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New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2024 - New Pattern Mock Test - 10

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 for GRE 2024 is part of GRE Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The New Pattern Mock Test - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The New Pattern Mock Test - 10 MCQs are made for GRE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 below.
Solutions of New Pattern Mock Test - 10 questions in English are available as part of our GRE Mock Test Series 2024 for GRE & New Pattern Mock Test - 10 solutions in Hindi for GRE Mock Test Series 2024 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for GRE Exam by signing up for free. Attempt New Pattern Mock Test - 10 | 54 questions in 118 minutes | Mock test for GRE preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study GRE Mock Test Series 2024 for GRE Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 1
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Many people criticized the mayor’s decision to ban sugary drinks. However, a small group __________ his efforts to intertwine public health and public policy.

Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 1
The sentence makes a contrast between those who “criticized” the mayor’s decision and the way others responded. The adjective in the blank describes how this other “small group” reacted. "Lauded" means praised, which is the antonym of "criticized," and thus best completes the sentence.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 2
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

After realizing that mild critiques were not enough to change Neville's outlook, Miranda decided to level a __________ critique of his position.

Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 2
This sentence hints that Miranda felt the need to present a much harsher critique of Neville's position. To "level" a critique is merely to state it, often frankly and honestly. All that we can say is that the critique will be severe, in contrast to its nicer, milder form earlier. The word "fierce" best expresses this increased severity.
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New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 3
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Arctic sea ice comes in two varieties. Seasonal ice forms in winter and then melts in summer, while perennial ice persists year-round. To the untrained eye, all sea ice looks similar, but by licking it, one can estimate how long a particular piece has been floating around. When ice begins to form in seawater, it forces out salt, which has no place in the crystal structure. As the ice gets thicker, the rejected salt collects in tiny pockets of brine too highly concentrated to freeze. A piece of first-year ice will taste salty. Eventually, if the ice survives, these pockets of brine drain out through fine, veinlike channels, and the ice becomes fresher; multiyear ice can even be melted and drunk.

Q. In the context in which it appears, “fine” (line 7) most nearly means

Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 3
“Fine” appears in the context of an explanation of how the brine drains out; in such a context, it must be being used to describe a physical characteristic of the channels. In addition, the word “Eventually” implies that the draining is a slow process. Only Choice E, “small,” helps to explain why the process is slow and is therefore the best choice. None of the other choices contributes to the explanation.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 4
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Coetzee is known to be reclusive, and he __________ publicity to such an extent that he did not collect either of his two Booker Prizes in person.

A. welcomes

B. avoids

C. courts

D. shuns

E. gathers

F. tries
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 4
This is a simple sentence which presents a blank before the word “publicity”. Coetzee is known to be reclusive, and a reclusive person is solitary and keeps to himself/herself. How would such a person react to being in the spotlight? A shy person would not want to be in the spotlight. So, Coetzee shuns or avoids publicity. This rules out the words welcomes, courts, gathers and tries. This leaves us with options B and D. The Correct Answer is B and D.

Choices B & D are the correct answers.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 5
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Since the invention of computers, chips and processors have become smaller and simpler, but computer programs have become increasingly _________.

A. anomalous

B. efficient

C. byzantine

D. treacherous

E. labyrinthine

F. intransigent
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 5
This is an easy sentence because the word “but” draws out a simple contrast between the evolution of hardware and software. “But” implies an opposing relationship between the two parts of the sentence, so while hardware has become smaller and simpler, computer programs have gone in the opposing direction – they have become larger and more unwieldy. Answer options C and E fit the best.

Choices C & E are the correct answers.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 6
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

It was very difficult to guess what Justin would say, for he could engage in both __________ and understatement within a three-second interval.
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 6
The "both . . . and" being used in the second clause helps to unpack why it was difficult to know what Justin would say. It seems that he would say conflicting things—hence the difficulty in guessing his next words. "Understatement" is a way of speaking that doesn't really address the true depths of some reality. For instance, a horrible murder might be called "kind of bad" by someone. This would be an understatement of the case. A great contrast to this is "hyperbole," meaning an expression that greatly overstates the case. For instance, someone might say that the day is the "coldest day ever" when it is not even at the point of freezing but merely brisk.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 7
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Although the boy was known for walking briskly everywhere he went, today he traveled at a pace that was quite __________.

Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 7
The word "although" at the beginning of the sentence is a trigger word telling you that the introductory clause is opposed to the main clause of the sentence. "Brisk" can describe cool weather but it also can mean fast. The contrast in this sentence is between the boy's normal quick pace and the blank that we have to fill. "Expeditious" is too synonymous with work. "Irregular" and "unpredictable" are not direct antonyms. "Surprising" is wholly off the mark. The best answer is "plodding"—meaning slowly moving.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 8
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Historians credit repeated locust invasions in the nineteenth century with reshaping United States agriculture west of the Mississippi River. Admonished by government entomologists, farmers began to diversify. Wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region, but it was particularly vulnerable to the locusts. In 1873, just before the locusts’ most withering offensive, nearly two-thirds of Minnesota farmland was producing wheat; by the invasions’ last year, that fraction had dropped to less than one-sixth. Farmers learned that peas and beans were far less vulnerable to the insects, and corn was a more robust grain than wheat. In addition to planting alternative crops, many farmers turned to dairy and beef production. Although pastures were often damaged by the locusts, these lands were almost always left in better shape than the crops were.

Q. In the context in which it appears, “robust” (line 8) most nearly means
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 8
In discussing the advantages of less vulnerable crops, the author describes corn as “robust.” Of the choices presented, “vigorous” is most similar in meaning to “robust.” Neither “crude” nor “demanding” is an advantage, and although being “productive” or “rich” might be desirable, neither matches the meaning of “robust” in this context. Therefore, Choice D is the correct answer.
*Multiple options can be correct
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 9
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Historians credit repeated locust invasions in the nineteenth century with reshaping United States agriculture west of the Mississippi River. Admonished by government entomologists, farmers began to diversify. Wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region, but it was particularly vulnerable to the locusts. In 1873, just before the locusts’ most withering offensive, nearly two-thirds of Minnesota farmland was producing wheat; by the invasions’ last year, that fraction had dropped to less than one-sixth. Farmers learned that peas and beans were far less vulnerable to the insects, and corn was a more robust grain than wheat. In addition to planting alternative crops, many farmers turned to dairy and beef production. Although pastures were often damaged by the locusts, these lands were almost always left in better shape than the crops were.

Q. According to the passage, before the recommendations by the government entomologists, which of the following was true about farming west of the Mississippi River?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.]
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Choices A and C are correct.

Choice A is correct: according to the passage, “wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region” prior to the recommendations of government entomologists.

Choice B is incorrect: although wheat was the dominant crop, there is no indication that peas and beans had not been planted in the region prior to the admonishments of government entomologists.

Choice C is correct: given that wheat was the dominant crop, only a relatively small portion of farmland could have been devoted to other crops.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 10
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Nineteenth-century architect Eugène-Emmanuel Viollet-le-Duc contended that Paris’s Notre-Dame cathedral, built primarily in the late twelfth century, was supported from the very beginning by a system of flying buttresses—a series of exterior arches (flyers) and their supports (buttresses)—which permitted the construction of taller vaulted buildings with slimmer walls and interior supports than had been possible previously. Other commentators insist, however, that Notre-Dame did not have flying buttresses until the thirteenth or fourteenth century, when they were added to update the building aesthetically and correct its structural flaws. Although post-twelfth-century modifications and renovations complicate efforts to resolve this controversy—all pre fifteenth-century flyers have been replaced, and the buttresses have been rebuilt and/or resurfaced—it is nevertheless possible to tell that both the nave and the choir, the church’s two major parts, have always had flying buttresses. It is clear, now that nineteenth-century paint and plaster have been removed, that the nave’s lower buttresses date from the twelfth century. Moreover, the choir’s lower flyers have chevron (zigzag) decoration. Chevron decoration, which was characteristic of the second half of the twelfth century and was out of favor by the fourteenth century, is entirely absent from modifications to the building that can be dated with confidence to the thirteenth century.

Q. The passage is primarily concerned with
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 10
As the description above indicates, Choice C is correct: the passage supports one side in a controversy. Choice A is incorrect because while the passage describes a controversy, it makes no mention of how that controversy developed. The passage also does not discuss any obstacles to resolving the controversy, any assumptions underlying the claims in the controversy, or any reasons why pertinent evidence may have been overlooked, so Choice B, Choice D, and Choice E are all incorrect.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 11
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Nineteenth-century architect Eugène-Emmanuel Viollet-le-Duc contended that Paris’s Notre-Dame cathedral, built primarily in the late twelfth century, was supported from the very beginning by a system of flying buttresses—a series of exterior arches (flyers) and their supports (buttresses)—which permitted the construction of taller vaulted buildings with slimmer walls and interior supports than had been possible previously. Other commentators insist, however, that Notre-Dame did not have flying buttresses until the thirteenth or fourteenth century, when they were added to update the building aesthetically and correct its structural flaws. Although post-twelfth-century modifications and renovations complicate efforts to resolve this controversy—all pre fifteenth-century flyers have been replaced, and the buttresses have been rebuilt and/or resurfaced—it is nevertheless possible to tell that both the nave and the choir, the church’s two major parts, have always had flying buttresses. It is clear, now that nineteenth-century paint and plaster have been removed, that the nave’s lower buttresses date from the twelfth century. Moreover, the choir’s lower flyers have chevron (zigzag) decoration. Chevron decoration, which was characteristic of the second half of the twelfth century and was out of favor by the fourteenth century, is entirely absent from modifications to the building that can be dated with confidence to the thirteenth century.

Q. The claim of the “other commentators” (line 6) suggests that they believe which of the following about Notre-Dame?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 11
The passage states that the “other commentators” claim that Notre-Dame first received flying buttresses when it was updated for aesthetic and structural reasons in the thirteenth or fourteenth century. This claim thus suggests that the aesthetics of Notre- Dame were then seen as out of date, making Choice E correct. Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not include any information about other cathedrals, let alone attribute a view of them to the other commentators. While the other commentators do suggest that the design of Notre-Dame was seen as flawed in the thirteenth or fourteenth century, they say that flying buttresses were added to correct these flaws, not that the flaws became apparent after the addition of the flying buttresses, which makes Choice B incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not attribute any views of the embellishments on the flying buttresses to the other commentators; similarly, Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not describe the other commentators as discussing any modifications prior to the thirteenth or fourteenth century.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 12
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Nineteenth-century architect Eugène-Emmanuel Viollet-le-Duc contended that Paris’s Notre-Dame cathedral, built primarily in the late twelfth century, was supported from the very beginning by a system of flying buttresses—a series of exterior arches (flyers) and their supports (buttresses)—which permitted the construction of taller vaulted buildings with slimmer walls and interior supports than had been possible previously. Other commentators insist, however, that Notre-Dame did not have flying buttresses until the thirteenth or fourteenth century, when they were added to update the building aesthetically and correct its structural flaws. Although post-twelfth-century modifications and renovations complicate efforts to resolve this controversy—all pre-fifteenth-century flyers have been replaced, and the buttresses have been rebuilt and/or resurfaced—it is nevertheless possible to tell that both the nave and the choir, the church’s two major parts, have always had flying buttresses. It is clear, now that nineteenth-century paint and plaster have been removed, that the nave’s lower buttresses date from the twelfth century. Moreover, the choir’s lower flyers have chevron (zigzag) decoration. Chevron decoration, which was characteristic of the second half of the twelfth century and was out of favor by the fourteenth century, is entirely absent from modifications to the building that can be dated with confidence to the thirteenth century.

Q. The author’s argument concerning Notre-Dame’s flying buttresses depends on which of the following assumptions about the choir’s lower flyers?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 12
The author supports the claim that flying buttresses were present on Notre-Dame from the twelfth century by noting that the choir’s lower flyers feature a chevron decoration that was characteristic of the twelfth century. But since all flyers constructed prior to the fifteenth century have been replaced, the chevron decorations can indicate only that flyers were present in the twelfth century if those decorations accurately reproduce the decorations that existed on the original flyers. Thus, Choice A is the correct answer.

Choice B is incorrect: whether chevron decorations are used only on the exterior is not a point of dispute in the passage. Choices C, D, and E are all incorrect: no part of the argument turns on any claim about the choir’s upper flyers, the nave’s lower flyers, or the sequence in which the choir’s and the nave’s flyers were constructed.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 13
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

In Gilavia, the number of reported workplace injuries has declined 16 percent in the last five years. However, perhaps part of the decline results from injuries going unreported: many employers have introduced safety-incentive programs, such as prize drawings for which only employees who have a perfect work-safety record are eligible. Since a workplace injury would disqualify an employee from such programs, some employees might be concealing injury, when it is feasible to do so.

Q. Which of the following, if true in Gilavia, most strongly supports the proposed explanation?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 13
The question asks what would support the claim that the decline in reported workplace injuries in Gilavia may be the result of incentives for workers to not report those injuries that they can conceal. If the number of injuries that cannot be concealed— such as injuries requiring immediate emergency care—has not declined in the same period, that could help bolster the claim that the decline in overall reported injuries may be a result of concealable injuries going unreported rather than an actual decline in workplace injuries in general, so Choice A is correct.

If employers have to provide financial compensation to employees injured on the job, employees would have an incentive to report injuries. More reported injuries would not support the author’s argument, making Choice B incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that some injuries that cannot be concealed do not result in lost time or changed responsibilities has nothing to do with whether concealable injuries are going unreported. While a decline in dangerous occupations could well result in a decrease in workplace injuries, this fact would challenge the author’s argument, not support it, so Choice D is incorrect. Similarly, if employers with safety incentive programs do not see any drop in reported injuries compared to employers without such programs, the author’s argument would be weakened, not supported, making Choice E incorrect.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 14
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Quantity A: 3-1 / 4-1

Quantity B: 4/3
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 14
In this question, you are asked to compare 3-1 / 4-1 with 4/3. Recall that if a is a 1 = a a −1 nonzero number, then a-1 = 1/a and 1/a-1 = a. Using these rules of exponents, you

Thus 3-1 / 4-1 = 4/3, and the correct answer is Choice C.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 15
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. x > 0

Quantity A: 0.5% of x

Quantity B: 1/2x
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 15
In this question, you are given that x > 0, and you are asked to compare 0.5% of x with 1/2x . Recall that 1/2 of a number is the same as 50% of the number. Therefore,1/2x is equal to 50% of x. Since x > 0, it follows that 50% of x is greater than 0.5% of x. The correct answer is Choice B.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 16
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. The median income of a group of College C graduates six months after graduation was $3,000 higher than the median income of a group of College D graduates six months after graduation.

Quantity A: The 75th percentile of the incomes of the group of College C graduates six months after graduation

Quantity B: The 75th percentile of the incomes of the group of College D graduates six months after graduation
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 16
In this question, you are asked to compare the 75th percentiles of the incomes of two groups of college graduates six months after graduation. The only information you are given is that the median income of the group in Quantity A is $3,000 greater than the median income of the group in Quantity B.

Recall that the median of a group of numbers is the middle number (or the average of the two middle numbers) when the numbers are listed from least to greatest. The median is also equal to the 50th percentile. The median does not indicate anything about the spread of the numbers in the group. In particular, for each group of incomes, you do not know how much greater than the median the 75th percentile of the group of incomes is, nor do you know the relationship between the 75th percentiles of the two groups. Since the relationship between Quantity A and Quantity B cannot be determined, the correct answer is Choice D.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 17
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Distance Traveled By a Car According to The Car’s Speed When The Driver is Signaled to Stop

*Reaction time is the time period that begins when the driver is signaled to stop and ends when the driver applies the brakes.

Note: Total stopping distance is the sum of the distance travelled during reaction time and the distance travelled after brakes have been applied.

Q. The speed, in miles per hour, at which the car travels a distance of 52 feet during reaction time is closest to which of the following?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 17
The data accompanying questions 17 to 20 consists of two graphs. It is a good idea to look at the graphs before you try to answer the questions, so you can become familiar with the information contained in the graphs. Then, as you read each question, you should think about which of the graphs contains the information you need to solve the problem. It could be that all the information you need to solve the problem is contained in one of the graphs, or it could be that you need to get information from both of the graphs.

The graph on the left shows the relationship between the speed of the automobile and the distance it travelled during the reaction time. Therefore, the answer to this question is found using this graph by reading the speed, in miles per hour, corresponding to a distance of 52 feet. A distance of 52 feet is a little above the distance of 50 feet on the vertical axis of the graph. On the graph, the speed corresponding to a distance of 52 feet is a little less than 50 miles per hour. The correct answer is Choice B.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 18
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Distance Traveled By a Car According to The Car’s Speed When The Driver is Signaled to Stop

*Reaction time is the time period that begins when the driver is signaled to stop and ends when the driver applies the brakes.

Note: Total stopping distance is the sum of the distance travelled during reaction time and the distance traveled after brakes have been applied.

Q. Approximately what is the total stopping distance, in feet, if the car is traveling at a speed of 40 miles per hour when the driver is signaled to stop?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 18
Since the total stopping distance is the sum of the distance travelled during reaction time and the distance travelled after the brakes have been applied, you need information from both graphs to answer this question. At a speed of 40 miles per hour, the distance travelled during reaction time is a little less than 45 feet, and the distance travelled after the brakes have been applied is 88 feet. Since 45 + 88 = 133, the correct answer is Choice A.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 19
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If 0 < a < 1 < b, which of the following is true about the reciprocals of a and b?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 19
To answer this question, you must first look at the answer choices. Note that all of the choices are possible orderings of the quantities 1/a, 1/b, and 1 from least to greatest. So to answer the question, you must put the three quantities in order from least to greatest. The inequality 0 < a < 1 < b tells you that 0 < a < 1 and that b > 1. Since a is a value between 0 and 1, the value of 1/a must be greater than 1. Since b is greater than 1, the value of 1/a must be less than 1. So you know that 1/a > 1 and 1/b < 1, or combined in one expression, 1/b <1 < 1/a, and the correct answer is Choice D.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 20
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What is the least positive integer that is not a factor of 25! and is not a prime number?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 20
Note that 25! is equal to the product of all positive integers from 1 to 25, inclusive. Thus, every positive integer less than or equal to 25 is a factor of 25!. Also, any integer greater than 25 that can be expressed as the product of different positive integers less than 25 is a factor of 25!. In view of this, it’s reasonable to consider the next few integers greater than 25, including answer choices A and B.

Choice A, 26, is equal to (2)(13). Both 2 and 13 are factors of 25!, so 26 is also a factor of 25!. The same is true for 27, or (3)(9), and for Choice B, 28, or (4)(7). However, the next integer, 29, is a prime number greater than 25, and as such, it has no positive factors (other than 1) that are less than or equal to 25. Therefore, 29 is the least positive integer that is not a factor of 25!. However, the question asks for an integer that is not a prime number, so 29 is not the answer.

At this point, you could consider 30, 31, 32, etc., but it is quicker to look at the rest of the choices. Choice C, 36, is equal to (4)(9). Both 4 and 9 are factors of 25!, so 36 is also a factor of 25!. Choice D, 56, is equal to (4)(14). Both 4 and 14 are factors of 25!, so 56 is also a factor of 25!. Choice E, 58, is equal to (2)(29). Although 2 is a factor of 25!, the prime number 29, as noted earlier, is not a factor of 25!, and therefore 58 is not a factor of 25!. The correct answer must be Choice E.

The explanation above uses a process of elimination to arrive at Choice E, which is sometimes the most efficient way to find the correct answer. However, one can also show directly that the correct answer is 58. For if a positive integer n is not a factor of 25!, then one of the following must be true:

(i) n is a prime number greater than 25, like 29 or 31, or a multiple of such a prime number, like 58 or 62;

(ii) n is so great a multiple of some prime number less than 25, that it must be greater than 58.

To see that (i) or (ii) is true, recall that every integer greater than 1 has a unique prime factorization, and consider the prime factorization of 25!. The prime factors of 25! are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, and 23, some of which occur more than once in the product 25!. For example, there are 8 positive multiples of 3 less than 25, namely 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, and 24. The prime number 3 occurs once in each of these multiples, except for 9 and 18, in which it occurs twice. Thus, the factor 3 occurs 10 times in the prime factorization of 25!. The same reasoning can be used to find the number of times that each of the prime factors occur, yielding the prime factorization 25! = (222)(310)(56)(73)(112)(13)(17)(19)(23). Any integer whose prime factorization is a combination of one or more of the factors in the prime factorization of 25!, perhaps with lesser exponents, is a factor of 25!. Equivalently, if the positive integer n is not a factor of 25!, then, restating (i) and (ii) above, the prime factorization of n must

(i) include a prime number greater than 25; or

(ii) have a greater exponent for one of the prime numbers in the prime factorization of 25!.

For (ii), the least possibilities are 223, 311, 57, 74, 113, 132, 172, 192, and 232. Clearly, all of these are greater than 58. The least possibility for (i) that is not a prime number is 58, and the least possibility for (ii) is greater than 58, so Choice E is the correct answer.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 21
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. The graph below shows the frequency distribution of 50 integer values varying from 1 to 6.

Quantity A: The average (arithmetic mean) of the 50 values

Quantity B: The median of the 50 values
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 21
In this question, you are given a graph of the frequency distribution of 50 integer values and are asked to compare the average (arithmetic mean) with the median of the distribution.

In general, the median of a group of n values, where n is even, is obtained by ordering the values from least to greatest and then calculating the average (arithmetic mean) of the two middle values. So, for the 50 values shown in the graph, the median is the average of the 25th and 26th values, both of which are equal to 5. Therefore, the median of the 50 values is 5.

Once you know that the median of the 50 values is 5, the comparison simplifies to comparing the average of the 50 values with 5. You can make this comparison without actually calculating the average by noting from the graph that of the 50 values,

11 values are 1 unit above 5,

16 values are equal to 5,

10 values are 1 unit below 5, and

13 values are more than 1 unit below 5.

Since the part of the distribution that is below 5 contains 23 values -13 of which are more than 1 unit below 5 - and the part of the distribution that is above 5 contains 11 values - none of which is more than 1 unit above 5 - the average (arithmetic mean) of the 50 values must be less than 5. The correct answer is Choice B.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 22
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q.

Quantity A: The area of triangle PQR

Quantity B: The area of triangle PSR
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 22
In this question, you are asked to compare the area of triangle PQR with the area of triangle PSR. Note that both triangles are right triangles and that line segment PR is the hypotenuse of both triangles. Recall that the area of a triangle is equal to one-half the product of a base and the height corresponding to the base. Also, for any right triangle, the lengths of the two legs of the triangle are a base and the corresponding height.

The area of triangle PQR: In the figure, it is given that the length of leg PQ is 2√5 and the length of leg QR is √5. Therefore, you can conclude that the area of triangle PQR is 1/2(2√5)(√5) or 5.

The area of triangle PSR: To calculate the area of triangle PSR, you need to know the lengths of the legs PS and RS. From the figure, you know that the length of RS is 3, but you do not know the length of PS. How can you determine the length of PS? If, in addition to the length of RS, you knew the length of hypotenuse PR, you could use the Pythagorean theorem to determine the length of PS. So, to find the length of PS, you first need to find the length of hypotenuse PR.

Recall that PR is also the hypotenuse of triangle PQR. The lengths of legs PQ and QR of triangle PQR are 2√5 and √5, respectively. By the Pythagorean theorem,

(PR)2 = (PQ)2 + QR2

= (2√5)2 + (√5)2

= 20 + 5

= 25

Thus, the length of PR is √25, or 5.

Returning to triangle PSR, you now know that the length of hypotenuse PR is 5 and the length of leg RS is 3. Therefore, by the Pythagorean theorem,

32 + (PS)2 = 52

9 + (PS)2 = 25

(PS)2 = 25 − 9

(PS)2 = 16

and the length of PS is 4.

Since legs PS and RS have lengths 4 and 3, respectively, the area of triangle PSR is ½(4)(3), or 6. Recall that you have already determined that the area of triangle PQR is 5. So Quantity B, the area of triangle PSR, is greater than Quantity A, the area of triangle PQR, and the correct answer is Choice B.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 23
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Quantity A: The sum of the odd integers from 1 to 199

Quantity B: The sum of the even integers from 2 to 198
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 23
You can try to compare the two sums without actually calculating them. Recall that Quantity A is the sum of the 100 odd integers from 1 to 199, and Quantity B is the sum of the 99 even integers from 2 to 198. Write each sum with the terms in increasing order, as follows, pairing the nth term in Quantity B with the nth term in Quantity A and noting that there is no term in Quantity B that is paired with the 100th term, 199, in Quantity A.

Quantity A: 1 + 3 + 5 + . . . + 193 + 195 + 197 + 199

Quantity B: 2 + 4 + 6 + . . . + 194 + 196 + 198

Note that each of the 99 terms in Quantity B is 1 more than its paired term in Quantity A, so Quantity B is 99 more than the sum of all the terms in Quantity A excluding the last term, 199. Consequently, Quantity A is 199 − 99 more than Quantity B - that is, 100 more than Quantity B - and the correct answer is Choice A.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 24
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. s and t are positive integers, and 32s = 2t .

Quantity A: s/t

Quantity B: 1/5
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 24
In this question, you are given that s and t are positive integers and that 32s = 2t, and you are asked to compare s/t with 1/5. Since the expression s/t involves the variables s and t, you need to look for a relationship between s and t using the equation 32s = 2t. If the two bases in this equation were equal, then the exponents would be equal. However, one of the bases is 32 and the other is 2. This suggests making the two bases equal by rewriting 32 as a power of 2 if it is possible to do so. In fact, 32 = 25. Therefore, 32s = (25)s = 25s, and the equation can be rewritten as 25s = 2t. In the rewritten equation, the bases are equal, so you can conclude that 5s = t.

Since 5s = t, it follows that s/t = 1/5. Quantity A is equal to Quantity B, and the correct answer is Choice C.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 25
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Of the 20 lightbulbs in a box, 2 are defective. An inspector will select 2 lightbulbs simultaneously and at random from the box. What is the probability that neither of the lightbulbs selected will be defective?

Give your answer as a fraction.

[Numeric Ability Question]

Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

The desired probability corresponds to the fraction the number of ways that 2 lightbulbs, both of which are not defective, can be chosen / the number of ways that 2 lightbulbs can be chosen

In order to calculate the desired probability, you need to calculate the values of the numerator and the denominator of this fraction.

Approach is to look at the selection of the two lightbulbs separately. The problem states that lightbulbs are selected simultaneously. However, the timing of the selection only ensures that the same lightbulb is not chosen twice. This is equivalent to choosing one lightbulb first and then choosing a second lightbulb without replacing the first. The probability that the first lightbulb selected will not be defective is 18/20. If the first lightbulb selected is not defective, there will be 19 lightbulbs left to choose from, 17 of which are not defective. Thus, the probability that the second lightbulb selected will not be defective is 17/19. The probability that both lightbulbs selected will not be defective is the product of these two probabilities. Thus, the desired probability is (18/20)(17/19) = 153/119. The correct answer is 153/119.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 26
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In the figure below, line k is parallel to line m. What is the value of y?

Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

In the figure, the angles with measures (2y)° and 35° are between parallel lines k and m, and they are on opposite sides of the line that crosses k and m. Therefore, you can conclude that these two angles are congruent. So 2y = 35, and y = 35/2 = 17.5. The correct answer is 17.5.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 27
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The numbers in data set S have a standard deviation of 5. If a new data set is formed by adding 3 to each number in S, what is the standard deviation of the numbers in the new data set?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 27
Recall that the standard deviation of the numbers in a data set is a measure of the spread of the numbers about the mean of the numbers. The new data set is formed by adding the same number, 3, to each number in data set S. Thus, the mean of the numbers in the new data set is 3 more than the mean of the numbers in S, but the spread of the numbers in the new data set about the mean of the numbers in the new data set is the same as the spread of the numbers in S about the mean of the numbers in S. Because the standard deviation of the numbers in S is 5, the standard deviation of the numbers in the new data set is also 5. The correct answer is Choice C.
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 28
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If ,which of the following could be the value of y?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 28
One approach to answer the question is to solve the equation for y as follows.

2(2y − 3) = y (3− y)

4y −6 = 3y − y2

y2 + y −6 = 0

( y +3)( y −2) = 0

Since a product equals 0 only if at least one of the factors equals 0,

y + 3 = 0 or y − 2 = 0

y = −3 or y = 2

Thus, there are two values of y that satisfy the equation, −3 and 2. The value −3 is Choice D, and the value 2 is not among the answer choices. The correct answer is Choice D.

New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 29
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If x < y < 0, which of the following inequalities must be true?
Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 29
The conditions stated in the question, x < y < 0, tell you that x and y are negative numbers and that y is greater than x. Keep this in mind as you evaluate each of the inequalities in the answer choices, to see whether the inequality must be true.

Choice A: y + 1 < x. According to the conditions given in the question, y is greater than x. Since y is greater than x and y + 1 is greater than y, it follows that y + 1 is greater than x. So it cannot be true that y + 1 < x. Therefore, Choice A is not the correct answer.

Choice B: y − 1 < x. While it is true that both x and y − 1 are less than y, it may not be true that y − 1 < x. Consider what happens if y − 2 and x = 7. In this case, the inequality y − 1 < x becomes −3 < −7, which is false. Therefore, Choice B is not the correct answer.

Choice C: xy2 < x. Note that y2 is positive and x is negative, so xy2 is negative. Is the negative number xy2 less than the negative number x? It depends on whether y2 > 1 or y2 < 1. Consider what happens if x = −4 and y = -1/2, where y2 < 1. In this case, the inequality xy2 < x becomes −1 < −4, which is false. Therefore, Choice C is not the correct answer.

Choice D: xy < y2. Since y is a negative number, multiplying both sides of the inequality x < y by y reverses the inequality, resulting in the inequality xy > y2. So it cannot be true that xy < y2 . Therefore, Choice D is not the correct answer. Since Choices A through D have been eliminated, the correct answer is Choice E.

Choice E: You can show that the inequality in Choice E, xy < x2, must be true as follows: Multiply both sides of the given inequality x < y by x to obtain the inequality x2 > xy, reversing the direction of the inequality because x is negative. Therefore, the inequality xy < x2 must be true, and the correct answer is Choice E.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 30
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What is the length of a diagonal of a rectangle that has width 5 and perimeter 34? (Numerical Ability Question)

Detailed Solution for New Pattern Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

In this question, you are given that a rectangle has width 5 and perimeter 34, and you are asked to find the length of a diagonal of the rectangle. Let L and W represent the length and width of the rectangle, respectively, and let D represent the length of a diagonal. Note that you are not given L but you are given that W = 5 and that the perimeter is 34. Because the perimeter is equal to L + L + W + W, or 2(L +W) , you can determine L as follows.

2(L + 5) = 34

L + 5 = 17

L = 12

The following figure shows a rectangle of length 12, width 5, and diagonal of length D.

From the figure, you can see that the diagonal is the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs of length 5 and 12. Therefore, by the Pythagorean theorem,

52 + 122 = D2

25 + 144 = D2

169 = D2

13 = D

The length of the diagonal is 13, so the correct answer is 13.

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