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# XL Life Science- 2015 GATE Paper (Practice Test)

## 125 Questions MCQ Test GATE Past Year Papers for Practice (All Branches) | XL Life Science- 2015 GATE Paper (Practice Test)

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This mock test of XL Life Science- 2015 GATE Paper (Practice Test) for GATE helps you for every GATE entrance exam. This contains 125 Multiple Choice Questions for GATE XL Life Science- 2015 GATE Paper (Practice Test) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this XL Life Science- 2015 GATE Paper (Practice Test) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. GATE students definitely take this XL Life Science- 2015 GATE Paper (Practice Test) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other XL Life Science- 2015 GATE Paper (Practice Test) extra questions, long questions & short questions for GATE on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

### Choose the statement where underlined word is used correctly.

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

Tanya is older than Eric.

Cliff is polder than Tanya

Eric is older than cliff.

If the first two statements are true, then the third statement is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Five teams have to compete in a league, with every team playing every other team exactly once, before going to the next round. How many matches will have to be held to completer the league round of matches?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

Q No 6 - 10 carry Two marks each

Q.

Select the appropriate option in place of underlined part of the sentnce.

" Increased productivity necessary " reflects greater efforts made by the employee.

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Given below are two statements followed by two conclusions. Assuming these statements to be true, decide which one logically follows.

Statements:

I. No manager is leader.

II All leaders are executives.

Conclusions:

I No manager is an executive

II No executive is a manager.

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 8

In the given figure angle  is a right angle, PS:QS= 3:1, RT: QT=5:2 and PU: UR = 1:1. if area of triangle QTS is 20 cm2.  then the area of triangle PQR in cm2 is ________________. (Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

Right triangle PQR is to be constructed in the xy- plane so that the right angle is at P and line PR is parallel to the x-axis. The x and y coordinates of P,Q, and R are to be integers that satisfy the inequalities -4 x 5 and 6  16. How many diffrent triangles could be constructed with these properties ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

A coin is tossed thrice. Let X be the event that head occurs in each of the first two tosses. Let Y be the event that a tail occurs on the third toss. Let Z be the event that two tails occur in three tosses. Based on the  above information, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

Q. 11 – Q. 15 carry one mark each.

Q.

The molecule having net ‘non-zero dipole moment’ is

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

The Diels-Alder adduct from the reaction between cyclopentadiene and benzyne is

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 13

The number of possible enantiomeric pair(s) in HOOC−CH(OH)−CH(OH)−COOH is________

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 14

For the electrochemical reaction the equilibrium constant at 25o C is 1.7 x 1037. The change in standard Gibbs free energy (ΔGo) for this reaction at that temperature will be ________ kJ mol−1 (up to one decimal place).
(Given: R = 8.314 JK−1mol−1)

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

Among the following diagrams, the one that correctly describes a zero order reaction
(X → product) is
(Given: [X]o = initial concentration of reactant X; [X] = concentration of reactant X at time t
and t1/2 = half-life period of reactant X)

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

Q.16 – Q. 25 carry two marks each.

Q.

If the radius of first Bohr orbit is 0.53 Å, then the radius of the third Bohr orbit is

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 17

If 50 mL of 0.02 M HCl is added to 950 mL of H2O, then the pH of the final solution will
be________

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

Stability of follows the order
(Given: Atomic numbers of Cr = 24, Mn = 25 and Fe = 26)

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Among the following pairs, the paramagnetic and diamagnetic species, respectively, are

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

In compounds K4[Fe(CN)6] (P) and Fe(CO)5 (Q), the iron metal centre is bonded to

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Among the following reactions, the one that produces achiral alcohol (after hydrolysis) is

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

The major product from the following reaction is Solution:
QUESTION: 23

The order of resonance energy for the following molecules is Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 24

The molar enthalpy of vaporization for a liquid (normal boiling point = 78.3oC) is 39 kJ mol−1. If
the liquid has to boil at 25o C, the pressure must be reduced to ________Torr (up to one decimal
place).

(Given: R = 8.314 JK−1mol−1; 1 atm = 760 Torr)

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

For the process, and 1 atm, the correct statement is

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Q. 26 – Q. 35 carry one mark each.

Q.

Which one of the following small molecules is a prerequisite for fatty acid oxidation?

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

Which one of the following bases is NOT found in the T-arm of an aminoacyl t-RNA?

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

Oxidation of one molecule of glucose via the glycerol-phosphate shuttle produces

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Ribulose-5-phosphate epimerase is involved in which one of the following processes?

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

Proteolytic enzymes are usually biosynthesized as large, inactive precursors known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

The formation of a carbocation, also called an oxonium ion, occurs during the reaction catalyzed by

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Which one of the following amino acid substitutions is likely to cause the largest change in protein conformation?

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Which one of the following does NOT constitute the lipid moiety in lipid-linked membrane proteins?

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 34

A closed circular B-DNA of 4000 base pairs is negatively supercoiled by introduction of 4 writhes. The super helical density of the resultant DNA molecule will be _________

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Which one of the following is NOT a receptor tyrosine kinase?

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Q. 36 – Q. 45 carry two marks each.

Q.

Match the entries in Column-1 with those in Column-2 Solution:
QUESTION: 37

The following table provides information about four proteins. Which one of the following options correctly identifies the order of elution in size exclusion chromatography and the increasing order of mobility in SDS polyacrylamide gel?

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 38

The predicted molar extinction coefficient at 280 nm for the peptide GEEFHISFLLIMFGAWSTHMYRTYWFIHEMISTRY is _______ M-1cm-1.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Match the contents of Column I with the most appropriate options in Column II Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 40

The value of ΔG at 37 °C for the movement of Ca2+ ions from the endoplasmic reticulum where [Ca2+] is 1 mM to the cytosol where [Ca2+] is 0.1 μM at −50 mV membrane potential is _______________ kJ mol-1

[ R = 8.314 JK−1mol−1 and 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulombs] .

Solution:
QUESTION: 41  Which of the following identifies the correctly matched pairs?

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT about hemoglobin (Hb)?
I. Hb demonstrates higher oxygen carrying capacity compared to myoglobin
II. There is covalent bonding between the four subunits of Hb
III. During deoxygenation the loss of the first oxygen molecule from oxygenated Hb promotes the dissociation of oxygen from the other subunits

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

A 1.2 kb DNA fragment was used as a template for PCR amplification using primers P1, P2, P3 and P4 as shown in the scheme below. The annealing positions of primers on the template are indicated by numbers. Primers P2 and P3 contain single base mismatches as indicated by filled triangles. PCR was performed using primer pair P1 and P3 in one vial and P2 and P4 in another vial. The purified PCR products from the two vials were mixed and subjected to another round of PCR with primers P1 and P4. The final PCR product will correspond to a

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

A cell suspension was subjected to membrane disruption followed by differential centrifugation to fractionate the cellular components. Match the centrifugal conditions in Column I to the appropriate subcellular components in Column II. Solution:
QUESTION: 45

Given below are the maps of a 1200 base pairs (bp) long DNA insert and a 3000 bp expression vector. The BamHI (B) and HindIII (H) restriction sites and DNA length between them are indicated in base pairs. The insert is cloned into the vector at the BamHI site and the desired orientation is shown by the arrow. After cloning, the orientation of the insert in the recombinant plasmid is tested by complete HindIII digestion followed by agarose gel electrophoresis. Which one of the following band patterns reveals the correct orientation of the insert in the construct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Q. 46 – Q. 55 carry one mark each.

Q.

Nuclear membrane is absent in

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

An organized and differentiated cell having cytoplasm but no nucleus is found in

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Double haploids in plants can be induced by

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

During fatty acid biosynthesis, the first intermediate malonyl-CoA is formed from

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Which of the following techniques is NOT applicable for evaluating the expression of a transgene?

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Identify the CORRECT family possessing the following characters: presence of glucosinolates,
tetradynamous stamens, superior ovary with parietal placentation and siliqua type fruit

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Which of the following reduces the transpiration rate when applied to aerial parts of plants?

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

A tube like membrane structure that forms the connection between the endoplasmic reticulum of
neighboring cells through plasmodesmata is

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Which one of the followings is NOT a cryoprotectant for plant tissue?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Two similar holotypes are called

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

Q. 56 – Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.

A cross was made between AABBCCDDEE and aabbccddee. The resultants F1 were selfed.
Applying Mendelian principle, PREDICT the proportion of phenotype showing all the recessive
characters in F2 generation.

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

Identify the CORRECT statements with respect to functioning of ecosystem.
P. A food chain is a series of organisms, each one feeding on the organism succeeding it
Q. Food web presents a complete picture of the feeding relationships in any given ecosystem
R. In ecosystem, energy flows in unidirectional way, whereas nutrients flow in cyclic fashion
S. In biogeochemical cycles, nutrients do not alternate between organisms and environment

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Match the name of the diseases with their causal organisms. Solution:
QUESTION: 59

Match the plant products with their sources and the plant parts from which they are obtained. Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Match the floral structures with the families and representative plant species. Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Identify the INCORRECT statements with respect to plastid transformation.
P. Antibiotic used for selection of trasplastomic plant is spectinomycin
Q. Chances of gene escape from transplastomic plants are high
R. Microprojectile bombardment is the method of DNA delivery
S. Levels of transgene expression are low

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Which of the following statements are TRUE with regard to the similarities between Crassulacean
Acid Metabolism (CAM) and C4 cycle?
P. Stomata open during night and remain closed during the day
Q. PEPcase is the carboxylating enzyme to form C4 acid
R. C4 acid is decarboxylated to provide CO2 for C3 cycle
S. Kranz anatomy is predominant in both CAM and C4 plants

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

With respect to germination of seeds, the CORRECT sequence of events is
P. Seed imbibes water
Q. Mobilization of starch reserve to embryo
R. Diffusion of gibberellin from embryo to aleurone layer
S. Synthesis of α-amylase in the aleurone layer

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Identify the CORRECT statements with regard to the function of plant hormones
P. ABA is synthesized from chorismate and promotes viviparous germination
Q. Auxin induces acidification of cell wall followed by turgour-induced cell expansion
R. Gibberellin-reponsive genes become activated by the repression of DELLA protein
S. Cytokinin regulates the G2 to M transition in the cell cycle

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination.
P. Somatic embryo is unipolar in nature
Q. Heterokaryon can be selected using a fluorescence-activated cell sorter (FACS)
R. The term somaclonal variation is coined by Larkin and Scowcroft
S. Differentiation of shoot buds during in vitro culture is known as somatic embryogenesis

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Q. 66 – Q. 75 carry one mark each.

Q.

Lophotrichous bacteria have

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

A process in which fatty acids are shortened by two carbons at a time resulting in release of acetyl-
CoA is known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Limulus Amoebocyte Lysate (LAL) assay is used to identify the presence of

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Match scientists in Group I with terms related to their major scientific contributions in Group II Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Base-pair substitutions caused by the chemical mutagen ethyl methane sulfonate are a result of

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

The classical way of representing taxonomic hierarchy of living organisms in ASCENDING
ORDER is

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

Of the following, the most effective method to kill bacterial endospores is

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

The class of enzymes, which catalyze addition of groups to double bonds and non-hydrolytic
removal of chemical groups, is

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

Anammox organisms carry out

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Q. 76 – Q. 85 carry two marks each.

Q.

Which combination of the following statements about specialized transduction is TRUE?
(P) Specialized transducing phages can transport only certain genes between bacteria
(Q) Specialized transducing phages can transport any gene between bacteria
(R) Phage P22 is a specialized transducing phage
(S) Phage lambda (λ) is a specialized transducing phage

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Which combination of profiles in the following figure accurately represents the transport rate of
glycerol and oxygen into E. coli cells as a function of their extracellular concentration? Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Which one of the following about the standard free energy change (ΔGo′) and the equilibrium
constant (Keq) of an exergonic reaction, at pH 7.0, is TRUE?

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 79

An oil immersion objective of a light microscope has a numerical aperture of 1.25. Using the Abbé
equation, the maximum theoretical resolving power (in nm) of the microscope with this objective
and blue light (wavelength = 450 nm) is ______

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 80

The working volume (in liter) of a chemostat with 0.1 h-1 dilution rate and 100 ml/h feed flow rate
is______

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 81

If the decimal reduction time for spores of a certain bacterium at 121oC is 12 seconds, the time
required (in minutes) to reduce 1010 spores to one spore by heating at 121oC is _______

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 82

The doubling time (in minutes) of a bacterium with a specific growth rate of 2.3 h-1 in 500 ml of
growth medium is ______

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 83

A bacterial culture is grown using 2.0 mg/ml fructose as the sole source of carbon and energy. The
bacterial biomass concentrations immediately after inoculation and at the end of the growth phase
are 0.1 mg/ml and 0.9 mg/ml, respectively. Assuming complete utilization of the substrate, the
bacterial growth yield (Y) on fructose is ______

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 84

The volume (in ml) of a 1.0 mg/ml stock solution of ampicillin to be added to 0.1 liter of growth
medium for achieving a final ampicillin concentration of 50 μg/ml is ______

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

An E. coli strain is grown initially on glucose as the sole carbon source. Upon complete
consumption of glucose following 12 h of growth, lactose is added as the sole carbon source and
the strain is further grown for 12 h. Assuming that the E. coli strain has a functional wild type lac
operon, which one of the following profiles is the most ACCURATE representation of β-
galactosidase (β-gal) expression (in arbitrary units)? Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.

The term “paedomorphosis” refers to

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Which one of the following statements is TRUE when determining the age of a fossil using carbon dating?

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

Constitutive enzymes are

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

Which one of the following is a function of intermediate filaments?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Which one of the following statements is FALSE with respect to phospholipids?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Which one of the following organs is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Where do B lymphocytes acquire immune competence?

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

Which one of the following life cycle stages of Plasmodium falciparum is infectious?

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

What is the role of the notochord during organogenesis in a vertebrate embryo?

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

The behavior of young ducks following their mother is known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

Q. 96 – Q. 105 carry two marks each.

Q.

Match the species names with class names Solution:
QUESTION: 97

A population of spotted deer found in a national forest is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. For a particular genetic locus in this deer species, only two alleles A and a are possible. If the frequency of the A allele in this population is 0.6, and the frequency of the a allele is 0.4, what will be the frequency of the genotype Aa?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

In Drosophila, the gene for eye colour is present on the X chromosome. When a red-eyed female was mated with a white-eyed male, a total of 100 progeny were obtained – 50 females and 50 males. Of the 50 females, 25 were red-eyed, and 25 were white-eyed. How many of the male progeny were red-eyed?

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Defect in poly-A tail formation in eukaryotic mRNA leads to

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

Assuming equal frequency for all 4 nucleotides (G, A, T, C), how many EcoRI recognition sites (GAATTC) are possible in a bacterial artificial chromosome of 100,000 base pairs?

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

Choose the correct option that shows pairing of the organelle to its function Solution:
QUESTION: 102

Choose the correct option based on your understanding of the circulatory system Solution:
QUESTION: 103

The popular birth control pills for women have a combination of synthetic forms of estradiol and progesterone. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to their function as contraceptive?

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

Which one of the following is consistent with the germplasm theory of August Weismann?

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

Which one of the following statements DOES NOT explain altruism?

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Q. 106 – Q. 115 carry one mark each.

Q.

Standard pasteurization protocol for milk is adequate for destroying

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

Which one of the following is NOT a component of an evaporator?

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Among the following animal foods, the fat content is least in

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

The enzyme that hydrolyzes starch to maltose is

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

Which one of the following is NOT enriched in endosperm during parboiling of paddy?

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

Heat-treated legume seed proteins are more digestible than those of untreated legume seed proteins
due to

Solution:
QUESTION: 112

What is the percent relative humidity at which both the dry bulb and wet bulb thermometers would
record equal temperatures?

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

How many fold would the g-number of a centrifuge increase by doubling both the spinning speed
and bowl diameter?

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

Prolonged fermentation of cocoa seeds lead to "off-taste" due to the release of

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

The gradual decrease in viscosity of tomato paste during storage can be prevented by quickly
heating it to 82° C, because

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

Match the enzyme in Group I with its corresponding application in Group II Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 117

Milk is flowing at 0.12 m3/min in a 2.5 cm diameter pipe. The temperature of the milk is 21°C and
the corresponding viscosity and density are 2.1 x 10-3 Pas and 1029 kg/m3, respectively. If the flow
is found to be turbulent under the given conditions, the Reynolds number is _________

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 118

Whole milk (34,950 kg) containing 4% fat is to be separated in 6 h period into skim milk with
0.45% fat and cream with 45% fat. The flow rate of cream stream (kg/h) from the separator is
__________

Solution:
QUESTION: 119

Match the edible plant tissue in Group I with the type of carotenoid given in Group II Solution:
QUESTION: 120

Green tea is considered to be a more healthy option than black tea because it

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 121

A dilute pineapple juice is heated in a double pipe heat exchanger from 28°C to 75°C by heat
exchanging with hot water flowing in shell in counter current direction. Hot water is entering the
shell at 95 °C and leaving at 85°C. The log mean temperature difference (°C) is __________

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 122

Granulated sugar, having an average particle size of 500 μm, is milled to produce icing sugar
having an average particle size of 25 μm. The power requirement was 10 kW as obtained by
Rittinger's law. If the same mill were to be used to produce fondant sugar having an average
particle size of 20 μm at the same capacity, the power requirement (kW) would be _____

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 123

One ton of soybean containing 18% oil, 35% protein, 27.1% carbohydrates, 9.4% of fibre and ash,
and 10.5% moisture is crushed and pressed. The residual oil content in the pressed cake is 6%.
Assuming that there is no loss of protein and water with oil, the amount of oil (kg) obtained from
the crusher is ________

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

Match the processing method in Group I with the operation carried out in Group II Solution:
QUESTION: 125

The order of succession of microbes in the spoilage of milk, involving (P) Lactobacillus, (Q)
protein digesting bacteria, (R) Lactococcus lactis, (S) yeasts and molds, is

Solution: