14*20*24 - 688 = 32912 cubic cm
Height of cuboid = 32912/34/44 = 22cm
Thus,
For cube, edge = 2x - 8 = 2*14 - 8 = 20 cm
For cuboid, length = 34 cm, breadth = 44 cm, heigh t= 22 cm
For cylinder, radius=14 cm, height = 24 - 3 = 21 cm
For smaller sphere, radius = 7 cm
For larger sphere, radius = 21 cm
For all the 22 parts, we have
Length = 34 cm
Height = 22 cm
Breadth = 2 cm
Total surface area of one part =2(lb+bh+hl) =2(34*2+2*22+34*22) = 1720 sq cm
Thus, total surface area of the cuboid = 22*1720 sq cm = 37840 sq cm
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Four surfaces- a cube, a cuboid, a cylinder and a sphere are in consideration. The length of the cube is (2x-8) cm while its lateral surface area is 4(yz-4y) sq cm. The length and breadth of the cuboid is (x+y) cm and (y+z) cm respectively. Volume of the cuboid is (5xyz-688) cubic cm. The radius of the cylinder is x cm and its height is (z-3) cm. If it’s dimensions were reversed, the volume of the cylinder will become 3/2 times of its original volume. The radius of the sphere is (y+1) cm. If it was melted into smaller spheres of radius (x/2) cm, the number of spheres that would be formed is 27. The radius of both the smaller and larger spheres is more than 5 cm.
Q. What is the height of the cone of maximum volume that can be inscribed into the larger sphere?
⇒ Lateral surface area of the cube = 4a2 = 4(2x - 8)2 = 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x)
⇒ 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x) = 4y (z - 4) ---------- (1)
Radius of cylinder = x
Height of cylinder = (z - 3)
Volume of the cylinder = π * x2 *(z - 3)
If the dimensions were reversed = π*(z - 3)2*x
Thus, π*(z - 3)2*x = 3/2* π*x2*(z - 3)
⇒ z - 3 = 3/2*x
⇒ z = (3x/2) + 3
Now, radius of sphere = y + 1 cm
Volume of sphere = 4π/3*(y + 1)3
Radius of smaller sphere = x/2
Volume of smaller sphere = 4π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ 4π/3*(y + 1)3 = 27*4 π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ y + 1 = 3(x/2) = 3x/2
⇒ y = (3x/2) -1
From equation (1) we get
4(4x2 + 64-32x) = 4y (z - 4) = 4(3x/2 - 1)(3x/2 + 3 - 4) = (3x - 2)2
⇒ 16x2 + 256 - 128x = 9x2 + 4 - 12x
⇒ 7x2 - 116x + 252 = 0
⇒ (x - 14)(7x - 18) = 0
⇒ x = 14 or x = 18/7
So, z = 3x/2+3 = 24 or 48/7
And, y = 3x/2-1 = 20 or 20/7. But y + 1 = 27/7<5
Thus, y = 20, x = 14 and z = 24
Now, length of cuboid = x + y = 14 + 20 = 34 cm
Breadth of cuboid = y + z = 20 + 24 = 44 cm
Volume of cuboid = 5xyz - 688 = 5*14*20*24 - 688 = 32912 cubic cm
Height of cuboid = 32912/34/44 = 22cm
Thus,
For cube, edge = 2x - 8 = 2*14 - 8 = 20 cm
For cuboid, length = 34 cm, breadth = 44 cm, heigh t= 22 cm
For cylinder, radius=14 cm, height = 24 - 3 = 21 cm
For smaller sphere, radius = 7 cm
For larger sphere, radius = 21 cm
The cone of maximum area will be in the form of an equilateral triangle. The ratio of height of the cone with the radius of the sphere is 4:3.
Radius of sphere = 21 cm
⇒ Height of the cone of maximum volume = 4/3*21 = 28 cm
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Four surfaces- a cube, a cuboid, a cylinder and a sphere are in consideration. The length of the cube is (2x-8) cm while its lateral surface area is 4(yz-4y) sq cm. The length and breadth of the cuboid is (x+y) cm and (y+z) cm respectively. Volume of the cuboid is (5xyz-688) cubic cm. The radius of the cylinder is x cm and its height is (z-3) cm. If it’s dimensions were reversed, the volume of the cylinder will become 3/2 times of its original volume. The radius of the sphere is (y+1) cm. If it was melted into smaller spheres of radius (x/2) cm, the number of spheres that would be formed is 27. The radius of both the smaller and larger spheres is more than 5 cm.
Q. Which of the following surfaces have maximum total surface area?
⇒ Lateral surface area of the cube = 4a2 = 4(2x - 8)2 = 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x)
⇒ 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x) = 4y (z - 4) ---------- (1)
Radius of cylinder = x
Height of cylinder = (z - 3)
Volume of the cylinder = π * x2 *(z - 3)
If the dimensions were reversed = π*(z - 3)2*x
Thus, π*(z - 3)2*x = 3/2* π*x2*(z - 3)
⇒ z - 3 = 3/2*x
⇒ z = (3x/2) + 3
Now, radius of sphere = y + 1 cm
Volume of sphere = 4π/3*(y + 1)3
Radius of smaller sphere = x/2
Volume of smaller sphere = 4π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ 4π/3*(y + 1)3 = 27*4 π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ y + 1 = 3(x/2) = 3x/2
⇒ y = (3x/2) -1
From equation (1) we get
4(4x2 + 64-32x) = 4y (z - 4) = 4(3x/2 - 1)(3x/2 + 3 - 4) = (3x - 2)2
⇒ 16x2 + 256 - 128x = 9x2 + 4 - 12x
⇒ 7x2 - 116x + 252 = 0
⇒ (x - 14)(7x - 18) = 0
⇒ x = 14 or x = 18/7
So, z = 3x/2+3 = 24 or 48/7
And, y = 3x/2-1 = 20 or 20/7. But y + 1 = 27/7<5
Thus, y = 20, x = 14 and z = 24
Now, length of cuboid = x + y = 14 + 20 = 34 cm
Breadth of cuboid = y + z = 20 + 24 = 44 cm
Volume of cuboid = 5xyz - 688 = 5*14*20*24 - 688 = 32912 cubic cm
Height of cuboid = 32912/34/44 = 22cm
Thus,
For cube, edge = 2x - 8 = 2*14 - 8 = 20 cm
For cuboid, length = 34 cm, breadth = 44 cm, heigh t= 22 cm
For cylinder, radius=14 cm, height = 24 - 3 = 21 cm
For smaller sphere, radius = 7 cm
For larger sphere, radius = 21 cm
For A, we have
Lateral surface area of the surface = xy + 3x + z2 + 12y + 62
= 14*20 + 3*14 + 242 + 12*20 + 62 =1200
⇒ 4*area of base = 1200
⇒ Area of base = 300 sq cm
⇒ Total surface area of the cube=6*area of base=6*300=1800 sq cm
For B, we have
Radius of hemisphere = (x+y+z+5)/3= (14+20+24+5)/3 = 21 cm
Total surface area of the hemisphere=3 π*21*21 = 4158 sq cm
For C, we have
Radius of the cone= y2/(2x-12)=20*20/(28-12) = 25 cm
Height of the cone = z + 1 = 25 cm
⇒ Slant height of the cone=√(252 +252) = 25√2 cm
Total Surface area of the cone = π*radius2 + π*radius*slant height = π*252+ π*25*25√2 = 1964.28+2777.919 = 4742.204 sq cm
For D, we have
Radius of cylinder = 3x - z = 3*14 - 24 = 18 cm
Volume of the cylinder = z3 + y3 - 440 = 243 + 203 - 440 = 21384 cubic cm
Area of base = π*18*18 = 324 π sq cm
Height of the cylinder = Volume of the cylinder/Area of base = 21384/324 π = 21 cm
⇒ Total surface area of the cylinder = 2*area of base +2 π*radius*height = 2 π*182 + 2 π*18*21 = 2036.57 + 2376 = 4412.57 sq cm
Thus, total surface area of the cone is maximum
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Four surfaces- a cube, a cuboid, a cylinder and a sphere are in consideration. The length of the cube is (2x-8) cm while its lateral surface area is 4(yz-4y) sq cm. The length and breadth of the cuboid is (x+y) cm and (y+z) cm respectively. Volume of the cuboid is (5xyz-688) cubic cm. The radius of the cylinder is x cm and its height is (z-3) cm. If it’s dimensions were reversed, the volume of the cylinder will become 3/2 times of its original volume. The radius of the sphere is (y+1) cm. If it was melted into smaller spheres of radius (x/2) cm, the number of spheres that would be formed is 27. The radius of both the smaller and larger spheres is more than 5 cm.
Q. What is the length of the rod of maximum length that can be inserted into the cube without disturbing its dimensions?
⇒ Lateral surface area of the cube = 4a2 = 4(2x - 8)2 = 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x)
⇒ 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x) = 4y (z - 4) ---------- (1)
Radius of cylinder = x
Height of cylinder = (z - 3)
Volume of the cylinder = π * x2 *(z - 3)
If the dimensions were reversed = π*(z - 3)2*x
Thus, π*(z - 3)2*x = 3/2* π*x2*(z - 3)
⇒ z - 3 = 3/2*x
⇒ z = (3x/2) + 3
Now, radius of sphere = y + 1 cm
Volume of sphere = 4π/3*(y + 1)3
Radius of smaller sphere = x/2
Volume of smaller sphere = 4π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ 4π/3*(y + 1)3 = 27*4 π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ y + 1 = 3(x/2) = 3x/2
⇒ y = (3x/2) -1
From equation (1) we get
4(4x2 + 64-32x) = 4y (z - 4) = 4(3x/2 - 1)(3x/2 + 3 - 4) = (3x - 2)2
⇒ 16x2 + 256 - 128x = 9x2 + 4 - 12x
⇒ 7x2 - 116x + 252 = 0
⇒ (x - 14)(7x - 18) = 0
⇒ x = 14 or x = 18/7
So, z = 3x/2+3 = 24 or 48/7
And, y = 3x/2-1 = 20 or 20/7. But y + 1 = 27/7<5
Thus, y = 20, x = 14 and z = 24
Now, length of cuboid = x + y = 14 + 20 = 34 cm
Breadth of cuboid = y + z = 20 + 24 = 44 cm
Volume of cuboid = 5xyz - 688 = 5*14*20*24 - 688 = 32912 cubic cm
Height of cuboid = 32912/34/44 = 22cm
Thus,
For cube, edge = 2x - 8 = 2*14 - 8 = 20 cm
For cuboid, length = 34 cm, breadth = 44 cm, heigh t= 22 cm
For cylinder, radius=14 cm, height = 24 - 3 = 21 cm
For smaller sphere, radius = 7 cm
For larger sphere, radius = 21 cm
Length of rod of maximum length that can be inserted = √3*edge length = 20√3 cm
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Four surfaces- a cube, a cuboid, a cylinder and a sphere are in consideration. The length of the cube is (2x-8) cm while its lateral surface area is 4(yz-4y) sq cm. The length and breadth of the cuboid is (x+y) cm and (y+z) cm respectively. Volume of the cuboid is (5xyz-688) cubic cm. The radius of the cylinder is x cm and its height is (z-3) cm. If it’s dimensions were reversed, the volume of the cylinder will become 3/2 times of its original volume. The radius of the sphere is (y+1) cm. If it was melted into smaller spheres of radius (x/2) cm, the number of spheres that would be formed is 27. The radius of both the smaller and larger spheres is more than 5 cm.
Q. A hemi-sphere of radius (2x-3) cm was melted into small bullets of radius x/10 cm and length y/125 cm. What is the maximum number of bullets that can be made?
⇒ Lateral surface area of the cube = 4a2 = 4(2x - 8)2 = 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x)
⇒ 4(4x2 + 64 - 32x) = 4y (z - 4) ---------- (1)
Radius of cylinder = x
Height of cylinder = (z - 3)
Volume of the cylinder = π * x2 *(z - 3)
If the dimensions were reversed = π*(z - 3)2*x
Thus, π*(z - 3)2*x = 3/2* π*x2*(z - 3)
⇒ z - 3 = 3/2*x
⇒ z = (3x/2) + 3
Now, radius of sphere = y + 1 cm
Volume of sphere = 4π/3*(y + 1)3
Radius of smaller sphere = x/2
Volume of smaller sphere = 4π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ 4π/3*(y + 1)3 = 27*4 π/3*(x/2)3
⇒ y + 1 = 3(x/2) = 3x/2
⇒ y = (3x/2) -1
From equation (1) we get
4(4x2 + 64-32x) = 4y (z - 4) = 4(3x/2 - 1)(3x/2 + 3 - 4) = (3x - 2)2
⇒ 16x2 + 256 - 128x = 9x2 + 4 - 12x
⇒ 7x2 - 116x + 252 = 0
⇒ (x - 14)(7x - 18) = 0
⇒ x = 14 or x = 18/7
So, z = 3x/2+3 = 24 or 48/7
And, y = 3x/2-1 = 20 or 20/7. But y + 1 = 27/7<5
Thus, y = 20, x = 14 and z = 24
Now, length of cuboid = x + y = 14 + 20 = 34 cm
Breadth of cuboid = y + z = 20 + 24 = 44 cm
Volume of cuboid = 5xyz - 688 = 5*14*20*24 - 688 = 32912 cubic cm
Height of cuboid = 32912/34/44 = 22cm
Thus,
For cube, edge = 2x - 8 = 2*14 - 8 = 20 cm
For cuboid, length = 34 cm, breadth = 44 cm, heigh t= 22 cm
For cylinder, radius=14 cm, height = 24 - 3 = 21 cm
For smaller sphere, radius = 7 cm
For larger sphere, radius = 21 cm
Radius of hemisphere = 2x - 3 = 2*14 - 3 = 25 cm
Volume of hemisphere = 2π/3*253 cubic cm
Radius of bullet=x/10 cm=14/10=1.4 cm
Length of bullet=y/125 cm=20/125 cm=0.16 cm
Volume of one smaller bullet=π*1.42*0.16 cubic cm
Number of bullets that can be made= (2π/3*253)/π*1.42*0.16=33216
Direction: Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
The following table shows the number of students in four classes and the percentage of students participating in dance and play.
Q. Find the ratio of students from class I who participated in Dance to students who participated in the play.
From class I participated in dance
From class I participated in play
Required ratio = 130 : 78 = 65 : 39
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
The following table shows the number of students in four classes and the percentage of students participating in dance and play.
Total students participated from class IV
Total students participated from class VIII
Required number = 220 + 140 = 360
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
The following table shows the number of students in four classes and the percentage of students participating in dance and play.
Q. Total students who do not participate in dance and play from class VIII and IV together are:
Students who not participated from class VIII = 400-(15%+20%) × 400
400 - 140 = 260
Students who not participated from class IV = 550-(25%+15%) × 550
Required number = 260+330 = 590
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
The following table shows the number of students in four classes and the percentage of students participating in dance and play.
Students participating in play and dance from class I
Students participating in play and dance from class VIII
Required percentage
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
The following table shows the number of students in four classes and the percentage of students participating in dance and play.
Students participating in dance from class VIII
Students participating in play from class I
Required percentage
Hence, the correct option is (B).
In the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three statements. You have to study the question along with the statement and decide the information given in which of the statements is necessary to answer the question.
What will be the compound interest earned on a sum in two years?
I. The simple interest on the same amount at the same rate of interest in two years is Rs. 800.
II. The amount becomes more than double at compound interest in 10 years.
III. The simple interest on the same amount at the same rate of interest in three years is Rs. 1,200.
SI for 1 year = Rs. 400
∴ 400 = P × R × 1/100
From this we cannot get the answer and also statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Study the following information carefully and answers the questions given below.
A competitive examination was conducted in the Delhi College yesterday. The number of students who have appeared in the exam in each classroom is observed to be always a multiple of ten.
Question papers are distributed from the Head-office to all the classrooms. The number of students taking the exam in some classrooms is known.
The following figure gives the information about the route through which the question papers are distributed to each classroom.
Q. If the number of students taking the exam in classroom VII A is 40 and some students did not come to take the exam. Then find the maximum number of question papers that could be left out after distributing the question papers to every student taking the exam?
= 450 – (90 + 60 + 80 + 40 + 40 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10)
= 450 – 360
= 90
Thus, the maximum number of question papers is = 90
Hence, the required answer is = 90.
Study the following information carefully and answers the questions given below.
A competitive examination was conducted in the Delhi College yesterday. The number of students who have appeared in the exam in each classroom is observed to be always a multiple of ten.
Question papers are distributed from the Head-office to all the classrooms. The number of students taking the exam in some classrooms is known.
The following figure gives the information about the route through which the question papers are distributed to each classroom.
Q. Find the maximum number of students in all the class together is how much percentage more or less than the minimum number of students in all the class together?
Then, we cannot find the solution of this question.
Hence, the required answers is = Cannot be determined.
Study the following information carefully and answers the questions given below.
A competitive examination was conducted in the Delhi College yesterday. The number of students who have appeared in the exam in each classroom is observed to be always a multiple of ten.
Question papers are distributed from the Head-office to all the classrooms. The number of students taking the exam in some classrooms is known.
The following figure gives the information about the route through which the question papers are distributed to each classroom.
Q. If the number of students in the classroom IX D is least possible, then find a minimum of how many students are there in classroom IV A such that the number of students in the classroom XI C and V C are equal and the number of students in the classroom VII A is 40?
Now, least possible number of students in IX D = 10
Thus, the total number of students in classes IV A, V C and XI C is,
= (3 × 150) – (90 + 60 + 80 + 40 + 40 + 10 + 10)
= 450 – 330
= 120
As the number of students in each class is a multiple of 10.
So, x is a multiple of 10 and 2x is a multiple of 20.
Now, the minimum number of students in class IV A will be when x = 50
Thus, the minimum number of students in IV A is,
= 120 – 100 = 20
Hence, the required answer is = 20.
Direction: The given caselet shows the statistics of India’s literacy rate according to the 2011 census. Study the caselet and answer the questions that follow.
The literacy rate is the basic and an important measure to indicate the development in a developing nation like India. It indicates the quality of life and the level of skill and awareness in the people of the nation. Higher level of literacy leads to awareness and improves the social and economic conditions of the country. The effective literacy rate in India is computed relating the population with 7 years of age and above, that can read and write with understanding, while the crude literacy rate is computed relating the total population of the country. According to the 2011 census of India, India’s literacy rate is reported as 74.04%, in which the female literacy rate is 65.46% and the male literacy rate is 82.14%. The adult literacy rate (above the age of 15 years) for males is 78.8%, while that of females is 59.3%. From the year 2001, the female literacy rate has increased by 22% and that of male has increased by 9%, indicating the narrowing of gender gap, thereby, providing an increment of 14% in the total literacy rate. Out of 35 states and union territories, only 3 states have a literacy rate higher than 90%, in which Kerala has the highest literacy rate of 94%, followed by Lakshadweep and Mizoram with a literacy rate of 91.8% and 91.3% respectively. 14 states have a literacy rate higher than 80%, while only 8 states have a literacy rate below 70%, with Bihar having the lowest literacy rate of 61.8%. The highest male and the female literacy rate of 96.1% and 92.1% respectively is also reported from the state of Kerala.
Q. If the female literacy rate in 1951 was 8.86%, by how much percentage has it increased from 1951 to 2001?
Increment from 2001 = 22%
⇒ (100 + 22)% of (Female literacy rate in 2001) = female literacy rate in 2011
⇒ Female literacy rate in 2001 = 65.46/1.22 = 53.66%
Let the percentage increment from 1951 to 2001 be x%
⇒ (100 + x)% of (Female literacy rate in 1951) = female literacy rate in 2001
⇒ 100 + x = 6.055 × 100
⇒ x = 605.5 – 100 = 505.5%
∴ From 1951 to 2001, the female literacy rate has increased by 505.5%
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: The given caselet shows the statistics of India’s literacy rate according to the 2011 census. Study the caselet and answer the questions that follow.
The literacy rate is the basic and an important measure to indicate the development in a developing nation like India. It indicates the quality of life and the level of skill and awareness in the people of the nation. Higher level of literacy leads to awareness and improves the social and economic conditions of the country. The effective literacy rate in India is computed relating the population with 7 years of age and above, that can read and write with understanding, while the crude literacy rate is computed relating the total population of the country. According to the 2011 census of India, India’s literacy rate is reported as 74.04%, in which the female literacy rate is 65.46% and the male literacy rate is 82.14%. The adult literacy rate (above the age of 15 years) for males is 78.8%, while that of females is 59.3%. From the year 2001, the female literacy rate has increased by 22% and that of male has increased by 9%, indicating the narrowing of gender gap, thereby, providing an increment of 14% in the total literacy rate. Out of 35 states and union territories, only 3 states have a literacy rate higher than 90%, in which Kerala has the highest literacy rate of 94%, followed by Lakshadweep and Mizoram with a literacy rate of 91.8% and 91.3% respectively. 14 states have a literacy rate higher than 80%, while only 8 states have a literacy rate below 70%, with Bihar having the lowest literacy rate of 61.8%. The highest male and the female literacy rate of 96.1% and 92.1% respectively is also reported from the state of Kerala.
Q. How many states and union territories have a literacy rate above 80% but below 70%?
No. of states and union territories have a literacy rate below 70% = 8
No. of states and union territories have a literacy rate above 80% = 14
∴ No. of states and union territories with literacy rate above 70% & below 80% = 35 – 8 – 14 = 13
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: The given caselet shows the statistics of India’s literacy rate according to the 2011 census. Study the caselet and answer the questions that follow.
The literacy rate is the basic and an important measure to indicate the development in a developing nation like India. It indicates the quality of life and the level of skill and awareness in the people of the nation. Higher level of literacy leads to awareness and improves the social and economic conditions of the country. The effective literacy rate in India is computed relating the population with 7 years of age and above, that can read and write with understanding, while the crude literacy rate is computed relating the total population of the country. According to the 2011 census of India, India’s literacy rate is reported as 74.04%, in which the female literacy rate is 65.46% and the male literacy rate is 82.14%. The adult literacy rate (above the age of 15 years) for males is 78.8%, while that of females is 59.3%. From the year 2001, the female literacy rate has increased by 22% and that of male has increased by 9%, indicating the narrowing of gender gap, thereby, providing an increment of 14% in the total literacy rate. Out of 35 states and union territories, only 3 states have a literacy rate higher than 90%, in which Kerala has the highest literacy rate of 94%, followed by Lakshadweep and Mizoram with a literacy rate of 91.8% and 91.3% respectively. 14 states have a literacy rate higher than 80%, while only 8 states have a literacy rate below 70%, with Bihar having the lowest literacy rate of 61.8%. The highest male and the female literacy rate of 96.1% and 92.1% respectively is also reported from the state of Kerala.
Q. By how much percentage has the gender gap in the literacy rate declined from 2001 to 2011?
Increment from 2001 = 22%
⇒ (100 + 22)% of (Female literacy rate in 2001) = female literacy rate in 2011
⇒ Female literacy rate in 2001 = 65.46/1.22 = 53.66%
Male literacy rate in 2011 = 82.14%
Increment from 2001 = 9%
⇒ (100 + 9)% of (male literacy rate in 2001) = male literacy rate in 2011
⇒ Male literacy rate in 2001 = 82.14/1.09 = 75.36%
Gender gap in 2001 = 75.36 – 53.66 = 21.7
Gender gap in 2011 = 82.14 – 65.46 = 16.68
∴ Percentage decline in gender gap
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: The given caselet shows the statistics of India’s literacy rate according to the 2011 census. Study the caselet and answer the questions that follow.
The literacy rate is the basic and an important measure to indicate the development in a developing nation like India. It indicates the quality of life and the level of skill and awareness in the people of the nation. Higher level of literacy leads to awareness and improves the social and economic conditions of the country. The effective literacy rate in India is computed relating the population with 7 years of age and above, that can read and write with understanding, while the crude literacy rate is computed relating the total population of the country. According to the 2011 census of India, India’s literacy rate is reported as 74.04%, in which the female literacy rate is 65.46% and the male literacy rate is 82.14%. The adult literacy rate (above the age of 15 years) for males is 78.8%, while that of females is 59.3%. From the year 2001, the female literacy rate has increased by 22% and that of male has increased by 9%, indicating the narrowing of gender gap, thereby, providing an increment of 14% in the total literacy rate. Out of 35 states and union territories, only 3 states have a literacy rate higher than 90%, in which Kerala has the highest literacy rate of 94%, followed by Lakshadweep and Mizoram with a literacy rate of 91.8% and 91.3% respectively. 14 states have a literacy rate higher than 80%, while only 8 states have a literacy rate below 70%, with Bihar having the lowest literacy rate of 61.8%. The highest male and the female literacy rate of 96.1% and 92.1% respectively is also reported from the state of Kerala.
Q. If 29% of the total population of India constitutes of children below 7 years of age, find the crude literacy rate of India?
% of population above 7 years of age = 100 – 29 = 71%
Literate population of India = 74.04% of 71% of x = 0.5256x
∴ Literacy rate relating to total population
Hence, the correct option is (C).
What is the theme of World AIDS Day2021, observed every year on December 1?
AIDS stands for Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome.
Also termed as HIV or the Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
The theme of World AIDS Day 2021 is: ‘End inequalities. End AIDS. End pandemics’.
It was first observed in 1988.
Which of the following is the most popular game of Punjab?
A wide range of sports and games are played by Punjabis, ranging from modern games such as hockey and cricket, to more traditional games such as Kabaddi, Kushtian, and Khuddo Khoondi (similar to hockey).
There are over 100 traditional Punjab games and sports.
Kabaddi is a sport of contact team played between two seven-player teams each.
The goal of the game is for a single player on offense, referred to as a raider, to run into the half of a court of the opposing team, tag out as many of their defenders as possible, and return to their own half of the court, all without being tackled and in a single breath by the defenders.
The raider is tagged with points, while the winning team wins a point for stopping the raider.
If they are tagged or tackled, players are taken out of the game but are brought back in from a tag or tackle for each point scored by their side..
Hence, the correct option is (B).
The Ladakh Union Territory administration announced _____________ as its state animal.
Which among the following University would offer RajibGoyal Prize for the ‘Young Scientists’?
Rajneesh Mishra, IIT, Indore, KM Sureshan, IISER, Thiruvananthapuram, Rajeev Varshney, ICRISAT Hyderabad, and Suman Chakraborty, IIT, Kharagpur have been selected for the award.
The first recipient of the 'Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna' award is:
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna:
The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is India’s highest honour given for achievement in sports.
The award was instituted in the year 1991- 92 and was awarded by the Government of India.
Vishwanathan Anand was the first person to win the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
A 200 member contingent of Indian Army will participate in Exercise ZAPAD 2021, a Multi Nation exercise being held at in _________ from 3-16 September.
ZAPAD 2021 is one of the theatre level exercises of Russian Armed Forces and will focus primarily on operations against terrorists. Over a dozen countries from Eurasian and South Asian Region will participate in this signature event.
Recently Pawan Kumar has been taken over as the Director of Indraprastha Gas Ltd. He replaced whom among the following?
Kumar has taken over the position from AmitGarg, who has been repatriated to his parent organization BPCL to head the new vertical of renewable energy.
IGL is a joint venture of GAIL (India) Ltd and Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd (BPCL) along with the Government of National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
The Dalai Lama is the exiled leader of which Chinese province, living in India?
He is known as Gyalwa Rinpoche to the Tibetan people, he is the current Dalai Lama, the highest spiritual leader of Tibet, and the retired political leader of Tibet.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Which bank has opened a floating ATM on a Houseboat at Dal Lake in Jammu and Kashmir’s Srinagar for the convenience of locals and tourists?
How many medals have been totally bagged by India at the Asian Archery Championships 2021 held in Dhaka?
India's recurve archery teams added two silver medals and a bronze on the final day of the Championships. India ended the week-long continental event with seven medals - one gold, four silvers, and two bronze.
India's recurve women‟s and men‟s teams settled for silver on 19 November 2021.
What is Amul’s rank in Rabobank’s 2021 Global Top 20 Dairy Companies list?
According to the list, France’s Lactalis topped the list, followed by Switzerland’s Nestle.
Bharat Dynamics Limited has signed an export contract with Airbus Defense and Space for the supply of the CounterMeasures Dispensing System. Where is the headquarters of Airbus Defense and space located?
Under the contract, BDL will supply its inhouse developed CMDS to Airbus.
The contract is valued at around USD 21 million
What is the name of the electronic spot platform launched by the Bombay Stock Exchange for agricultural commodities in December 2020?
The platform functions as a national-level, institutionalized, electronic, transparent commodity spot trading platform.
The platform commenced beta operations effective from December 11, 2020.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
BharatPe announced a strategic partnership with _________ under which the private lender will act as the acquiring bank for BharatPe’s point of sale (PoS) business BharatSwipe.
This association will help BharatPe enhance the merchant experience by leveraging best-in-class technology platform offered by Axis Bank.
A book titled, “Not just cricket: A Reporters Journey’’ has authored by Pradeep Magazine. This book is published by Which among the following Publisher of India?
With which of the following countries will the United Nations co-host a global climate summit on December 12, 2020, the fifth anniversary of the landmark Paris Agreement?
UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres and the UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson will co-host the event.
The summit is intended to increase momentum ahead of the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP 26) to be held in Glasgow in November 2021.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
In September 2021, the New Development Bank (NDB) set up by the BRICS group of nations has admitted the United Arab Emirates, Uruguay and _________ as the first batch of new members as part of its expansion drive.
Recently which among the following organisation has published its ‘Statement of Commitment to Support Greening India’s Financial System - NGFS?
RBI HQ : Mumbai
Which state celebrated its 86th statehood day on 1 April 2021?
The day is also known as Utkal Diwas.
It was on this day in 1936 that the state came into existence.
A number of programs were organized across the state to mark the occasion.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Who has taken charge as the new Director General (DG) of the Border Security Force (BSF)?
Pankaj Singh, a 1988-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of the Rajasthan cadre, will take over as the chief of the BSF on August 31. He is at present posted as special director general at the BSF headquarters in Delhi.
Landsat 9, a joint mission of NASA and US Geological Survey has recently collected first light images of which of the following planets?
The images show remote coastal islands and inlets of the Kimberley region of Western Australia, Glaciers high in the Himalayas, white sands of Pensacola Beach, etc.
All the images provide a preview of how the mission will help people manage vital natural resources.
In October 2020, NTPC Ltd has signed an agreement with which of the following for a loan of ₹ 3,500 crores?
Under the foreign currency loan agreement, JBIC will provide 60% of the loan amount and the balance will be covered by other commercial banks, Sumitomo Mitsui Banking Corporation, Bank of Yokohama, San-In Godo Bank, Joyo Bank, and Nanto Bank, that are under JBIC guarantee.
JBIC is a Japanese public financial institution and export credit agency that was created on October 1, 1999, through the merger of the Japan Export-Import Bank and the Overseas Economic Cooperation Fund.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Reserve Bank of India will set up a committee to scrutinize applications and give recommendations on New Umbrella Entity (NUE) licenses. The 5 member committee will be headed by __________.
Name the West Indies player who has announced his retirement from international cricket in November 2021?
Bravo played in 90 T20 matches for the West Indies since making his debut against New Zealand at Auckland in 2006.
He scored 1,245 runs at an average of 22.23 and a strike rate of 115.38. He was part of the West Indies teams that won T20 World Cup in 2012 and 2016
Various loans offered by Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFC) and Micro Finance Institutes (MFI) are expected to be cheaper from 1 April 2021. It has been lowered by how many basis points?
It has been lowered by 15% basis points (0.15%).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
What was the theme of International Day of Charity 2021?
Theme 2021: Global Solidarity to Eradicate Poverty
National Legal Services Authority in collaboration with which organisation has launched a pan-India legal awareness Programme on October 31?
The programme "Empowerment of Women∙ through Legal Awareness" was launched in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
It will impart practical knowledge about legal rights and remedies provided under various women-related laws.
The number of players in a team in the 'Kabaddi' game are:
It is played across the country and is the official game in the states of Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Telangana, and Maharashtra.
In the kabaddi game, each side has 7 players when the game starts.
There will be 5 substitutes for each side as well.
The games in Kabaddi are 40 minutes long.
Each side gets alternating turns to send any one player to the opponent’s side. This player is called the raider and each player on the opposing team is called a defender.
The two teams alternate between raiding and defending for two halves of twenty minutes each (with a five-minute break between halves and newly introduced small timeouts for teams are used to generate advertisement revenue).
After halftime, the two teams switch sides of the court.
The Lobby is the area of the court which is considered active only when contact has been made between the raider and a defender. Else, it is considered out of bounds for both raider and the defenders.
The team with the most points at the end of the game wins.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
_____ State government declared 500 sq.km of the biodiversity-rich waters in the Palk Bay as India’s first dugong conservation reserve.
About Dugong: Dugong is the only herbivorous marine mammal on earth that feeds exclusively on seagrass. It consumes 40kg of seagrass daily and helps in the growth of fresh vegetation. In the absence of dugongs, seagrass will grow densely and fish will not come to lay eggs. In India, dugongs are found in Palk Bay, Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu, Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat and Andaman and Nicobar islands. Dugongs generally inhabit shallow waters.
Which state/UT has recently observed dPalrNgamDuston, to celebrate its glory on 31 October 2021?
Leh celebrated the foundation day with LadakhdPalrNgamDuston.
LadakhdPalrNgamDuston is being observed in Leh for the last six years to celebrate the Glory of Leh-Ladakh.
Lt Governor RK Mathur presented LadakhdPalrNgamDuston award to NawangJamyangChambaStanzin. He also released the logo of UT Ladakh Tourism
On 27 April 2021, which of the following released the revised guidelines for Ayurveda and Unani practitioners for COVID-19 patients in home isolation?
Previously on 29 January 2021, the Ministry of Ayush issued an advisory on how to protect oneself from COVID-19 and how to stay healthy.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Which country became the first in Asia to join the Plastics Pact initiative?
The Pact aims to tackle plastic pollution in the country, bringing together businesses from across the Indian plastics value chain to move towards a circular plastics system that aims to keep the material in the economy, and out of the environment.
The Mazagon Dock shipbuilders have delivered first Ship of Project _____Class Destroyer to Indian Navy on 28 October 2021.
The ship is constructed using Indigenous Steel DMR 249A and is amongst the largest Destroyers constructed in India, with an overall length of 164 meters and a displacement of over 7500 tons.
Earlier it was called as Planning Commission but on 1st January 2015, its name was changed to NITI Aayog.
Its headquarters is in New Delhi.
The Planning Commission was formed in 1950.
It is the governmental body in India that outlines five-year plans.
It is headed by the Prime Minister.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
_____________ has become the first and only Indian to get inducted as an Honorary Member of the International Astronomical Union (IAU).
He has been selected for his passionate promotion of astronomy in the Ladakh region, through his excellent astrophotography.
The Public sector banks would implement common staff accountability policies for loan accounts of up to ________crore excluding fraud accounts, turning into non-performing assets.
This is expected to ensure a common approach across state-owned banks in dealing with staff accountability for accounts becoming NPA and save employees for undue hardships.
He Was born on October 24, 1921, in Mysuru India.
died January 26, 2015.
R. K. Laxman published numerous short stories, essays, and travel articles
The Distorted Mirror (2003).
novels The Hotel Riviera (1988)
The Messenger (1993)
An autobiography, The Tunnel of Time (1998).
In 2005 he was awarded the Padma Vibhushan, India’s second-highest civilian honour.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
The Hurun Research Institute released the Hurun India Future Unicorn List 2021 according to which India is the _____ largest Unicorn ecosystem in the world.
This is a list of the most valuable private equity or venture capital-funded companies in India founded after 2000, ranked according to their latest funding round valuation. In order to enter the list, the start-up is required to have a value of US$200mn (Rs 1,500 crore).
Anshu Malik became the first Indian woman to win a silver medal. She is associated with which sport?
She is the first female player from India to claim a silver medal & also she is second from the country after Sushil Kumar to become a world champion.
Meanwhile, SaritaMor ( became the fifth Indian woman ) grabbed her maiden medal at the big stage by winning the 59kg bronze.
Before this, AlkaTomar (2006) GeetaPhogat (2012), BabitaPhogat (2012), PoojaDhanda (2018) and VineshPhogat (2019) had won a bronze each.
What is the maximum number of members in the Rajya Sabha?
The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members.
238 members representing the States and Union Territories, and 12 members nominated by the President. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
However, one-third of the members retire every second year and are replaced by newly elected members.
Each member is elected for a term of six years.
The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members.
Besides, there is also a panel of "Vice Chairmen" in the Rajya Sabha.
The senior-most minister, who is a member of Rajya Sabha, is appointed by the Prime Minister as Leader of the House.
The current chairman of the Rajya Sabha is Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu, who is the Vice President of India.
The maximum number of Rajya Sabha members belongs to Uttar Pradesh.
At present, the total number of members of the Rajya Sabha is 245(233+12), 233 elected, and 12 nominated.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Choose the correct combination to form meaningful sentences. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark option (E), i.e. “None of these” as your answer.
COLUMN I
A. The United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) held in Glasgow between
B. Governments did commit to reducing greenhouse gas emissions and put forth
C. The agenda of ending world hunger and malnutrition in all its forms by 2030
COLUMN II
D. October 31 and November 12, 2021 with a huge gathering, generating headlines, criticisms, and some commitments.
E. is facing formidable challenges as the climate crisis and hunger are linked inextricably.
F. a record-shattering U.S.$356 million in new support from contributing national and regional governments to protect the most vulnerable.
The United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) held in Glasgow between October 31 and November 12, 2021 with a huge gathering, generating headlines, criticisms, and some commitments.
Governments did commit to reducing greenhouse gas emissions and put forth a record-shattering U.S.$356 million in new support from contributing national and regional governments to protect the most vulnerable.
The agenda of ending world hunger and malnutrition in all its forms by 2030 is facing formidable challenges as the climate crisis and hunger are linked inextricably.
Direction: In the questions below, a word is given, followed by four statements. From the options, choose the one that provides the combination of statements that can be joined using the given word.
But
A. Chinese scientists suggested, on the basis of genetic analyses, that the scaly, ant-eating pangolin was the prime suspect.
B. Scientists assume that the pathogen jumped to people from an animal.
C. It has been seen with other coronaviruses.
D. Scientists have now examined those data — along with three other pangolin coronavirus genome studies released last week and say that although the animal is still a contender, the mystery is far from solved.
Observing the sentences logically, A and D could be joined with 'but' as they refer to the same context and the second clause contrasts with the first clause.
Sentences A and D can be joined as:
Chinese scientists suggested, on the basis of genetic analyses, that the scaly, ant-eating pangolin was the prime suspect but scientists have now examined those data — along with three other pangolin coronavirus genome studies released last week and say that although the animal is still a contender, the mystery is far from solved.
Thus the correct answer is AD only.
Hence, the correct option is (E).
Direction: In the questions below, a word is given, followed by four statements. From the options, choose the one that provides the combination of statements that can be joined using the given word.
And
A. Future surveillance efforts to identify disease threats from animal sources should look beyond specific animal groups.
B. Focus on regions of high biodiversity.
C. For instance, rodents were the most species-rich order of mammals in the study.
D. In another statistical analysis, the pair considered the importance of host biology compared with viral factors.
Observing the sentences logically, only A and B refer to the same context and can be joined using 'and'.
Sentence A and B after joining with 'and':
Future surveillance efforts to identify disease threats from animal sources should look beyond specific animal groups and focus on regions of high biodiversity.
Thus the correct answer is AB only.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ Phrases have been printed in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
India’s law governing motor vehicles and transport is archaic, lacking the provisions necessary to manage fast motorisation. The lacunae in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, require to be addressed to improve road safety, ensure orderly use of vehicles and expand public transport. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha last year, seeks to do this, but it has now run into opposition in the Rajya Sabha because of its perceived shift of power from the States to the Centre. The issue is not one of legislative competence; as the subject is in the Concurrent List, Parliament can make a law defining powers available to the States. Some State governments are concerned about the new provisions, Sections 66A and 88A, which will empower the Centre to form a National Transportation Policy through a process of consultation, and not concurrence. The changes will also enable Centrally-drafted schemes to be issued for national, multi-modal and inter-State movement of goods and passengers, for rural mobility and even last-mile connectivity. Since all this represents a new paradigm that would shake up the sector, several States have opposed the provisions as being anti-federal. Doing nothing, however, is no longer an option. The passenger transport sector operating within cities and providing inter-city services has grown amorphously, with vested interests exploiting the lack of transparency and regulatory bottlenecks. With a transparent system, professional new entrants can enter the sector. As things stand, State-run services have not kept pace with the times. Major investments made in the urban metro rail systems are yielding poor results in the absence of last-mile connectivity services.
Creating an equitable regulatory framework for the orderly growth of services is critical. This could be achieved through changes to the MV Act that set benchmarks for States. Enabling well-run bus services to operate across States with suitable permit charges is an imperative to meet the needs of a growing economy. Regulatory changes introduced in Europe over the past few years for bus services have fostered competition, reduced fares and increased services operating across European Union member-states. Other aspects of the proposed amendments deal with road safety. These, however, are likely to achieve little without strong enforcement by the States. The effort to curb institutionalised corruption at Regional Transport Offices by making it possible for dealers to directly register new vehicles, and enabling online applications for driving licences is welcome. Care is needed to see that other measures, such as sharply enhancing fines for rule violations, do not only result in greater harassment. It is the certainty of enforcement, zero tolerance and escalating penalties that will really work. There are some new provisions to harness technology, including CCTV monitoring, to improve road safety, but these cannot produce results when there is no professional accident investigation agency to determine best practices.
Q. "Motor vehicles Amendment Bill is being opposed in Rajya Sabha because according to the state the motor vehicle subject is not that of the centre government to deal with." This statement is:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ Phrases have been printed in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
India’s law governing motor vehicles and transport is archaic, lacking the provisions necessary to manage fast motorisation. The lacunae in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, require to be addressed to improve road safety, ensure orderly use of vehicles and expand public transport. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha last year, seeks to do this, but it has now run into opposition in the Rajya Sabha because of its perceived shift of power from the States to the Centre. The issue is not one of legislative competence; as the subject is in the Concurrent List, Parliament can make a law defining powers available to the States. Some State governments are concerned about the new provisions, Sections 66A and 88A, which will empower the Centre to form a National Transportation Policy through a process of consultation, and not concurrence. The changes will also enable Centrally-drafted schemes to be issued for national, multi-modal and inter-State movement of goods and passengers, for rural mobility and even last-mile connectivity. Since all this represents a new paradigm that would shake up the sector, several States have opposed the provisions as being anti-federal. Doing nothing, however, is no longer an option. The passenger transport sector operating within cities and providing inter-city services has grown amorphously, with vested interests exploiting the lack of transparency and regulatory bottlenecks. With a transparent system, professional new entrants can enter the sector. As things stand, State-run services have not kept pace with the times. Major investments made in the urban metro rail systems are yielding poor results in the absence of last-mile connectivity services.
Creating an equitable regulatory framework for the orderly growth of services is critical. This could be achieved through changes to the MV Act that set benchmarks for States. Enabling well-run bus services to operate across States with suitable permit charges is an imperative to meet the needs of a growing economy. Regulatory changes introduced in Europe over the past few years for bus services have fostered competition, reduced fares and increased services operating across European Union member-states. Other aspects of the proposed amendments deal with road safety. These, however, are likely to achieve little without strong enforcement by the States. The effort to curb institutionalised corruption at Regional Transport Offices by making it possible for dealers to directly register new vehicles, and enabling online applications for driving licences is welcome. Care is needed to see that other measures, such as sharply enhancing fines for rule violations, do not only result in greater harassment. It is the certainty of enforcement, zero tolerance and escalating penalties that will really work. There are some new provisions to harness technology, including CCTV monitoring, to improve road safety, but these cannot produce results when there is no professional accident investigation agency to determine best practices.
Q. Does the article imply that state government departments are more corrupt and ineffective without the supervision of the Centre Government?
It is not definitely true that intervening by the center will decrease the corruption, but since it is mentioned that doing nothing is no option, the author believes that it may help.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ Phrases have been printed in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
India’s law governing motor vehicles and transport is archaic, lacking the provisions necessary to manage fast motorisation. The lacunae in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, require to be addressed to improve road safety, ensure orderly use of vehicles and expand public transport. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha last year, seeks to do this, but it has now run into opposition in the Rajya Sabha because of its perceived shift of power from the States to the Centre. The issue is not one of legislative competence; as the subject is in the Concurrent List, Parliament can make a law defining powers available to the States. Some State governments are concerned about the new provisions, Sections 66A and 88A, which will empower the Centre to form a National Transportation Policy through a process of consultation, and not concurrence. The changes will also enable Centrally-drafted schemes to be issued for national, multi-modal and inter-State movement of goods and passengers, for rural mobility and even last-mile connectivity. Since all this represents a new paradigm that would shake up the sector, several States have opposed the provisions as being anti-federal. Doing nothing, however, is no longer an option. The passenger transport sector operating within cities and providing inter-city services has grown amorphously, with vested interests exploiting the lack of transparency and regulatory bottlenecks. With a transparent system, professional new entrants can enter the sector. As things stand, State-run services have not kept pace with the times. Major investments made in the urban metro rail systems are yielding poor results in the absence of last-mile connectivity services.
Creating an equitable regulatory framework for the orderly growth of services is critical. This could be achieved through changes to the MV Act that set benchmarks for States. Enabling well-run bus services to operate across States with suitable permit charges is an imperative to meet the needs of a growing economy. Regulatory changes introduced in Europe over the past few years for bus services have fostered competition, reduced fares and increased services operating across European Union member-states. Other aspects of the proposed amendments deal with road safety. These, however, are likely to achieve little without strong enforcement by the States. The effort to curb institutionalised corruption at Regional Transport Offices by making it possible for dealers to directly register new vehicles, and enabling online applications for driving licences is welcome. Care is needed to see that other measures, such as sharply enhancing fines for rule violations, do not only result in greater harassment. It is the certainty of enforcement, zero tolerance and escalating penalties that will really work. There are some new provisions to harness technology, including CCTV monitoring, to improve road safety, but these cannot produce results when there is no professional accident investigation agency to determine best practices.
Q. What all measures has the state government taken to remove the bottlenecks and ensure the safety of the passengers?
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ Phrases have been printed in underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
India’s law governing motor vehicles and transport is archaic, lacking the provisions necessary to manage fast motorisation. The lacunae in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, require to be addressed to improve road safety, ensure orderly use of vehicles and expand public transport. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha last year, seeks to do this, but it has now run into opposition in the Rajya Sabha because of its perceived shift of power from the States to the Centre. The issue is not one of legislative competence; as the subject is in the Concurrent List, Parliament can make a law defining powers available to the States. Some State governments are concerned about the new provisions, Sections 66A and 88A, which will empower the Centre to form a National Transportation Policy through a process of consultation, and not concurrence. The changes will also enable Centrally-drafted schemes to be issued for national, multi-modal and inter-State movement of goods and passengers, for rural mobility and even last-mile connectivity. Since all this represents a new paradigm that would shake up the sector, several States have opposed the provisions as being anti-federal. Doing nothing, however, is no longer an option. The passenger transport sector operating within cities and providing inter-city services has grown amorphously, with vested interests exploiting the lack of transparency and regulatory bottlenecks. With a transparent system, professional new entrants can enter the sector. As things stand, State-run services have not kept pace with the times. Major investments made in the urban metro rail systems are yielding poor results in the absence of last-mile connectivity services.
Creating an equitable regulatory framework for the orderly growth of services is critical. This could be achieved through changes to the MV Act that set benchmarks for States. Enabling well-run bus services to operate across States with suitable permit charges is an imperative to meet the needs of a growing economy. Regulatory changes introduced in Europe over the past few years for bus services have fostered competition, reduced fares and increased services operating across European Union member-states. Other aspects of the proposed amendments deal with road safety. These, however, are likely to achieve little without strong enforcement by the States. The effort to curb institutionalised corruption at Regional Transport Offices by making it possible for dealers to directly register new vehicles, and enabling online applications for driving licences is welcome. Care is needed to see that other measures, such as sharply enhancing fines for rule violations, do not only result in greater harassment. It is the certainty of enforcement, zero tolerance and escalating penalties that will really work. There are some new provisions to harness technology, including CCTV monitoring, to improve road safety, but these cannot produce results when there is no professional accident investigation agency to determine best practices.
Which of the following statements is/are definitely true according to the passage?
A. according to the new provisions of the motor vehicles Amendment Bill, the centre does not need to consult the states performing on national transportation policy
B. with the motor vehicles Amendment Bill the centre is not obligated to take the consent of the state while forming National transportation policy
C. the schemes formulated by the central government will be applicable for transportation of goods among States being carried out by any mode of transport