# Biotechnology Engineering - BT 2012 GATE Paper (Practice Test)

## 65 Questions MCQ Test GATE Past Year Papers for Practice (All Branches) | Biotechnology Engineering - BT 2012 GATE Paper (Practice Test)

Description
Attempt Biotechnology Engineering - BT 2012 GATE Paper (Practice Test) | 65 questions in 180 minutes | Mock test for GATE preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study GATE Past Year Papers for Practice (All Branches) for GATE Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

### Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence:

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

Mitigate

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence:

Despite several __________ the mission succeeded in its attempt to resolve the conflict.

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

Q. No. 6 – 10 Carry Two Marks Each

Wanted Temporary, Part-time persons for the post of Field Interviewer to conduct personal interviews to collect and collate economic data. Requirements: High School-pass, must be available for Day, Evening and Saturday work. Transportation paid, expenses reimbursed. Which one of the following is the best inference from the above advertisement?

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FK JP, the next term is

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

Which of the following assertions are CORRECT?
P: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the mean of the list
Q: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the standard deviation of the list
R: Doubling each entry in a list doubles the mean of the list
S: Doubling each entry in a list leaves the standard deviation of the list unchanged

Solution:

P and R always holds true Else consider a sample set {1, 2, 3, 4} and check accordingly

QUESTION: 9

An automobile plant contracted to buy shock absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are subjected to a quality test. The ones that pass the quality test are considered reliable Of X's shock absorbers, 96% are reliable. Of Y's shock absorbers, 72% are reliable. The probability that a randomly chosen shock absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made by Y is

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

A political party orders an arch for the entrance to the ground in which the annual convention is being held. The profile of the arch follows the equation y = 2x − 0.1x2 where y is the height of the arch in meters. The maximum possible height of the arch is

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Q. No. 11 – 35 Carry One Mark Each
In mismatch correction repair, the parental DNA strand is distinguished from the daughter strand by

Solution:

The mismatch repair deals with correcting mismatch of the normal bases using BER or NER enzyme systems. The system assumes that the parental strands are methylated and the freshly synthesized daughter strands are non methylated.

QUESTION: 12

The basis for blue-white screening with pUC vectors is

Solution:

Both pUC and the bacterial own genome produce a faulty gene product of Lac Z gene. The lac Z fragment, whose synthesis can be induced by IPTG, is capable of intra-allelic complementation with a defective form of 0-galactosidase enzyme encoded by host chromosome (mutation lacZDM15)

QUESTION: 13

Idiotypic determinants of an antibody are associated with the

Solution:

Immunoglobulin idiotypes are serologically defined determinants associated with the variable (V) region of antibody molecules

QUESTION: 14

Identification of blood groups involves

Solution:

All the blood grouping reactions are agglutination reactions. In these the antibodies against A and B antigens when added, they bind to the cell surface and result in clumping of cells. These clumps or settling down of cells is referred to as agglutination.

QUESTION: 15

B-lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow whereas T-lymphocytes originate from

Solution:

All T cells originate from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. B cells undergo their complete maturation in the thymus while, T cells during their early stages of maturation migrate to the thymus and then undergo a process of maturation. They are released as competent and mature T cells from Thymus.

QUESTION: 16

A humanized antibody is one in which the

Solution:

A humanized chain is a chain in which the complementarity determining regions (CDR) of the variable domains are foreign (originating from one species other than human, or synthetic) whereas the remaining chain is of human origin.

QUESTION: 17

Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because

Solution:

DMSO is used in cell freezing media to protect cells from ice crystal induced mechanical injury.

QUESTION: 18

Nude mice refers to

Solution:

A nude mouse is a laboratory mouse from a strain with a genetic mutation that causes a deteriorated or absent thymus, resulting in an inhibited immune system due to a greatly reduced number of T cells.

QUESTION: 19

Heat inactivation of serum is done to inactivate

Solution:

Heat-inactivation (heating to 56°C for 30 minutes) of serum is done to inactivate complement, a group of proteins present in sera that are part of the immune response.

QUESTION: 20

Choose the correct signal transduction pathway

Solution:

In the G protein associated signal cascade system, binding of hormone to a cell surface receptor, like the 7TM (a 7 transmembrane alpha helices) which is a part of G protein. This will activate production of second messengers like cAMP by the enzyme adenylate cyclase. The cAMP in turn binds and activates down stream signal proteins line cAMP dependent protein kinase A (PKA).

QUESTION: 21

A protein is phosphorylated at a serine residue. A phosphomimic mutant of the protein can be generated by substituting that serine with

Solution:

To investigate the effect of serine 78 phosphorylation on p21 activity, replacement of serine 78 with aspartic acid is done, creating the phosphomimic p21S78D.

QUESTION: 22

A truncated polypeptide is synthesized due to a nonsense mutation. Where would you introduce another mutation to obtain a full-length polypeptide?

Solution:

Non sense mutations causes premature stop to be introduced that would lead to truncated or incomplete protein synthesis. If the protein synthesis has to be continued, another mutation in t-RNA gene would continue be advised to get full length polypeptide

QUESTION: 23

Protein-DNA interactions in vivo can be studied by

Solution:

The strength of ChIP assays is their ability to capture a snapshot of specific protein: DNA interactions occurring in a system and to quantitate the interactions using quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR).

QUESTION: 24

The direction of shell coiling in the snail Limnaea peregra is a classic example of

Solution:

The direction of shell coiling in snail is a classical example for extra chromosomal inheritance, as in this it is determined by maternal gene effects and not that of the offspring.

QUESTION: 25

During photorespiration under low CO2 and high O2 levels, O2 reacts with ribulose 1,5- bisphosphate to yield

Solution:

During photo respiration under low CO2 and high O2 reacts with ribulose – 1, 5 bisphosphate to yield- one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and 2- phosphoglycolate.

QUESTION: 26

Which one of the following is NOT a protoplast fusion inducing agent?

Solution:

Colchicines is not a protoplast fusion inducing agent instead it functions as mitotic inhibitor

QUESTION: 27

The activity of an enzyme is expressed in International Units (IU). However, the S.I. unit for enzyme activity is Katal. One Katal is

Solution:

One katak is 6 x 107 IU units

QUESTION: 28

Identify the statement that is NOT applicable to an enzyme catalyzed reaction

Solution:

Enzymes accelerate the rate of the reverse reaction as well as the forward reaction, it would be helpful to ignore any back reaction by which E1P might form ES. The velocity of this back reaction would be given by v = k-2[E][P].

QUESTION: 29

An example of a derived protein structure database is

Solution:

Protein structural database: Primary database: PDB Secondary database: SCOP, CATH

QUESTION: 30

An example of a program for constructing a phylogenetic tree is

Solution:

A program for constructing phylogenetic tree is PHYLIP. It is a Phylogeny Inference Package. It is a free computational phylogenetic package which has programs for inferring evolutionary tree constructions.

QUESTION: 31

Synteny refers to

Solution:

Synteny refers to – gene duplication from a common ancestor. This is the condition in which two or more gene loci are present on the same chromosome. During evolution rearrangements may cause the loss of synteny else it will be retained. Translocations can cause gain of synteny.

QUESTION: 32

While searching a database for similar sequences, E value does NOT depend on the

Solution:

E value does not depend on scoring system.

QUESTION: 33

In transmission electron microscopy, election opacity is greatly enhanced by treating the specimen with

Solution:

In transmission electron microscope, electron opacity is greatly enhanced by treating the specimen with ferrous ammonium sulphate particles as coat on carbonaceous material and increases their opacity.

QUESTION: 34

The molarity of water in a water: ethanol mixture (15: 85, v/v) is approximately

Solution:

18gm water in 100ml ethanol is 10M. Hence 15gm in 85ml is approximately- 8.5.

QUESTION: 35

The helix content of a protein can be determined using

Solution:

The helix content of a protein can be determined using – circular dichromism spectroscopy. CD spectrum of unknown protein = A * [% alphahelical] + B * [% beta-sheet] + C * [% random coil]

QUESTION: 36

Q. No. 36 – 65 Carry Two Marks Each

Which one of the following DNA sequences carries an invert repeat?

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

In zinc finger proteins, the amino acid residues that coordinate zinc are

Solution:

Zinc fingers coordinate zinc ions with a combination of cysteine and histidine residues. They can be classified by the type and order of these zinc coordinating residues (e.g., Cys2His2, Cys4, and Cys6).

QUESTION: 38

Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II.

Solution:

MTT- binds to succinate dehydrogenase
Annexin V- specifically binds to phosphatidyl serine Methotrexate- allosterically inhibits dihydrofolate reductase Taxol- suppresses microtubule dynamics

QUESTION: 39

In an exponentially growing batch culture of Saccharomyces cerevisiae, the cell density is 20gl−1 (DCW), the specific growth rate (μ )  is 0.41 and substrate uptake rate (v) is  16gl-1 h-1 . The cell yield coefficient Yx/s will be

Solution:

Yield coefficient = mass of new cells formed/ mass of substrate consumed
New cells mass formed = cell density x specific growth rate = 20 x 0.4 = 8
Substrate consumed = 16 g/l/h
Yield coefficient = 8/16 = 0.5.

QUESTION: 40

A single base pair of DNA weighs 1.1 ×10-21 grams. How many picomoles of a plasmid vector of length 2750 bp are contained in 1μg of purified DNA?

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

Match the terms in Group I with the ploidy in Group II.

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

What is the rank of the following matrix?

Solution:

|A| = 5(0 + 40) − 3(0 + 56)

QUESTION: 43

Match the products in Group I with the applications in Group II.

Solution:

Digoxin- cardiovascular disorder

Stevioside- sweetener

Atropine- Muscle relaxant

Vinblastine- anticancer agent

QUESTION: 44

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).
Assertion : The production of secondary metabolites in plant cell cultures is enhanced by the addition of elicitors
Reason : Elicitors induce the expression of enzymes responsible for the biosynthesis of secondary metabolites

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).
Assertion : Plants convert fatty acids into glucose
Reason : Plants have peroxisomes

Solution:

Plants can make glucose from fatty acids, but this is only because they are able to use the glyoxylate cycle instead of the Krebs cycle.

QUESTION: 46

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).
Assertion : In direct somatic embryogenesis, embryos are developed without going through callus formation
Reason : This is possible due to the presence of pre- embryonically determined cells

Solution:

Somatic embryogenesis can be initiated either directly without going through the callus phase from predetermined embryonic cells or indirectly through callus proliferation and differentiation into embryonic cells within the
callus tissue

QUESTION: 47

Match the entries in Group I with the process parameters in Group II.

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Match the downstream processes in Group I with the products in Group II.

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).
Assertion : Cell mass yield of methylotrophic yeast is more on methanol compared to glucose
Reason : Methanol has a greater degree of reductance compared to glucose.

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

A disease is inherited by a child with a probability of 1/4. In a family with two children, the probability that exactly one sibling is affected by this disease is

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

Match the organisms in Group I with the entries in Group II.

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Match the entries in Group I with the methods of sterilization in Group II.

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

Match the high energy compounds in Group I with the biosynthetic pathways for the molecules in Group II.

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Match the vitamins in Group I with the processes/reactions in Group II.

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Consider the data set 14, 18, 14, 14, 10, 29, 33, 31, 25. If you add 20 to each of the values, then

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

An enzymatic reaction is described by the following rate expression.

Which one of the following curves represents this expression?

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

A bacterial culture (200 μl containing 1.8 ×109) cells was treated with an antibiotic Z (50μg per ml) for 4 h at 37oC. After this treatment, the culture was divided into two equal aliquots.
Set A: 100μl was plated on Luria agar.
Set B: 100μl was centrifuged, the cell pellet washed and plated on Luria agar.
After incubating these two plates for 24 h at 37°C, Set A plate showed no colonies, whereas the Set B plate showed 0.9 ×109 cells. This experiment showed that the antibiotic Z is

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Common Data Questions: 58 & 59
In a muscle, the extracellular and intracellular concentrations of Na+ are 150 mM and 12 mM and those of K+ are 2.7 mM and 140 mM, respectively. Assume that the temperature is 25oC and that the membrane potential is –60mV, with the interior more negatively charged than the exterior.
( R= 8.314 J mol-1 K-1 ; F= 96.45kJ mol-1 V-1)

The free energy change for the transport of three Na+ out of the cell is

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

In a muscle, the extracellular and intracellular concentrations of Na+ are 150 mM and 12 mM and those of K+ are 2.7 mM and 140 mM, respectively. Assume that the temperature is 25oC and that the membrane potential is –60mV, with the interior more negatively charged than the exterior.
( R= 8.314 J mol-1 K-1 ; F= 96.45kJ mol-1 V-1)

The free energy change for the transport of two K+ into the cell is

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Common Data Questions: 60 & 61

The purification data for an enzyme is given below:

The fold purification for each step is

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

The purification data for an enzyme is given below:

The yield (%) for each step is

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

An E. coli cell of volume 10 -12cm3  contains 60 molecules of lac-repressor. The repressor has a binding affinity (Kd) of 10-8M and 10-9M  with and without lactose respectively, in the medium

The molar concentration of the repressor in the cell is

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

An E. coli cell of volume 10 -12cm3  contains 60 molecules of lac-repressor. The repressor has a binding affinity (Kd) of 10-8M and 10-9M  with and without lactose respectively, in the medium

Therefore the lac-operon is

Solution:
QUESTION: 64