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# Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - CAT

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## 150 Questions MCQ Test SNAP Mock Test Series - Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 for CAT 2023 is part of SNAP Mock Test Series preparation. The Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CAT exam syllabus.The Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 MCQs are made for CAT 2023 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 below.
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Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 1

### An item is marked at Rs.200 and a discount of 25% is given on MP. The item costs Rs. 80 and another item worth Rs. x is sold with it (at cost). The overall profit made was 50%. Find x (in Rs.).

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 1

SP of first item = 0.75 x 200 = Rs. 150 and CP of this item = Rs. 80
CP and SP of the other item = Rs. x (as it is being sold at cost).

Total CP in the transaction = Rs. (80 + x)

Total SP in the transaction = Rs. (150 + x)

Since profit = 50%

150 + x= 1.5(80 + x)

150 + x= 120 + 1.5x

x = 60

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 2

### On New Year’s eve Ram walks to Shyam’s house. He walks 40% of the distance at 30% of his actual speed, 30% of the remaining distance at 50% of his speed and the remaining distance at his actual speed of 20km/hr. Find his average speed.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 2

Let the distance between Ram and Shyam’s house be 10D km.

He walks 40% of the distance at 30% of his actual speed.

Therefore, he walks 4D km at 6 km/hr.
He walks 30% of the remaining distance at 50% of his speed. Therefore, he walks 1.8D km at 10 km/hr.
He walks the remaining distance at his actual speed.
Therefore, he walks 4.2D km at 20 km/hr.

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 3

### Aman's investment of Rs. 20,000 amounted to Rs. 35000 in a period of 8 months. In how much time, at the same rate, will Rs. 5600 amount to Rs. 9800?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 3

By observation,

The time required for Rs. 5600 to amount to Rs. 9800 will be the same as that required for Rs. 20,000 to amount to Rs. 35,000.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 4

The compound interest on a sum of money for 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest for the third year is

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 4

Difference in Cl and SI in second year = Rs 32

Cl = SI for fist year = 800/2 = 400

This difference of Rs. 32 is the SI earned on Rs. 400 on one year (as the SI on first year is also added to principal for second year).

r= [(100 x 32)/(400 x 1)] = 8% Difference between Cl and SI for 3rd year = SI on Rs. 832 for one year

= (832 x 1 x 8)/100

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 5

Three unbiased dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the three numbers on them is divisible by 4?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 5

When three unbiased dice are thrown, there are 63 = 216 combinations possible.
The least possible sum is 3 and the highest possible sum is 18.

The multiples of 4 in this range are 4, 8, 12 and 16

Sum = 4:

Obtained for the combination (1,1, 2).

This combination can be made in 3!/2! = 3 ways

Sum = 8:

Obtained for the combinations(1, 1,6)- possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways (1,2, 5) - possible in 3! = 6 ways (1, 3, 4) - possible in 3! = 6 ways (2, 2, 4) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways (2, 3, 3) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways

Total number of ways = 3 + 6 + 6 + 3 + 3 = 21

Sum = 12:

Obtained for the combinations

(1, 5, 6) - possible in 3! = 6 ways

(2, 4, 6) - possible in 3! = 6 ways

(2, 5, 5) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways (3, 3, 6) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways

(3, 4, 5) - possible in 3! = 6 ways

(4, 4, 4) - possible in 1 way

Total number of ways = 6 + 6 + 3 + 3 + 6 + 1 =25

Sum = 16:

Obtained for the combinations

(4, 6, 6) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways

(5, 5, 6) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways Total number of ways = 3 + 3 = 6 Overall total unmber of ways = 3 + 21 + 25 + 6 = 55

Required probability = 55/216 = 0.254 Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 6

Distance between A and B is 100 m. If P and Q start simultaneously from A and B respectively, then they meet in 4 seconds. If P and Q start simultaneously from A to reach B, then P beats Q by 20 m. How much time will P take to cover 200 m at the same speed?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 6

Let the speeds of P and Q be p and q respectively.
Given that P beats Q by 20 m. This means that the time taken by P to cover 100 m is same as that taken by Q to cover 80 m. Therefore, 4p = 5q.
Given that P and Q start simultaneously from A and B respectively, and they meet in 4 seconds.

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 7

Sahil has drawn an isosceles triangle. The length of two of the sides of the triangle measure 4 cm and 10 cm. Which of the following is the semiperimeter of the triangle?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 7

Given triangle is an isosceles triangle.
The third side = 4 cm or 10 cm

For a triangle, sum of any two sides is greater than the third side.

4 cm cannot be the third side, as 4 + 4 < 10

We can check that for 4 cm, 10 cm and 10 cm, sum of any two sides is greater than the third side.
The third side = 10 cm

Semiperimeter of the triangle = (4 + 10 + 10)/2 = 12 cm

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 8

A number whose value is increased by 50% is equal to A. The same number when decreased by 22.22% is equal to B. It is given that A + B = 533/18. Find the number.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 8

Let the number be x.

27x + 14x = 533 .

x = 533/41 = 13

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 9

If log1227 = a and log916 = b, what is the value of log8108?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 9

log8108 = log8(4 x 27)

log8108 = log84 + log827

log84 = 2/3

log827 = (log1627)/(log168)

log827 = (log1627)/(3/4)

log827 = 4/3 (log1627)

log827 = 4/3[(log927)/(log916)]

log827 = 4/3[(3/2)/(log916)]

log827 = 2/b

Iog8108 = 2/3 + 2/b

2(1/3 + 1/b)

= 2(b + 3)/3b

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 10

37.5% of the guests in a party were non-vegetarians. 300 males were vegetarians and 37.5% of guests were females. How many females were non-vegetarians?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 10

Let there be x guests.

0.375x people are non-vegetarians. 0.625x are vegetarians.
Now, 0.375x are females

0.625x are males.
We have the following;

(m + n) + (0.625x - 300) + 300 = x

But we don't have any relationship between m and n.
Hence, we cannot uniquely determine the non-vegetarian female guest.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 11

If b = 4c, 2c = 9d and d= 13e, how is b expressed in terms of e?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 11

2c = 9d = 9 x 13e

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 12

A cylindrical wire is made using an old wire. If radius of the new wire is 2 times that of the original, what is the ratio of the length of the new wire to the length of the original wire?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 12

Let the radius of an old wire be rand length of an old wire be h.
Radius of new wire = 2r and Length of new wire = H

Also, πrh= π(2r)2H

H : h = 1 : 4

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 13

Duration of a metro journey varies directly as the distance and inversely as the velocity. The velocity varies directly as the square root of the quantity of electricity used; and inversely as the number of carriages in the train. 100 units of electricity is required for the journey of 50 km in half an hour with 18 carriages. How much electricity will be consumed in a journey of 42 km in 28 minutes with 16 carriages?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 13

Where t is time, s is distance, v is velocity, Q is the amount of electricity used, n is the number of carriages and k1,k2 k care constants. Also, k = k1,k2

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 14

I bought 30 books on Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, priced at Rs.17, Rs.19, and Rs. 23 per book respectively, for distribution among poor students of Standard X of a school. The Physics books were more in number than the Mathematics books but less than the Chemistry books, the difference being more than one. The total cost amounted to Rs.620. How many books on Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry could have been bought respectively?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 14

Options 2 and 4 can be eliminated as the difference between the set of books is not always greater than 1.
Option 1: Total price = 5 x 1 7 + 8 x 1 9 + 1 7 x 2 3 = 628  620. Thus, this option is incorrect.
O ption 3: Total price = 5 x 1 7 + 1 0 x 1 9 + 1 5 x 2 3 = 620. Thus, this set is the correct number of books bought.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 15

An amount is divided between A and B in the ratio 4 : 3. Due to an error in calculation, A was given one-seventh of the total amount more, while B got the remaining amount. What is the new ratio of the amounts with A and B?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 15

Let the total amount be 7x.
A is supposed to get 4x and B is supposed to get 3x.
But actually A gets (1/7)th part of 7x more i.e. x more.
Thus A gets 5x and B gets the remaining 2x.
Thus, the new ratio is 5 : 2.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 16

Neha has 10 bangles of different colours which she wants to distribute among her two sisters and herself. She intends to keep 50% of the bangles for herself and divide the remaining in such a way that Meena gets one more bangle than Kajol. In how many ways can she divide the bangles?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 16

Neha keeps 5 bangles for herself, gives Meena 3 bangles and Kajol 2 bangles.
A group of p + q + r items can be divided into groups of p, q and r in (p + q + r)!/p! q! r! ways.
Number of ways in which she can divide the bangles = 10!/(5!3!2!) = 2520 ways.
Hence, option 3

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 17

A, B and C work together and complete a task in 19 days. A and B together are twice as efficient as C alone while A and C together are thrice as efficient as B alone. In how many days can C alone complete the task?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 17

Let A, B and C individually do a, b and c units of work per day. a + b = 2 c ... (i) Similarly, a + c = 3b ... (ii)

When all three work together, total work done per day = a + b + c
Using (i) and (ii), total work done per day (in units) = 3c = 4b

Since the three of them can finish the work in 19 days, let the total work be the LCM of 3, 4 and 19 i.e. 228 units

Total work done per day (in units) = 3c = 228/19 = 12

c = 4 i.e. C can do 4 units of work per day

Hence, if C were to work alone, C could complete the task in 228/4 = 57 days Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 18

From the top of a 15 m high building AB, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 60° and the angle of the depression of the foot of the tower is 30°. What is the height of the tower?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 18

Let the height of the tower be denoted by CD (as shown below with the angle of elevation and depression).

Y= 15m CD = 45 + 15 = 60 m Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 19

Find the sum of the factors of 360.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 19

360 = 23 x 32 x 5

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 20

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 20

Rationalizing,

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 21

Amir and Akbar enter a circular jogging track of length 300 m. They start at the same point running in opposite directions at the speeds of 10 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. How much distance would Akbar have covered by the time they both meet for the 30th time?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 21

The length of the circular track is 300 m.
Relative speed of Akbar and Amir = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s

Time after their start after which they meet = 300/25 = 12 s

Now, the distance between them is 300 m and they are running in opposite directions.
They will meet again after 12 s.
They will meet for the 30th time after 12 * 30 = 360 s

Distance covered by Akbar when he meets Amir for the 30th time = 15 x 360 = 5400 m = 5.4 km

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 22

In a housing society, 28 people read Times of India, 35 people read DNA and 12 people read neither. If the society has 65 people, how many people read both newspapers?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 22

Let x people read both newspapers. (28 - x) + (35 - x) + x + 12 = 65

75 - x = 65

x = 10

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 23

The difference between 50% of x and 40% of y is 36. The sum of 25% of x and 10% of y is 45. What will be 10% of (x + y)?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 23

Solving (i) and (ii), x = 144 and y = 90 10% of (x + y) = 0.1 (144 + 90) = 23.4 Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 24

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 24

We know the formula,

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 25

What is the highest power of 5 that can exactly divide 480!

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 25

The highest power of 5 that can exactly divide 480! is the sum of the number of multiples of 5 in 480!, the number of multiples of 25 in 480! and the number of multiples of 125 in 480!.
The highest power of 5 that can exactly divide 480!

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 26

A contractor undertakes to dig a canal 10 km long in 180 days and employs 40 men. After 60 days he finds that only 2.5 km of the canal has been completed. To complete the work on the scheduled time how many men does he have to increase?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 26

In 60 days 40 men completed 2.5 km of the canal.
Let x number of men be required to complete 10 - 2.5 = 7.5 km of the canal in 180 - 60 = 120 days.

M1 xD1 x W2 = M2 x D2 x W1

60 x 40 x 7.5 = x x 120 x 2.5

x = 60 men

So the contractor requires 60 - 40 = 20 more men to complete the work on the scheduled time.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 27

If a, b, c are the roots of the equation x3 - 4x2 + x + 6 = 0, where a > b> c, find ab + c?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 27

x3 - 4x2 + x + 6 = 0

This equation can be factorized in the form: ( x - 2)(x - 3)(x + 1)
So, the roots of this equation are 2, 3 and -1.
So a = 3, b = 2 and c = -1. ab + c= ( 3 x 2 ) + (-1 ) = 5

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 28

On offering a discount of 40% on the marked price, a trader suffers a loss of 25%. What should be the percentage discount offered so that the trader makes a profit of 10%?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 28

Let the cost price of the article be Rs. 100.
Since the trader suffers a loss of 25% in the first transaction, his loss is Rs. 25 and consequently, the selling price is Rs. 75.
This selling price corresponds to a 40% discount i.e. the article is sold at 60% of the marked price.

In the second case, if the trader wants to make a profit of 10%, he should sell at Rs. 110.

Discount in this case = 125 - 110 = Rs. 15

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 29

A barrel has 100 litres of pure alcohol. 20 litres of alcohol is removed and replaced with the same amount of water. This process is repeated two more times. What is the amount of alcohol in the resultant solution?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 29

The above solution of alcohol has been successively diluted three times. Hence we use the formula for successive dilution.

Where v is the initial volume of pure alcohol, c is the concentration of the alcohol after replacements and x is the volume of alcohol replaced.

Amount of alcohol in the resultant solution = 0.512 * 100 = 51.2 litres Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 30

The average height of Prakash, Qaiser, and Ronak is 154 cm. Another person Santosh joins the group and the average height now becomes 162 cm. If another person Tarun whose height is 10 cm less than that of Santosh, replaces Qaiser then the average height of the group becomes 145 cm. What is the height of Qaiser?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 30

Let the heights of Prakash, Qaiser, Ronak, Santosh and Tarun be p, q, r, s and t respectively.

It is given that,

p + q + r - 154 x 3 = 462 ... (i)

p + q + r + s = 162 * 4 = 648 ... (ii)

s = 186 cm

It is given that,

t = s - 10 = 176 cm

p + r + s + t = 580

p + r = 580 - (186 + 176) = 218 ... (iii)

Subtracting (iii) from (i), q = 244
The height of Qaiser = 244 cm

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 31

A rectangular park 30 m long and 20 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park parallel to its sides and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 504 sq. m, then what is the width of the road?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 31

Area of the park = (30 x 20) m2 = 600m2

Area of the lawn = 504 m2

Area of the crossroads = (600 - 504) m2 = 96 m2

Let the width of the road be x meters. 30x + 20x - x2 = 96

⇒ x2 - 50x + 96 = 0

⇒ (x - 48)(x - 2) = 0

⇒ x = 2

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 32

The average age of a family is 42 years. In the next year, one person dies and another person gets married to a 25 year old person. Initially, there are seven people in the family. What is the new average age of the family?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 32

Since the age of the person who died is not known, the new average of the family cannot be determined.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 33

Raju can complete a task in 16 days while Chandu can complete it in 9 days. Mahesh joins them in the task. On day 1 only Raju works, on day 2 only Chandu works, on day 3 only Mahesh works and so on. In this manner, they complete the work in 12 days. In how many days can Mahesh complete the task alone?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 33

Let the total amount of work be the LCM of 16, 9 and 12 i.e. 144 units.
Thus Raju does 9 units per day and Chandu does 16 units of work per day.
Let Mahesh complete x units of work in a day.
One cycle of 3 days comprises one day of work each from the three of them.
Since the total work is completed in 12 days, each of them works for 4 days. 4(16 + 9 + x) = 144

x = 11

Mahesh can complete the work alone in 144/11 = 13.09 days.

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 34

Nipun mixes two varieties of rice costing Rs. 50 per kg and Rs. 80 per kg and sells the mix at Rs. 75 per kg to gain 25% in the deal. If he sells 150 kg of the mix, how much of it is the cheaper variety of rice?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 34

Let 1 kg of mixture contains the cheaper and dearer variety of rice in the ratio x : y

Then,

50x + 80y = 60x + 60y 10x = 20y x = 2y
Each kg of the mix contains 1 part of the dearer variety and 2 parts of the cheaper variety. 150 kg of the mix contains 100 kg of the cheaper variety. Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 35

Find the sum of the squares of the medians of the triangle having sides equal to 8, 8 and 14 units.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 35

Here AB = AC = 8 and BC —=14, hence AF = BF = 8/2

Using the Apollonius theorem: AB2 + AC2 = 2(AD2 + BD2)

82 + 82 = 2(AD2 + 72)
AD2 = 15
Similarly, we get BE2 = CF2 = 114

AD2 + BE2 + CF2 = 15 + 114 + 114 = 243 units

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 36

Answer the questions based on the following graph.

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q.if the 2nd game’s score hadn’t been added to Vikas’ total score due to some technical error, then his rank would____. The total score of all the other players remains the same.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 36

The score of Vikas in the 2nd game = 0.2 * 3000 = 600

Thus, Vikas’ score would now become 3000 - 600 = 2400.

There was no change in the score of the other players.

Vikas’ original rank was 2nd and his new rank is still 2nd.

Thus, there is no change in his rank.
Hence, option 4

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 37

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q.What is the combined score of Vikas in the 4th, 5th and 7th games put together?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 37

Total score of Vikas = 3000

The 4th, 5th and 7th together account for (15 + 16 + 9)% i.e. 40% of his total score.
Therefore, his combined score in these three games taken together = 0.4 * 3000 = 1200.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 38

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q.If Deepu and Mayank respectively scored 10% and 15% of their total score in the 3rd game, then by what percentage was the score of Mayank in the 3rd game more than the score of Deepu in the 3rd game?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 38

Deepu’s score in the 3rd game = 0.1 x 2200 = 220

Mayank’s score in the 3rd game = 0.15 x 3200 = 480

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 39

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q.If all the friends got the same score in their 6th game, then how many of them scored more than 10% of their total score in the 6th game?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 39

Vikas got 10% of 3000 i.e. a score of 300 in his 6th game.
Therefore, everyone got 300 in their 6th game.
Thus, any player who has a total of less than 3000 will have scored more than 10% of their total score in the 6th game. 4 players (Shamur, Anjali, Deepu and Vinod) have a total score of less than 3000 and so satisfy the given condition.
Thus, there are 4 such players.

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 40

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q.If in the 1st game, Vinod scored 10% more than what Vikas scored, then what percentage of his total score did Vinod score in his 1st game?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 40

The score of Vinod in the 1st game can be given as:

Thus, the required percentage = (594/1800) x 100 = 33%

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 41

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The following table shows the number of boys and girls (in lakhs) pursuing higher education during the period 2007 to 2010 in country X.

Q.What is the maximum percentage increase in the number of  boys pursuing higher education between any two consecutive years?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 41

From the table we can see that the increase in number of boys is less than 20% in 2008 and in 2009 the number of boys have decreased. The increase in the number of boys pursuing higher education in 2010 is more than 50%.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 42

The following table shows the number of boys and girls (in lakhs) pursuing higher education during the period 2007 to 2010 in country X.

Q.What percentage of students pursuing higher education are girls (during the years 2007 to 2010)?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 42

During the years 2007 to 2010, Number of girls = 40 + 30 + 40 + 60 = 170

Number of boys = 65 + 75 + 50 + 80 = 270

Total number of students = 170 + 270 = 440

Percentage of girls = 170/440 * 100 « 38.6%

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 43

The following table shows the number of boys and girls (in lakhs) pursuing higher education during the period 2007 to 2010 in country X.

Q.In which year was the increase in the number of girls pursuing higher education as compared to the previous year maximum?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 43

It is in the year 2010, the number of girls pursuing college education is 50% more than the number of girls pursuing college education in 2009.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 44

The following table shows the number of boys and girls (in lakhs) pursuing higher education during the period 2007 to 2010 in country X.

Q.In which year was the ratio of number of boys and girls pursuing college education the most?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 44

The ratio of number of boys and girls pursuing college education is maximum in the year 2008 (number of boys is more than twice the number of girls).
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 45

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

The prevailing belief in Santa Claus should be deemed not only outdated but also harmful to children. There are still those who continue to believe that a red-robed fat old man travels around the world on a sleigh drawn by reindeer, climbs down chimneys and delivers presents to good children while they sleep. But who has chimneys in their homes these days? And the postal department does not deliver letters addressed to Santa Claus because he doesn’t exist. Worse, there is something sinister about propagating the idea to children that a stranger can enter one’s home in the middle of the night.

Q.Which of the following statements would strengthen the argument?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 45

The main argument in the passage is that The prevailing belief in Santa Claus should be deemed not only outdated but also harmful to children’.
The author focuses his attention on the effect that this belief has on children. The correct answer should state the harmful effect of this belief on children.
Option 2 has no reference to Santa Claus.
Option 3 would weaken rather than strengthen the argument.
The former part of option 4 strengthens and the latter part weakens the core assertion.
Option 1 gives a clear reason why the belief is harmful to children- parents will begin by lying to children about Santa Claus and then later about other things.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 46

In a particular city, a theatre is 4 km south and 7 km east of the market. To reach the market from his house, Harshti must walk 6 km north, then turn right and walk 3 km. If Harshit wants to reach the theatre directly from his house, which of the following steps must he follow?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 46

The position of Harshit w.r.t the market and theatre is as shown below.

Observe that the theatre is to the north-east of Harshit.
Distance that he must travel north = 6 - 4 = 2 km and distance that he must travel east = 3 + 7 = 10 km Thus, Harshit must walk 2 km north, turn right and then walk 10 km.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 47

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a certain mathematical code, a \$ b implies a  b, a # b means a - b, a % b means a + b and a & b means a x b.

Q.What will be the last digit of the simplified expression 34 \$ 2 & 8 % 7 # 20 & 5? Assume that the rules of BODMAS apply.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 47

34 \$ 2 & 8 % 7# 20 & 5 = 34  2 x 8 + 7 - 2 0 * 5

= 1 7 x 8 + 7 - 2 0 x 5

= 136 + 7 - 1 0 0
= 43
Thus, the required last digit is 3 Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 48

In a certain mathematical code, a \$ b implies a  b, a # b means a - b, a % b means a + b and a & b means a x b.

Q.Assuming that the rules of BODMAS apply, the value of the expression 24 & 3 % 22 \$ 11 # 7 is:

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 48

24 & 3 % 22 \$ 11 # 7 = 24 x 3 + 22 + 11 - 7

= 72 + 2 - 7
= 67
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 49

Q.What is the value of the set {a, b, c}?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 49

a will be the square of 7 i.e 49.

b will be the square of 11 i.e 121.

c will be the square of 13 i.e 169.
So, {a, b,c}={49, 121, 169}

Hence, option 4

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 50

Each of the questions below has a set of sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following:

A. Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘F’ )

B. Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an T )

C. Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement w ith a ‘J’ )

Select the answer option that best describes the set of statements.

Consider the following statements:

A. Persuading voters that health and pension spending should get the same treatment would be more of a challenge.
B. But on subsidising people not to work, if anything, the Coalition is being too kind.
C. Labour has been forced to shift its ground accordingly.
D. Mr Miliband is promising a three-year cap on “structural welfare spending” in response to the coalition

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 50

Statement A can be inferred from events of the past, hence it is an inference. Statement B is a conclusion which cannot be verified accurately on the part of the author. Statement C can be verified and is therefore, a fact. The last statement too, can be verified and hence is a fact. Thus, the correct sequence id IJFF. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 51

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In the figure above, rectangle represents males, circle represents Indians, triangle represents teachers and square represents science graduates.

Q.Which of the following regions represents male science graduates who are not Indians but are teachers?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 51

Male science graduates who are not Indians but are teachers implies the region lying within the rectangle, square and triangles but outside the circle.
Region E satisfies these conditions.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 52

In the figure above, rectangle represents males, circle represents Indians, triangle represents teachers and square represents science graduates.

Q.Which of the following regions represents Indian females who are teachers but not science graduates?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 52

Indian females means the region within the circle but outside the rectangle i.e. regions I, J and M.
Teachers who are not science graduates implies the region lying within the triangle but outside the square.
Among regions, I, J and M, only region I satisfies theses conditions.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 53

In the figure above, rectangle represents males, circle represents Indians, triangle represents teachers and square represents science graduates.

Q.Region L corresponds to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 53

Region L lies within the circle, rectangle and square but outside the trigangle.
Thus, it represents Indian males who are science graduates but not teachers.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 54

How would ‘MACHINE’ be coded in a certain language, if ‘SWITCHES’ is coded as ‘VZLWFKHV’ in the same language?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 54

S + 3 = V, W + 3 = Z, I + 3 = L, T + 3 = W, C + 3 = F, H + 3 = K, E
+ 3 = H,S + 3 = V
Thus, each letter is replaced by the third letter after it.
Applying this logic to MACHINE; M + 3 = P, A + 3 = D, C + 3 = F, H + 3 = K, l + 3 = L, N + 3 = Q, E + 3 = H Thus, ‘MACHINE’ would be coded as ‘PDFKLQH’.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 55

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A family of 7 members comprises 3 males and 4 females. There are 2 married couples in this family. F is the grand-daughter of C, who has only 2 sons - A and E. B is the son of D who is married to E. G is the mother of F. A does not have a sister.

Q.How is B related to F?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 55

There are three males and four females in the family. First identify the males and females.
C has only two sons - A and E. B is the son of D. Thus, A, B and E are the males while C, D, F and G are the females.
Now, B is the son of D who is married to E. Thus, E and D form a couple with E being the husband.
F is the grand-daughter of C and G is the mother of F. Now, C has two sons - A and E - while A does not have a sister. Thus, A and E are the only children of C.
So, F can be the grand-daughter of C when G is the wife of A (as the other couple is D-E).
Hence, the entire family tree is as shown below:

Thus, B and F are cousins.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 56

A family of 7 members comprises 3 males and 4 females. There are 2 married couples in this family. F is the grand-daughter of C, who has only 2 sons - A and E. B is the son of D who is married to E. G is the mother of F. A does not have a sister.

Q.Which of these represents a valid married couple in this family?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 56

Consider the solution to the first question. The two married couples are A-G and E-D. Only A-G is given in the options.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 57

A family of 7 members comprises 3 males and 4 females. There are 2 married couples in this family. F is the grand-daughter of C, who has only 2 sons - A and E. B is the son of D who is married to E. G is the mother of F. A does not have a sister.

Q.How many grandchildren does C have?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 57

Consider the solution to the first question. C has two grandchildren - B and F.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 58

If x is prime, x is odd. Which of the following statements is definitely true when x = 15?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 58

The given statement leads to four conclusions:

1) If x is prime, x is odd

2) If x is not prime, x may or may not be odd

3) If x is not odd, x is not prime

4) If x is odd, x may or may not be prime

When x = 15, x is odd and x is not prime.
Since x is not prime, it may or may not be odd. Hence, the statements in options 1 and 2 are not definitely true.
Since x is odd, it may or may not be prime. Hence, the statement in option 3 is definitely true.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 59

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Following the recent terrorist attacks in the country, the media and a section of the populace demanded the resignation of the Home Minister, the person charged with the portfolio of internal security.

Q.The above argument finds a parallel in which of the following cases?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 59

The argument employed by the media and the people appears to be that technically, responsibility of a department lies with the highest authority. Thus, on moral grounds, the highest authority has to resign. A parallel can be found in option 2.
Option 1 can be negated as the misdemeanor has in fact been committed by the top authority.
Option 3 is incorrect as moral responsibility of the fall of performance in the players cannot be attributed to the manager. Option 4 would have been correct if the Home minister would have been charged with not following the laws / abiding by the constitution.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 60

240 students of ABC school were asked about their favorites sport among Cricket, Soccer and Hockey. It was noted that 80 students liked more then one sport while 30 students did not like any of these sports. The number of students who liked only cricket was equal to the number of students who liked two or more sports among the three. What is the total number of students who liked only Soccer and only Hockey?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 60

A Venn diagram showing the three sports surveyed can be drawn as shown above:

Number of students who liked more than one sport = 80

Number of students who liked none of these sports = 30

Number of students who liked atleast one sport = 240 - 30 = 210
Number of students who liked exactly one sport = 210 - 80 = 130
Thus, students who liked only cricket + students who liked only soccer + students who liked only hockey =130

a + b + c = 130

Since the number of students who liked only one sport = number of students who liked more than one sport; a = 80

80 + b + c = 130

b + c = 130 - 80 = 50 Hence, number of students who liked only soccer + number of students who liked only hockey = 50.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 61

Read the following question and answer accordingly.

Students in college ABC graduate in subject ‘S’. All of them chose a post-graduate degree in a never-before-studied subject ‘D’. This decision is made as a consequence of poor grades in subject S, strict evaluation of paper S and the anticipated leniency in terms of paper evaluation in subject ‘D’.
If all the students are allowed to do their post-graduate degree in subject ‘D’, which of the statements weakens the argument?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 61

The statement says that students without any knowledge of subject D want to do a higher degree in it only because their graduating subject S gave them problems. We need a reason to support why students mustn’t post graduate in subject D. Option 1 does just that.
It is a strong reason that weakens the argument - if a person has no prior knowledge of a subject, doing a post graduate degree in it will be futile.
Just because of interest and escapist tendencies students must not be allowed to take up that course.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 62

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Akram, Amit, Salman and Saif are four friends listed in a descending order according to their ages. They were all born in the same year. Year X which started with a Monday also ends with the same day. In this year X, all of them celebrated their birthdays in three different months which all started with the same day of a week, on different dates but their birthdays fell on the same day of the week. Salman and Saif have their birthdays in the same month. Akram celebrated his birthday in the first week of the month and Amit on the 10th of a month. All were born on different dates.

Q.Amit is how many months elder to Salman?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 62

Since X starts and ends with the same day, it implies it is a non-leap year. In a non-leap year, February, March and November start with the same day of the week.

Also the order in terms of age is Akram > Amit > Salman > Saif.
As all the four celebrated their birthdays on the same day of the week and Amit celebrated his on the 10th means others should celebrate on 3rd, 17th and 24th.

Akram celebrated in the first week and he is eldest it would have to be 3rd February.
Amit celebrated his birthday on 10th of March as he is 2nd eldest.
Now the remaining 2 celebrated on 17th November and 24th November as they have their birthday in the same month.

Saif is the youngest, his celebration was on 24th November.
Difference between 10th March and 17th November is 8 months and 7 days.

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 63

Akram, Amit, Salman and Saif are four friends listed in a descending order according to their ages. They were all born in the same year. Year X which started with a Monday also ends with the same day. In this year X, all of them celebrated their birthdays in three different months which all started with the same day of a week, on different dates but their birthdays fell on the same day of the week. Salman and Saif have their birthdays in the same month. Akram celebrated his birthday in the first week of the month and Amit on the 10th of a month. All were born on different dates.

Q.On which day of the week did all the four friends celebrate their birthday?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 63

1st Jan of the year is Monday, then 3rd Feb would be five days after Monday, i.e. Saturday.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 64

Akram, Amit, Salman and Saif are four friends listed in a descending order according to their ages. They were all born in the same year. Year X which started with a Monday also ends with the same day. In this year X, all of them celebrated their birthdays in three different months which all started with the same day of a week, on different dates but their birthdays fell on the same day of the week. Salman and Saif have their birthdays in the same month. Akram celebrated his birthday in the first week of the month and Amit on the 10th of a month. All were born on different dates.

Q.In which month and on which date did Akram celebrate his birthday in the year X?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 64

Akram celebrate his birthday on 3rd February.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 65

Akram, Amit, Salman and Saif are four friends listed in a descending order according to their ages. They were all born in the same year. Year X which started with a Monday also ends with the same day. In this year X, all of them celebrated their birthdays in three different months which all started with the same day of a week, on different dates but their birthdays fell on the same day of the week. Salman and Saif have their birthdays in the same month. Akram celebrated his birthday in the first week of the month and Amit on the 10th of a month. All were born on different dates.

Q.In which month and on which date did Saif celebrate his birthday in the year X?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 65

Saif celebrate his birthday on 24th November.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 66

Akram, Amit, Salman and Saif are four friends listed in a descending order according to their ages. They were all born in the same year. Year X which started with a Monday also ends with the same day. In this year X, all of them celebrated their birthdays in three different months which all started with the same day of a week, on different dates but their birthdays fell on the same day of the week. Salman and Saif have their birthdays in the same month. Akram celebrated his birthday in the first week of the month and Amit on the 10th of a month. All were born on different dates.

Q.In which month and on which date did Salman celebrate his birthday in the year X?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 66

Salman celebrate his birthday on 17th November.

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 67

Some cups are mups. Some tups are not mups. All tups are nups. Some mups are hups.

Q.Which of the following conclusions definitely follows from the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 67

One way of representing the given statements is as shown below. Note that “Some A are not B” means that there is atleast one A that is not B. This implies that there is a possibility that all the As are not Bs i.e. “Some A are not B” can also mean “No A is B”. This case is shown below.

From the above diagram, none of the options 1, 2 and 3 follow.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 68

Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A large cube has a unique whole number, smaller than or equal to 5, written on each of its faces such that the sum of the numbers on opposite faces is equal to 5. Any face that has an odd natural number written on it is painted red, any face that has an even natural number written on it is painted green and any remaining face(s) is/are painted blue. The large cube is then cut into 125 small identical cubes.

Q.How many of the smaller cubes have at least one of their faces painted blue?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 68

The six numbers have to be 0 to 5 such that 0 and 5 are written on opposite faces, 1 and 4 are written on opposite faces and 2 and 3 are written on opposite faces.
The faces with numbers 1, 3 and 5 on them are painted red, the faces with numbers 2 and 4 are painted green and the face with number 0 is painted blue.
Since the original cube is divided into 125 (i.e. 53) identical cubes, each face has 25 (i.e. 52) cubes.
All 25 cubes have exactly one face painted blue. No other cube has any face painted blue.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 69

A large cube has a unique whole number, smaller than or equal to 5, written on each of its faces such that the sum of the numbers on opposite faces is equal to 5. Any face that has an odd natural number written on it is painted red, any face that has an even natural number written on it is painted green and any remaining face(s) is/are painted blue. The large cube is then cut into 125 small identical cubes.

Q.How many of the smaller cubes can have their faces painted with all three colours?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 69

The blue face is the one with 0 written on it and the face opposite to it is the face with 5 written on it i.e. the red face.
Let 0 correspond to the front face. Hence, 5 corresponds to the back face.
Now, 1 (red) and 4 (green) are opposite each other while 2 (green) and 3 (red) are also opposite each other.
Let 1 and 4 correspond to the right and left face respectively; and let 2 and 3 correspond to the top and bottom face respectively (as shown below).

The intersection of faces 0, 1 and 2 gives one cube having all three colours. Similarly, the intersection of faces 0, 3 and 4 gives another cube having all three colours.
Thus, there are 2 such cubes.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 70

A large cube has a unique whole number, smaller than or equal to 5, written on each of its faces such that the sum of the numbers on opposite faces is equal to 5. Any face that has an odd natural number written on it is painted red, any face that has an even natural number written on it is painted green and any remaining face(s) is/are painted blue. The large cube is then cut into 125 small identical cubes.

Q.How many of the smaller cubes don’t have any of their faces painted?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 70

The number of smaller cubes that do not have any of their faces painted = (n - 2)3 where n = 5. number of required cubes = (5 - 2)3 = 27

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 71

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

Brainstorming is a great way for groups to generate new ideas. It is frequently used in business and all sorts of personal decisions (brainstorming to find holiday destinations, movies to see, and even new careers). Brainstorming fosters creativity and ensures that the group works together to share information and achieve the results they desire.

Q.Which of the following statements will greatly weaken the importance of brainstorming to groups?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 71

The main idea in the passage is that a group receives great benefits from brainstorming. To weaken this idea we need a statement that shows that brainstorming is not beneficial. Option 2 is ruled out as the amount of time spent on brainstorming is not critical to the argument.
Option 3 is ruled out as it does not weaken the argument as asked for in the question stem.
Option 4 is weak compared to option 1 due to the use of ‘sometimes’.
Option 1 is the correct answer. If it were true, then the idea of a group participating and generating ideas in the session is nullified. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 72

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The tenth inter school dance competition has eight girls participating in it.

1. Each girl likes a different colour and presents a different dance form.

2. Preeti, who is a Kathak dancer, does not like lavender and red.

3. Sonia likes blue and presents Kuchipudi.

4. Neither of Shreya or Priya like magenta and yellow. They present Manipuri and Sattriya in some order.

5. Pooja and Tania present one of Folk Dance, Western or Odissi, while Tania and Vaishali have their favourite colours among violet, magenta or cream.

6. Priyanka presents Bharatnatyam and likes pink.

7. The girl who likes cream presents Manipuri.

8. Vaishali presents Odissi.

9. Pooja doesn’t like lavender.

10. The girl who likes violet presents Western dance.

Further following information is known about their performances

1. The show had 2 halves each of 4 performances.

2. Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam should be the 1st performances in two different halves of the show.

3. Shreya should dance before the girl liking Lavender.

4. Folk Dance, Western and Odissi should be in same order in 2nd half with Folk Dance being before both of them.

Q.Who likes red?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 72

Let us denote the eight colours by their initial letters and tabulate the information that is given directly.

The girl who likes Violet is specialist in Western dance. This has to be Tania.
As Vaishali is an Odissi dancer, Pooja should be a folk dancer.
Tania likes violet so Vaishali cannot like violet. Also the Manipuri dancer likes cream, so Vaishali has to like magenta.

Now, nobody other than Shreya or Pooja can like lavender. We know that one of them is the Manipuri dancer who likes cream, so the other one is the Sattriya dancer who likes lavender.
As Preeti does not like red, Pooja has to like red and hence, Preeti has to like the only remaining colour, yellow.

Thus Pooja likes red.

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 73

The tenth inter school dance competition has eight girls participating in it.

1. Each girl likes a different colour and presents a different dance form.

2. Preeti, who is a Kathak dancer, does not like lavender and red.

3. Sonia likes blue and presents Kuchipudi.

4. Neither of Shreya or Priya like magenta and yellow. They present Manipuri and Sattriya in some order.

5. Pooja and Tania present one of Folk Dance, Western or Odissi, while Tania and Vaishali have their favourite colours among violet, magenta or cream.

6. Priyanka presents Bharatnatyam and likes pink.

7. The girl who likes cream presents Manipuri.

8. Vaishali presents Odissi.

9. Pooja doesn’t like lavender.

10. The girl who likes violet presents Western dance.

Further following information is known about their performances

1. The show had 2 halves each of 4 performances.

2. Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam should be the 1st performances in two different halves of the show.

3. Shreya should dance before the girl liking Lavender.

4. Folk Dance, Western and Odissi should be in same order in 2nd half with Folk Dance being before both of them.

Q.If Priyanka dances in 2nd half, which of the following statement is/are true?
A. Pooja dances after Tania

B. Preeti dances before Shreya

C. Vaishali dances after Priya

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 73

If Priyanka dances in the 2nd half, then Priyanka should be followed by Pooja, Tania and Vaishali while the 1st half will have Sonia as the 1st dancer.
Now, Preeti can dance 2nd or Shreya can dance 2nd as the order is not specified.
Thus we have A to be definitely false and B also as false.

Only C is definitely true as Vaishali dances in 2nd half.

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 74

The tenth inter school dance competition has eight girls participating in it.

1. Each girl likes a different colour and presents a different dance form.

2. Preeti, who is a Kathak dancer, does not like lavender and red.

3. Sonia likes blue and presents Kuchipudi.

4. Neither of Shreya or Priya like magenta and yellow. They present Manipuri and Sattriya in some order.

5. Pooja and Tania present one of Folk Dance, Western or Odissi, while Tania and Vaishali have their favourite colours among violet, magenta or cream.

6. Priyanka presents Bharatnatyam and likes pink.

7. The girl who likes cream presents Manipuri.

8. Vaishali presents Odissi.

9. Pooja doesn’t like lavender.

10. The girl who likes violet presents Western dance.

Further following information is known about their performances

1. The show had 2 halves each of 4 performances.

2. Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam should be the 1st performances in two different halves of the show.

3. Shreya should dance before the girl liking Lavender.

4. Folk Dance, Western and Odissi should be in same order in 2nd half with Folk Dance being before both of them

Q.If Preeti dances 2nd in a particular half, who must dance immediately after Preeti?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 74

If Preeti dances 2nd, she can do so only in 1st half and thus she has to be followed by Shreya who is followed by Priya.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 75

The tenth inter school dance competition has eight girls participating in it.

1. Each girl likes a different colour and presents a different dance form.

2. Preeti, who is a Kathak dancer, does not like lavender and red.

3. Sonia likes blue and presents Kuchipudi.

4. Neither of Shreya or Priya like magenta and yellow. They present Manipuri and Sattriya in some order.

5. Pooja and Tania present one of Folk Dance, Western or Odissi, while Tania and Vaishali have their favourite colours among violet, magenta or cream.

6. Priyanka presents Bharatnatyam and likes pink.

7. The girl who likes cream presents Manipuri.

8. Vaishali presents Odissi.

9. Pooja doesn’t like lavender.

10. The girl who likes violet presents Western dance.

Further following information is known about their performances

1. The show had 2 halves each of 4 performances.

2. Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam should be the 1st performances in two different halves of the show.

3. Shreya should dance before the girl liking Lavender.

4. Folk Dance, Western and Odissi should be in same order in 2nd half with Folk Dance being before both of them

Q.The girl who likes magenta presents

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 75

From the answer to the first question of this set, Vaishali likes magenta and presents Odissi.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 76

The question below has a set of sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following:

A. Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘F’ )
B. Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with a ‘J’)

C. Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a ‘J’ )

Select the answer option that best describes the set of statements.

1. She had always been an anchor.

2. Lady Elizabeth Angela Marguerite Bowes-Lyon— the ninth of ten children borne by a Scottish laird, the Earl of Strathmore— was bom in 1900.

3. When she died she was nearly 102.

4. She was never to be the queen of England, and she did so in especially troubling circumstances.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 76

Statement 1 is a fact, though it belongs to the past.
She was born, she died, she was never to be the queen, she became the queen (she did so) etc. are all facts from the past - observed directly.
All the given statements are facts.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 77

Three people A, B and C were standing at the same point. A started his journey and walked 40 km towards the east and then 30 km towards the south. B walked 30 km towards the west, then 30 km towards the south and finally 70 km towards the east.
C walked 30 km towards the south and then 40 km towards the east. Who among the three is at the least distance from the starting point?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 77

Let O be the starting point for A, B and C.
Thus the path travelled by A, B and C can be plotted as shown in the above figure.
The solid line, dashed line and dotted line indicate the path travelled by A, B and C respectively.

As we can see, all three are at the same point at the end of their respective journeys.
Thus, all three are equidistant from the starting point.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 78

At least eight of the top fifteen rankholders and not more than eight of the last fifteen rankholders out of the top twenty rankholders in an entrance exam are IITians. If none of the top five rankholders are IITians, then how many candidates in the top 20 are IITians?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 78

From the information given in the question, we know that: There are atleast 8 IITians from rank 6 to 15.
Also, there are not more than 8 IITians from rank 6 to 20.
Therefore, all these 8 IITians have to be from rank 6 to 15.
This means that there is no IITian from rank 1 to 5 and from rank 16 to 20.
We can say that there are only 8 IITians among the top 20 rankholders.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 79

Find the odd word out:

A. STAILARUA
B. AREGNYM
C. KANTlSAP
D. DDINOAM

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 79

The jumbled words can be rearranged into meaningful words as follows: STAILARUA = AUSTRALIA
AREGNYM = GERMANY
KANTISAP = PAKISTAN
DDINOAM = DIAMOND
The first three are names of countries, while the fourth is not.

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 80

Rohit, has two candles of different thickness but of same length Thick candle last for a hours more than that of the thin candle. The thin candle last for b hours. If after a hours, length of thick candle is 33% more than the thin candle, then which of the following is possible value of a/b.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 80

Let length of the candles is .

A thin candle last for b hours. Hence in one hour, its length will reduce by l/b.
Similarly, length of thick candle will reduce by //(a + b) units in one hour.
Hence, after a hours, length of thick and thin candles will reduce by;

Hence, length of these candles becomes;

Now, after a hours, length of thick candle is 33% more than that of thin candles.

i.e., 3b2 = 4(b2 - a2)

b2 = 4a2

But both a and b are positive. Hence, a/b =1/2

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 81

The following question consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

A. Apart from their post-war singles, all their motorcycles had used this distinctive layout until the early 1980s.
B. Bayerische Motoren Werke started building motorcycle engines and then motorcycles after World War I.
C. Many Bayerische Motoren Werke Motorcycles are still produced to this pattern, which is designated the “R series”.
D. These had a “boxer twin” engine, in which an air-cooled cylinder protrudes into the air-flow from each side of the machine.
E. Their first notable motorcycle, after the failed Helios and Flink, was the “R32” in 1923.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 81

There is a clear link between D and A. A follows D as A speaks about the layout which is described in D.
Out of B and C, C cannot be the opening sentence of the sequence because it speaks about the structure described in D and implies that C can come only after D has been covered in the paragraph. This eliminates options 3 and 4.
B introduces Bayerische Motoren Werke as a motorcycle maker. E speaks about the motorcycle models of Bayerische Motoren Werke.
D starts with “These had a boxer twin engine...” and describes the layout that the motorcycles had. This implies that D is immediately preceded by E.
There is only one option (option 2) which satisfies all the conditions.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 82

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Fill in the blank with the appropriate pair of words.

Cuba’s __________ of Communism,___________ with the country’s proximity to the US, was a key element in the Cold War.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 82

The first blank should contain a word that indicates implementation or acceptance. Options 2 and 3 are not suitable as answers.

Between options 1 and 4, option 1 fits better since ‘coupled with’ is a phrase which means together with. The word complemented is misspelt as complimented in the 4th option. While the former means to complete something, the latter is high praise.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 83

Match the part of speech to their usage

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 83

The verb form of ‘like’ appears in 6 (likened) - where the act of showing something to be similar to something else is described. Therefore, 1-6. Options 1 and 3 can be easily eliminated.
The use of like as a noun appears in sentence 5 (likeness) where the word means ‘the image of, or resemblance’. Option 4 can be eliminated.
Sentence 7 uses ‘like’ as a preposition, where the meaning is ‘in a like manner with; similarly to’.
Sentence 8 uses the adverb ‘likewise’, meaning ‘in the same way’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 84

Fill in the blanks with the correct word for the definition.

Word or phrase in a figure of speech in which a noun is referenced by something closely associated with it, rather than explicitly by the noun itself is called_______

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 84

The definition provided is that of Metonymy.
Onomatopoeia is a word that imitates or suggests the source of the sound that it describes for example 'oink' and 'meow'.
A paradox is an apparently true statement or group of statements that leads to a contradiction or a situation which defies intuition.
Ironic statements (verbal irony) often convey a meaning exactly opposite from their literal meaning.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 85

Identify the CORRECT sentence or sentences.

A. If we redistribute wealth from the better to worse, we can help feed the hungry people.

B. Every morning I ate the burnt breakfast, drank the foul coffee and spoke to nobody.

C. Critics claim that the Indian government unfairly favors the IITs when educational dollars are doled out.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 85

The intended meaning in sentence A is the equal distribution of wealth among the “better off’ meaning 'economically fortunate people' and “worse off’ meaning 'economically less fortunate people'. So, the phrase to be used in sentence A is “worse off’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.
In sentence C, “educational” has been wrongly used. “Educational” is an adjective and dollars cannot be described as educational. Hence, the correct usage here is the noun “education” along with “dollars” which is also a noun, both forming the noun phrase “education dollars".
Sentence B is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 86

Choose the correct option.

Q.What does the ‘green-eyed monster’ refer to?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 86

Jealousy is normally referred to as the green-eyed monster. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 87

Which punctuation is missing in each of the following sentences?

It is an outrage to bind a democratic citizen it is a crime to scourge him it is almost parricide to kill him.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 87

The correct statement should have two semi-colons - “It is an outrage to bind a democratic citizen; it is a crime to scourge him; it is almost parricide to kill him.” Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 88

Choose the grammatically correct option.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 88

“Consequently” is a conjunctive adverb. All conjunctive adverbs are placed at the beginning of the main clause. Only option 3 follows this rule.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 89

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words  from the given options.

The directive and moral__________in life is simple and uncomplicated; you are alive, do something.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 89

If it had been ‘principle’ we could have considered option 1. “Expediency” implies convenience and can be eliminated. ‘Necessity’ would have helped consider option 4. “Imperative” is the best fit for the blank since it includes the sense of moral obligation as well as the force that impels one to action.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 90

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

If one gives an answer before one hears, it is one's folly and shame. It is arrogant to answer before one hears. Humility does not presume that it knows precisely what a person is asking until the questioner has finished asking the question. How many times have I jumped to a wrong conclusion by starting to formulate my answer before I heard the whole question! Often it is the last word in the question that turns the whole thing around and makes you realize that the questioner is not asking what you thought he was.
Not answering a question before you hear it all, honours and respects the person asking the question. It treats the person as though his words really matter. It is belittling to the other person if you finish his question for him. Carefully listening to a question often reveals that the question has several layers and is really more than one question. Several questions are all mixed into one. When you see this, you can break down the question into parts and answer them one at a time. You will not see such subtleties if you are hasty with your answer and not careful in your listening.

Q.By formulate the author means

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 90

The meaning of formulate is ‘to compose or develop’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 91

If one gives an answer before one hears, it is one's folly and shame. It is arrogant to answer before one hears. Humility does not presume that it knows precisely what a person is asking until the questioner has finished asking the question. How many times have I jumped to a wrong conclusion by starting to formulate my answer before I heard the whole question! Often it is the last word in the question that turns the whole thing around and makes you realize that the questioner is not asking what you thought he was.
Not answering a question before you hear it all, honours and respects the person asking the question. It treats the person as though his words really matter. It is belittling to the other person if you finish his question for him. Carefully listening to a question often reveals that the question has several layers and is really more than one question. Several questions are all mixed into one. When you see this, you can break down the question into parts and answer them one at a time. You will not see such subtleties if you are hasty with your answer and not careful in your listening.

Q.The most suitable title for this passage would be?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 91

The passage talks about the importance of listening to the questioner before speaking your piece.
Hence, the most apt option will be option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 92

If one gives an answer before one hears, it is one's folly and shame. It is arrogant to answer before one hears. Humility does not presume that it knows precisely what a person is asking until the questioner has finished asking the question. How many times have I jumped to a wrong conclusion by starting to formulate my answer before I heard the whole question! Often it is the last word in the question that turns the whole thing around and makes you realize that the questioner is not asking what you thought he was.
Not answering a question before you hear it all, honours and respects the person asking the question. It treats the person as though his words really matter. It is belittling to the other person if you finish his question for him. Carefully listening to a question often reveals that the question has several layers and is really more than one question. Several questions are all mixed into one. When you see this, you can break down the question into parts and answer them one at a time. You will not see such subtleties if you are hasty with your answer and not careful in your listening.

Q.What does the author mean by the 'last word' of a question?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 92

The passage mentions, “Often it is the last word in the question that turns the whole thing around and makes you realize that the questioner is not asking what you thought he was.” Therefore, 'the last word' is critical in understanding the question. "Hidden meanings" is not supported by this line, but "unassuming" can be inferred. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 93

If one gives an answer before one hears, it is one's folly and shame. It is arrogant to answer before one hears. Humility does not presume that it knows precisely what a person is asking until the questioner has finished asking the question. How many times have I jumped to a wrong conclusion by starting to formulate my answer before I heard the whole question! Often it is the last word in the question that turns the whole thing around and makes you realize that the questioner is not asking what you thought he was.
Not answering a question before you hear it all, honours and respects the person asking the question. It treats the person as though his words really matter. It is belittling to the other person if you finish his question for him. Carefully listening to a question often reveals that the question has several layers and is really more than one question. Several questions are all mixed into one. When you see this, you can break down the question into parts and answer them one at a time. You will not see such subtleties if you are hasty with your answer and not careful in your listening.

Q.According to the author, how can one honour and respect the questioner?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 93

The passage mentions, “Not answering a question before you hear it all, honours and respects the person asking the question.” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 94

If one gives an answer before one hears, it is one's folly and shame. It is arrogant to answer before one hears. Humility does not presume that it knows precisely what a person is asking until the questioner has finished asking the question. How many times have I jumped to a wrong conclusion by starting to formulate my answer before I heard the whole question! Often it is the last word in the question that turns the whole thing around and makes you realize that the questioner is not asking what you thought he was.
Not answering a question before you hear it all, honours and respects the person asking the question. It treats the person as though his words really matter. It is belittling to the other person if you finish his question for him. Carefully listening to a question often reveals that the question has several layers and is really more than one question. Several questions are all mixed into one. When you see this, you can break down the question into parts and answer them one at a time. You will not see such subtleties if you are hasty with your answer and not careful in your listening.

Q.Which of the following can be used to describe 'Several questions are all mixed into one' ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 94

A melange means a mixture or a varied assortment of (things).
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 95

If one gives an answer before one hears, it is one's folly and shame. It is arrogant to answer before one hears. Humility does not presume that it knows precisely what a person is asking until the questioner has finished asking the question. How many times have I jumped to a wrong conclusion by starting to formulate my answer before I heard the whole question! Often it is the last word in the question that turns the whole thing around and makes you realize that the questioner is not asking what you thought he was.
Not answering a question before you hear it all, honours and respects the person asking the question. It treats the person as though his words really matter. It is belittling to the other person if you finish his question for him. Carefully listening to a question often reveals that the question has several layers and is really more than one question. Several questions are all mixed into one. When you see this, you can break down the question into parts and answer them one at a time. You will not see such subtleties if you are hasty with your answer and not careful in your listening.

Q.In the context of the passage, what do 'subtleties' refer to?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 95

The last paragraph supports option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 96

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.

“Why, yes, he is actually_________over the matter - has already offered me his patronage, as if he were a grand personage, and_________me a loan of money, as though he were a banker.”

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 96

The clues in the sentence are “as though he were a banker” and “grand personage.” It is clear that whoever the person is who has offered the money, he is doing so mockingly, therefore the first blank has to be closest is meaning to that word, and the second blank clearly has to mean “offered”. “Insolent” means ‘boldly rude or disrespectful; contemptuously impertinent; insulting’ and “proffered” means ‘to put before a person for acceptance; offer’. Both these words fit in the context of the sentence. “Benevolent” which means ‘characterized by or expressing goodwill or kindly feelings’ is opposite in meaning to “insolent” and therefore doesn’t work. “Pauper” means ‘a very poor person’. “Livid” means ‘enraged; furiously angry’ and “ecstatic” which means ‘of / pertaining to, or characterized by ecstasy’ are both not related to “mocking”. “Entail” means ‘to impose as a burden’ and “credited” is ‘a sum of money due to a person’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 97

Choose the grammatically correct option from the following

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 97

The correct sentence is - “He was thinking of buying a new car,” she said.
The rest of the options have tense errors.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 98

Choose the grammatically correct option:

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 98

The correct sentence is, “There is a problem with the radio; however, no one is available to fix it.” Options 1 and 2 have incorrect structures. Option 3 has a tense error.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 99

Choose the correct option.

When someone refers to someone or something as “the bee’s knees” they mean that it is:

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 99

Referring to something as “the bee’s knees” is an informal way of saying that something is ‘excellent or of the highest quality’. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 100

Answer the following question based on the information given below. Fill in the blank with the most suitable word.

Rehanika eventually managed to ___________ the temperamental customer but not before he had called the shop’s manager to the scene.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 100

From the sentence, it can be inferred that the word that fills the blank should be synonymous to pacify or to make calm. Mollify means to soothe somebody who is upset.
Exasperate means to annoy, concede means to agree with and recuperate means to regain health.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 101

Choose the option that states all the grammatically correct sentences:

A. Take India for example; it is already planning towards emissions saving at low or even no cost by improving energy efficiency.

B. On average, a Chinese citizen now emits more energy than, for example, a Portuguese, a Swede, ora Hungarian.

C. In sum, this means that, if the EU was to take up a second Kyoto period with a few other developed economies, it might cover at most 16% of global emissions.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 101

All the sentences are correct. “On average” can be used alternatively instead of ‘on an average’ and “In sum” means ‘in short’. “At most” is also correct. It is used alternatively instead of ‘at the most’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 102

Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

ESCHEW

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 102

To “eschew” means ‘to abstain or keep away from; shun; avoid’. This points to option 3 as coming closest in meaning to it.
To “alleviate” means ‘to make easier to endure’. This action would refer to addressing a problem rather than avoiding it. Eliminate option 1.
To “nibble” means ‘to chew’. Eliminate option 2.
To “facilitate” means ‘to make easier or less difficult’. It has a positive connotation and is almost similar in meaning to “alleviate”. It has nothing to do with avoidance. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 103

Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

OBLITERATE

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 103

To “obliterate” means ‘to remove or destroy all traces of; do away with; destroy completely’. From all of the options provided, only “exterminate” meaning ‘to get rid of by destroying; destroy totally; extirpate’ comes closest in meaning to it.
To “liberate” refers to the action of freeing something or someone. It does not refer to the act of destruction. Eliminate option 1.
To “constrain” means ‘to confine forcibly, as by bonds’. Eliminate option 3.
To “mitigate” means ‘to lessen in force or intensity, as wrath, grief, harshness, or pain; moderate’.
It is quite the opposite of “obliterate”. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 104

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

The economic crisis has led them to a desperate situation with the youngest son being the only one who__________________ while all the others are unemployed.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 104

The correct idiom to be used over here is “to bring home the bacon” which means ‘to earn for or support the family’. “To run rings around” is ‘to be markedly superior’.
Both ‘to earn one’s wheat’ and ‘to take out taxes’ are fabricated idioms and are nonsensical.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 105

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

Environmental groups have_________________with the locals in the tribal area to stop the dam from being built.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 105

The most appropriate idiom that can fit into the blank is “made common cause” which means ‘have found common grounds to relate to, to join for a common objective’.
Both “established a truce” and “struck an alliance” suggest that the two parties were in some kind of disagreement earlier and so, are both not as appropriate as option 2. “Touch base” is grammatically inconsistent.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 106

Choose the word that cannot be coupled with the given word to form a new word.

Back

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 106

‘Backfire’, ‘backbite’ and ‘backgammon’ are all words which exist in the English vocabulary. ‘Backcharge’ is wrong. Such a word does not exist. Therefore, “charge” cannot be coupled with “back.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 107

Identify the correct sentence.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 107

The use of the preposition “until” in option 2 is incorrect.
Options 3 and 4 are similarly incorrect due to the wrong use of the preposition “from” and the phrase “due to”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 108

Rearrange the following sentence fragments to make meaningful sentence.

We are at present...........members online.

A. by e-mail to the

B. exploring the possibility

C. growing number of

D. of sending these drafts

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 108

The sentence is as follows: “We are at present exploring the possibility of sending these drafts by e-mail to the growing number of members online.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 109

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option

_______ is used to connect parts of a compound word.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 109

The hyphen is shorter than the dash and is used to connect parts of a compound word such as ‘devil-may-care attitude’ or ‘heart-to-heart’.
Dashes are used to set off part of a sentence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 110

Choose the odd one out:

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 110

Options 2, 3 and 4 mean ‘to prompt; to drive or urge forward’. Option 1 means ‘to faint’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 111

Choose the odd one out:

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 111

Except option 3, all words are palindromes.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 112

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

We may distinguish two sorts of goods, and two corresponding sorts of impulses. There are goods in regard to which individual possession is possible, and there are goods in which all can share alike. The food and clothing of one man is not the food and clothing of another; if the supply is insufficient, what one man has is obtained at the expense of some other man. This applies to material goods generally and therefore to the greater part of the present economic life of the world. On the other hand, mental and spiritual goods do not belong to one man to the exclusion of another. If one man knows a science, that does not prevent others from knowing it; on the contrary, it helps them to acquire the knowledge. If one man is a great artist or poet that does not prevent others from painting pictures or writing poems, but helps to create the atmosphere in which such things are possible. If one man is full of good-will toward others, that does not mean that there is less good-will to be shared among the rest; the more good-will one man has, the more he is likely to create among others. In such matters there is no possession, because there is not a definite amount to be shared; any increase anywhere tends to produce an increase everywhere.
There are two kinds of impulses, corresponding to the two kinds of goods. There are possessive impulses, which aim at acquiring or retaining private goods that cannot be shared; these center in the impulse of property. And there are creative or constructive impulses, which aim at bringing into the world or making available for use the kind of goods in which there is no privacy and no possession.
The best life is the one in which the creative impulses play the largest part and the possessive impulses the smallest. This is no new discovery. The Gospel says: "Take no thought, saying, what we shall eat? Or what shall we drink? Or, Wherewithal shall we be clothed?" The thought we give to these things is taken away from matters of more importance. And what is worse, the habit of mind engendered by thinking of these things is a bad one; it leads to competition, envy, domination, cruelty, and almost all the moral evils that infest the world. In particular, it leads to the predatory use of force. Material possessions can be taken by force and enjoyed by the robber. Spiritual possessions cannot be taken in this way. You may kill an artist or a thinker, but you cannot acquire his art or his thought. You may put a man to death because he loves his fellow- men, but you will not by so doing acquire the love which made his happiness. Force is impotent in such matters; it is only as regards material goods that it is effective. For this reason the men who believe in force are the men whose thoughts and desires are preoccupied with material goods.
The possessive impulses, when they are strong, infect activities which ought to be purely creative. A man who has made some valuable discovery may be filled with jealousy of a rival discoverer. If one man has found a cure for cancer and another has found a cure for consumption, one of them may be delighted if the other man's discovery turns out a mistake, instead of regretting the suffering of patients which would otherwise have been avoided. In such cases, instead of desiring knowledge for its own sake, or for the sake of its usefulness, a man desires it as a means to reputation. Every creative impulse is shadowed by a possessive impulse; even the aspirant to saintliness may be jealous of the more successful saint.

Most affection is accompanied by some tinge of jealousy, which is a possessive impulse intruding into the creative region. Worst of all, in this direction, is the sheer envy of those who have missed everything worth having in life, and who are instinctively bent on preventing others from enjoying what they have not had. There is often much of this in the attitude of the old toward the young.

Q.Which of the following statements will the author agree upon?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 112

Option 1 is incorrect because, the author writes, “mental and spiritual goods...the exclusion of another”. And, “In such...no possession...not a definite...shared...increase everywhere”.
Option 2 is incorrect because, the author writes that, “the men who believe in force...desires are preoccupied... material goods”. Also, “The possessive impulses, when they are strong, infect activities which ought to be purely creative”. Therefore a robber would not look out for spiritual goods but material ones.
Option 4 is incorrect because, the author writes many statements in the paragraph like, “Every creative impulse is shadowed by a possessive impulse”, “possessive impulses, when they are strong, infect activities which ought to be purely creative”; which express the influence of ‘possessive’ impulses over ‘creative’ ones. However no references from the passage express the influence vice-versa.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 113

We may distinguish two sorts of goods, and two corresponding sorts of impulses. There are goods in regard to which individual possession is possible, and there are goods in which all can share alike. The food and clothing of one man is not the food and clothing of another; if the supply is insufficient, what one man has is obtained at the expense of some other man. This applies to material goods generally and therefore to the greater part of the present economic life of the world. On the other hand, mental and spiritual goods do not belong to one man to the exclusion of another. If one man knows a science, that does not prevent others from knowing it; on the contrary, it helps them to acquire the knowledge. If one man is a great artist or poet that does not prevent others from painting pictures or writing poems, but helps to create the atmosphere in which such things are possible. If one man is full of good-will toward others, that does not mean that there is less good-will to be shared among the rest; the more good-will one man has, the more he is likely to create among others. In such matters there is no possession, because there is not a definite amount to be shared; any increase anywhere tends to produce an increase everywhere.
There are two kinds of impulses, corresponding to the two kinds of goods. There are possessive impulses, which aim at acquiring or retaining private goods that cannot be shared; these center in the impulse of property. And there are creative or constructive impulses, which aim at bringing into the world or making available for use the kind of goods in which there is no privacy and no possession.
The best life is the one in which the creative impulses play the largest part and the possessive impulses the smallest. This is no new discovery. The Gospel says: "Take no thought, saying, what we shall eat? Or what shall we drink? Or, Wherewithal shall we be clothed?" The thought we give to these things is taken away from matters of more importance. And what is worse, the habit of mind engendered by thinking of these things is a bad one; it leads to competition, envy, domination, cruelty, and almost all the moral evils that infest the world. In particular, it leads to the predatory use of force. Material possessions can be taken by force and enjoyed by the robber. Spiritual possessions cannot be taken in this way. You may kill an artist or a thinker, but you cannot acquire his art or his thought. You may put a man to death because he loves his fellow- men, but you will not by so doing acquire the love which made his happiness. Force is impotent in such matters; it is only as regards material goods that it is effective. For this reason the men who believe in force are the men whose thoughts and desires are preoccupied with material goods.
The possessive impulses, when they are strong, infect activities which ought to be purely creative. A man who has made some valuable discovery may be filled with jealousy of a rival discoverer. If one man has found a cure for cancer and another has found a cure for consumption, one of them may be delighted if the other man's discovery turns out a mistake, instead of regretting the suffering of patients which would otherwise have been avoided. In such cases, instead of desiring knowledge for its own sake, or for the sake of its usefulness, a man desires it as a means to reputation. Every creative impulse is shadowed by a possessive impulse; even the aspirant to saintliness may be jealous of the more successful saint.

Most affection is accompanied by some tinge of jealousy, which is a possessive impulse intruding into the creative region. Worst of all, in this direction, is the sheer envy of those who have missed everything worth having in life, and who are instinctively bent on preventing others from enjoying what they have not had. There is often much of this in the attitude of the old toward the young.

Q.Which of the following statements cannot be concluded from the passage?
A. Creative impulses still exists in this present economic life of the world.
B. Spiritual possessions can be taken and enjoyed irrespective of whether one possesses force or not.
C. Not always is a man jealous.
D. Possessive impulses always demand ‘force’

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 113

Statements A, C, and D cannot be concluded. And all options except 3 possess A and /or C and /or D.
Statement A can be concluded because; the author mentions ‘mental and spiritual goods’ and ‘creative or constructive impulses’.
Statement C can be concluded because, as per the passage, “Every creative...shadowed...possessive impulse...saintliness...jealous...Most affection...tinge of jealousy...intruding into the creative region”. The author expresses the feeling of ‘jealousy’ almost wherever he speaks of ‘possessive impulses’ which always accompany ‘creative’ ones.
Statement D can be concluded from "Material possessions can be taken by force and enjoyed by the robber.". Statement B cannot be concluded because, the author writes, “...Spiritual possessions cannot be taken in this way...”, and therefore, one does not need ‘force’ to have spiritual possessions.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 114

We may distinguish two sorts of goods, and two corresponding sorts of impulses. There are goods in regard to which individual possession is possible, and there are goods in which all can share alike. The food and clothing of one man is not the food and clothing of another; if the supply is insufficient, what one man has is obtained at the expense of some other man. This applies to material goods generally and therefore to the greater part of the present economic life of the world. On the other hand, mental and spiritual goods do not belong to one man to the exclusion of another. If one man knows a science, that does not prevent others from knowing it; on the contrary, it helps them to acquire the knowledge. If one man is a great artist or poet that does not prevent others from painting pictures or writing poems, but helps to create the atmosphere in which such things are possible. If one man is full of good-will toward others, that does not mean that there is less good-will to be shared among the rest; the more good-will one man has, the more he is likely to create among others. In such matters there is no possession, because there is not a definite amount to be shared; any increase anywhere tends to produce an increase everywhere.
There are two kinds of impulses, corresponding to the two kinds of goods. There are possessive impulses, which aim at acquiring or retaining private goods that cannot be shared; these center in the impulse of property. And there are creative or constructive impulses, which aim at bringing into the world or making available for use the kind of goods in which there is no privacy and no possession.
The best life is the one in which the creative impulses play the largest part and the possessive impulses the smallest. This is no new discovery. The Gospel says: "Take no thought, saying, what we shall eat? Or what shall we drink? Or, Wherewithal shall we be clothed?" The thought we give to these things is taken away from matters of more importance. And what is worse, the habit of mind engendered by thinking of these things is a bad one; it leads to competition, envy, domination, cruelty, and almost all the moral evils that infest the world. In particular, it leads to the predatory use of force. Material possessions can be taken by force and enjoyed by the robber. Spiritual possessions cannot be taken in this way. You may kill an artist or a thinker, but you cannot acquire his art or his thought. You may put a man to death because he loves his fellow- men, but you will not by so doing acquire the love which made his happiness. Force is impotent in such matters; it is only as regards material goods that it is effective. For this reason the men who believe in force are the men whose thoughts and desires are preoccupied with material goods.
The possessive impulses, when they are strong, infect activities which ought to be purely creative. A man who has made some valuable discovery may be filled with jealousy of a rival discoverer. If one man has found a cure for cancer and another has found a cure for consumption, one of them may be delighted if the other man's discovery turns out a mistake, instead of regretting the suffering of patients which would otherwise have been avoided. In such cases, instead of desiring knowledge for its own sake, or for the sake of its usefulness, a man desires it as a means to reputation. Every creative impulse is shadowed by a possessive impulse; even the aspirant to saintliness may be jealous of the more successful saint.

Most affection is accompanied by some tinge of jealousy, which is a possessive impulse intruding into the creative region. Worst of all, in this direction, is the sheer envy of those who have missed everything worth having in life, and who are instinctively bent on preventing others from enjoying what they have not had. There is often much of this in the attitude of the old toward the young.

Q.What can be correctly inferred about impulses?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 114

Option 3 is correct because, the author explains that ‘possessive’ impulses of a man or one’s desires for ‘material’ goods if not satisfied, amalgamates with one’s ‘creative’ impulses towards the young.
Option 1 is incorrect because, the author mentions that all creative impulses are shadowed by possessive ones and therefore no impulse is purely non-possessive.
Option 2 is incorrect because, a thought of a thinker is his ‘Spiritual possession’, a byproduct of his ‘Creative impulse’. Option 4 is incorrect because the passage says that a pure ‘Creative’ impulse is altered by addition of a ‘Possessive’ impulse.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 115

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

Despite complaints from others in the apartment, she___a good help since the last 3 months.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 115

The word “since” is usually followed by the perfect tense. In this case, it should be the present perfect tense. The present perfect tense is used to refer to an action that started in the past and continues up to the present.
Therefore, the verb should be “has been” - “...she has been a good neighbour to me since...”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 116

Give the antonym of the word from the given options:

Obstreperous

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 116

“Obstreperous”means ‘noisy.’ “Boisterous” and “rambunctious” are the synonyms for “obstreperous.” “Contumacious” means ‘obstinate.’ Therefore, the opposite of “obstreperous” has to be ‘calm’ or “quiet”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 117

In the given question, four different ways of presenting an idea are gjven. Choose the one that conforms most closely to Standard English usage.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 117

The correct sentence is “The venom of a rattlesnake is so poisonous that it can cause instant death.”

Option 2 has an incorrect structure with “lead”, option 3 has the plural verb “are” instead of ‘is’ and option 4 has the wrong adverb “such”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 118

Choose the correct option.

Q.Which of these sentences is correctly punctuated?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 118

A semicolon is required before ‘the people’ and a series comma is required before ‘and’, since a series of three terms is involved. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 119

The given pair of capitalized words is followed by four pairs of words.Select the pair that DOES NOT express a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.

TWO: BINARY

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 119

“Binary” is used to refer to ‘a group of two’. All other options are correct except option 3. “Octet” is used to refer to ‘a group of eight’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 120

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the gjven options.

The motivational speaker______for a good two hours before people actually started______the seminar hall.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 120

Option 1 is grammatically incorrect (coming the seminar hall). Options 3 and 4 do not make sense since they are paradoxical in nature. Both ‘gabble’ and ‘entering’ as well as ‘articulated’ and ‘exiting’ are contradictory logically. (If the speaker was ‘gabbling’ why would people be ‘entering’ to hear him? Alternatively, if the speaker was ‘articulating’ why would people be ‘exiting’?).
Option 2 is more logical (Since the speaker was ‘twaddling’- speaking in a pretentious manner- people started ‘leaving’ the seminar hall).
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 9 - Question 121

Who won the 2016 Resorts World Manila Masters?