GRE Exam  >  GRE Tests  >  GRE Mock Test Series 2024  >  Mock Test for GRE - 10 - GRE MCQ

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - GRE MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2024 - Mock Test for GRE - 10

Mock Test for GRE - 10 for GRE 2024 is part of GRE Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Mock Test for GRE - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The Mock Test for GRE - 10 MCQs are made for GRE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Mock Test for GRE - 10 below.
Solutions of Mock Test for GRE - 10 questions in English are available as part of our GRE Mock Test Series 2024 for GRE & Mock Test for GRE - 10 solutions in Hindi for GRE Mock Test Series 2024 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for GRE Exam by signing up for free. Attempt Mock Test for GRE - 10 | 80 questions in 130 minutes | Mock test for GRE preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study GRE Mock Test Series 2024 for GRE Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 1

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Until recently, many anthropologists assumed that the environment of what is now the southwestern United States shaped the social history and culture of the region’s indigenous peoples. Building on this assumption, archaeologists asserted that adverse environmental conditions and droughts were responsible for the disappearances and migrations of southwestern populations from many sites they once inhabited.

However, such deterministic arguments fail to acknowledge that local environmental variability in the Southwest makes generalizing about that environment difficult. To examine the relationship between environmental variation and sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region of central Arizona, which indigenous tribes have occupied continuously for at least 800 years, a research team recently reconstructed the climatic, vegetational, and erosional cycles of past centuries. The researchers found it impossible to provide a single, generally applicable characterization of environmental conditions for the region. Rather, they found that local areas experienced different patterns of rainfall, wind, and erosion, and that such conditions had prevailed in the Southwest for the last 1,400 years. Rainfall, for example, varied within and between local valley systems, so that even adjacent agricultural fields can produce significantly different yields.

The researchers characterized episodes of variation in southwestern environments by frequency: low-frequency environmental processes occur in cycles longer than one human generation, which generally is considered to last about 25 years, and high frequency processes have shorter cycles. The researchers pointed out that low-frequency processes, such as fluctuations in stream flow and groundwater levels, would not usually be apparent to human populations. In contrast, high-frequency fluctuations such as seasonal temperature variations are observable and somewhat predictable, so that groups could have adapted their behaviors accordingly. When the researchers compared sequences of sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region with episodes of low- and high-frequency environmental variation, however, they found no simple correlation between environmental process and sociocultural change or persistence.

Although early Pueblo peoples did protect themselves against environmental risk and uncertainty, they responded variously on different occasions to similar patterns of highfrequency climatic and environmental change. The researchers identified seven major adaptive responses, including increased mobility, relocation of permanent settlements, changes in subsistence foods, and reliance on trade with other groups. These findings suggest that groups’ adaptive choices depended on cultural and social as well as environmental factors and were flexible strategies rather than uncomplicated reactions to environmental change. Environmental conditions mattered, but they were rarely, if ever, sufficient to account for sociocultural persistence and change. Group size and composition, culture, contact with other groups, and individual choices and actions were— barring catastrophes such as floods or earthquakes—more significant for a population’s survival than were climate and environment.

Q. The passage is primarily concerned with

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 1
As the description above indicates, Choice C is the best answer: the passage introduces an explanation, presents evidence that challenges it, and offers an alternative explanation. The passage does not mention the creation of controversy or discuss flaws in research methodology; therefore, Choices A and B are incorrect. Although the passage reports findings that different groups used different adaptive responses to environmental conditions, there is no focus on the adaptations used by particular groups, so Choice D is incorrect. The passage presents recent research findings but not in defense of a long-held interpretation; therefore, Choice E is incorrect.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 2

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Until recently, many anthropologists assumed that the environment of what is now the southwestern United States shaped the social history and culture of the region’s indigenous peoples. Building on this assumption, archaeologists asserted that adverse environmental conditions and droughts were responsible for the disappearances and migrations of southwestern populations from many sites they once inhabited.

However, such deterministic arguments fail to acknowledge that local environmental variability in the Southwest makes generalizing about that environment difficult. To examine the relationship between environmental variation and sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region of central Arizona, which indigenous tribes have occupied continuously for at least 800 years, a research team recently reconstructed the climatic, vegetational, and erosional cycles of past centuries. The researchers found it impossible to provide a single, generally applicable characterization of environmental conditions for the region. Rather, they found that local areas experienced different patterns of rainfall, wind, and erosion, and that such conditions had prevailed in the Southwest for the last 1,400 years. Rainfall, for example, varied within and between local valley systems, so that even adjacent agricultural fields can produce significantly different yields.

The researchers characterized episodes of variation in southwestern environments by frequency: low-frequency environmental processes occur in cycles longer than one human generation, which generally is considered to last about 25 years, and high frequency processes have shorter cycles. The researchers pointed out that low-frequency processes, such as fluctuations in stream flow and groundwater levels, would not usually be apparent to human populations. In contrast, high-frequency fluctuations such as seasonal temperature variations are observable and somewhat predictable, so that groups could have adapted their behaviors accordingly. When the researchers compared sequences of sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region with episodes of low- and high-frequency environmental variation, however, they found no simple correlation between environmental process and sociocultural change or persistence.

Although early Pueblo peoples did protect themselves against environmental risk and uncertainty, they responded variously on different occasions to similar patterns of high frequency climatic and environmental change. The researchers identified seven major adaptive responses, including increased mobility, relocation of permanent settlements, changes in subsistence foods, and reliance on trade with other groups. These findings suggest that groups’ adaptive choices depended on cultural and social as well as environmental factors and were flexible strategies rather than uncomplicated reactions to environmental change. Environmental conditions mattered, but they were rarely, if ever, sufficient to account for sociocultural persistence and change. Group size and composition, culture, contact with other groups, and individual choices and actions were— barring catastrophes such as floods or earthquakes—more significant for a population’s survival than were climate and environment.

Q. Which of the following findings would most strongly support the assertion made by the archaeologists mentioned in line 3?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 2
The archaeologists mentioned in line 3 asserted that adverse environmental conditions caused southwestern populations to move or disappear. The question asks which finding would support this assertion.

Choices A, B, and C all describe populations that did not move away or disappear in the face of environmental changes, and hence are all incorrect. Choice D is incorrect because it does not mention a change in environmental conditions and therefore cannot support an assertion about the effects of changing environmental conditions. Choice E is the best answer: it mentions an adverse environmental change (a long drought) that caused a population to leave the site it had inhabited, which would support the archaeologists’ assertion that such environmental changes caused such population changes.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 3

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Until recently, many anthropologists assumed that the environment of what is now the southwestern United States shaped the social history and culture of the region’s indigenous peoples. Building on this assumption, archaeologists asserted that adverse environmental conditions and droughts were responsible for the disappearances and migrations of southwestern populations from many sites they once inhabited.

However, such deterministic arguments fail to acknowledge that local environmental variability in the Southwest makes generalizing about that environment difficult. To examine the relationship between environmental variation and sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region of central Arizona, which indigenous tribes have occupied continuously for at least 800 years, a research team recently reconstructed the climatic, vegetational, and erosional cycles of past centuries. The researchers found it impossible to provide a single, generally applicable characterization of environmental conditions for the region. Rather, they found that local areas experienced different patterns of rainfall, wind, and erosion, and that such conditions had prevailed in the Southwest for the last 1,400 years. Rainfall, for example, varied within and between local valley systems, so that even adjacent agricultural fields can produce significantly different yields.

The researchers characterized episodes of variation in southwestern environments by frequency: low-frequency environmental processes occur in cycles longer than one human generation, which generally is considered to last about 25 years, and highfrequency processes have shorter cycles. The researchers pointed out that low-frequency processes, such as fluctuations in stream flow and groundwater levels, would not usually be apparent to human populations. In contrast, high-frequency fluctuations such as seasonal temperature variations are observable and somewhat predictable, so that groups could have adapted their behaviors accordingly. When the researchers compared sequences of sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region with episodes of low- and high-frequency environmental variation, however, they found no simple correlation between environmental process and sociocultural change or persistence.

Although early Pueblo peoples did protect themselves against environmental risk and uncertainty, they responded variously on different occasions to similar patterns of high frequency climatic and environmental change. The researchers identified seven major adaptive responses, including increased mobility, relocation of permanent settlements, changes in subsistence foods, and reliance on trade with other groups. These findings suggest that groups’ adaptive choices depended on cultural and social as well as environmental factors and were flexible strategies rather than uncomplicated reactions to environmental change. Environmental conditions mattered, but they were rarely, if ever, sufficient to account for sociocultural persistence and change. Group size and composition, culture, contact with other groups, and individual choices and actions were— barring catastrophes such as floods or earthquakes—more significant for a population’s survival than were climate and environment.

Q. The fact that “adjacent agricultural fields can produce significantly different yields” (lines 16–17) is offered as evidence of the

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 3
Choice D is the correct answer: the second paragraph says rainfall variations between local valleys cause different agricultural yields between adjacent fields and gives this as an example of how climate is not uniform within the Southwest but rather can vary significantly from place to place. Choice A is incorrect: while such variability might give rise to unpredictability, that is not how the difference in agricultural yields is being used as evidence in the passage. Choices B and C are incorrect: the passage does not make or report a claim about feeding large populations, nor does it assert that central Arizona lacks land suitable for cultivation. Choice E is incorrect: a discussion of highand low-frequency processes occurs in the third paragraph, but the author does not present geographic differences in rainfall and agricultural yield as either a high- or a low-frequency environmental process.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 4

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Until recently, many anthropologists assumed that the environment of what is now the southwestern United States shaped the social history and culture of the region’s indigenous peoples. Building on this assumption, archaeologists asserted that adverse environmental conditions and droughts were responsible for the disappearances and migrations of southwestern populations from many sites they once inhabited.

However, such deterministic arguments fail to acknowledge that local environmental variability in the Southwest makes generalizing about that environment difficult. To examine the relationship between environmental variation and sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region of central Arizona, which indigenous tribes have occupied continuously for at least 800 years, a research team recently reconstructed the climatic, vegetational, and erosional cycles of past centuries. The researchers found it impossible to provide a single, generally applicable characterization of environmental conditions for the region. Rather, they found that local areas experienced different patterns of rainfall, wind, and erosion, and that such conditions had prevailed in the Southwest for the last 1,400 years. Rainfall, for example, varied within and between local valley systems, so that even adjacent agricultural fields can produce significantly different yields.

The researchers characterized episodes of variation in southwestern environments by frequency: low-frequency environmental processes occur in cycles longer than one human generation, which generally is considered to last about 25 years, and high frequency processes have shorter cycles. The researchers pointed out that low-frequency processes, such as fluctuations in stream flow and groundwater levels, would not usually be apparent to human populations. In contrast, high-frequency fluctuations such as seasonal temperature variations are observable and somewhat predictable, so that groups could have adapted their behaviors accordingly. When the researchers compared sequences of sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region with episodes of low- and high-frequency environmental variation, however, they found no simple correlation between environmental process and sociocultural change or persistence.

Although early Pueblo peoples did protect themselves against environmental risk and uncertainty, they responded variously on different occasions to similar patterns of high frequency climatic and environmental change. The researchers identified seven major adaptive responses, including increased mobility, relocation of permanent settlements, changes in subsistence foods, and reliance on trade with other groups. These findings suggest that groups’ adaptive choices depended on cultural and social as well as environmental factors and were flexible strategies rather than uncomplicated reactions to environmental change. Environmental conditions mattered, but they were rarely, if ever, sufficient to account for sociocultural persistence and change. Group size and composition, culture, contact with other groups, and individual choices and actions were— barring catastrophes such as floods or earthquakes—more significant for a population’s survival than were climate and environment.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following activities is NOT an example of a population responding to high-frequency environmental processes?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 4
The phrasing of the question indicates that all but one of the answer choices are examples of a population responding to a high-frequency environmental process. You are asked to choose the one answer choice that does not provide such an example. Choices A, B, D, and E are incorrect because they all present responses to high-frequency environmental processes: developing water-storage jars to adapt to seasonal rainfall variations, adapting dwellings in response to seasonal flooding, trading to acquire clothing in adaptation to seasonal temperature variations, and moving grazing herds seasonally. Choice C is the best answer: the passage mentions fluctuations in ground water levels as a low-frequency process (lines 21–22); moving a village because of a change that takes place over the course of a generation is not a response to a high-frequency process.
*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 5

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Arctic sea ice comes in two varieties. Seasonal ice forms in winter and then melts in summer, while perennial ice persists year-round. To the untrained eye, all sea ice looks similar, but by licking it, one can estimate how long a particular piece has been floating around. When ice begins to form in seawater, it forces out salt, which has no place in the crystal structure. As the ice gets thicker, the rejected salt collects in tiny pockets of brine too highly concentrated to freeze. A piece of first-year ice will taste salty. Eventually, if the ice survives, these pockets of brine drain out through fine, veinlike channels, and the ice becomes fresher; multiyear ice can even be melted and drunk.

Q. The passage mentions which of the following as being a characteristic of seasonal ice?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that

apply.]

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 5

Choices A and C are correct.

Choice A is correct: the passage states that “to the untrained eye, all sea ice looks similar” (lines 2–3).

Choice B is incorrect: it is clear that perennial ice contains fine, veinlike channels, but the passage does not mention whether seasonal ice contains them.

Choice C is correct: in lines 6–8, the passage establishes that first-year ice tastes salty but eventually gets fresher if the ice survives.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 6

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Arctic sea ice comes in two varieties. Seasonal ice forms in winter and then melts in summer, while perennial ice persists year-round. To the untrained eye, all sea ice looks similar, but by licking it, one can estimate how long a particular piece has been floating around. When ice begins to form in seawater, it forces out salt, which has no place in the crystal structure. As the ice gets thicker, the rejected salt collects in tiny pockets of brine too highly concentrated to freeze. A piece of first-year ice will taste salty. Eventually, if the ice survives, these pockets of brine drain out through fine, veinlike channels, and the ice becomes fresher; multiyear ice can even be melted and drunk.

Q. In the context in which it appears, “fine” (line 7) most nearly means

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 6
“Fine” appears in the context of an explanation of how the brine drains out; in such a context, it must be being used to describe a physical characteristic of the channels. In addition, the word “Eventually” implies that the draining is a slow process. Only Choice E, “small,” helps to explain why the process is slow and is therefore the best choice. None of the other choices contributes to the explanation.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 7

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Historians credit repeated locust invasions in the nineteenth century with reshaping United States agriculture west of the Mississippi River. Admonished by government entomologists, farmers began to diversify. Wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region, but it was particularly vulnerable to the locusts. In 1873, just before the locusts’ most withering offensive, nearly two-thirds of Minnesota farmland was producing wheat; by the invasions’ last year, that fraction had dropped to less than one-sixth. Farmers learned that peas and beans were far less vulnerable to the insects, and corn was a more robust grain than wheat. In addition to planting alternative crops, many farmers turned to dairy and beef production. Although pastures were often damaged by the locusts, these lands were almost always left in better shape than the crops were.

Q. In the context in which it appears, “robust” (line 8) most nearly means

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 7
In discussing the advantages of less vulnerable crops, the author describes corn as “robust.” Of the choices presented, “vigorous” is most similar in meaning to “robust.” Neither “crude” nor “demanding” is an advantage, and although being “productive” or “rich” might be desirable, neither matches the meaning of “robust” in this context. Therefore, Choice D is the correct answer.
*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 8

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Historians credit repeated locust invasions in the nineteenth century with reshaping United States agriculture west of the Mississippi River. Admonished by government entomologists, farmers began to diversify. Wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region, but it was particularly vulnerable to the locusts. In 1873, just before the locusts’ most withering offensive, nearly two-thirds of Minnesota farmland was producing wheat; by the invasions’ last year, that fraction had dropped to less than one-sixth. Farmers learned that peas and beans were far less vulnerable to the insects, and corn was a more robust grain than wheat. In addition to planting alternative crops, many farmers turned to dairy and beef production. Although pastures were often damaged by the locusts, these lands were almost always left in better shape than the crops were.

Q. According to the passage, before the recommendations by the government entomologists, which of the following was true about farming west of the Mississippi River?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.]

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 8

Choices A and C are correct.

Choice A is correct: according to the passage, “wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region” prior to the recommendations of government entomologists.

Choice B is incorrect: although wheat was the dominant crop, there is no indication that peas and beans had not been planted in the region prior to the admonishments of government entomologists.

Choice C is correct: given that wheat was the dominant crop, only a relatively small portion of farmland could have been devoted to other crops.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 9

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Nineteenth-century architect Eugène-Emmanuel Viollet-le-Duc contended that Paris’s Notre-Dame cathedral, built primarily in the late twelfth century, was supported from the very beginning by a system of flying buttresses—a series of exterior arches (flyers) and their supports (buttresses)—which permitted the construction of taller vaulted buildings with slimmer walls and interior supports than had been possible previously. Other commentators insist, however, that Notre-Dame did not have flying buttresses until the thirteenth or fourteenth century, when they were added to update the building aesthetically and correct its structural flaws. Although post-twelfth-century modifications and renovations complicate efforts to resolve this controversy—all pre fifteenth-century flyers have been replaced, and the buttresses have been rebuilt and/or resurfaced—it is nevertheless possible to tell that both the nave and the choir, the church’s two major parts, have always had flying buttresses. It is clear, now that nineteenth-century paint and plaster have been removed, that the nave’s lower buttresses date from the twelfth century. Moreover, the choir’s lower flyers have chevron (zigzag) decoration. Chevron decoration, which was characteristic of the second half of the twelfth century and was out of favor by the fourteenth century, is entirely absent from modifications to the building that can be dated with confidence to the thirteenth century.

Q. The passage is primarily concerned with

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 9
As the description above indicates, Choice C is correct: the passage supports one side in a controversy. Choice A is incorrect because while the passage describes a controversy, it makes no mention of how that controversy developed. The passage also does not discuss any obstacles to resolving the controversy, any assumptions underlying the claims in the controversy, or any reasons why pertinent evidence may have been overlooked, so Choice B, Choice D, and Choice E are all incorrect.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 10

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Nineteenth-century architect Eugène-Emmanuel Viollet-le-Duc contended that Paris’s Notre-Dame cathedral, built primarily in the late twelfth century, was supported from the very beginning by a system of flying buttresses—a series of exterior arches (flyers) and their supports (buttresses)—which permitted the construction of taller vaulted buildings with slimmer walls and interior supports than had been possible previously. Other commentators insist, however, that Notre-Dame did not have flying buttresses until the thirteenth or fourteenth century, when they were added to update the building aesthetically and correct its structural flaws. Although post-twelfth-century modifications and renovations complicate efforts to resolve this controversy—all pre fifteenth-century flyers have been replaced, and the buttresses have been rebuilt and/or resurfaced—it is nevertheless possible to tell that both the nave and the choir, the church’s two major parts, have always had flying buttresses. It is clear, now that nineteenth-century paint and plaster have been removed, that the nave’s lower buttresses date from the twelfth century. Moreover, the choir’s lower flyers have chevron (zigzag) decoration. Chevron decoration, which was characteristic of the second half of the twelfth century and was out of favor by the fourteenth century, is entirely absent from modifications to the building that can be dated with confidence to the thirteenth century.

Q. The claim of the “other commentators” (line 6) suggests that they believe which of the following about Notre-Dame?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 10
The passage states that the “other commentators” claim that Notre-Dame first received flying buttresses when it was updated for aesthetic and structural reasons in the thirteenth or fourteenth century. This claim thus suggests that the aesthetics of Notre- Dame were then seen as out of date, making Choice E correct. Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not include any information about other cathedrals, let alone attribute a view of them to the other commentators. While the other commentators do suggest that the design of Notre-Dame was seen as flawed in the thirteenth or fourteenth century, they say that flying buttresses were added to correct these flaws, not that the flaws became apparent after the addition of the flying buttresses, which makes Choice B incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not attribute any views of the embellishments on the flying buttresses to the other commentators; similarly, Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not describe the other commentators as discussing any modifications prior to the thirteenth or fourteenth century.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 11

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Nineteenth-century architect Eugène-Emmanuel Viollet-le-Duc contended that Paris’s Notre-Dame cathedral, built primarily in the late twelfth century, was supported from the very beginning by a system of flying buttresses—a series of exterior arches (flyers) and their supports (buttresses)—which permitted the construction of taller vaulted buildings with slimmer walls and interior supports than had been possible previously. Other commentators insist, however, that Notre-Dame did not have flying buttresses until the thirteenth or fourteenth century, when they were added to update the building aesthetically and correct its structural flaws. Although post-twelfth-century modifications and renovations complicate efforts to resolve this controversy—all pre-fifteenth-century flyers have been replaced, and the buttresses have been rebuilt and/or resurfaced—it is nevertheless possible to tell that both the nave and the choir, the church’s two major parts, have always had flying buttresses. It is clear, now that nineteenth-century paint and plaster have been removed, that the nave’s lower buttresses date from the twelfth century. Moreover, the choir’s lower flyers have chevron (zigzag) decoration. Chevron decoration, which was characteristic of the second half of the twelfth century and was out of favor by the fourteenth century, is entirely absent from modifications to the building that can be dated with confidence to the thirteenth century.

Q. The author’s argument concerning Notre-Dame’s flying buttresses depends on which of the following assumptions about the choir’s lower flyers?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 11
The author supports the claim that flying buttresses were present on Notre-Dame from the twelfth century by noting that the choir’s lower flyers feature a chevron decoration that was characteristic of the twelfth century. But since all flyers constructed prior to the fifteenth century have been replaced, the chevron decorations can indicate only that flyers were present in the twelfth century if those decorations accurately reproduce the decorations that existed on the original flyers. Thus, Choice A is the correct answer.

Choice B is incorrect: whether chevron decorations are used only on the exterior is not a point of dispute in the passage. Choices C, D, and E are all incorrect: no part of the argument turns on any claim about the choir’s upper flyers, the nave’s lower flyers, or the sequence in which the choir’s and the nave’s flyers were constructed.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 12

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

The average temperature of the lobster-rich waters off the coast of Foerkland has been increasing for some years. In warmer water, lobsters grow faster. In particular, lobster larvae take less time to reach the size at which they are no longer vulnerable to predation by young cod, the chief threat to their survival. Consequently, the survival rate of lobster larvae must be going up, and the lobster population in Foerkland’s coastal waters is bound to increase.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 12
The argument in the passage concludes that the survival rate of lobster larvae is increasing and that the lobster population will increase. The basis for the conclusion is that the change in the water temperature, by speeding the growth of lobster larvae, has made them less vulnerable to predation by cod. However, Choice C points to a way that the faster growth of individual lobsters could create a threat to the population: lobsters that have not yet reproduced might be large enough to be legally caught. Thus, Choice C weakens the argument and is the correct answer.

Among the other choices, Choice A tends, if anything, to support the passage’s conclusion, by suggesting further reduction in the risks of predation by cod. The other choices have no clear bearing on the argument.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 13

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Astronomers found a large body orbiting close to the star Upsilon Andromedae. The standard theory of planet formation holds that no planet that large could be formed so close to a star, leading to the suggestion that the body is a companion star. A subsequent discovery puts that suggestion in doubt: two other large bodies were found orbit ing close to Upsilon Andromedae, and the standard theory of companion stars allows for at most one companion star.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the status of the orbiting body without casting doubt on the two standard theories mentioned?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 13
The passage outlines a conflict between two standard theories—one of planet formation, the other of companion stars—and observations of one large body, and later two others, orbiting close to a star. The question asks what would resolve this conflict without casting doubt on either one of the theories.

Choice B is correct: if, as it asserts, it is possible for a planet to be formed relatively far from a star and later move closer to it, then the observed large bodies found close to Upsilon Andromedae can be planets without casting doubt on the standard theory of planet formation. This explanation also leaves the standard theory of companion stars intact. Choice A is incorrect because it describes difficulties with discovering a small planet far from a star, not anything pertaining to a large body near a star.

Choice C is incorrect as well, since whatever the relative size and position of the three bodies may be, all three appear to be too close according to the standard theories.

Choice D is incorrect because the pervasiveness of stars with multiple orbiting bodies has nothing to do with the status of the large bodies discussed in the passage.

Choice E is similarly irrelevant and thus incorrect: information about the brightness of a star relative to its companion star does not help clarify the status of the large bodies discussed in the passage.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 14

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

In Gilavia, the number of reported workplace injuries has declined 16 percent in the last five years. However, perhaps part of the decline results from injuries going unreported: many employers have introduced safety-incentive programs, such as prize drawings for which only employees who have a perfect work-safety record are eligible. Since a workplace injury would disqualify an employee from such programs, some employees might be concealing injury, when it is feasible to do so.

Q. Which of the following, if true in Gilavia, most strongly supports the proposed explanation?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 14
The question asks what would support the claim that the decline in reported workplace injuries in Gilavia may be the result of incentives for workers to not report those injuries that they can conceal. If the number of injuries that cannot be concealed— such as injuries requiring immediate emergency care—has not declined in the same period, that could help bolster the claim that the decline in overall reported injuries may be a result of concealable injuries going unreported rather than an actual decline in workplace injuries in general, so Choice A is correct.

If employers have to provide financial compensation to employees injured on the job, employees would have an incentive to report injuries. More reported injuries would not support the author’s argument, making Choice B incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that some injuries that cannot be concealed do not result in lost time or changed responsibilities has nothing to do with whether concealable injuries are going unreported. While a decline in dangerous occupations could well result in a decrease in workplace injuries, this fact would challenge the author’s argument, not support it, so Choice D is incorrect. Similarly, if employers with safety incentive programs do not see any drop in reported injuries compared to employers without such programs, the author’s argument would be weakened, not supported, making Choice E incorrect.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 15

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

For much of the 20th century, paleontologists theorized that dinosaurs, like reptiles, were ectothermic, their body temperature regulated externally. These scientists, however, based their conclusions on faulty reasoning, claiming that scaly skin was common to all ectotherms (birds, which are ectothermic, do not have scaly skin) and that the dinosaur’s size could account for ectothermy (some adult dinosaurs weighed as little as ten pounds). Supplanting this theory is an entirely new line of thought: dinosaurs were actually mesothermic, neither warm- nor cold-blooded. By taking this middle ground, some paleontologists maintain that dinosaurs were faster than a similar-sized reptile yet did not require as much food as a similar-sized mammal. To substantiate this theory, paleontologists intend to study how birds, the dinosaur’s closest extant relative, might have at one time been mesothermic.

Q. The two parts in parentheses serve to do which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 15
Notice the structure of the sentence, “based their conclusions on faulty reasoning, claiming that scaly skin was common to all ectotherms.

The bolded part is the specific claim. Look at part in parentheses and how it relates to the bolded part above:

(birds, which are ectothermic, do not have scaly skin).

This is a clear denial of the bold-faced part. The exact same thing happens with the second claim of scientists:

“…the dinosaur’s size could account for ectothermy.”

Here is the objection (in parentheses) that states the boldfaced part is untrue:

(some adult dinosaurs weighed as little as ten pounds).

This points to answer (C): “Provides a rebuttal to a commonly held view regarding the physical aspects of dinosaurs” — the commonly held view is that dinosaurs are ectotherms simply because they have scaly skin.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 16

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

For much of the 20th century, paleontologists theorized that dinosaurs, like reptiles, were ectothermic, their body temperature regulated externally. These scientists, however, based their conclusions on faulty reasoning, claiming that scaly skin was common to all ectotherms (birds, which are ectothermic, do not have scaly skin) and that the dinosaur’s size could account for ectothermy (some adult dinosaurs weighed as little as ten pounds). Supplanting this theory is an entirely new line of thought: dinosaurs were actually mesothermic, neither warm- nor cold-blooded. By taking this middle ground, some paleontologists maintain that dinosaurs were faster than a similar-sized reptile yet did not require as much food as a similar-sized mammal. To substantiate this theory, paleontologists intend to study how birds, the dinosaur’s closest extant relative, might have at one time been mesothermic.

Q. Which of the following does the passage imply regarding birds?

Select ALL answers that apply.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 16

The passage mentions that some scientists claimed that all ectotherms have scaly skin, However, birds, which are ectotherms, do not have scaly skin. Therefore, they have certain features that they do not share with other ectotherms, i.e., the lack of scaly skin. Answer: [A].

The passage mentions that dinosaurs require less food than a similar-sized mammal. However, there is no mention about how much food a bird requires. Sure, birds, like dinosaurs, might have been mesothermic, but mesothermy relates to body temperature regulation, not to the amount of food consumed.

The last sentence states that birds “might have at one time been mesothermic.” That is, they might have changed from mesotherms to ectotherms. From the first sentence, we learn that “ectothermic” describes body regulation. Therefore, birds possibly changed the way they regulate body temperate. Answer [C].

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 17

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Defense Department analysts worry that the ability of the United States to wage a prolonged war would be seriously endangered if the machine-tool manufacturing base shrinks further. Before the Defense Department publicly connected this security issue with the import quota issue, however, the machine-tool industry raised the national security issue in its petition for import quotas.

Q. Which of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of the machine-tool industry's raising the issue above regarding national security?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 17
Since the size of the machine-tool manufacturing base presumably has implications in area beyond national security, one might find it surprising that the industry raised the security issue in its petition. C, the best answer, explains that the industry turned to this issue because others tended to be ineffective in efforts to obtain governmental protection. A explains why the industry might NOT raise the security issue, since it suggests that it might have raised the issue of jobs instead. B explains why the industry might NOT raise the security issue about import quotas, since it suggests that the Defense Department had no interest in import quotas whatsoever. Neither of D and E is relevant to the industry's choice of strategy for securing import quotas.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 18

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Opponents of laws that require automobile drivers and passengers to wear seat belts argue that in a free society people have the right to take risks as long as the people do not harm other as a result of taking the risks. As a result, they conclude that it should be each person's decision whether or not to wear a seat belt

Q. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion drawn above?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 18
The principle that people are entitled to risk injury provided they do not thereby harm others fails to justify the individual's right to decide not to wear seat belts if it can be shown, as B shows, that that decision does harm others. Therefore, B is the best answer. A suggests that the law may be irrelevant in some cases, but it does not address the issue of the law's legitimacy. C cites a requirement analogous to the one at issue, but its existence alone does not bear on the legitimacy of the one at issue. The argument implicitly concedes that individuals take risks by not wearing seat belts; therefore, D and E, which simply confirm this concession, do not weaken the conclusion.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 19

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

The cost of producing radios in Country Q is ten percent less than the cost of producing radios in Country Y. even after transportation fees and tariff charges are added, it is still cheaper for a company to import radios from Country Q to Country Y than to produce radios in Country Y.

Q. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 19
If the tariff on importing radios from Country Q to Country Y were as high as ten percent or more of the cost of producing radios in Y, then, contrary to what the passage says, the cost of importing radios from Q to Y would be equal to or more than the cost of producing radios in Y. thus, the tariff cannot be that high, and C is the best answer. A and E give possible partial explanations for the cost difference, but neither is supported by the passage because the cost advantage in Q might be attributable to other factors. B and D are both consistent with the information in the passage, but the passage provides no evidence to support them.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 20

Coetzee is known to be reclusive, and he __________ publicity to such an extent that he did not collect either of his two Booker Prizes in person.

A. welcomes

B. avoids

C. courts

D. shuns

E. gathers

F. tries

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 20
This is a simple sentence which presents a blank before the word “publicity”. Coetzee is known to be reclusive, and a reclusive person is solitary and keeps to himself/herself. How would such a person react to being in the spotlight? A shy person would not want to be in the spotlight. So, Coetzee shuns or avoids publicity. This rules out the words welcomes, courts, gathers and tries. This leaves us with options B and D. The Correct Answer is B and D.

Choices B & D are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 21

Even though Magellan would eventually die on his ambitious cruise around the world, nothing was ______ on the morning of his departure from his home port.

A. innocuous

B. portentous

C. propitious

D. amiss

E. auspicious

F. ingenuous

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 21
Let us begin by focusing on the keyword, which in this sentence is “even though”. “Even though” indicates that there is a contrast between the first part (which informs us that Magellan died), and the second part (nothing was ___ on the day of the departure). Even though means “regardless of -”.

If we have to construct this sentence using simple words, we might say for example - “even though Magellan would die on this trip, on the first day nothing seemed to be wrong.”

So nothing seemed wrong on Day 1 of that trip. The bad things would come only later. So, the answer options have to be words that mean “wrong or bad”.

Choices B & D are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 22

Since the invention of computers, chips and processors have become smaller and simpler, but computer programs have become increasingly _________.

A. anomalous

B. efficient

C. byzantine

D. treacherous

E. labyrinthine

F. intransigent

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 22
This is an easy sentence because the word “but” draws out a simple contrast between the evolution of hardware and software. “But” implies an opposing relationship between the two parts of the sentence, so while hardware has become smaller and simpler, computer programs have gone in the opposing direction – they have become larger and more unwieldy. Answer options C and E fit the best.

Choices C & E are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 23

The increasing ease with which photos can be shot, edited and shared means that our archaic idea of the “struggling art photographer” now has to be ______ to include an audience which, in an earlier era, might have been consumers of art photography.

A. morphed

B. developed

C. expanded

D. modified

E. augmented

F. extended

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 23
Let us simplify the sentence and try to understand the story behind it. Photos can be shot, edited and shared a lot more easily now than previously. This means that it might be easier to be an art photographer in today's age. We have an archaic (ancient) definition of the “struggling art photographer”, which therefore, needs to be revised in some manner.

People who in earlier days might be buyers (consumers) of art photography can now be the sellers (artists). The modern definition of art photography must therefore, also include such people whom the old definition did not cover.

Let us look at some of the answer options.

Morphed/Modified: the “definition” is not changing or morphing. The old art photographers are still going to be covered in the new definition. The definition has to be expanded in scope to cover more people.

Augmented – the definition is not being increased or strengthened.

The definition has to be expanded and extended to include a new group of people.

Choices C & F are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 24

When Jeff fell prey to an on-line credit card scam, the sting of ________ hurt him more than the loss of money.

A. suffering

B. duplicity

C. faithlessness

D. falsehood

E. deception

F. indigence

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 24
Let us understand the story behind the sentence. Jeff was cheated by an online credit card scam. He lost money to a fraud scheme and he is feeling hurt because of that. But, the loss of money is not the most hurtful thing. What could hurt him more than that? It could be the feeling of being cheated.

The best answer options are duplicity and deception. A credit-card fraud is essentially a deception and a duplicity. Jeff feels worse about that than actually losing money.

Choices B & E are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 25

In order to stop the uproar on social media that was ______ by the politician's unpopular comment, his press agent had to issue a public apology.

A. exacerbated

B. precipitated

C. precluded

D. triggered

E. prevaricated

F. goaded

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 25
Let us break down the sentence and understand it using simple words. The politician made an unpopular comment. The politician's press agent had to issue an apology. This means that the people who reacted to this comment on social media reacted negatively. Indeed, there was an “uproar”, as the sentence says. This “uproar” was caused by the politician's comment

Choices B & D are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 26

When the policeman ordered the suspects to line up, his ________ tone and manner suggested that he was totally in charge of the situation.

A. taciturn

B. imperious

C. temperamental

D. laconic

E. mercurial

F. peremptory

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 26
The policeman was totally in charge of the situation. How do we know that? Because his tone and manner indicates that he was in charge. His tone must have been commanding and dominating.

Choices B & F are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 27

The air steward's _______ towards the plight of the passengers was evident when instead of attending to their needs, he was relaxing on a chair and reading a magazine.

A. concern

B. apathy

C. calumny

D. reticence

E. indifference

F. impudence

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 27
The clue in this sentence is revealed when we analye the attitude of the steward. Instead of attending to the needs of the passengers, he was relaxing on a chair. This indicates that the air steward did not care about the plight of the passengers. He was not interested in helping or serving them. His attitude was apathetic or indifferent.

Choices B & E are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 28

In her candid memoirs, the chief secretary to the President ________ several details about the scandal which the public was not aware of.

A. betrayed

B. divulged

C. informed

D. revealed

E. penned

F. conceded

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 28
This is a question which tests your knowledge of the various shades of meanings of words which all have more or less the same meaning.

Till the memoirs were written, the public did not know the details that the chief secretary was privy to. But the secretary published these details in a book several years after the scandal. So, he/she divulged or revealed the details to the general public.

“Betrayed” indicates that the information was given involuntarily. “Informed” indicates that the details were just made known to the public. There is no element of surprise or significance. “Penned” just means wrote. “Conceded” indicates that it was accepted as true (which means that she had been denying it till that point).

Choices B & D are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 29

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

While many people considered Peter to be a greedy __________, his closest friends knew that he had the virtue of great liberality.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 29
The word "liberal" is used in many ways today—most of which have political overtones. Its more general meaning is generous, coming from the Latin for "free." It is related to words like "liberty" and "liberate." "Liberality" is the character trait of being very free and generous with one's money. This sentence begins with "while," indicating that although many people thought one thing about Peter, those who knew him well knew something different. In contrast to liberality, "miser" works well. A miser is someone who hoards his or her money, avoiding spending it at all.
Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 30

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

It was very difficult to guess what Justin would say, for he could engage in both __________ and understatement within a three-second interval.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 10 - Question 30
The "both . . . and" being used in the second clause helps to unpack why it was difficult to know what Justin would say. It seems that he would say conflicting things—hence the difficulty in guessing his next words. "Understatement" is a way of speaking that doesn't really address the true depths of some reality. For instance, a horrible murder might be called "kind of bad" by someone. This would be an understatement of the case. A great contrast to this is "hyperbole," meaning an expression that greatly overstates the case. For instance, someone might say that the day is the "coldest day ever" when it is not even at the point of freezing but merely brisk.
View more questions
1 docs|20 tests
Information about Mock Test for GRE - 10 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for Mock Test for GRE - 10 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for Mock Test for GRE - 10, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for GRE

Download as PDF

Top Courses for GRE