SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 5
155 Questions MCQ Test Mock Tests for Banking Exam and Past Year Papers | SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 5
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Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine students have secured the ranks from 1 to 9 in the same class test. They are standing on the ground at a certain distance. No two persons have secured the same rank and the persons in the alphabetical order are not consecutively ranked from 1 to 9.
Note: The distance between the two students is thrice the rank of the highest ranked person among them. For example, if P secured first rank and Q secured second rank, then the distance between them will be3m.
O is to the east of the one who secured the highest rank and north of the one who secured the second last rank. Q secured two ranks higher than the one who secured the second last rank and is to the west of him. The rank value of R is half of the rank value of Q and stands to the north of Q but to the southwest of O. The distance between Q and R is the same as the distance between R and T, who stands to the east of R. The direction of R with respect to Q is the same as the direction of P with respect to T. R holds the rank exactly between N and M, who stands to the west of P. At least four persons secured the ranks higher than M. The distance between M and S is the sum of the distance between PT and RQ. O doesn’t stand to the northeast of P. L secured immediately higher rank than S but immediately less than T.M is north of S.
Q. What is the approximate shortest distance between T and N and who among the following person holds the rank according to that value?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine students have secured the ranks from 1 to 9 in the same class test. They are standing on the ground at a certain distance. No two persons have secured the same rank and the persons in the alphabetical order are not consecutively ranked from 1 to 9.
Note: The distance between the two students is thrice the rank of the highest ranked person among them. For example, if P secured first rank and Q secured second rank, then the distance between them will be3m.
O is to the east of the one who secured the highest rank and north of the one who secured the second last rank. Q secured two ranks higher than the one who secured the second last rank and is to the west of him. The rank value of R is half of the rank value of Q and stands to the north of Q but to the southwest of O. The distance between Q and R is the same as the distance between R and T, who stands to the east of R. The direction of R with respect to Q is the same as the direction of P with respect to T. R holds the rank exactly between N and M, who stands to the west of P. At least four persons secured the ranks higher than M. The distance between M and S is the sum of the distance between PT and RQ. O doesn’t stand to the northeast of P. L secured immediately higher rank than S but immediately less than T.M is north of S.
Q. What is the distance between S and L?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine students have secured the ranks from 1 to 9 in the same class test. They are standing on the ground at a certain distance. No two persons have secured the same rank and the persons in the alphabetical order are not consecutively ranked from 1 to 9.
Note: The distance between the two students is thrice the rank of the highest ranked person among them. For example, if P secured first rank and Q secured second rank, then the distance between them will be3m.
O is to the east of the one who secured the highest rank and north of the one who secured the second last rank. Q secured two ranks higher than the one who secured the second last rank and is to the west of him. The rank value of R is half of the rank value of Q and stands to the north of Q but to the southwest of O. The distance between Q and R is the same as the distance between R and T, who stands to the east of R. The direction of R with respect to Q is the same as the direction of P with respect to T. R holds the rank exactly between N and M, who stands to the west of P. At least four persons secured the ranks higher than M. The distance between M and S is the sum of the distance between PT and RQ. O doesn’t stand to the northeast of P. L secured immediately higher rank than S but immediately less than T.M is north of S.
Q. Who among the following person secured the least rank?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Step 1: Consider the word “UNCOPYRIGHTABLE” in the reverse order.
Step 2: The unit digit of the cube of the numbers from 15 to 19 are obtained respectively and are placed after every three letters in the series from left to right in the same order.
Step 3: If a letter has the sum of the digits of its corresponding number in the English alphabet as an odd number, then place the following symbols ‘$, €, %, @’ respectively from left to right immediately before those letters in the same order. (Continue ‘$’ after ‘@’)
Step 4: From the left end, every five elements are reversed. For example, if ‘A 5 # G R…’ is the series, then it is written as ‘R G # 5 A’ and so on. If less than five elements are there at the end, then retain them in the same order.
Step 4 is the last and final step and the final alphanumeric symbol series. As per the steps given above, find out the final alphanumeric symbol series and answer the following questions given below.
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
Step 1: E L B A T H G I R Y P O C N U
Step 2: 153 – 3375, 163 – 4096, 173 – 4913, 183 – 5832, 193 – 6859 =>5, 6, 3, 2, 9.
E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U9
Step 3: E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U 9
$ E € L B 5 % A T H 6 @ G $ I € R 3 % Y @ P O 2 $ C € N % U 9
Step 4: B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Step 1: Consider the word “UNCOPYRIGHTABLE” in the reverse order.
Step 2: The unit digit of the cube of the numbers from 15 to 19 are obtained respectively and are placed after every three letters in the series from left to right in the same order.
Step 3: If a letter has the sum of the digits of its corresponding number in the English alphabet as an odd number, then place the following symbols ‘$, €, %, @’ respectively from left to right immediately before those letters in the same order. (Continue ‘$’ after ‘@’)
Step 4: From the left end, every five elements are reversed. For example, if ‘A 5 # G R…’ is the series, then it is written as ‘R G # 5 A’ and so on. If less than five elements are there at the end, then retain them in the same order.
Step 4 is the last and final step and the final alphanumeric symbol series. As per the steps given above, find out the final alphanumeric symbol series and answer the following questions given below.
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
Q. If all the vowels are deleted from the series, then which of the following element is fifteenth from the left end?
Step 1: E L B A T H G I R Y P O C N U
Step 2: 153 – 3375, 163 – 4096, 173 – 4913, 183 – 5832, 193 – 6859 =>5, 6, 3, 2, 9.
E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U9
Step 3: E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U 9
$ E € L B 5 % A T H 6 @ G $ I € R 3 % Y @ P O 2 $ C € N % U 9
Step 4: B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Step 1: Consider the word “UNCOPYRIGHTABLE” in the reverse order.
Step 2: The unit digit of the cube of the numbers from 15 to 19 are obtained respectively and are placed after every three letters in the series from left to right in the same order.
Step 3: If a letter has the sum of the digits of its corresponding number in the English alphabet as an odd number, then place the following symbols ‘$, €, %, @’ respectively from left to right immediately before those letters in the same order. (Continue ‘$’ after ‘@’)
Step 4: From the left end, every five elements are reversed. For example, if ‘A 5 # G R…’ is the series, then it is written as ‘R G # 5 A’ and so on. If less than five elements are there at the end, then retain them in the same order.
Step 4 is the last and final step and the final alphanumeric symbol series. As per the steps given above, find out the final alphanumeric symbol series and answer the following questions given below.
Q. How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
Step 1: E L B A T H G I R Y P O C N U
Step 2: 153 – 3375, 163 – 4096, 173 – 4913, 183 – 5832, 193 – 6859 =>5, 6, 3, 2, 9.
E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U9
Step 3: E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U 9
$ E € L B 5 % A T H 6 @ G $ I € R 3 % Y @ P O 2 $ C € N % U 9
Step 4: B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
An alphanumeric machine, when given an input, performs the following steps with certain logic. Apply the same concept for the given input and answer the questions given below.
Q. What will be the difference between the corresponding numbers of the letters according to alphabetical series in the last step of the given input?
Step 1: Obtain the sum of the corresponding numbers of each letter in the first and the fourth element and add all the numbers together. For example, 6(F) + 12(L) = 18, 13(M) + 25(Y) = 38, 18 + 38 = 56.
Step 2: For the first three elements, determine the corresponding letter for double the sum of the two digits. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 2 = 22, which is V. For the next three elements, determine the corresponding letter for triple the sum of the two digits. If the number is more than 26, then subtract that number with 26 and consider the resultant as the original number. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 3 = 33, then 33 - 26 = 7, which is ‘G’.
Step 3: Find the immediate next prime number of the letter which has the lowest corresponding number between the connected letters in the alphabetical series. From the first two letters, T has the lowest corresponding number (20) and the immediate next prime number is 23.
Step4: Determine the difference between the first two elements and consider the conjugate pair for the corresponding letter of the difference between the number. For example, 23-11=12, which denotes ‘L’ and its conjugate pair is ‘O’.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
An alphanumeric machine, when given an input, performs the following steps with certain logic. Apply the same concept for the given input and answer the questions given below.
Q. Which of the following letter is present in step 2 of the given input?
Step 1: Obtain the sum of the corresponding numbers of each letter in the first and the fourth element and add all the numbers together. For example, 6(F) + 12(L) = 18, 13(M) + 25(Y) = 38, 18 + 38 = 56.
Step 2: For the first three elements, determine the corresponding letter for double the sum of the two digits. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 2 = 22, which is V. For the next three elements, determine the corresponding letter for triple the sum of the two digits. If the number is more than 26, then subtract that number with 26 and consider the resultant as the original number. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 3 = 33, then 33 - 26 = 7, which is ‘G’.
Step 3: Find the immediate next prime number of the letter which has the lowest corresponding number between the connected letters in the alphabetical series. From the first two letters, T has the lowest corresponding number (20) and the immediate next prime number is 23.
Step4: Determine the difference between the first two elements and consider the conjugate pair for the corresponding letter of the difference between the number. For example, 23-11=12, which denotes ‘L’ and its conjugate pair is ‘O’.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
An alphanumeric machine, when given an input, performs the following steps with certain logic. Apply the same concept for the given input and answer the questions given below.
Q. What will be the sum of all the numbers in step 3 of the given input?
Step 1: Obtain the sum of the corresponding numbers of each letter in the first and the fourth element and add all the numbers together. For example, 6(F) + 12(L) = 18, 13(M) + 25(Y) = 38, 18 + 38 = 56.
Step 2: For the first three elements, determine the corresponding letter for double the sum of the two digits. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 2 = 22, which is V. For the next three elements, determine the corresponding letter for triple the sum of the two digits. If the number is more than 26, then subtract that number with 26 and consider the resultant as the original number. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 3 = 33, then 33 - 26 = 7, which is ‘G’.
Step 3: Find the immediate next prime number of the letter which has the lowest corresponding number between the connected letters in the alphabetical series. From the first two letters, T has the lowest corresponding number (20) and the immediate next prime number is 23.
Step4: Determine the difference between the first two elements and consider the conjugate pair for the corresponding letter of the difference between the number. For example, 23-11=12, which denotes ‘L’ and its conjugate pair is ‘O’.
While it may be common for commuters to push vehicles on roads after they break down, the same can’t be said for airplanes. However, believe it or not, a group of people did exactly that at an airport in Nepal. What can be concluded from this incident?
I. An airplane broke down at an airport in Nepal
II. It is a common practice to push airplanes in Nepal
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Statements:
I). The Government has formed a committee to check and revise the fees structure of the professional courses.
II). The parents of aspiring students seeking admission to professional courses had protested against the high fees charged by the professional institutes and the admission process was delayed considerably.
Statements:
I). The current slowdown of India’s economy was unprecedented in 70 years of independent India and called for immediate policy interventions in specific industries.
II). Industries are expected to shed close to a million direct and indirect jobs due to economic slowdown.
Conclusions:
I). Clear action must be taken to stabilize the economy and get it back on the path of rapid growth.
II). Demonetization can be said to have contributed too much of the slowdown as the economy runs on cash and Demonetization led to the loss of jobs as well as incomes.
Statement: FASTags becomes mandatory for all vehicles from 15th December 2019.
Arguments:
I). One benefit of using FASTag you will notice while using the electronic system is you won’t have to wait for too long in the queue. Time is of the essence, and time is saved at both ends. Customers will feel comfortable and will be able to transact through the highway without any delay or overhead. This system will also reduce traffic snarls and slowdowns that are the primary cause of disturbance for everyone.
II). Since all the systems will be operated through an automated network, more of the process and the FASTag technology will depend on the network. It becomes gravely significant to keep the network servers up, the failure of which might cause a ruckus and difficulty in the smooth workflow. This, in turn, may also affect the customers and result in a massive loss to the government in terms of money.
If the second letter from the left end of all the words are taken after arranging the letters of each word in alphabetical order within the word, then which of the following options will have maximum number of vowels?
(b) Click, Death, Entry→ccikl, adeht, enrty→cdn
(c) Grand, Horse, Joint→adgnr, ehors, ijnot→dhj
(d) Least, Magic, Never→aelst, acgim, eenrv→ece
(e) Phone, Quite, Round→ehnop, eiqtu, dnoru→hin
Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Statement: The word scholarship brings a smile on the face of not only the student but also on the faces of parents because in case of scholarship the expenses related to college or school are paid by either school and college authorities or by the third party. Scholarships are intended to reward a student's academic achievement and educational progression.
Which of the following statements brings forward the problems in receiving a scholarship?
I: Scholarships have more stringent requirements in terms of career options, institutes covered under it, etc.
II: In scholarships, there are a limited number of seats which results in only a few students getting the benefit.
III: Scholarship is a boon for bright students who do not get sufficient financial support.
We need to find the statements which highlight the problems faced while receiving a scholarship.
The first statement discusses a problem faced in receiving a scholarship in the form of the stringent requirements which it places in front of students.
It is limited to certain institutes and certain courses only.
Thus, it is a possible problem faced in receiving a scholarship.
The second statement also mentions about the limited number of seats available for such scholarships due to which most of the deserving students miss the opportunity of availing it during the year of their admission.
Thus, it is also a possible problem faced in receiving scholarships.
The third option is an advantage of scholarships therefore it can never prove to be a problem in receiving scholarships.
Thus, it is not relevant to the question asked and thus incorrect.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Statement: Kam Air is not an airline the average backpacker would fly these days unless that backpack is owned by the United States military. Kam Air has only been in operation for a decade but has already experienced fatal accidents resulting in more than 100 passenger deaths, making it one of the most dangerous airlines in the world.
Which of the following assumptions hold true?
I: Kam Air is an inexpensive airline.
II: Kam Air is preferred by people all over the world but only citizens of the United States can travel through it.
III: Kam Air is one of the most unsafe airlines which people avoid travelling in.
No one will prefer travelling in such an airline.
Thus, option III holds true.
Option I is incorrect as no mention is made regarding the prices of Kam Airlines.
Thus, we cannot assume that it is an inexpensive airline.
Option II is completely the opposite of what is mentioned in the passage.
After learning the fact that this airline has reported more than 100 passenger deaths within a decade, it is impossible that people from all around the globe would prefer travelling in it.
Thus, it is incorrect.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Statement: Governments play a key role in facilitating the private sector – including social entrepreneurs – to address poverty alleviation by focusing on four main areas of responsibility: infrastructure, providing public services, facilitating job creation, and regulating markets.
Which of the following statements is/are a viable option for the government in its approach?
We need to find such statements which are a viable option for the government to proceed further in this direction.
The first option is convincing as it suggests the government to introduce news well-paid jobs for the unemployed ones.
At least some people will be benefited out of it which will, in turn, support the economy of the country.
Thus, it is the correct answer.
The second option is unrealistic as providing a food packet to every citizen of a nation is not possible.
Moreover, it is not a solution to curb poverty as well.
Therefore, it is incorrect.
The third option suggests increasing the funds on defence which will not be beneficial for fighting with poverty. Hence, only the first option is correct.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are certain types of coins. In every type there are different numbers of coins.
Type of a coin is given by a code. Codes are decided according to the number of coins in a particular type.
After finding the codes of the type of coins, the codes are arranged in ascending order such that first five codes are categorized in group X and the other 5 are categorized in group.
Q. If the coin code is 55 then what is the number of coins in that type of coin?
If number is odd,
Step 1 → multiply by 3
Step 2 → add 15
Step 3 → divide by 2
And,
If number is even,
Step 1 → divide by 2
Step 2 → multiply by 5
Step 3 → add 5
Now separating coins code in the group X and group Y.
Thus, if the coin code is 55 then then the number of coins in that type of coin is “20”.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are certain types of coins. In every type there are different numbers of coins.
Type of a coin is given by a code. Codes are decided according to the number of coins in a particular type.
After finding the codes of the type of coins, the codes are arranged in ascending order such that first five codes are categorized in group X and the other 5 are categorized in group.
What is the absolute difference of codes of highest number of coins in group X and lowest number of coins in group Y?
If number is odd,
Step 1 → multiply by 3
Step 2 → add 15
Step 3 → divide by 2
And,
If number is even,
Step 1 → divide by 2
Step 2 → multiply by 5
Step 3 → add 5
Now separating coins code in the group X and group Y.
Highest number of coins in group X is 45 and code of coin is 75.
Lowest number of coins in group Y is 44 and code of coin is 115.
Absolute difference = 115 – 75 = 40
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are certain types of coins. In every type there are different numbers of coins.
Type of a coin is given by a code. Codes are decided according to the number of coins in a particular type.
After finding the codes of the type of coins, the codes are arranged in ascending order such that first five codes are categorized in group X and the other 5 are categorized in group.
Q. In group Y, what are the numbers of coins, which represent the highest code?
If number is odd,
Step 1 → multiply by 3
Step 2 → add 15
Step 3 → divide by 2
And,
If number is even,
Step 1 → divide by 2
Step 2 → multiply by 5
Step 3 → add 5
Now separating coins code in the group X and group Y.
Thus, in group Y, the number of coins is 82 which represents the highest code.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are certain types of coins. In every type there are different numbers of coins.
Type of a coin is given by a code. Codes are decided according to the number of coins in a particular type.
After finding the codes of the type of coins, the codes are arranged in ascending order such that first five codes are categorized in group X and the other 5 are categorized in group.
Q. What is the code of type of 51 coins?
If number is odd,
Step 1 → multiply by 3
Step 2 → add 15
Step 3 → divide by 2
And,
If number is even,
Step 1 → divide by 2
Step 2 → multiply by 5
Step 3 → add 5
Now separating coins code in the group X and group Y.
Here, 51 → Odd number
If number is odd,
Step 1 → multiply by 3
Step 2 → add 15
Step 3 → divide by 2
So, 51 × 3 = 153
153 + 15 = 168
168/2 = 84
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested course of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement:
Amidst heightening border tensions, China has increased its military deployment in the Indo-China border.
Courses of Action:
I. India also must do the same and deploy adequate forces on the border to counter any possible attacks from China.
II. India must engage in dialogue with China to de-escalate the situation.
Course of Action II is also a necessary measure to ensure that border tension does not escalate and result in a military conflict between the two nations. It also helps to de-escalate tensions and ensure peace. Thus, II also follows.
Therefore, Both I and II follow.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: In the question below, a passage is given followed by three assumptions numbered I ,II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the passage and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the passage.
Passage:
Most flags contain primary colours, which are red, blue, green and some countries also use yellow or secondary colors. Gold is also used in many flags as the colour is associated with the sun and is considered as colour of kings as well.
Assumptions:
I: Flags are available in all sizes.
II: Flags are available in many colours.
III: Colours can have different meanings in different cultures.
The above information helps us to assume that colours can have different meanings in different cultures.
The different countries using different colours in their flag have altogether different significance.
Thus, assumption III is implicit.
The information given above is not sufficient for us to assume the size of the flags.
Thus, assumption I is not implicit.
Similarly, assumption II is the restatement of the fact which is already mentioned in the passage.
The very first line of the passage states that flags are present in different colours.
Thus, assumption II is not implicit.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: In the question below there are three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
I. Some droplets are dew.
II. Only droplets are clubs.
III. No dew is spade.
Conclusions:
I. All dew being droplets is a possibility.
II. Some spade beingdew is a possibility.
III. No droplet is dew.
II. Only droplets are clubs.
The above statement implies that
All clubs are droplets.
No club is spade.
No club is dew.
The least possible Venn diagram is given below:
Conclusions:
I. All dew being droplets is a possibility. → True (as shown below)
II. Some spade being dew is a possibility. → False (as no dew is spade)
III. No droplet is dew. → False (it is possible but not definite)
Thus, only conclusion I follows.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: In the question below there are three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
I. Only dragons are lions.
II. Few dragons are puma.
III. Each puma is leopard.
Conclusions:
I. Only few lions are puma.
II. Some leopards are dragons.
III. No lion is puma.
I. Only dragons are lions.
This above statement implies that
All lions are dragons.
No puma is lion.
No leopard is lion.
II. Few dragons are puma.
This above statement implies that
Some dragons are puma.
III. Each puma is leopard.
This above statement implies that
All puma are leopard.
The least possible Venn diagram is given below:
Conclusions:
I. Only few lions are puma.→ False (As Only dragons are lions is given which means Lion will not have any relation with any other element except dragon, hence this is definitely false).
II. Some leopards are dragons. → True (As All puma are leopard and Some Puma are Dragons, so definitely some part of leopard is dragons, hence this is definitely true).
III. No lion is puma. → True (As Only dragons are lions is given which means Lion will not have any relation with any other element except dragon, hence this is definitely True).
Thus, Only conclusion II and conclusion III follow.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: In the following questions, the symbols $, %, *, & and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
P & Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P @ Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
P * Q – P is not smaller than Q
P $ Q – P is not greater than Q
P % Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?
Statements: A % B, B * C, C @ D, D & E, E % F, F @ G
Conclusions:
I. C * A
II. B @ E
III. F & G
Statements:
A % B, B * C, C @ D, D & E, E % F, F @ G
On Decoding: A = B, B ≥ C, C < d,="" d="" /> E, E = F, F < />
On Combining: A = B ≥ C < d="" /> E = F < />
Conclusions:
I. C * A ⇒ C ≥ A (False as A = B ≥ C < d="" /> E = F < />
II. B @ E ⇒ B < e="" (false="" as="" a="B" ≥="" c="" />< d="" /> E = F < />
III. F & G ⇒ F > G (False as A = B ≥ C < d="" /> E = F < />
Thus, Neither conclusion I nor II follow.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: In the following questions, the symbols $, %, *, & and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
P & Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P @ Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
P * Q – P is not smaller than Q
P $ Q – P is not greater than Q
P % Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?
Statements: A @ B, B $ C, C * D, D % E, E & F, F & G
Conclusions:
I. A & D
II. C & A
III. D % F
Statements:
A @ B, B $ C, C * D, D % E, E & F, F & G
On Decoding: A < b,="" b="" ≤="" c,="" c="" ≥="" d,="" d="E," e="" /> F, F > G
On Combining: A < b="" ≤="" c="" ≥="" d="E" /> F > G
Conclusions:
I. A & D ⇒ A > D (False as A < b="" ≤="" c="" ≥="" d="E" /> F > G)
II. C & A ⇒ C > A (True)
III. D % F ⇒ D = F (False as A < b="" ≤="" c="" ≥="" d="E" /> F > G)
Thus, only conclusion II follows.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: In the following questions, the symbols $, %, *, & and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
P & Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P @ Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
P * Q – P is not smaller than Q
P $ Q – P is not greater than Q
P % Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?
Statements: M * N, N % O, O % A, A & B, B % E
Conclusions:
I. M & B
II. N $ A
III. O & A
Statements:
M * N, N % O, O % A, A & B, B % E
On Decoding: M ≥ N, N = O, O = A, A > B, B = E
On Combining: M ≥ N = O = A > B = E
Conclusions:
I. M & B ⇒ M > B (True)
II. N $ A ⇒ N ≤ A (False as M ≥ N = O = A > B = E)
III. O & A ⇒ O > A (False as M ≥ N = O = A > B = E)
Thus, only conclusion I follows.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
M@N means M is the wife of N
M#N means M is the son of N
M%N means M is the Sister of N
M$N means M is the father of N
Which of the following expression represents the relationship that P is the mother of R?
The expression ‘P@N$Q%R’ represents P is the mother of R.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
M@N means M is the wife of N
M#N means M is the son of N
M%N means M is the Sister of N
M$N means M is the father of N
Which of the following expression shows I as the brother of H?
Thus, in the expression ‘H%I$P’, I is the brother of H.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
M@N means M is the wife of N
M#N means M is the son of N
M%N means M is the Sister of N
M$N means M is the father of N
In the expression “K%L#E$F” how is L related to F?
Thus, L is the brother of F.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Study the following information and answer the given questions:
12 people are of different ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70 are seated in two parallel rows with six people in each row such that there is equal distance between the adjacent persons and each person in one row faces the person in another row. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South and in Row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North not necessarily in the same order. C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row. Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age. S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S. F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q. Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age. U sits in front of A. U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old. One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A. P sits in front of E. D does not sit in front of Q. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. The one who faces B is 70yrs old. Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest.
Which of the following condition is true?
Row: 2: P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North
Ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70
1) C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
2) Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
3) S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age.
4) The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S.
5) F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
6) The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q.
7) Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age.
8) U sits in front of A.
9) U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old.
As the 2nd case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.
10) The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A.
11) P sits in front of E.
12) D does not sit in front of Q.
13) One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. So, C will be 25yrs old.
13) The one who faces B is 70yrs old. So, B will be the Immediate neighbour of D and F. And Q will be 70yrs old.
14) Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest. So, E will be 45yrs old and A will be the youngest i.e. 15yrs old.
The final arrangement will be:
As Q is 70yrs old.
Thus, the condition: “Q- 70” is true and the other conditions are false.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Study the following information and answer the given questions:
12 people are of different ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70 are seated in two parallel rows with six people in each row such that there is equal distance between the adjacent persons and each person in one row faces the person in another row. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South and in Row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North not necessarily in the same order. C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row. Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age. S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S. F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q. Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age. U sits in front of A. U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old. One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A. P sits in front of E. D does not sit in front of Q. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. The one who faces B is 70yrs old. Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest.
Who sits third to the right of B?
Persons: Row: 1: A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South
Row: 2: P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North
Ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70
1) C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
2) Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
3) S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age.
4) The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S.
5) F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
6) The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q.
7) Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age.
8) U sits in front of A.
9) U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old.
As the 2nd case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.
10) The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A.
11) P sits in front of E.
12) D does not sit in front of Q.
13) One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. So, C will be 25yrs old.
13) The one who faces B is 70yrs old. So, B will be the Immediate neighbour of D and F. And Q will be 70yrs old.
14) Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest. So, E will be 45yrs old and A will be the youngest i.e. 15yrs old.
The final arrangement will be:
Thus, A sits third to the right of B.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Study the following information and answer the given questions:
12 people are of different ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70 are seated in two parallel rows with six people in each row such that there is equal distance between the adjacent persons and each person in one row faces the person in another row. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South and in Row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North not necessarily in the same order. C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row. Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age. S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S. F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q. Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age. U sits in front of A. U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old. One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A. P sits in front of E. D does not sit in front of Q. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. The one who faces B is 70yrs old. Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest.
Who is 35yrs old?
Persons: Row: 1: A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South
Row: 2: P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North
Ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70
1) C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
2) Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
3) S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age.
4) The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S.
5) F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
6) The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q.
7) Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age.
8) U sits in front of A.
9) U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old.
As the 2nd case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.
10) The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A.
11) P sits in front of E.
12) D does not sit in front of Q.
13) One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. So, C will be 25yrs old.
13) The one who faces B is 70yrs old. So, B will be the Immediate neighbour of D and F. And Q will be 70yrs old.
14) Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest. So, E will be 45yrs old and A will be the youngest i.e. 15yrs old.
The final arrangement will be:
Thus, P is 35yrs old.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Study the following information and answer the given questions:
12 people are of different ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70 are seated in two parallel rows with six people in each row such that there is equal distance between the adjacent persons and each person in one row faces the person in another row. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South and in Row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North not necessarily in the same order. C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row. Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age. S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S. F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q. Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age. U sits in front of A. U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old. One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A. P sits in front of E. D does not sit in front of Q. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. The one who faces B is 70yrs old. Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest.
Who sits in front of D?
Persons: Row: 1: A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South
Row: 2: P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North
Ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70
1) C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
2) Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
3) S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age.
4) The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S.
5) F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
6) The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q.
7) Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age.
8) U sits in front of A.
9) U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old.
As the 2nd case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.
10) The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A.
11) P sits in front of E.
12) D does not sit in front of Q.
13) One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. So, C will be 25yrs old.
13) The one who faces B is 70yrs old. So, B will be the Immediate neighbour of D and F. And Q will be 70yrs old.
14) Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest. So, E will be 45yrs old and A will be the youngest i.e. 15yrs old.
The final arrangement will be:
Thus, S sits in front of D.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Study the following information and answer the given questions:
12 people are of different ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70 are seated in two parallel rows with six people in each row such that there is equal distance between the adjacent persons and each person in one row faces the person in another row. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South and in Row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North not necessarily in the same order. C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row. Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age. S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S. F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age. The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q. Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age. U sits in front of A. U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old. One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A. P sits in front of E. D does not sit in front of Q. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. The one who faces B is 70yrs old. Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest.
What is the age of R?
Persons: Row: 1: A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated facing South
Row: 2: P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated facing North
Ages: 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70
1) C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
2) Two persons sits between C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
3) S who is 55yrs of age is sitting in front of the one who is 30yrs of age.
4) The one who is 40yrs of age sits second to the right of S.
5) F who is 65yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of C and the one who is 30yrs of age.
6) The one who sits in front of F is an immediate neighbour of Q.
7) Three persons sits between Q and T who is 60yrs of age.
8) U sits in front of A.
9) U is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the row. U is 20yrs old.
As the 2nd case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.
10) The one who is 50yrs of age sits third to the left of A.
11) P sits in front of E.
12) D does not sit in front of Q.
13) One of the neighbours of A is 25yrs old. The one who is 25yrs of age is not an immediate neighbour of D. So, C will be 25yrs old.
13) The one who faces B is 70yrs old. So, B will be the Immediate neighbour of D and F. And Q will be 70yrs old.
14) Neither P nor A is 45yrs old. P is not the youngest. So, E will be 45yrs old and A will be the youngest i.e. 15yrs old.
The final arrangement will be:
Thus, R is 40yrs of age.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.
An input output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical operation is repeated in next step but it can be repeated with some other mathematical operation (as multiplication can be used with subtraction in step 1 and same can be used with addition in step 2).
As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
What is the sum of both the numbers obtained in Step 4?
Step 1: Add the numbers of block 1 with block 2, block 3 with 4 and block 5 and 6 respectively to get the three digit number.
E.g. the numbers of block 1 and 2 is 64 and 36 respectively so we get 64 + 36 = 100 for the block 1 in step 2.
Step 2: If the number obtained is even then divide it by 10 but if the number obtained is odd then divide it by 5.
Step 3: Subtract other numbers from the largest number among all the three blocks to get two new numbers.
Example: Largest number is 17
So, 17 – 10 = 07 and 17 – 11 = 6
Step 4: Multiply the numbers obtained in previous step by 3.
We get 7 and 6 in the step 3 so we multiply those numbers with 3 and get 21 and 18 respectively.
Step 5: Subtract both the numbers obtained in previous step to get the final result.
So, we subtract 21 with 18 and get 3 as a resultant.
So, the sum of both the numbers obtained in Step 4 is 39 (21 + 18).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.
An input output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical operation is repeated in next step but it can be repeated with some other mathematical operation (as multiplication can be used with subtraction in step 1 and same can be used with addition in step 2).
As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
What is the result in last step?
Step 1: Add the numbers of block 1 with block 2, block 3 with 4 and block 5 and 6 respectively to get the three digit number.
E.g. the numbers of block 1 and 2 is 64 and 36 respectively so we get 64 + 36 = 100 for the block 1 in step 2.
Step 2: If the number obtained is even then divide it by 10 but if the number obtained is odd then divide it by 5.
Step 3: Subtract other numbers from the largest number among all the three blocks to get two new numbers.
Example: Largest number is 17
So, 17 – 10 = 07 and 17 – 11 = 6
Step 4: Multiply the numbers obtained in previous step by 3.
We get 7 and 6 in the step 3 so we multiply those numbers with 3 and get 21 and 18 respectively.
Step 5: Subtract both the numbers obtained in previous step to get the final result.
So, we subtract 21 with 18 and get 3 as a resultant.
So, the result in last step is 3.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.
An input output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical operation is repeated in next step but it can be repeated with some other mathematical operation (as multiplication can be used with subtraction in step 1 and same can be used with addition in step 2).
As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Q. What is the result if we multiply both the numbers obtained in Step 3?
Step 1: Add the numbers of block 1 with block 2, block 3 with 4 and block 5 and 6 respectively to get the three digit number.
E.g. the numbers of block 1 and 2 is 64 and 36 respectively so we get 64 + 36 = 100 for the block 1 in step 2.
Step 2: If the number obtained is even then divide it by 10 but if the number obtained is odd then divide it by 5.
Step 3: Subtract other numbers from the largest number among all the three blocks to get two new numbers.
Example: Largest number is 17
So, 17 – 10 = 07 and 17 – 11 = 6
Step 4: Multiply the numbers obtained in previous step by 3.
We get 7 and 6 in the step 3 so we multiply those numbers with 3 and get 21 and 18 respectively.
Step 5: Subtract both the numbers obtained in previous step to get the final result.
So, we subtract 21 with 18 and get 3 as a resultant.
So, if we multiply both the numbers obtained in Step 3, we get 42 (7 × 6).
Hence, the correct option is (E).
Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.
An input output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical operation is repeated in next step but it can be repeated with some other mathematical operation (as multiplication can be used with subtraction in step 1 and same can be used with addition in step 2).
As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
What is the difference between block 3 of Step 1 and block 1 of Step 2?
Step 1: Add the numbers of block 1 with block 2, block 3 with 4 and block 5 and 6 respectively to get the three digit number.
E.g. the numbers of block 1 and 2 is 64 and 36 respectively so we get 64 + 36 = 100 for the block 1 in step 2.
Step 2: If the number obtained is even then divide it by 10 but if the number obtained is odd then divide it by 5.
Step 3: Subtract other numbers from the largest number among all the three blocks to get two new numbers.
Example: Largest number is 17
So, 17 – 10 = 07 and 17 – 11 = 6
Step 4: Multiply the numbers obtained in previous step by 3.
We get 7 and 6 in the step 3 so we multiply those numbers with 3 and get 21 and 18 respectively.
Step 5: Subtract both the numbers obtained in previous step to get the final result.
So, we subtract 21 with 18 and get 3 as a resultant.
So, the difference between block 3 of Step 1 and block 1 of Step 2 is 100 (110 – 10).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
A word and number arrangement device when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular pattern in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
What is the step 2 of the given statement?
Sentence: garden love alone
In step 1 → First and last alphabets of each word are interchanged.
Example: see, s and e would interchange i.e. ‘ees’
Step 2 → Vowels are replaced by number of consonants in the word.
Consonants are replaced by immediate succeeding letter.
Example: doog, d → e, g → h, o → 2
Step 3 → In place of alphabets, number of alphabets present + 1.
In place of even number → %
In place of odd number → *
Example: e22h
eh → 3, 2 → %
Step 4 → Symbols remain the same.
Odd number → ?
Even number → &
Sentence: garden love alone
Applying conditions:
Thus, “o4se4h 22wm 2m2o2” is step 2 of the given statement.
Hence, the correct option is (E).
Direction: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
A word and number arrangement device when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular pattern in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
What is the step 3 of the given statement?
Sentence: strange thing dance tonight
In step 1 → First and last alphabets of each word are interchanged.
Example: see, s and e would interchange i.e. ‘ees’
Step 2 → Vowels are replaced by number of consonants in the word.
Consonants are replaced by immediate succeeding letter.
Example: doog, d → e, g → h, o → 2
Step 3 → In place of alphabets, number of alphabets present + 1.
In place of even number → %
In place of odd number → *
Example: e22h
eh → 3, 2 → %
Step 4 → Symbols remain the same.
Odd number → ?
Even number → &
Sentence: strange thing dance tonight
Applying conditions:
Thus, ‘*66*666 55%55 **444 6*6*666’ is the correct answer.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
A word and number arrangement device when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular pattern in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
What is the step 4 of the given statement?
Sentence: fantasy world
In step 1 → First and last alphabets of each word are interchanged.
Example: see, s and e would interchange i.e. ‘ees’
Step 2 → Vowels are replaced by number of consonants in the word.
Consonants are replaced by immediate succeeding letter.
Example: doog, d → e, g → h, o → 2
Step 3 → In place of alphabets, number of alphabets present + 1.
In place of even number → %
In place of odd number → *
Example: e22h
eh → 3, 2 → %
Step 4 → Symbols remain the same.
Odd number → ?
Even number → &
Sentence: fantasy world
Applying conditions:
Thus, ‘&*&&*&& ?%???’ is the correct answer.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Study the following information carefully and answer the Questions based on it:
Eight friends – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H were born on in March, June, September and December on either 3rd or 8th (all born on different dates). The ones who were born in a month having 30 days like different fruits – Banana, Apple, Mango and Litchi not necessarily in the same order. The people who were born in a month having 31 days like different colors – Red, Yellow, Blue and Green not necessarily in the same order. Two people born in one month but different date.
E was born in June. One person was born between E and D. D does not like any color. B likes red color. The number of people born before A is the same as the number of people born after D. No person was born between the ones who like yellow color and mango. The one who likes yellow color was not born on 8th of any month. No person was born between E and one who likes litchi. One person was born between B and one who likes Banana. A does not like Banana. The ones who like apple and banana were born either on same date or in same month. One person was born between A and H. F does not like any fruit. No person was born between C and one who likes blue color. H does not like fruits. There are same numbers of persons were born between the ones who like green color and apple and who like blue and mango.
C likes which of the following fruit/Color?
(2) 1 person was born between E and D.
(3) D does not like any color.
So, D born is September.
(4) The number of people born before A is the same as the number of people born after D.
We have two cases:-
(5) No person was born between E and one who likes litchi.
(6) A does not like Banana.
(7) One person was born between A and H.
(8) H does not like fruits.
(9) No person was born between the ones who like yellow color and mango. The one who likes yellow color was not born on 8th of any month.
(10) B likes red color.
(11) One person was born between B and one who likes Banana.
As we know from the statement (6), the case 1 gets cancelled.
(12) The ones who like apple and banana were born either on same date or in same month.
The only possible is the one who likes apple is A and born in June with the one who likes banana.
(13) No person was born between C and one who likes blue color.
(14) There are same numbers of persons were born between the ones who like green color and apple and who like blue and mango.
(15) F does not like any fruit.
Our final arrangement is given below:-
We can see that C likes yellow Color.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: The question given below consists of a passage, followed by three arguments I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are ‘strong’ arguments is/are ‘weak’ arguments and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each question.
Passage:
Forest conservation is the practice of planning and maintaining forested areas for the benefit and sustainability of future generations. Forest conservation involves the upkeep of the natural resources within a forest that is beneficial for both humans and the ecosystem.
Which of the following arguments strengthens the fact that forests should be conserved?
Arguments:
I: We depend on forests for our survival, from the air we breathe to the wood we use.
II: Forests provide us with a large number of commercial goods which include timber, food items, gum, resins, fibres, lac, bamboo canes, fodder, medicine, drugs and many more items.
III: Forests can be classified according to a wide number of characteristics, with distinct forest types occurring within each broad category.
We need to find the arguments which strengthen the fact that forests should be conserved.
The first argument talks about our dependency upon forests staring from the air we breathe to the wood we use.
Since, we are so much dependent upon forests; we need to conserve it for our future generations.
Thus, argument I is strong.
The second argument is also strong as it talks about the various commercial goods which the forests offer us.
The forests provide us which so many useful things. This can be a probable reason for conserving the same.
Thus, argument II is also strong.
The last argument mentions about the classification of forests which is not relevant to the question asked above.
We need to decide whether we should conserve forests or not.
This cannot be decided by the statement mentioned in the third argument.
Thus, it is a weak argument.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: Observe the Line Chart thoughtfully and answer the questions given below.
The chart shows the number of passengers who travel by Spicejet from Ahmedabad to Bhopal in different days of a week.
Q. Find the difference between the total number of women passengers who travelled on Saturday and Sunday and the total number of men who travelled on the same day.
Total number of passengers on Saturday = 440
Number of Female passengers on Saturday = 200
Number of children passengers on Saturday = 40
∴ Number of men Passengers on Saturday = 440 – (200 + 40) = 200
⇒ Total number of passengers on Sunday = 420
⇒ Number of Female passengers on Sunday = 250
⇒ Number of children passengers on Sunday = 50
∴ Number of men Passengers on Sunday = 420 – (250 + 50) = 120
Total number of female passengers = 200 + 250 = 450
Total number of male passengers = 200 + 120 = 320
∴ Required difference = 450 – 320 = 130
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: Observe the Line Chart thoughtfully and answer the questions given below.
The chart shows the number of passengers who travel by Spicejet from Ahmedabad to Bhopal in different days of a week.
Q. If the number of passengers who travelled from Ahmedabad to Bhopal on Tuesday is 50% more than the total number of passengers who travelled on Wednesday and the ratio between male female and children on Tuesday is 5 : 2 : 1. Find the number of children who travelled on Tuesday?
Total number of passengers on Wednesday = 320
Total number of passengers on Tuesday = 50% more of Wednesday
= 320 × 150/100 = 480
Ratio of Men : women : children on Tuesday = 5 : 2 : 1
Number of children who travelled on Tuesday = 1/8 × 480 = 60
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Observe the Line Chart thoughtfully and answer the questions given below.
The chart shows the number of passengers who travel by Spicejet from Ahmedabad to Bhopal in different days of a week.
Q. Find the ratio of the total number of men passengers who travelled on Monday and Thursday and the total number of women passengers who travelled on Sunday?
Number of Female passengers on Monday = 120
Number of children passengers on Monday = 20
∴ Number of men Passengers on Monday = 400 – (120 + 20) = 260
Total number of passengers on Thursday = 360
Number of Female passengers on Thursday = 220
Number of children passengers on Thursday = 30
∴ Number of men Passengers on Thursday = 360 – (220 + 30) = 110
Total number of male passengers who travelled on Monday and Thursday = 260 + 110 = 370
Number of Female passengers on Sunday = 250
Required ratio = 370 : 250 = 37 : 25
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: Observe the Line Chart thoughtfully and answer the questions given below.
The chart shows the number of passengers who travel by Spicejet from Ahmedabad to Bhopal in different days of a week.
Q. What will be the average number of male passengers who travelled from Ahmedabad to Bhopal in all the given days of a week?
Total number of passengers on Monday = 400
Number of Female passengers on Monday = 120
Number of children passengers on Monday = 20
∴ Number of men passenger on Monday = 400 – (120 + 20) = 260
Total number of passengers on Wednesday = 320
Number of Female passengers on Wednesday = 150
Number of children passengers on Wednesday = 10
∴ Number of men Passengers on Wednesday = 320 – (150 + 10) = 160
Total number of passengers on Thursday = 360
Number of Female passengers on Thursday = 220
Number of children passengers on Thursday = 30
∴ Number of men Passengers on Thursday = 360 – (220 + 30) = 110
Total number of passengers on Saturday = 440
Number of Female passengers on Saturday = 200
Number of children passengers on Saturday = 40
∴ Number of men Passengers on Saturday = 440 – (200 + 40) = 200
Total number of passengers on Sunday = 420
Number of Female passengers on Sunday = 250
Number of children passengers on Sunday = 50
∴ Number of men Passengers on Sunday = 420 – (250 + 50) = 120
∴ Required average = 
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Observe the Line Chart thoughtfully and answer the questions given below.
The chart shows the number of passengers who travel by Spicejet from Ahmedabad to Bhopal in different days of a week.
Q. Total number of male passengers who traveled on Wednesday and Saturday is approximately how much % more than the number of male passengers who travelled on Sunday?
Number of Female passengers on Wednesday = 150
Number of children passengers on Wednesday = 10
∴ Number of men Passengers on Wednesday = 320 – (150 + 10) = 160
Total number of passengers on Saturday = 440
Number of Female passengers on Saturday = 200
Number of children passengers on Saturday = 40
∴ Number of men Passengers on Saturday = 440 – (200 + 40) = 200
Total number of passengers on Sunday = 420
Number of Female passengers on Sunday = 250
Number of children passengers on Sunday = 50
∴ Number of men Passengers on Sunday = 420 – (250 + 50) = 120
Total number of male passengers who travelled on Wednesday and Saturday = 160 + 200 = 360
Hence, the correct option is (C).
A number series is given in the question. You have to understand the logic that binds the terms in the number series and answer the question that follows based on this logic.
28, 59, 181, 729, 3651
2, ............. find the 7th term.
59 = 28 × 2 + 3
181 = 59 × 3 + 4
So the 7th term in 2nd series will be:
2nd - 2 × 2 + 3 = 7
3rd - 7 × 3 + 4 = 25
4th - 25 × 4 + 5 = 105
5th - 105 × 5 + 6 = 531
6th - 531 × 6 + 7 = 3193
7th - 3193 × 7 + 8 = 22359
Hence, the correct option is (A).
There are a total of 12 balls of three colours Red, Blue and Green in a box. The number of balls of all the three colours is different. The difference of Red and Blue colour balls is equal to the number of Green colour balls. If a ball is drawn randomly from the box then the probability of getting a Green ball is always greater than 0.25. what can be the possible number of Green colour balls in the box?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
R + B + G = 12 ---- (1)
And, R – B = G or B – R = G ---- (2)
On solving (1) and (2)
R = 6 or B = 6
So, B + G = 6 or R + G = 6
Thus, possible value of G = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ---- (3)
∴ From equations 3 and 4, we have
G = 4, 5
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: Answer the following questions from data mentioned in caselet.
Three banks A, B and C started their smart application services together in month of March, 2020. 25% customers of Bank A, 35% of Bank C and 20% customers of Bank B registered themselves for the applications. Number of customers in Bank C is 1.5 times than Bank A and number of customers in Bank A is 50,000 more than Bank B. Number of customers in bank A is 300,000. It should also be noted that Bank B has 10% of its registered customers as common with bank C. Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B is 1 : 3. Bank A and C have 20,000 common registrations. From the total customers of all three banks, 2% have registered on smart application with all three banks. It should be noted that the data of common registrations are only between two banks mentioned hence the third bank is excluded.
Q. What percent of total customers are registered with bank A and B but not with bank C ?
Number of customers with bank A = 300,000
Number of customers with bank C = 300,000 × 1.5 = 450,000
Number of customers with bank B = 250,000 (i.e. 300,000 – 50,000)
Common registrations in Bank B and C = 20,000
Percentage = 
Number of registered customers with bank A = 0.25 × 300,000 = 75,000
Number of registered customers with bank C = 0.35 × 450,000 = 157,500
Number of registered customers with Bank B = 0.20 × 250,000 = 50,000
Number of common registrations between bank B an C but not with A = 10% of customers Bank B’s registered customers
= 5,000 (i.e. 10% of 50,000)
Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B = 1 : 3
⇒ Common registration between Bank A and Bank B but not C = 3 × 5000 = 15000
⇒ Values in Venn diagram includes only A, only B and only C
⇒ Bank A, B and C has 2% of common registration from total customers = 0.02 × 1,000,000 = 20,000
Number of total customers = 450,000 + 250,000 + 300,000 = 1,000,000
⇒ Required percentage = (15,000/1,000,000) × 100 = 1.5%
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Answer the following questions from data mentioned in caselet.
Three banks A, B and C started their smart application services together in month of March, 2020. 25% customers of Bank A, 35% of Bank C and 20% customers of Bank B registered themselves for the applications. Number of customers in Bank C is 1.5 times than Bank A and number of customers in Bank A is 50,000 more than Bank B. Number of customers in bank A is 300,000. It should also be noted that Bank B has 10% of its registered customers as common with bank C. Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B is 1 : 3. Bank A and C have 20,000 common registrations. From the total customers of all three banks, 2% have registered on smart application with all three banks. It should be noted that the data of common registrations are only between two banks mentioned hence the third bank is excluded.
Q. Find the wrong answer from the following
Number of customers with bank A = 300,000
Number of customers with bank C = 300,000 × 1.5 = 450,000
Number of customers with bank B = 250,000 (i.e. 300,000 – 50,000)
Common registrations in bank B and C = 20,000
Formula used:
Required Percentage = 
Number of registered customers with bank A = 0.25 × 300,000 = 75,000
Number of registered customers with bank C = 0.35 × 450,000 = 157,500
Number of registered customers with Bank B = 0.20 × 250,000 = 50,000
Number of common registrations between bank B and C but not with A = 10% of customers. Bank B’s registered customers
= 5,000 (i.e. 10% of 50,000)
Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B = 1 : 3
⇒ Common registration between Bank A and Bank B but not C = 3 × 5000 = 15000
⇒ Bank A, B and C has 2% of common registration from total customers = 0.02 × 1,000,000 = 20,000
⇒ Values in Venn diagram includes only A, only B and only C
Number of total smart application registrations = 75,000 + 157,500 + 50,000 = 282,500
Ratio of total number of smart app registrations to registration with bank A = 75000 : 282,500 = 30 : 113
Difference between total number of common registrations and that with only bank B = 20,000 – 10,000 = 10,000
So, option (C) is incorrect since its mentioned 15,000 and not 10,000.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Answer the following questions from data mentioned in caselet.
Three banks A, B and C started their smart application services together in month of March, 2020. 25% customers of Bank A, 35% of Bank C and 20% customers of Bank B registered themselves for the applications. Number of customers in Bank C is 1.5 times than Bank A and number of customers in Bank A is 50,000 more than Bank B. Number of customers in bank A is 300,000. It should also be noted that Bank B has 10% of its registered customers as common with bank C. Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B is 1 : 3. Bank A and C have 20,000 common registrations. From the total customers of all three banks, 2% have registered on smart application with all three banks. It should be noted that the data of common registrations are only between two banks mentioned hence the third bank is excluded.
Q. Calculate number of registered customers with bank C only.
Number of customers with bank A = 300,000
Number of customers with bank C = 300,000 × 1.5 = 450,000
Number of customers with bank B = 250,000 (i.e. 300,000 – 50,000)
Bank A and C common registrations = 20,000
Formula used:
Number of registered customers for only Bank C = Total number of registered customers for bank C – Common registered customers with A – Common registered customers with Bank B – All common registered customers
Number of registered customers with bank A = 0.25 × 300,000 = 75,000
Number of registered customers with bank C = 0.35 × 450,000 = 157,500
Number of registered customers with Bank B = 0.20 × 250,000 = 50,000
Number of common registrations between bank B and C but not with A = 10% of customers Bank B’s registered customers
= 5,000 (i.e. 10% of 50,000)
Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B = 1 : 3
⇒ Common registration between Bank A and Bank B but not C = 3 × 5000 = 15000
⇒ Bank A, B and C has 2% of common registration from total customers = 0.02 × 1,000,000 = 20,000
⇒ Values in Venn diagram includes only A, only B and only C
⇒ Number of registered customers with only Bank C = 157,500 – 20,000 – 5,000 – 20,000 = 112,500
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Answer the following questions from data mentioned in caselet.
Three banks A, B and C started their smart application services together in month of March, 2020. 25% customers of Bank A, 35% of Bank C and 20% customers of Bank B registered themselves for the applications. Number of customers in Bank C is 1.5 times than Bank A and number of customers in Bank A is 50,000 more than Bank B. Number of customers in bank A is 300,000. It should also be noted that Bank B has 10% of its registered customers as common with bank C. Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B is 1 : 3. Bank A and C have 20,000 common registrations. From the total customers of all three banks, 2% have registered on smart application with all three banks. It should be noted that the data of common registrations are only between two banks mentioned hence the third bank is excluded.
Q. How much percentage more customers have registered on smart application of bank A than bank B?
Number of customers with bank A = 300,000
Number of customers with bank C = 300,000 × 1.5 = 450,000
Number of customers with bank B = 250,000 (i.e. 300,000 – 50,000)
Common registrations in Bank B and C = 20,000
Formula used:
Required Percentage = 
Number of registered customers with bank A = 0.25 × 300,000 = 75,000
Number of registered customers with bank C = 0.35 × 450,000 = 157,500
Number of registered customers with Bank B = 0.20 × 250,000 = 50,000
Now, Required percentage = 
= 25,000/50,000 × 100 = 50%
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Answer the following questions from data mentioned in caselet.
Three banks A, B and C started their smart application services together in month of March, 2020. 25% customers of Bank A, 35% of Bank C and 20% customers of Bank B registered themselves for the applications. Number of customers in Bank C is 1.5 times than Bank A and number of customers in Bank A is 50,000 more than Bank B. Number of customers in bank A is 300,000. It should also be noted that Bank B has 10% of its registered customers as common with bank C. Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B is 1 : 3. Bank A and C have 20,000 common registrations. From the total customers of all three banks, 2% have registered on smart application with all three banks. It should be noted that the data of common registrations are only between two banks mentioned hence the third bank is excluded.
Q. What is the ratio between number of registered customers with only Bank A to Bank B?
Number of customers with bank A = 300,000
Number of customers with bank C = 300,000 × 1.5 = 450,000
Number of customers with bank B = 250,000 (i.e. 300,000 – 50,000)
Bank A and C common registrations = 20,000
Formula used: Ratio of A to B = A : B
Number of registered customers for only Bank A = Total number of registered customers for bank A – Common registered customers with B – Common registered customers with Bank C – All common registered customers
Number of registered customers with bank A = 0.25 × 300,000 = 75,000
Number of registered customers with bank C = 0.35 × 450,000 = 157,500
Number of registered customers with Bank B = 0.20 × 250,000 = 50,000
Number of common registrations between bank B an C but not with A = 10% of customers Bank B’s registered customers = 5,000 (i.e. 10% of 50,000)
Ratio of common registrations between bank B with bank C to Bank A with bank B = 1 : 3
⇒ Common registration between Bank A and Bank B but not C = 3 × 5000 = 15000
⇒ Bank A, B and C has 2% of common registration from total customers = 0.02 × 1,000,000 = 20,000
⇒ Values in Venn diagram includes only A, only B and only C.
Number of registered customers with only Bank A = 75,000 – 20,000 – 15,000 – 20,000 = 20,000
Required Ratio = Registered customers with only bank A : Registered customers with Bank B = 20,000 : 50,000 = 2 : 5
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: On the festive season Cabs can be booked from five different cab services Uber, Ola, Mehru, Spice cabs, and Easy cabs at a cheap rate and booking time start at 12 noon to 4:00 pm of the same day for local travelling.
Fare of every cab is flexible and changes by time, the graph given below shows the fare of cab when booking starts, fare when booking closes, highest and lowest fare between that period of those five cabs respectively.
Ceiling of the rectangle shows the closing fare of cab while floor of the rectangle shows the opening fare of cab.
Ceiling of the line shows highest fare of cab while floor of the lines shows the lower fare of cab. If the price of fare is more than or equal to 300, then 20 % discount is given and when the price of cab is less than 300 then 10 % discount is given.
Q. If a group of 20 people book the cab from Uber when its booking starts, then what is the total amount saved by that group if they booked from Mehru when its booking starts instead of booking their cab from Uber?
⇒ Total fare of 20 people from Uber =20 × 90% of 250
= 20 × 250 × 90/100 = 4500
Booking from Mehru when booking just start = Rs. 200
⇒ Total fare of 20 people from Mehru = 20 × 90% of 200
= 20 × 200 × 90/100 = 3600
⇒ Savings = 4500 - 3600= Rs. 900
∴ Required saving is Rs. 900.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: On the festive season Cabs can be booked from five different cab services Uber, Ola, Mehru, Spice cabs, and Easy cabs at a cheap rate and booking time start at 12 noon to 4:00 pm of the same day for local travelling.
Fare of every cab is flexible and changes by time, the graph given below shows the fare of cab when booking starts, fare when booking closes, highest and lowest fare between that period of those five cabs respectively.
Ceiling of the rectangle shows the closing fare of cab while floor of the rectangle shows the opening fare of cab.
Ceiling of the line shows highest fare of cab while floor of the lines shows the lower fare of cab. If the price of fare is more than or equal to 300, then 20 % discount is given and when the price of cab is less than 300 then 10 % discount is given.
Q. Praveen books his cab from Uber when its booking starts and books Ola at the time of return when its fare is highest, then what is the ratio of total amount of fare from Uber to that from Ola for Praveen?
Total fare after 10% discount from Uber when booking starts = 250 × (90/100) = Rs. 225
Fare from Ola when price is highest = Rs. 500
Total fare after 20% discount from Ola when price is highest = 500 × ( 80/100)
= Rs. 400
Required ratio = 225 : 400 = 9 : 16
∴ The required ratio is 9 : 16
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: On the festive season Cabs can be booked from five different cab services Uber, Ola, Mehru, Spice cabs, and Easy cabs at a cheap rate and booking time start at 12 noon to 4:00 pm of the same day for local travelling.
Fare of every cab is flexible and changes by time, the graph given below shows the fare of cab when booking starts, fare when booking closes, highest and lowest fare between that period of those five cabs respectively.
Ceiling of the rectangle shows the closing fare of cab while floor of the rectangle shows the opening fare of cab.
Ceiling of the line shows highest fare of cab while floor of the lines shows the lower fare of cab. If the price of fare is more than or equal to 300, then 20 % discount is given and when the price of cab is less than 300 then 10 % discount is given.
Q. Cab fare of Taxi4sure when booking starts is the average of the opening and closing fare of Easy cabs and lowest fares of Taxi4sure is 60% of its fare when booking starts. If total fare amount collected by Taxi4sure of 16 passengers when its price is lowest is same as total fare amount collected by Taxi4sure of 10 passengers when its price is highest, then what is the highest fare (without discount) of Taxi4sure?
⇒ Lowest fare of Taxi4sure = 60% of 375
= 375 × 60/100 = Rs. 225
⇒ Total fare amount of 16 passengers when price is lowest = 225 × 16 = Rs. 3600
⇒ Total fare amount of 15 passengers when price is highest = 10 × y = Rs. 3600
⇒ y = 360
∴ Highest fare of Taxi4sure without discount = 360 × (100/80) = Rs. 450
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: On the festive season Cabs can be booked from five different cab services Uber, Ola, Mehru, Spice cabs, and Easy cabs at a cheap rate and booking time start at 12 noon to 4:00 pm of the same day for local travelling.
Fare of every cab is flexible and changes by time, the graph given below shows the fare of cab when booking starts, fare when booking closes, highest and lowest fare between that period of those five cabs respectively.
Ceiling of the rectangle shows the closing fare of cab while floor of the rectangle shows the opening fare of cab.
Ceiling of the line shows highest fare of cab while floor of the lines shows the lower fare of cab. If the price of fare is more than or equal to 300, then 20 % discount is given and when the price of cab is less than 300 then 10 % discount is given.
Q. If total amount of fare collected by Ola when booking is about to closed is Rs. 32400 and total amount collected by Mehru when booking just started is Rs. 18000, then what is the ratio of total passengers who booked from Ola to Mehru?
Total fare collected by Mehru = z × 90% of 200 = 18000
∴ Required ratio = 90 : 100 = 9 : 10
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: On the festive season Cabs can be booked from five different cab services Uber, Ola, Mehru, Spice cabs, and Easy cabs at a cheap rate and booking time start at 12 noon to 4:00 pm of the same day for local travelling.
Fare of every cab is flexible and changes by time, the graph given below shows the fare of cab when booking starts, fare when booking closes, highest and lowest fare between that period of those five cabs respectively.
Ceiling of the rectangle shows the closing fare of cab while floor of the rectangle shows the opening fare of cab.
Ceiling of the line shows highest fare of cab while floor of the lines shows the lower fare of cab. If the price of fare is more than or equal to 300, then 20 % discount is given and when the price of cab is less than 300 then 10 % discount is given.
Q. If total passenger that booked cab from Spice cabs when its price is highest is 10 less than the number of passengers that booked cab from same agency when its price is lowest and ratio between total fare amount collected by Spice cabs when its price are highest to that when lowest is 72 : 117, then how many passengers booked their cab when price is lowest?
Booking from Spice cabs when price is highest = Rs. 600
⇒ Total fare amount of ‘m’ passengers = m × (80% of 600)
= m × 600 × 80/100 = 480m
Cab booked from Spice cabs when price is lowest = Rs. 200
⇒ Total fare amount of ‘m + 10’ passengers = (m + 10) × (90% of 200) = 180(m + 10)
= (m + 10) × 180 = 180(m+10)
Now according to question,
⇒ 480 m : 180(m + 10) = 72 : 117
∴ Number of passenger booked their cab when price is lowest = 10 + 3 = 13
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: The following questions are accompanied by three statements A, B and C. You must determine which statement(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions and mark your answer accordingly.
In how many hour ‘C’ alone can fill the cistern?
I Ratio of efficiency of A, B and C is 2 : 4 : 5.
II A opened throughout the time, B opened for starting 10 minutes and 'C' opened after 2 minutes of closing of B. A, B and C fill equal amount of water in the cistern.
III If A and B work alternatively, they can fill the tank in 40 minutes.
When I and II work alternatively, the individual work can be found and with the statement ‘I’, the time taken for C can be found.
Using II and III the time taken by III can be found.
Using I and III the time taken by III can be found.
Using Any two equations the time taken by III can be found.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Below is the data of India’s export and import dealing with different countries in 2015 and 2016.
Q. Excess of export over import is call trade surplus. With which country India has highest trade surplus in 2016.
India has highest trade surplus with UAE in 2016.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Below is the data of India’s export and import dealing with different countries in 2015 and 2016.
Q. A total trade can be defined as the sum of total exports and imports with the country. Find in 2016 with which country India has highest total trade.
India has highest trade with China in 2016.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Below is the data of India’s export and import dealing with different countries in 2015 and 2016.
Q. What is the ratio of total export to total import in 2016?
Total import in 2016 = 500 + 600 + 2000 + 1000 + 100 + 200 + 75 = 4475
∴ Required ratio = 5750 : 4475 = 230 : 179
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Below is the data of India’s export and import dealing with different countries in 2015 and 2016.
Q. For which country India noticed a highest growth% in export from 2015 to 2016.
India has highest trade with China in 2016.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Below is the data of India’s export and import dealing with different countries in 2015 and 2016.
Q. Find the difference between total trade surplus in 2015 and 2016.
Total import in 2015 = 400 + 900 + 1800 + 1400 + 300 + 100 + 50 = 4950
Trade surplus of 2015 = 5100 - 4950 = 150
Total export in 2016 = 1900 + 700 + 900 + 1500 + 300 + 300 + 150 = 5750
Total import in 2016 = 500 + 600 + 2000 + 1000 + 100 + 200 + 75 = 4475
Trade surplus for 2016 = 5750 - 4475 = 1275
The difference between trade surplus in 2015 and trade surplus in 2016 = 1275 - 150 = 1125
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: In these questions, a question is given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide the information in which of the statements is not necessarily required to answer the question and therefore can be dispensed with. Indicate your answer accordingly.
What is the labelled price of the book?
I. Cost price of the book is Rs. 790.
II. Selling price after offering 4% discount on the labelled price is 120% of cost price..
III. Profit earned would have been 30%; if no discount was offered.
Also, Marked price (M.P.) or Labelled price = S.P. + Discount
From the above formulas we can observe that to find the labelled price we need to know either both the cost price and profit or selling price and discount.
Thus, statement I & III together is sufficient to answer the question.
∴ Statement ll is not necessarily required to answer.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: In these questions, a question is given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide the information in which of the statements is not necessarily required to answer the question and therefore can be dispensed with. Indicate your answer accordingly.
What is the value of a?
I. 5a4 – a3 + 25a – 2 ≥ 3
II. 5a ≥ 125a2
III. 4a ≥ 0
5a ≥ 125a2
⇒ 1 ≥ 5a
⇒ a ≤ 1/5
Substituting above value in statement I,
∴ Statements III is not necessarily required to answer the question
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Direction: In these questions, a question is given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide the information in which of the statements is not necessarily required to answer the question and therefore can be dispensed with. Indicate your answer accordingly.
What is Basanthi’s present age?
I. Basanthi’s son’s age is four-ninth of the age of Basanthi’s age.
II. Ratio of present age of Basanthi to that of her father is 5 : 9.
III. After 12 years, the ratio between Basanthi’s age and her sons’s age will be 12 : 7.
Let Basanthi’s present age be ‘x’ years.
Basanthi’s son’s age is four-ninth of the age of Basanthi’s age.
⇒ Basanthi’s son’s age = 4x/9
After 12 years, the ratio between Basanthi’s age and her sons’s age will be 12 : 7.
∴ Statement II is not necessarily required to answer the question.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: In these questions, a question is given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide the information in which of the statements is not necessarily required to answer the question and therefore can be dispensed with. Indicate your answer accordingly.
How many students from college B got placement?
I. The number of students studying in colleges A and B are in the ratio of 7 : 8.
II. The number of students who got placement from college B is 135% of the number of students who got placement from college A.
III. 80% of the students studying in college B got placement.
By given statements, we only get the ratio and percentage of students but we cannot find the number of students in either college A or college B.
All three statements are not sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: In these questions, a question is given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide the information in which of the statements is not necessarily required to answer the question and therefore can be dispensed with. Indicate your answer accordingly.
What is the amount invested in Company A?
I. The amounts invested in Companies A and B are in the ratio of 9 : 11.
II. The amount invested in Company B is 55% of the total amount invested.
III. The amount invested in Company B is Rs. 37400.
From the information obtained in statement III we can find out the amount invested in company A by combining it with statement I.
We can't get any information about company A from statement II, so this statement can be dispensed.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the following question.
What is the total surface area of the conical cap?
I: The ratio of the height of the Cap to the height of the cylindrical drum is 5 : 8.
II: Height of the cylindrical drum is twice the perimeter of the square whose area is 144 cm2.
III: The diameter of the conical cap is equal to the thrice the breadth of the rectangle whose perimeter is 84 cm.
⇒ Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement II,
Area of the square = 144 cm2
⇒ Side of the square = 12 cm
Perimeter of the square = 12 × 4 = 48 cm
⇒ Height of the cylinder = 2 × 48 = 96 cm
Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement III,
Diameter of the cone = 3 × breadth of the rectangle
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 × (l + b) = 84 cm
∵ Breadth cannot be determined,
⇒ Statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If we combine all the statements, we can determine the height of the cone but not the radius or the slant height.
∴ None statement is sufficient to answer.
Hence, the correct option is (E).
Direction: Dheeraj's son is looking at the sales and expenses record of his business for year 2017, 2018 and 2019. He looks at the sales of these three years, takes the average and writes it as (A)______. After this, he takes the average of expenditure of these years, and subtract both these values, his answer comes as (B)_____. His younger sister who has recently learned ratios was asked to calculate ratios of both expenditure and profit%. She correctly writes them for year 2017,2018 and 2019 as 25 : 20 : 32 and 52 : 40 : 25 respectively.
Dheeraj asks his son to calculate overall profit% for these years, but he calculates it on total sales and reports the answer as (C)_____. As a punishment, he was asked to calculate his error%, which was (D)_____. They heard their parents talking and learnt that the overall profit for these years was Rs. 29000, and sales in 2019 were of Rs. 72000. If they invest each year's profit at the end of that year at 12% p.a. compound interest, find the total amount they will get 1 year after end of 2019 is (E)______.
Q. What will come in place of A?
Let them be 25x, 20x and 32x respectively.
Ratio of profit percentages = 52 : 40 : 25
Assume them as 52y, 40y and 25y respectively.
Profit in 2017 = 52y% of 25x = (52y/100) × 25x = 13xy
Profit in 2018 = 40y% of 20x = 40y/100 × 20x = 8xy
Profit in 2019 = 25y% of 32x = 8xy
Sum of profit = 29000
⇒ 13xy + 8xy + 8xy = 29xy
⇒ 29xy = 29000
⇒ xy = 1000
Profit for years 2017, 2018 and 2019 are 13000, 8000 and 8000 respectively.
Also, Sales of year 2019 = 72000
Sales (2019) = Expense + Profit = 32x + 8xy
⇒ 32x + 8xy = 72000
⇒ 32x = 64000
⇒ x = 2000
Expense of 2017 = 25x = Rs. 50000
Expense of 2018 = 20x = Rs. 40000
Expense of 2019 = 32x = Rs. 64000
Average expenditure = (50000 + 40000 + 64000) ÷ 3 = Rs. 51333.33
Sales of 2017 = Rs. 50000 + 13x y = Rs. 63000
Sales of 2018 = Rs. 40000 + 8xy = Rs. 48000
Sales of 2019 = Rs. 64000 + 8xy = Rs. 72000
Average sales = (63000 + 48000 + 72000) ÷ 3 = 183000/3 = Rs. 61000
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: Dheeraj's son is looking at the sales and expenses record of his business for year 2017, 2018 and 2019. He looks at the sales of these three years, takes the average and writes it as (A)______. After this, he takes the average of expenditure of these years, and subtract both these values, his answer comes as (B)_____. His younger sister who has recently learned ratios was asked to calculate ratios of both expenditure and profit%. She correctly writes them for year 2017,2018 and 2019 as 25 : 20 : 32 and 52 : 40 : 25 respectively.
Dheeraj asks his son to calculate overall profit% for these years, but he calculates it on total sales and reports the answer as (C)_____. As a punishment, he was asked to calculate his error%, which was (D)_____. They heard their parents talking and learnt that the overall profit for these years was Rs. 29000, and sales in 2019 were of Rs. 72000. If they invest each year's profit at the end of that year at 12% p.a. compound interest, find the total amount they will get 1 year after end of 2019 is (E)______.
Q. What will come in place of C?
Let them be 25x, 20x and 32x respectively.
Ratio of profit percentages = 52 : 40 : 25
Assume them as 52y, 40y and 25y respectively.
Profit in 2017 = 52y% of 25x = (52y/100) × 25x = 13xy
Profit in 2018 = 40y% of 20x = 40y/100 × 20x = 8xy
Profit in 2019 = 25y% of 32x = 8xy
Sum of profit = 29000
⇒ 13xy + 8xy + 8xy = 29xy
⇒ 29xy = 29000
⇒ xy = 1000
Profit for years 2017, 2018 and 2019 are 13000, 8000 and 8000 respectively.
Also, Sales of year 2019 = 72000
Sales (2019) = Expense + Profit = 32x + 8xy
⇒ 32x + 8xy = 72000
⇒ 32x = 64000
⇒ x = 2000
Expense of 2017 = 25x = Rs. 50000
Expense of 2018 = 20x = Rs. 40000
Expense of 2019 = 32x = Rs. 64000
Average expenditure = (50000 + 40000 + 64000) ÷ 3 = Rs. 51333.33
Sales of 2017 = Rs. 50000 + 13x y = Rs. 63000
Sales of 2018 = Rs. 40000 + 8xy = Rs. 48000
Sales of 2019 = Rs. 64000 + 8xy = Rs. 72000
Average sales = (63000 + 48000 + 72000) ÷ 3 = 183000/3 = Rs. 61000
Total sales = 183000
Total profit = 29xy = 29000
Erroneous Profit% calculated (C) = (29000/183000) × 100 = 15.85% approx.
Hence, the correct option is (E).
Direction: Dheeraj's son is looking at the sales and expenses record of his business for year 2017, 2018 and 2019. He looks at the sales of these three years, takes the average and writes it as (A)______. After this, he takes the average of expenditure of these years, and subtract both these values, his answer comes as (B)_____. His younger sister who has recently learned ratios was asked to calculate ratios of both expenditure and profit%. She correctly writes them for year 2017,2018 and 2019 as 25 : 20 : 32 and 52 : 40 : 25 respectively.
Dheeraj asks his son to calculate overall profit% for these years, but he calculates it on total sales and reports the answer as (C)_____. As a punishment, he was asked to calculate his error%, which was (D)_____. They heard their parents talking and learnt that the overall profit for these years was Rs. 29000, and sales in 2019 were of Rs. 72000. If they invest each year's profit at the end of that year at 12% p.a. compound interest, find the total amount they will get 1 year after end of 2019 is (E)______.
Q. What will come in place of E?
Let them be 25x, 20x and 32x respectively.
Ratio of profit percentages = 52 : 40 : 25
Assume them as 52y, 40y and 25y respectively.
Profit in 2017 = 52y% of 25x = (52y/100) × 25x = 13xy
Profit in 2018 = 40y% of 20x = 40y/100 × 20x = 8xy
Profit in 2019 = 25y% of 32x = 8xy
Sum of profit = 29000
⇒ 13xy + 8xy + 8xy = 29xy
⇒ 29xy = 29000
⇒ xy = 1000
Profit for years 2017, 2018 and 2019 are 13000, 8000 and 8000 respectively.
Since the amount required is after 1 year of 2019.
Profit of 2019 will get 1 year's interest, profit of 2018 2 years and profit of 2017 - 3 years.
Amount due to profit of year 2017 = 13000 × (1 + 0.12)3 = Rs. 18264 (approx)
Amount due to profit of year 2018 = 8000 × (1 + 0.12)2 = Rs. 10035.2
Amount due to profit of year 2019 = 8000 × (1 + 0.12)1 = Rs. 8960
Total amount(E) = Rs. 37259.2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: Dheeraj's son is looking at the sales and expenses record of his business for year 2017, 2018 and 2019. He looks at the sales of these three years, takes the average and writes it as (A)______. After this, he takes the average of expenditure of these years, and subtract both these values, his answer comes as (B)_____. His younger sister who has recently learned ratios was asked to calculate ratios of both expenditure and profit%. She correctly writes them for year 2017,2018 and 2019 as 25 : 20 : 32 and 52 : 40 : 25 respectively.
Dheeraj asks his son to calculate overall profit% for these years, but he calculates it on total sales and reports the answer as (C)_____. As a punishment, he was asked to calculate his error%, which was (D)_____. They heard their parents talking and learnt that the overall profit for these years was Rs. 29000, and sales in 2019 were of Rs. 72000. If they invest each year's profit at the end of that year at 12% p.a. compound interest, find the total amount they will get 1 year after end of 2019 is (E)______.
Q. What will come in place of B.
Let them be 25x, 20x and 32x respectively.
Ratio of profit percentages = 52 : 40 : 25
Assume them as 52y, 40y and 25y respectively.
Profit in 2017 = 52y% of 25x = (52y/100) × 25x = 13xy
Profit in 2018 = 40y% of 20x = 40y/100 × 20x = 8xy
Profit in 2019 = 25y% of 32x = 8xy
Sum of profit = 29000
⇒ 13xy + 8xy + 8xy = 29xy
⇒ 29xy = 29000
⇒ xy = 1000
Profit for years 2017, 2018 and 2019 are 13000, 8000 and 8000 respectively.
Also, Sales of year 2019 = 72000
Sales (2019) = Expense + Profit = 32x + 8xy
⇒ 32x + 8xy = 72000
⇒ 32x = 64000
⇒ x = 2000
Expense of 2017 = 25x = Rs. 50000
Expense of 2018 = 20x = Rs. 40000
Expense of 2019 = 32x = Rs. 64000
Average expenditure = (50000 + 40000 + 64000) ÷ 3 = Rs. 51333.33
Sales of 2017 = Rs. 50000 + 13x y = Rs. 63000
Sales of 2018 = Rs. 40000 + 8xy = Rs. 48000
Sales of 2019 = Rs. 64000 + 8xy = Rs. 72000
Average sales = (63000 + 48000 + 72000) ÷ 3 = 183000/3 = Rs. 61000
B = 61000 - 51333.33 = Rs. 9666.67
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Direction: Dheeraj's son is looking at the sales and expenses record of his business for year 2017, 2018 and 2019. He looks at the sales of these three years, takes the average and writes it as (A)______. After this, he takes the average of expenditure of these years, and subtract both these values, his answer comes as (B)_____. His younger sister who has recently learned ratios was asked to calculate ratios of both expenditure and profit%. She correctly writes them for year 2017,2018 and 2019 as 25 : 20 : 32 and 52 : 40 : 25 respectively.
Dheeraj asks his son to calculate overall profit% for these years, but he calculates it on total sales and reports the answer as (C)_____. As a punishment, he was asked to calculate his error%, which was (D)_____. They heard their parents talking and learnt that the overall profit for these years was Rs. 29000, and sales in 2019 were of Rs. 72000. If they invest each year's profit at the end of that year at 12% p.a. compound interest, find the total amount they will get 1 year after end of 2019 is (E)______.
Q. What will come in place of D?
Let them be 25x, 20x and 32x respectively.
Ratio of profit percentages = 52 : 40 : 25
Assume them as 52y, 40y and 25y respectively.
Profit in 2017 = 52y% of 25x = (52y/100) × 25x = 13xy
Profit in 2018 = 40y% of 20x = 40y/100 × 20x = 8xy
Profit in 2019 = 25y% of 32x = 8xy
Sum of profit = 29000
⇒ 13xy + 8xy + 8xy = 29xy
⇒ 29xy = 29000
⇒ xy = 1000
Profit for years 2017, 2018 and 2019 are 13000, 8000 and 8000 respectively.
Also, Sales of year 2019 = 72000
Sales (2019) = Expense + Profit = 32x + 8xy
⇒ 32x + 8xy = 72000
⇒ 32x = 64000
⇒ x = 2000
Expense of 2017 = 25x = Rs. 50000
Expense of 2018 = 20x = Rs. 40000
Expense of 2019 = 32x = Rs. 64000
Average expenditure = (50000 + 40000 + 64000) ÷ 3 = Rs. 51333.33
Sales of 2017 = Rs. 50000 + 13x y = Rs. 63000
Sales of 2018 = Rs. 40000 + 8xy = Rs. 48000
Sales of 2019 = Rs. 64000 + 8xy = Rs. 72000
Average sales = (63000 + 48000 + 72000) ÷ 3 = 183000/3 = Rs. 61000
Error = Original value - Calculated value
Erroneous Profit% calculated (C) = (29000/183000) × 100 = 15.85% approx.
Original profit% = 
Error = 18.83 - 15.85 = 2.98
Error% = (Error/Original value) × 100
Error% = 15.83%
Hence, the correct option is (B).
A shopkeeper is selling an article at a discount of 12% on the marked price. A customer buys the article by paying Rs. 3360, including 8% of sales tax on the marked price, such that the shopkeeper earns a profit of 23.2%. How much a customer will have to pay for the article if the sales tax increased by 25% and the shopkeeper increased his profit by 50%?
Selling price of article = Marked price - 12% of Marked price
⇒ SP =100 - 100 × 12/100 = 88% of MP
Price paid by customer = Selling price + 8% of Marked price
⇒ Price paid by customer = 88% of MP + 8% of MP
⇒ 3360 = 96% of MP
⇒ MP = (3360×100)/96 = Rs. 3500
⇒ SP = 88/100 × 3500 = Rs. 3080
But, the shopkeeper earns a profit of 23.2%.
⇒ Cost price of article = (3080 × 100)/123.2 = Rs. 2500
⇒ Profit earned = 23.2% of 2500 = Rs. 580
Now, When the profit of shopkeeper increases by 50% and sales tax increases by 25%,
⇒ Increased profit of shopkeeper = 150% of 580 = Rs. 870
⇒ New selling price of article = 2500 + 870 = Rs. 3370
⇒ Increased sales tax = 125% of 8 = 10%
∴ New price of article = New selling price + 10% of MP
= 3370 + 10% of 3500
= 3370 + 350 = Rs. 3720
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Which among the organisation has launched a pre -approved 2 wheeler loan scheme ‘Easy Ride’?
Customers can apply for the Easy Ride loan for an amount up to Rs 3 lakh at a competitive interest rate of 10.5% per annum onwards for a maximum tenure of 4 years.
The minimum loan amount has been fixed at Rs 20,000.
Loans of up to 85% of the on-road price of the vehicle can be availed under this scheme
WhatsApp plans to launch health insurance and micro-pension products on its messaging platform in India. It is partnering with which of the following to provide consumers with health insurance products?
WhatsApp, which counts India as its biggest market with 400 million users, is working in partnership with financial institutions on pilots of micro-insurance, and micro pension products.
It is partnering with the SBI General Insurance to provide consumers with health insurance products.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Indian Air Force in collaboration with which organisation has carried out a flight test of an indigenously developed smart anti-airfield weapon recently?
The weapon was launched by an IAF aircraft from Chandan ranges at Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
Electro-optical configuration of the system is equipped with Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) Seeker technology enhancing the weapon's precision strike capability.
The system is designed for a maximum range of 100 kilometres.
The weapon has been designed and developed by Research Centre Imarat (RCI) in coordination with DRDO Laboratories and IAF.
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Bengaluru has carried out weapon integration with the aircraft.
Which of the following was recognized with the 'Award of Merit' in the 2020 UNESCO Asia-Pacific Awards for Cultural Heritage Conservation?
This college has been built nearly 80 years ago.
The award was announced by a jury, comprising nine international conservation experts, and it was convened from November 20 to 22 to deliberate on the project entries.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Which among the following bank has signed a MoU with the Indian Navy for offering a defence service salary package?
Through the exclusive defence service salary package "Power Salute" Axis Bank will offer numerous benefits to all ranks of the Indian Navy, veterans and cadets.
The benefits include a personal accidental cover of up to Rs. 56 lakh to all navy personnel, veterans and cadets; additional up to Rs.8 lakh children education grant; total permanent disability cover benefit up to Rs.46 lakh; partial permanent disability cover of up to Rs.46 lakh; air accident cover of Rs.1 crore.
It also includes zero processing fee and 12 EMI waivers on home loans; three additional zero balance DSP accounts free for family member and universal account number across India allowing all Axis Bank branches to serve as home branch.
About Axis Bank
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra
CEO: Amitabh Chaudhary
What is the name of the first satellite by a start-up called Pixxel India that will be launched on PSLV C51 in February 2021?
Along with Anand, two more satellites under the space reform are going to be launched - one by Space Kidz India and another by a university consortium called UnitySat.
The satellite by Pixxel India is the first in a series of constellation of Earth Observation Satellites that will provide global coverage every 24-hour; enabling organisations to detect and monitor global phenomenon in near real-time.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
The Government of Meghalaya and the World Bank has signed ________million health project for the state of Meghalaya in November 2021.
All 11 districts of the state will benefit from the project.
It will also benefit health sector staff at the primary and secondary levels by strengthening their planning and management capabilities and building their clinical skills.
The project will enable women to better utilize healthcare services at the community level.
In October 2020, the RBI has extended whose term as the Chairman and Managing Director of Jammu & Kashmir Bank for a period of six months?
This is in effect from 10th October 2020 or till the appointment of MD & CEO, whichever is earlier.
In June 2019, RBI had approved his appointment as interim CMD of the bank, following the removal of Parvez Ahmed from the post by the state government.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
The Bombay Stock Exchange has collaborated with which private sector Bank to encourage and promote the listing of start-ups and SMES across India?
Through this pact, HDFC Bank and BSE will evaluate banking and lending solutions for startups, undergoing listing process on startups and SME platform.
The trilateral Naval exercise SITMEX-20 concluded in the Andaman Sea. Which among the following countries took part in it?
The first edition of SITMEX was hosted by Indian Navy at Port Blair in September 2019.
The 2020 edition of the exercise is being hosted by RSN (Singapore).
It is conducted annually.
It also aims to strengthen mutual confidence and develop common understanding and procedures towards enhancing the overall maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region.
The Indian Navy deployed indigenous Anti-Submarine Warfare corvette INS Kamorta and missile corvette INS Karmuk for the exercise.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Which among the following state’s CM has launched Janasevaka scheme to offer government services at the doorstep of citizens?
In the first phase, the scheme will be available in all 198 municipal wards in Bengaluru.
Under the scheme, citizens will be charged a facilitation fee of Rs115 along with department fee for the requested service.
In collaboration with USAID which of the following financial services provider has launched Project Kirana specifically focusing on the women Entrepreneurs?
The project has been launched with a focus on women entreprenures to help them thrive and grow.
The project will aim to impart knowledge about financial and literacy skills to the women entreprenures.
Women entreprenures will be taught about banking, digital payments, savings, insurance and credit.
The project will be first launched in Lucknow, kanpur and Varanasi on pilot basis.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
PTC India Ltd. has recently appointed Rajib Kumar Mishra as the chairman and managing director of the company. He replaced whom among the following?
Mishra joined PTC India in 2011 as executive director and is now a whole-time director since February 2015.
PTC India Ltd. (formerly known as Power Trading Corporation of India Limited), was incorporated in 1999 to undertake trading of power to achieve economic efficiency & security of supply & to develop a vibrant power market in the country.
In December 2020, the Government of India and the New Development Bank have signed a loan agreement for how many million dollars to mitigating the adverse economic impact of COVID-19 pandemic?
The programme will support the govt in mitigating the adverse economic impact of the COVID-19 pandemic and enable economic recovery in the rural areas through Natural Resource Management (NRM) works.
This will facilitate economic activity and employment generation to stimulate rural demand.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
The Minister of State for External Affairs V. Muraleedharan has on a five day official visit to Uganda and Rwanda in November 2021. Name the capital city of Uganda.
This was his first visit to both the countries.
During his visit to Uganda, Mr Muraleedharan held bilateral meetings with Minister of Foreign Affairs General JejeOdongo and Speaker of Parliament Jacob Oulanyah.
During his visit to Rwanda during 14th and 15th November, Mr Muraleedharan Co-Chaired the first India-Rwanda Joint Commission Meeting with Minister of Foreign Affairs and International Cooperation Dr. Vincent Biruta.
About Uganda
Capital: Kampala
Currency: Shilling
About Rwanda
Capital: Kigali
Currency: Franc
When any organization fails due to its faulty transaction and the losses occur due to this failure is borne by others it comes under which category of risk?
Operational risk-Operational risk arises when the organization fails to proceed their internal processes smoothly, example if a server is not working in the banks then the failure is said to be an operational failure.
Business risk-Business risk arises when the long term policy, ideas of the organization will fail due to certain conditions which can hamper its business profit and overall performance this leads to the business risk in the organization example if government rules will change suddenly for any sector that can lead to the business risk for certain organizations in that sector.
Liquidity risk-Liquidity risk arises when a financial institution is not able to bear its short term obligations which can be said as the day to day operations not bear by the organization then it is called liquidity risk.
Credit risk-Credit risk is the risk that arises when there is a liability mismatch arises in the financial institution which hampers the credit flow system in the financial institution and cash flows in the financial system. An example can be taken when NPA occurs in the banking system which hampers the cash flow in the system.
Hence, the correct option is (E).
Recently the Finance Ministry has issued a uniform staff accountability framework for NPA accounting up to ________.
These guidelines shall be implemented with effect from April 1, 2022, for accounts turning non-performing assets (NPAs) beginning next financial year.
Banks have been advised to revise their staff accountability policies based on these broad guidelines and frame the procedures with approval of the respective boards
These guidelines will help quell apprehension that bankers could be hauled up for their bonafide commercial decision to go wrong.
The Reserve Bank of India has amended KYC norms for banks and other lending institutions to use V-CIP. In V-CIP, V stands for ________.
This step will help on-boards customers remotely
This is an alternative method to recognize and to identify a customer.
Headquarters of RBI is in Mumbai.
Shanktikanta Das is a present and 25th Governor of RBI.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Recently P. Gopi Chand has formally launched his autobiography. He is associated with which field?
Pullela Gopichand is a former Indian badminton player. Currently, he is the Chief National Coach for the India national badminton team.
He won the All England Open Badminton Championships in 2001 becoming the second Indian to achieve this feat after Prakash Padukone.
In December 2020, which company has partnered with Russia’s Gamaleya Research Institute, (RDIF) and R-Pharm to assess the safety and immunogenicity of a combination of their respective adenovirus-vector vaccines AZD1222 and Sputnik V?
It will conduct a clinical trial to assess the safety and immunogenicity of a combination of their respective adenovirus-vector vaccines AZD1222 and Sputnik V.
The trial will begin enrolling adults aged 18 and older.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
November 15 has been marked as the Jharkhand Foundation Day. In which year was the state found?
It was on November 15 in 2000 when the Chotanagpur area was segregated from the southern half of Bihar to give rise to another state named Jharkhand.
By doing so, the latter became the 28th Indian state.
Jharkhand foundation day coincides with Bhagawan Birsa Munda's Birth Anniversary.
Who bagged the top spot to be named the People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) India’s hottest star?
While Sood has been named as the hottest vegetarian celebrity in the male category, actor Shraddha Kapoor has been given the same title in the female category.
Past winners of the award include Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Amitabh Bachchan etc.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Name the defence secretary who has released a book titled ‘FORCE IN STATECRAFT’?
The contributors of the book are all stalwarts of the Armed Forces, who have vast operational experience and understanding of several important cornerstones of forces and its application.
The book has been endorsed by eminent personalities like former Governor of Jammu &Kashmir Shri NN Vohra; Director, Vivekananda International Foundation and former Deputy National Security Advisor Dr Arvind Gupta;Professor of International Relation, King’s College London & Director of Research, Observer Research Foundation, New Delhi Dr Harsh V Pant and Prof Rajesh Rajagopalan, JNU.
International Migrants Day is observed every year on 18 December globally. The day was proclaimed by the UN General Assembly in which year?
The day was selected to mark the anniversary of the 1990 adoption by UNGA of the International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families.
The day was proclaimed by the UN General Assembly on 4 December 2000.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Professor Bimal Patel has been elected to the International Law Commission for 5 years. In which year was the International Law Commission established?
He is the Vice-Chancellor of the Rashtriya Raksha University and a member of the National Security Advisory Board of India.
He will serve a five-year term starting January 1, 2023.
The International Law Commission was established by the General Assembly in 1947.
In December 2020, which of the following organised "Sher-e-Kashmir", a bodybuilding competition in Srinagar in which youth from across Kashmir participated?
More than 50 young bodybuilders participated in the competition.
The main aim to organise this competition was to channelize the energy of the youth of Kashmir so that they do not deviate and choose the wrong path.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
On November 6, 2021 the Vietnam Railway, has launched the country’s first metro rail service in Hanoi. What is the currency of Vietnam?
The 13.1-km-long Line 2A of Hanoi Metro will connect Cat Linh to YehNghia with 12 stations.
The Chinese firm CRRC has supplied a total of 13 Rolling Stock (metro trains) for Vietnam’s first metro rail service in Hanoi. CRRC delivered the first metro train to Vietnam in March 2017.
Vietnam will use Third Rail DC for its metro rail service to ensure stability, safety, and urban landscape.
About Vietnam:
Capital: Hanoi
Currency: Dong
Which of the following minister launched the National Portal for Transgender Persons?
A 'Garima Greh: A Shelter Home for Transgender People' was also e-inaugurated on 25 November 2020 in Vadodara, Gujarat.
They will track the progress of their submission through the portal, which provides accountability in the process.
A significant feature of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 is the receipt of Transgender Certificates and Identification Cards according to their self-perceived identity.
The primary purpose of the shelter home is to offer basic services such as shelter, food, clothes, medical care and recreational facilities to transgender people.
The shelter will also provide capacity-building and skills-building support for transgender people, enabling them to live a life of dignity and respect.
In order to improve the conditions of transgender people across the world, the Union Social Justice Ministry has taken the first step by identifying 10 cities to set up 13 shelter homes.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
As per a recent NASA study on Climate change, which crop is set to see a growth of 17% due to climate change?
As per the study, Maize crop yields are projected to decline by 24%, while wheat could potentially see a growth of about 17%.
This is due to increases in temperature, shifts in rainfall patterns, and elevated surface CO2 concentrations from greenhouse gas emissions.
The Centre constituted a four-member committee to review the guidelines on television rating agencies in India. Who is the head of the committee?
The government has asked the panel to submit its report to the Information and Broadcasting minister within two months.
Committee constituted in the wake an alleged Television Rating Points (TRP) scam.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
The Indian government, the Central Water Commission, representatives from 10 participating states, and the World Bank signed a ________ million project for long-term dam safety programme.
The Indian government, the Central Water Commission, representatives from 10 participating states, and the World Bank signed a $250 million project for long-term dam safety programme and improving the safety and performance of existing dams across various states.
The Second Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP-2) will strengthen dam safety by building dam safety guidelines, bringing in global experience, and introducing innovative technologies.
Another major innovation envisaged under the project, that is likely to transform dam safety management, is the introduction of a risk-based approach to dam asset management that will help to effectively allocate financial resources towards priority dam safety needs.
The project will be implemented in approximately 120 dams across Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Meghalaya, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu, and at the national level through the CWC.
Other states or agencies may be added to the project during project implementation.
About World Bank:
The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects. Wikipedia
Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States
President: David Malpass
The beneficiaries of the scheme “Atma Nirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana” include employees in EPFO registered establishments who were on monthly wages less than-
During the announcement, the Finance Minister introduced the “Atma Nirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana”.
The beneficiaries of the scheme include employees in EPFO registered establishments who were on monthly wages less than Rs 15,000.
Atma Nirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana will benefit new employees of EPFO registered organizations and the new employees who had lost jobs between March 1, 2020, and September 30, 2020.
The centre under Atma Nirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana will provide subsidy for two years.
For the establishments employing up to 1000 employees, the GoI will provide employees’ contribution (12% of wages) and employer’s contribution (12% of the wages).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Who has approved the appointment of retired Bombay high court judge Justice V M Kanade as the new Lokayukta of Maharashtra?
Maharashtra was without a full-time Lokayukta for almost a year.
The previous Lokayukta, (retd) Justice M L Tahaliyani had completed his tenure in August 2020.
About Lokayukta:
The Lokayukta is an anti-corruption ombudsman.
Citizens can make complaints of corruption against any government official or elected representative directly to the Lokayukta, who is tasked with speedy redressal.
Which of the following Indian films has/have been selected for the Sundance Film Festival 2021?
The 2021 Sundance Film Festival was held from January 28 to February 3.
The festival is presented by Sundance Organisation.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
A book titled “Balakot Air Strike: How India Avenged Pulwama" was published by Garuda Prakashan and written by _______.
A new book revisits the chain of real-life events surrounding February 2019 Pulwama suicide bombing attack, and India's strong hit-back in the form of Balakot airstrikes twelve days later.
"Balakot Air Strike: How India Avenged Pulwama", published by Garuda Prakashan, is written by Navy veteran Manan Bhatt.
The book, in its detailed account of the "two epochal events", claims to capture everything "from moments before the ill-fated CRPF bus was hit, to the cockpits from where precision bombs were triggered and what transpired in those 12 momentous, expectation-filled days".
On February 26, 2019, Indian Air Force fighter jets crossed the Line of Control and destroyed terror launch pads in Balakot in Pakistan.
Indian Railways has come up with a Draft National Rail Plan that will be a common platform for all future planning of Railways for which of the following?
A long term strategic plan called the National Rail Plan has been developed to plan infrastructural capacity enhancement along with strategies to increase the modal share of the Railways.
It will be a common platform for all future infrastructural, business and financial planning of the Railways.
Hence, the correct option is (E).
The Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee has introduced seven new academic programs for the academic session 2021-2022.The Programmes are inter-disciplinary and multi-disciplinary and also in line with _________.
Which among the following is not correct about Demand Draft?
It is a negotiable instrument issued by the bank.
The drafts are payable on demand and it guarantees a certain amount of payment mentioning the name of the payee.
The bank issues the draft to a client (drawer) directing another bank or own branch to pay the specific amount to the payee.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Luciano Wernicke has authored a new book titled The Most Incredible Olympic Stories. The book was published by which publications?
About the Book: In that book Luciano Wernicke curates the oldest sporting tale— a tale that becomes the narrative of a modern civilisation. The Book maps the phenomenal journey of this marvellous event through time immemorial from its genesis to its glory days.
United States has banned SMIC from using American technology. SMIC is the chipmaker of which country?
The company illustrates the risks of China using US technology to modernize its military.
Dozens of Chinese companies, including SMIC and drone maker DJI, have been added to the Commerce Department's Entity List, which effectively cuts them off from US suppliers and technology.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Identify the correct pair of synonyms or antonyms from the given table.
Vicious: deliberately cruel or violent
Benevolent: well meaning and kindly
Repugnant: extremely distasteful; unacceptable
Sassy: lively, bold, and full of spirit; cheeky
Bipolar: characterized by both manic and depressive episodes, or manic ones only
Kindred: similar in kind; related
Vicious and Benevolent are antonyms.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Direction: Given below is a sentence with three blanks. Identify the correct order of words which can be used to fill in the given blanks.
This jail is _________ for __________ some of the most _________ criminals in the country.
A) Exploiting
B) Hapless
C) Infamous
D) Embellished
E) Housing
F) Notorious
To 'exploit' someone is to oppress them and discriminate against them.
'Hapless' means 'unfortunate'.
'Infamous' and 'notorious' mean 'famous for a bad quality'.
'Embellished' means 'decorated'.
To 'house' people is to serve as a place where they stay.
When the blanks are filled with words in the order given by Option 1, the sentence is 'This jail is notorious for housing some of the most infamous criminals in the country', which is both grammatically and contextually correct.
All other options give us sentences that are either grammatically or contextually incorrect.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
In the following question, a sentence/small paragraph has been given with a blank in it. Choose the most appropriate sentence from the options to make the paragraph/sentence meaningful, complete and coherent.
___________________ affecting normal life, as cyclone Jawad weakened into a depression, the Met department said.
In the following passage, some of the words/phrases have been highlighted in bold and some are left blank. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly:
If China was severely criticized for (a) keeping the SARS-CoV-2 outbreak that began in November 2019 __________ (b) in secrecy and for sharing the genetic sequence on a public database only on January 12, 2020, countries that are transparent and quick in sharing vital information are not rewarded but are punished. After the first infection by a new variant — it has 32 mutations in the spike protein alone — was confirmed from a fellow collected on November 9, Botswana and South Africa __________ (c) posted its genetic sequence on the public database, on November 23. Instead, the travel bans now imposed on South Africa and a few other African countries are not only congruent but can actually be counterproductive. Such _______ (d) decisions disincentivize countries from promptly reporting and sharing vital data with huge public health implications, particularly during the pandemic.
Which of the following words fits aptly in the blank (d)?
I. impulsive
II. impetuous
III. rash
Hence option E is the correct answer.
In the following passage, some of the words/phrases have been highlighted in bold and some are left blank. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly:
If China was severely criticized for (a) keeping the SARS-CoV-2 outbreak that began in November 2019 __________ (b) in secrecy and for sharing the genetic sequence on a public database only on January 12, 2020, countries that are transparent and quick in sharing vital information are not rewarded but are punished. After the first infection by a new variant — it has 32 mutations in the spike protein alone — was confirmed from a fellow collected on November 9, Botswana and South Africa __________ (c) posted its genetic sequence on the public database, on November 23. Instead, the travel bans now imposed on South Africa and a few other African countries are not only congruent but can actually be counterproductive. Such _______ (d) decisions disincentivize countries from promptly reporting and sharing vital data with huge public health implications, particularly during the pandemic.
Which of the following words fits aptly in the blank (c)?
I. idly
II. assiduously
III. diligently
In the following passage, some of the words/phrases have been highlighted in bold and some are left blank. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly:
If China was severely criticized for (a) keeping the SARS-CoV-2 outbreak that began in November 2019 __________ (b) in secrecy and for sharing the genetic sequence on a public database only on January 12, 2020, countries that are transparent and quick in sharing vital information are not rewarded but are punished. After the first infection by a new variant — it has 32 mutations in the spike protein alone — was confirmed from a fellow collected on November 9, Botswana and South Africa __________ (c) posted its genetic sequence on the public database, on November 23. Instead, the travel bans now imposed on South Africa and a few other African countries are not only congruent but can actually be counterproductive. Such _______ (d) decisions disincentivize countries from promptly reporting and sharing vital data with huge public health implications, particularly during the pandemic.
Q. Which of the following words fits aptly in the blank (b)?
I) Shrouded
II) Cloaked
III) Revered
In the following passage, some of the words/phrases have been highlighted in bold and some are left blank. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly:
If China was severely criticized for (a) keeping the SARS-CoV-2 outbreak that began in November 2019 __________ (b) in secrecy and for sharing the genetic sequence on a public database only on January 12, 2020, countries that are transparent and quick in sharing vital information are not rewarded but are punished. After the first infection by a new variant — it has 32 mutations in the spike protein alone — was confirmed from a fellow collected on November 9, Botswana and South Africa __________ (c) posted its genetic sequence on the public database, on November 23. Instead, the travel bans now imposed on South Africa and a few other African countries are not only congruent but can actually be counterproductive. Such _______ (d) decisions disincentivize countries from promptly reporting and sharing vital data with huge public health implications, particularly during the pandemic.
Q. Which of the following words replaces the highlighted word “congruent”?
I. incongruous
II. proscribed
III. felicitous
Here “congruent” which means in agreement or harmony has no relation with the context, thus it alters the entire meaning of the sentence. The correct word to be used is Incongruous which means not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something.
Felicitous- fortunate
Proscribed- forbid, prohibited
Hence option A is the correct answer.
In the following passage, some of the words/phrases have been highlighted in bold and some are left blank. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly:
If China was severely criticized for (a) keeping the SARS-CoV-2 outbreak that began in November 2019 __________ (b) in secrecy and for sharing the genetic sequence on a public database only on January 12, 2020, countries that are transparent and quick in sharing vital information are not rewarded but are punished. After the first infection by a new variant — it has 32 mutations in the spike protein alone — was confirmed from a fellow collected on November 9, Botswana and South Africa __________ (c) posted its genetic sequence on the public database, on November 23. Instead, the travel bans now imposed on South Africa and a few other African countries are not only congruent but can actually be counterproductive. Such _______ (d) decisions disincentivize countries from promptly reporting and sharing vital data with huge public health implications, particularly during the pandemic.
Q. Which of the following words replaces the highlighted word “fellow”?
I. Locus
II. Specimen
III. paradigm
Paradigm- something or someone serving as a basis for imitation, locus.
Hence option B is the correct answer.
In the following passage, some of the words/phrases have been highlighted in bold and some are left blank. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly:
If China was severely criticized for (a) keeping the SARS-CoV-2 outbreak that began in November 2019 __________ (b) in secrecy and for sharing the genetic sequence on a public database only on January 12, 2020, countries that are transparent and quick in sharing vital information are not rewarded but are punished. After the first infection by a new variant — it has 32 mutations in the spike protein alone — was confirmed from a fellow collected on November 9, Botswana and South Africa __________ (c) posted its genetic sequence on the public database, on November 23. Instead, the travel bans now imposed on South Africa and a few other African countries are not only congruent but can actually be counterproductive. Such _______ (d) decisions disincentivize countries from promptly reporting and sharing vital data with huge public health implications, particularly during the pandemic.
Q. Which of the following phrases/group of words are inappropriate in the context of highlighted phrase (a)?
Direction: In the question given below, there are five statements marked A-E. All the statements except one belong to the same context. Find the odd one out and mark the correct answer from the given options.
A. In India, even now the rural areas lack access to basic financial services.
B. Mutual funds may offer two schemes - dividend (profits are given to investors from time to time) and growth (profits are ploughed back into the scheme leading to higher NAV).
C. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had a mandate to promote rural credit and banking by virtue of the provisions of Section 54 of the RBI Act. Through the State Bank of India (SBI) Act in 1955, the SBI was made an important organisation for extending rural credit to supplement the efforts of cooperative institutions.
D. The growth of the rural retail banking industry fosters financial inclusion by providing financial products and services to people in the farthest reaches of the country.
E. However, the recent emergence of microfinance institutions (MFIs) and non-banking financial corporations (NBFCs) in this rural sector has led to a commendable growth in the industry.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
In each of the following questions a scenario has been described. It narrates something. First you need to understand what the paragraph conveys. Then you have to find out what the given scenario is inferring about the same in one word from the options given below.
The scenario is termed as_________
Quaint means attractively unusual or old-fashioned.
Fudge- to cheat or lie through exaggeration.
Feign- pretend
Titular- having a completely arbitrary position that is of no real power or authority
Hence option B is the correct answer.
In each of the following questions a scenario has been described. It narrates something. First you need to understand what the paragraph conveys. Then you have to find out what the given scenario is inferring about the same in one word from the options given below.
This personality trait of Mr. Sharma is termed as __________.
You might get confused between Quaint and Orthodox, but these both are totally different.
Quaint means attractively unusual or old-fashioned.
Fudge- to cheat or lie through exaggeration
Hence option C is the correct answer.