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# XL Life Science- 2014 GATE Paper (Practice Test)

## 125 Questions MCQ Test GATE Past Year Papers for Practice (All Branches) | XL Life Science- 2014 GATE Paper (Practice Test)

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This mock test of XL Life Science- 2014 GATE Paper (Practice Test) for GATE helps you for every GATE entrance exam. This contains 125 Multiple Choice Questions for GATE XL Life Science- 2014 GATE Paper (Practice Test) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this XL Life Science- 2014 GATE Paper (Practice Test) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. GATE students definitely take this XL Life Science- 2014 GATE Paper (Practice Test) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other XL Life Science- 2014 GATE Paper (Practice Test) extra questions, long questions & short questions for GATE on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

### Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below? “As a woman, I have no country.”

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 4

In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the
Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes
is ____ years.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would
it take to double at this growth rate?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.

In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the
group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
Statements
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
2. Shiv is elder to Som.

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of
exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of
the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with
exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data
point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis.
From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier
The main point of the paragraph is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below.
The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of
exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through
export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total
revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1
per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram? Solution:
QUESTION: 9

X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is
1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 10

10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this
kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV individuals 89% of the time. A
particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the
individual is actually positive is _______

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

Q. 11 – Q. 15 carry one mark each.

Q.

Hybridizations of nitrogen in respectively are

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

Potassium metal crystallizes in the body-centered cubic structure. The number of atoms per unit
cell is equal to

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

Assuming ideal condition, the solution that has the highest freezing point is

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

The major product formed in the following reaction is Solution:
QUESTION: 15

The acid that undergoes decarboxylation most readily upon heating is

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 16

Q. 16 – Q. 25 carry two marks each.

Q.

A ball of mass 330 g is moving with a constant speed, and its associated de Broglie wavelength is
1 × 10−33 m. The speed of the ball is _________ m s–1. (h = 6.6 × 10−34 J s)

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Diphosphonic acid (H4P2O5) has no P ? P bond. This acid is

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 18

The magnetic moment of an octahedral Co(II) complex is approximately 4.0 μB (atomic number of
Co is 27). The CFSE for this complex, in Δo units, is _______

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

The complex ion [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (atomic number of Cr is 24) exhibits

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 20

Assuming ideal behavior, the density of fluorine gas at 20 °C and 0.3 atm is ____ g L–1.
(Molecular weight of F2 = 38 g mol–1, R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 21

For a first order reaction, the time required for 50% completion is 20 minutes. The time required for
99.9% completion of the reaction is ______ minutes

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 22

At 298 K, the bond dissociation energies of C–H, C–C and C=C are 415, 344 and 615 kJ mol–1,
respectively. The enthalpy of atomization of carbon is 717 kJ mol–1 and that of hydrogen is
218 kJ mol–1. The heat of formation of naphthalene at 298 K is ______ kJ mol–1.

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

The Fisher projection that represents (2R,3S)-2,3-dihydroxybutanoic acid is

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

A hydrocarbon that undergoes ozonolysis (reaction with ozone followed by reduction with Me2S)
to form formaldehyde and glyoxal is

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

The order of acidity of the following acids is Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Q. 26 – Q. 35 carry one mark each.

Q.

During an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the equilibrium constant

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

A mixture of Arginine, Phenylalanine and Histidine was fractionated using cation exchange
chromatography at neutral pH. The amino acids were eluted with an increasing salt gradient. Identify
the correct order of elution.

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

Which one of the following proteases does NOT cleave on the carboxyl side of any Arginine
residue in a protein?

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

The receptor for epinephrine is a

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

Choose the option with two reducing sugars

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

The affinity of an antibody can be determined quantitatively by

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Which one of the following molecules is an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1?

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 33

For a single substrate enzyme, a reaction is carried out at a substrate concentration four times the
value of Km. The observed initial velocity will be _________ % of Vmax.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 34

Consider the following biochemical reaction:
Fructose 6-phosphate + ATP → Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate + ADP

The equilibrium constant under biochemical standard conditions (K'eq) for the above reaction is 254.
The standard free energy change (ΔG'°) for the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate is _______
kJ/mol.

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Given below is the hydropathy plot of a monomeric transmembrane protein How many transmembrane α-helices are present in the protein?

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 36

Q. 36 – Q. 45 carry two marks each.

Q.

An aqueous solution contains two compounds X and Y. This solution gave absorbance values of 1.0
and 0.4 at 220 and 280 nm, respectively, in a 1 cm path length cell. Molar absorption coefficients (ε)
of the compounds X and Y are as shown in the table below. The concentration of Y in the solution is___________ mM.

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

A purified oligomeric protein was analyzed by SDS-PAGE under reducing and non-reducing
conditions. A one litre solution of 1 mg/ml concentration has 4.01 × 1018 molecules of the oligomeric
protein. Based on the data shown below, deduce the total number of polypeptide chains that constitute
this protein. Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 38

The concentration of Mg2+ ions outside a cell is twice the concentration inside. If the transmembrane
potential of the cell is –60 mV (inside negative), the free energy change of transporting Mg2+ ions
across the membrane against the concentration gradient at 37 °C is __________ kJ/mol.
Faraday constant: 96.5 kJ/V mol

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 40

The kinetic data for a single substrate enzyme is shown below. The concentration of inhibitor [I] used
in the reaction was equal to the Ki of the inhibitor. The Km value of an uninhibited reaction is
2 x 10-5 M. In the presence of the inhibitor, the observed Km value is _____x 10-5 M. (Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 41

One litre of phosphate buffer was prepared by adding 208 grams of Na2HPO4 (Mol. wt. 142) and 71
grams of NaH2PO4 (Mol. wt. 120) in water. If the pKa for the dissociation of and H+ is 6.86, the pH of the buffer will be _____________.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 42

Shown below is an electrospray ionization mass spectrum of a protein: The numbers written on top of the peaks are the m/z values. The mass of the protein deduced from
the given data is ___________ kDa.

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

A human gene has only three exons (I, II and III in the given order). Total RNA was isolated from
cultured human kidney cells and reverse transcribed. The resultant cDNA was used as a template in
a PCR reaction containing a forward primer specific to Exon I and a reverse primer specific to Exon
III. When the PCR product was analyzed by gel electrophoresis, two bands were observed of sizes
2.5 kb and 1 kb. However, when Northern blotting was performed with the same total RNA using a
radiolabeled probe specific to Exon II, only one band was observed. Based on these observations,
which one of the following statements is FALSE ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

Using the Sanger’s dideoxy chain termination method, a particular exonic region of a protein coding
gene was sequenced for two individuals referred to as Subject 1 and Subject 2. The figure below
shows a segment of the autoradiogram corresponding to a small window of the DNA sequence. Which one of the following interpretations is correct for the sequenced DNA fragments ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

A 7 kb DNA molecule of a specific sequence has two EcoRI and one PvuII restriction endonuclease
sites. The restriction sites are shown below. The DNA was completely digested with both EcoRI and
PvuII. The digestion product was purified and added to an appropriately buffered reaction mixture at
37 °C, which contained the Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I and α-32P dNTPs. After one hour,
the DNA in the reaction product was purified and analyzed by electrophoresis. The bands were
visualized by both ethidium bromide (EtBr) staining and autoradiography. The result is shown below. Which one of the following restriction maps is in agreement with the above result?

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Q. 46 – Q. 55 carry one mark each.

Q.

Plant which grows attached to another plant species but is not a parasitic is known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

An ideal cybrid should have

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Transmission Electron Micrograph of fungal cell can usually be distinguished from plant cell due to
lack of P and having less abundant Q. Find the correct combination of P and Q.

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Identify the CORRECT answer
RNA interference (RNAi)
P. is an event of post transcriptional gene silencing
Q. works through RNA induced silencing complex

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Find the odd one out

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Plantibody is the

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

In a typical oil-seed crop, the matured seeds are enriched with

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

Match the following products (Column I) with the corresponding plant species (Column II ) Solution:
QUESTION: 54

The semi-dwarf trait of corn, wheat and rice plants used in breeding program during 1960s resulted
in green revolution. Later this ‘green-revolution gene’ has been identified to be involved in either
signal transduction pathway or biosynthesis of

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

In classical model to explain the plant-pathogen interaction, the host will not develop the disease
upon the pathogen attack when

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

Q. 56 – Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.

Select the CORRECT combination from the promoter (Column I), transcription machinery used
(Column II) and target tissue type (Column III) to express a foreign gene in a plant system. Solution:
QUESTION: 57

In a plant species, flower colour purple is dominant over white. One such purple-flowered plant
upon selfing produced 35 viable plants, of which 9 were white-flowered and the rest were purpleflowered.
What fraction of these purple-flowered progeny is expected to be pure purple-flowered
line?

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Following diagram represents the sequence of genes in a normal chromosome of a plant species: Match the CORRECT combination for chromosomal mutation using Column - I and Column - II. Solution:
QUESTION: 59

Match the nuclei status of mutant plant (Column-I) with the typical chromosome number (Column-
II), when the wild type plant species is having 2N = 46 chromosomes Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Match the following reporter genes used in plant transformation experiments with the source of
gene and detection/assay system Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Find the CORRECT statements in the context of Global warming effect on plant photosynthesis.
P. Decreasing aqueous solubility of dissolved CO2 compared to dissolved O2
Q. Decreasing oxygenase activity of Rubisco relative to carboxylation
R. Enhancing the ratio of CO2 to O2 in air equilibrated solution
S. Increasing photorespiration relative to photosynthesis

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination.
P. Regulation of cell cycle progression depends on cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) and protease
activity.
Q. In photosynthesis, oxidation of water produces O2 and releases electrons required by
photosystem I (PSI).
R. Photorespiratory reaction occurring in oxidative photosynthetic carbon (C2) pathway involves a
cooperative interaction among three organelles: chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
S. Ethylene acts as a promoter of senescence and cytokinins act as a senescence antagonist.

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Match the following diagrams P, Q, R, and S with the inflorescence type (Column I) and the
corresponding plant species (Column II).  Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Find the right combination for P, Q, R and S with respect to gametophyte development in flowering
plants. Solution:
QUESTION: 65

Match the definition (Column I) with the type of plant community (Column II) Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Q. 66 – Q. 75 carry one mark each.

Q.

Most viral capsids have

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Intergenic suppression involves mutation in

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Which one of the following proteins does NOT bind to a gaseous ligand?

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 69

A bacterial culture (5 ×108 cells/ml) is maintained in a chemostat of working volume 10 L. If the
doubling time of the bacteria is 50 min, the required rate of flow of nutrients (in ml/min) is
_______________.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Rheumatic fever is an example of

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Oxygenases that catalyse the initial step in the degradation of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons by
using molecular oxygen belong to which enzyme class?

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

Which one of the following is NOT involved in horizontal gene transfer?

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

The principle of immunization was first explained by

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Lysozyme catalyzes the breakdown of

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

Which one of the following microscopic techniques can be used to study the contour of proteins?

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Q. 76 – Q. 85 carry two marks each.

Q.

Match compounds in Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II. Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Match the organisms with the appropriate growth curves.
(P) Bacteria
(Q) Extracellular virus
(R) Intracellular virus Solution:
QUESTION: 78

The length of a coding region in an mRNA is 897 bases. How many amino acids will be there in the
polypeptide synthesized using this mRNA?

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Match the media in Group I for screening microbial isolates in Group II. Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 80

During a bacterial growth experiment, the total viable cell count at 2 h and 6 h was 1x 104 cells/ml
and 1×109 cells/ml, respectively. The specific growth rate (in h-1) of the culture is _____________.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 81

The concentration of sodium chloride in the cytoplasm of a Halobacterium sp. was found to be
250 ng/nl. The molarity (in M) of sodium chloride is __________.

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

Match organisms in Group I with shapes in Group II and flagellar arrangements in Group III. Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Lethal dose curves of different microorganisms (1, 2, 3 and 4) are shown below. Which of these
microorganisms are the most lethal? Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Match items in Group I with sterilization methods in Group II. Solution:
QUESTION: 85

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding recA mutants of E. coli?
(P) Exhibit much reduced recombination
(Q) Do not survive UV irradiation
(R) Show no effect on doubling time
(S) Exhibit pleiotropy

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Q. 86 – Q. 95 carry one mark each.

Q.

Small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of
endangered and threatened species are known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Which ONE of the following animals has “Osculum” as an excretory structure?

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

During development of which ONE of the following organisms, bilateral meroblastic cleavage is
found?

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

The mitochondrion is NOT considered a part of the endomembrane system on account of which
ONE of the following reasons?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

The end products of glycolysis include ATP

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

The TATA box is found in the vicinity of the transcription start site. The role of this box is to

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Which ONE of the following processes does NOT occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but occurs
in eukaryotic gene expression?

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

In Graves’ disease, the presence of auto antibodies against which ONE of the following molecules
is the direct cause of hyperthyroidism?

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

In mammals, the two important organs associated with the production and elimination of urea are

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

Some endocrine glands produce hormones that stimulate functions of other endocrine glands.
Which ONE of the following hormones specifically acts to increase secretion of other hormones?

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

Q. 96 – Q. 105 carry two marks each

Q.

If the recombination frequency between X - Y loci is 12, X - Z loci is 4, and Y - Z loci is 8, then the
order of the loci on the chromosome is

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

A cross is made between a white eyed-miniature winged female with a red eyed-normal winged
male of Drosophila melanogaster. Further crossing of F1 female offspring from this cross with a
white eyed-miniature winged male fly gave 95 white eyed-normal winged, 102 red eyed-miniature
winged, 226 red eyed-normal winged and 202 white eyed-miniature winged offspring in F2
generation. What is the percent frequency of recombination between the two genes?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

A green fluorescent protein (GFP) encoding gene is fused to a gene encoding specific protein for
expression in cells. What is the advantage of using GFP over staining cells with fluorescently
labeled antibodies that bind to the target protein?

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

A newborn was accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus. Which ONE of the following
would be the most likely outcome?

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

One individual has a parasitic worm infection and another is responding to an allergen such as
pollen. Which ONE of the following features is common to both of them?

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

Five dialysis bags (DB1-DB5), impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of
sucrose. The bags were placed in separate beakers containing 0.6 M sucrose solution. Every 10
minutes, the bags were weighed and the percent change in mass of each bag was plotted as a
function of time. Which plot in the graph (X-axis representing time in minutes and Y-axis representing mass change
in percentage) represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes?

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

Which ONE of the following combinations of products will result, when 3 molecules of acetyl CoA
is fed into TCA cycle?

Solution:
QUESTION: 103

A DNA fragment shown below has restriction sites I and II, which create fragments X, Y, and Z.
Which ONE of the following agarose gel electrophoresis patterns represents the separation of these
fragments? Solution:
QUESTION: 104

Theoretically, it is possible to resurrect the extinct woolly mammoth by which ONE of the
following methods?

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

Regions of higher abundance of cholesterol molecules on the plasma membrane will

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Q. 106 – Q. 115 carry one mark each.

Q.

Which one of the following is NOT a source of caffeine?

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

Yoghurt is prepared using a pair of microorganisms. Choose the correct pair from the following:

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Choose the target organism for milk pasteurization from the following:

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

Hypobaric storage is also known as _______

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 110

In a solution of vegetable oil (molecular mass = 292 kg kmol-1) and ethanol (molecular mass = 46
kg kmol-1), the concentration of vegetable oil in the solution is measured to be 60% (total mass
basis). Therefore, mole fraction of ethanol in the solution is _______.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 111

An experiment started with 4 numbers of bacterial cells. After nth generation, number of cells
becomes 128. Therefore, value of ‘n’ is _______.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 112

One ton of refrigeration means one of the following options:

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 113

Fruit juice is flowing in a circular pipe (inner diameter 2 cm) at a mass flow rate of 2 kg s-1 and at a
temperature of 25°C. The density and viscosity of the juice at 25°C are 1045 kg m-3 and 0.5 Pa s,
respectively. Take π = 22/7. The Reynolds number for this flow will be _______.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 114

Shear stress (τ, Pa) and shear rate (γ, s-1) relationship of a pseudoplastic fluid follows the Power law
equation given by, τ = kγn = 2.6 γ0.45, where ‘n’ and ‘k’ are flow behavior index and consistency
index respectively. The apparent viscosity (μa) of the fluid at a shear rate of 5 s-1 is _______ Pa s.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 115

In a sterilization process, D121.1 value of the target organism is 0.22 minute. Time required for
99.999% inactivation of the target organism at 121.1°C will be _____ minutes.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 116

Q. 116 – Q. 125 carry two marks each.

Q.

A centrifuge having diameter of 10 cm is rotating at 10000 rpm. Take π = 22/7 and g = 9.81 m s-2.
The ratio of centrifugal force to gravitational force will be _________.

Solution:
QUESTION: 117

Match the items under Group I with items under Group II Solution:
QUESTION: 118

Match the items under Group I with items under Group II Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 119

In a counter-current double pipe heat-exchanger, milk is cooled from 110 to 40°C using chilled
water as coolant. Water enters at 5°C and leaves at 60°C. Heat flux for the system with overall heat
transfer coefficient of 950 W m-2 K-1 will be ______ W m-2.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 120

Saturated steam at 100°C is injected at 0.2 kg s-1 into air stream flowing at 3 kg s-1 and 25°C. Air
contains 0.012 kg moisture per kg dry air. If the atmospheric pressure is 101.1 kPa, absolute
humidity of air will be _____kg kg-1.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 121

In an evaporator, milk is concentrated from 9.8% TSS to 52% TSS. Assume the solutes in the milk
are non-volatile. The amount of vapour produced for 100 kg feed will be _______ kg.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 122

Water enters a cylindrical tank at a steady uniform rate of 0.1 m3 s-1; simultaneously water is
discharged from the tank through an orifice (area 0.05 m2) located at the bottom of the tank. Initial
level of water in the tank from the bottom is 5 m. If the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2 and
coefficient of discharge = 0.30, the final value of the steady-state height of water level from the
bottom of tank is _______ m.

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

Match the following between Group I and Group II in relation to pretreatments Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 124

A chocolate mix at 100°C is flowing through a 2 cm diameter and 4 m long stainless steel tube at
13.2 kg per minute. The density of the mix is 1750 kg m-3 and its viscosity at 100°C is 2 Pa s. Take
π = 22/7. The pressure drop for this flow will be ________ Pa.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 125

In a tray dryer, 100 kg of a vegetable material in a suitably reduced form is dried to yield a final
product of 75 kg. The dried sample of 5 g, when kept in an oven at 105°C for 24 hours results in
3.56 g of dry matter. The moisture content of the vegetable, before drying, in dry basis
is_______%.

Solution: