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# AIPMT 2011 Solved Question Paper

## 120 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers | AIPMT 2011 Solved Question Paper

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This mock test of AIPMT 2011 Solved Question Paper for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 120 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET AIPMT 2011 Solved Question Paper (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this AIPMT 2011 Solved Question Paper quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this AIPMT 2011 Solved Question Paper exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other AIPMT 2011 Solved Question Paper extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

### All questions having 4 marks each and 1 mark is deduted for every incorrect answer. Q. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be :

Solution:  QUESTION: 2

### In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased, are :  Solution:

Only in (a) and (c)
Diodes are forward biased
As p?type should be higher potential & n?type at lower potential.

QUESTION: 3

### The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly :

Solution:

K.E. = hv ? hvth = eV0 (V0 = cutoff voltage) QUESTION: 4

A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit
unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is :

Solution:  QUESTION: 5

A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor
carrying a steady current I1 at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience : Solution: F1 > F2. hence net attraction force will be towards conductor

QUESTION: 6

Athermocouple of negligible resistance produces an e.m.f. of 40 μV/°C in the linear range of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance 10 ohm whose sensitivity is 1μA/div, is employed with the termocouple. The
smallest value of temperature difference that can be detected by the system will be :

Solution: QUESTION: 7

The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is : Solution: QUESTION: 8

A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 Ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be :

Solution: QUESTION: 9

A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius of the earth are , respectively,Mand R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth, is :

Solution: QUESTION: 10

Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 m-3. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m-3. The doped semiconductor is of :

Solution: Semiconductor is p-?type and

ne = 5 × 109 m-3 .

QUESTION: 11

Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform
frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is

Solution: QUESTION: 12

Azener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is : Solution:  QUESTION: 13

A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v1 and the rest half distance with speed v2. Its average
speed during the complete journey is :

Solution: QUESTION: 14

The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in meters in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric field
at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter is :

Solution: QUESTION: 15

Ashort bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4J T-1 is place in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is stable equilibrium when the potential energy is:

Solution:

For stable equilibrium
U = -MB
= -(0.4) (0.16)
= -0.064 J

QUESTION: 16

A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of refractive index µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass
of refractive index µ2 = 1.75. the combination of the prism produces dispersion without deviation . The angle of the second prism should be:

Solution: QUESTION: 17

Aconveyor belt ismoving at a constant speed of 2m/s.Abox is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction
between them is µ= 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it taking
g = 10 ms-2, is :

Solution:

a = µg = 5
v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = 22 + 2 × (5)s
s =-2/5 w.r.t. belt
or distance = 0.4 m

QUESTION: 18

A mass of diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its
temperature rise from 27ºC to 927ºC. The pressure of the gas is final state is :

Solution:     QUESTION: 19

A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving
vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the combination is :

Solution: QUESTION: 20

Two particle are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency and
amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of the
amplitude. The mean positions of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase difference is :

Solution:  QUESTION: 21

A small mass attached to a string rotates on frictionless table top as shown. If the tension is the string is increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will: Solution: QUESTION: 22

The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of lengths is
10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be :

Solution:

In CGS
d = 4  (g/cm3)
If unit of mass is 100 g
and unit of distance is 10 cm QUESTION: 23

An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitivematerial having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the photoelectron is 10 V, the value of n is :

Solution: QUESTION: 24

A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of spherical shell of mass and radius a. The magnitude of the
gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be:

Solution:  QUESTION: 25

Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleolus R. At time t = 0, number of
P species are 4 Nand that of Q are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute where as that of Q is
2 minutes. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are
equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be -

Solution:

Initially P → 4No
Q →No
Half life TP = 1 min.
TQ = 2 min.
Let after time t number of nuclie of P and Q are equal  QUESTION: 26

A projectile is fired at an angle of 45º with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point
as seen from the point of projection is :

Solution:     QUESTION: 27

Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom
according to Bohr's atomic model?

Solution: QUESTION: 28

In the circuit shown in the figure, if potential at point A is taken to be zero the potential at point B is : Solution: QUESTION: 29

A conversing beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed though the lens the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meets will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is :

Solution:  QUESTION: 30

Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC, 2a. D
and E are the mid points of BC and CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is: Solution: QUESTION: 31

Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ?

Solution:

Vitamin B complex is fat insoluble

QUESTION: 32

Which of the statements about "Denaturation" given below are correct ?
Statements
(a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein.
(b) Denturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand
(c) Denaturation affects primary strucrture which gets distorted
Options :

Solution:

During denaturation secondary and tertiary structures of protein destroyed but primary structures remains intact.

QUESTION: 33

Which has themaximum number of molecules among the following ?

Solution: QUESTION: 34

The half life of a substance in a certain eznzyme-catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the
concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg L-1to 0.04 mg L-1, is :

Solution:

Enzyme catalysed reactions are initially follow first order kinetics
when concentration decreases

1.28 mg L-1 to 0.04 mg L-1. Then five half life completed
No. of half lives = 5
So, times required = 5 × 138 = 690 s.

QUESTION: 35

Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?

Solution:

The correct order of nucleophilic substitution reactions QUESTION: 36

Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

Solution: (Sodium tetrahydroxoaluminate (III)) + 3H2(g).

QUESTION: 37

A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30%ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86ºC/m, the freezing point of
the solution will be :

Solution: QUESTION: 38

The rate of the reaction 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + Ocan be written in three ways : The relationship between k and k' and between k and k" are :

Solution: QUESTION: 39

Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C-O bond ?

Solution:

As + ve charge on the central metal atom increases, the less readily the metal can donate electron density
into the π* orbitals of CO ligand to weaken the C-O bond. Hence the C-O bond would be strongest in QUESTION: 40

The order of reactivity of phenylmagnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds : Solution:

Correct reactivity order for nucleophilic addition reaction with PhMgBr QUESTION: 41

The IUPAC name of the following compound Solution: Correct IUPAC name of above compound is trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

QUESTION: 42

According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least energetic photon ?

Solution:

Energy of photon obtained from the transition n = 6 to n = 5 will have least energy QUESTION: 43

A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion (Y-) will be :

Solution:

Radius ratio of NaCl like crystal = r-= 100/0.414 =241.5 pm

QUESTION: 44

Consider the following processes : Solution: QUESTION: 45

Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II and select the suitable option using the code given below :  Solution: (b) (c) (d) QUESTION: 46

Which of the following compounds is most basic ?

Solution: compound is most basic due to localized lone pair of electron on nitorgen atom while
other compounds have delocalized lone pair of electron.

QUESTION: 47

Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3 ?

Solution:

Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure from a number of possible Lewis structures for a given species. Generally the lowest energy structure is the one with the smallest
formal charges on the atoms.

QUESTION: 48

A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I- ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35°C. E° for Fe3+ / Fe2+ is + 0.77 V and E° for I2/2I-= 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is :

Solution: QUESTION: 49

What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV ?

Solution:

IE1 of Na =-Electron given enthalpy of Na+ =-5.1 Volt.

QUESTION: 50

The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is :

Solution:

Rate = K(A)0
Unit of K = mol l-1 sec-1

QUESTION: 51

In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them as
chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the Cl- concentration is 0.10 M. What will the concentrations of Ag+ and Pb2+ be at equilibrium ? (KSP for AgCl = 1.8 × 10-10, KSP for PbCl2 = 1.7 × 10-5)

Solution: QUESTION: 52

Abubble of air is underwater at temperature 15°C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the surface where the temperature is 25°C and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the volume of the bubble ?

Solution: i.e. volume of bubble will be almost 1.6 time to initial volume of bubble

QUESTION: 53

Match List - I with List - II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer using the code
given below the lists :  Solution:

a) b) Epsomite = MgSO4.7H2O

c) Kieserite =MgSO4.H2O

d) Gypsum = CaSO4.2H2O

QUESTION: 54

The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following
presents the correct description ?

Solution: QUESTION: 55

Consider the reactions : The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively :

Solution:

First reaction is SN1 reaction because C2H5OH used as solvent which is a weak nucleophile.
Second reaction is SN2 reaction because C2H5O- is strong nucleophile

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour ?

(At. No. : Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)

Solution:

(1) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ : 3d1 configuration and thus has one unpaired electron.
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ : The complex is inner orbital complex but 3d3 configuration has three unpaired electrons with
weak as well as with strong field ligand.
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ : The cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state with 3d6 configuration and thus is diamagnetic
octahedral complex, [Co(NH3)6]3+, and has the electronic configuration represented as shown below. (4) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ : Because of 3d10 configuration no (n-1)d orbital is available for d2sp3 hybridisation and thus
forms outer orbital complex. The complex is diamagnetic.

QUESTION: 57

200mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The Osmotic pressure of this solution at 300
K is found to be 2.57 × 10-3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol-1k-1) :

Solution: QUESTION: 58

Which of the following oxide is amphoteric ?

Solution:

SnO2 is an amphoteric oxide because it reacts with acids as well as bases to form corresponding salts. QUESTION: 59

The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.

Solution:

Slag can be defined as a fusiblemass, which is obtained when a flux reacts with an infusible acidic or basic impurity present in the oxide ore.

CaO(s) (basic flux) + SiO2 (s) (acidic flux)→CaSiO3 (s) (slag)

QUESTION: 60

An organic compound 'A' on treatment with NHgives 'B' which on heating gives 'C', 'C' when treated with Brin the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound 'A' is :

Solution: QUESTION: 61

The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious
effort?

Solution:

Hint : Eustachian tube connect middle ear cavity (Tympanic cavity) with pharynx

QUESTION: 63

Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein.

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?

Solution:

Hint : Water hyacinth is offset.

QUESTION: 65

Which one of the following diagrams represents the placentation in Dianthus?

Solution:

Hint : Free central placentation occurs in Dianthus

QUESTION: 66

Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the
other three are correct?

Solution:

Hint : Because get changed or replaced by vertibral column

QUESTION: 67

Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at
the same time?

Solution:

Hint : It feeds upon grains hence called primary consumer and also insects hence called secondary consumer

QUESTION: 68

Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to:

Solution:
Hydrarch succession takes place in water areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As against the xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerarch succession lead to medium water conditions (mesic)-neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric).
QUESTION: 69

What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LHsurge)
normally occurs?

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of:

Solution:

Hint : Inner most lining of Blood vessels in endothelium and is a type of squamous epithelia.

QUESTION: 72

The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom
of organisms as that of:

Solution:

Hint : Micorosporum is a member of Deuteromycetes of fungi & Rizopus is also fungi and member of Zygomycetes.

QUESTION: 73

The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Select the part correctly matched with its function. Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B):
?A drug used for --------(A)-------- patients is obtained from a species of the organism --------(B)--------.?
The one correct option for the two blanks is: Solution:

Hint : CyclosporinAis immunosuppressive drug obtained from Trichoderma and use in organ transplantation

QUESTION: 75

Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:

Solution:

Hint : It occur through RNA i

QUESTION: 76

At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their:

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming:

(A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton
(B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost
(C) Does not use pesticides and urea
(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans, is:

Solution:

Hint : Because it is inactive form and we know that all enzymes of pancrease secreted in this form

QUESTION: 79

Frogs differ from humans in possessing

Solution:

Hint : Human possesses enucleated RBC inmature state

QUESTION: 80

Which one of the following option gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and
mode mode of infection. Solution:
QUESTION: 81

Function of companion cells is

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing

Solution:

Hint : It is a defination of test cross

QUESTION: 83

Some vascular bundles are described as open because these

Solution:

Hint : Open means presence of cambium during sec. growth. Vascular cambium divides to form secondary xylem towards Inner side while sec. Phloem towards outside

QUESTION: 84

In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in

Solution:

Hint :Whorled phyllotaxy is feature of Nerium and Alstonia. In Alstonia five leaves present in a whorl while in Nerium three leaves present in a whorl

QUESTION: 87

Sweet potato is homolgous to

Solution:

Sweet potato and turnip both are roots

QUESTION: 88

The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a

Solution:

Bacteriophage used by Hershay and Chase to prove D.N.A. as genetic matterial

QUESTION: 89

Consider the following four statements whether they are correct of wrong

(A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(B) Salvinia is heterosporous
(C) The life- cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic
(D) In pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees

Solution:

Hint : (A) Sporophyte is more developed in mosses rather than liver wort.
(B) Pinus is Monoecious in which male & female cones are borne on different branch

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and select the
correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F)
Statements :
(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days
(B) It has four- chambered heart
(C) On day land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic
(4) Its life-history is carried out in pond water Solution:

Hint : (A) Dry skin cause ceased cutaneous respiration
(B) Three chembered heart.
(C) Frog never be uricotalic
(D) External fertilization and in water

QUESTION: 91

In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is human, Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below Solution:

P wave is formed when the atria (the two upper chambers of the heart) contract to pump blood into the ventricles.

QRS Complex is formed when the ventricles (the two lower chambers of the heart) are contracting to pump out blood. It is one complete pulse.

ST segment measures the end of the contraction of the ventricles to the beginning of the rest period before the ventricles begin to contract for the next beat.

T wave measures the resting period of the ventricles.

QUESTION: 93

Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function

Solution:

Hint : Clitellum - secretes cocoon during breading season of earthworm. Gizzard -grinding of food particles.
setae help in locomotion. Typhlosole increases the absorption area in intestine

QUESTION: 94

Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit
because:

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as

Solution:

Hint : 70% to 75% CO2 is transported as NaHCO3 by plasma and KHCO3 by RBCs

QUESTION: 96

In angiosperms, Functional megaspore develops into

Solution:

Hint : During megagametogenesis functional megaspore (mostly chalazal) gives rise to embryo sac.

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks.

(A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to __(2)__ cold weather
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents __(3)__ human population
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of __(4)___
(D) An area with high levels of species richness is known as __(5)___
Which one of the following options give the correct fill ups the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in
the statements

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

What is common between vegetative reproduction andApomixis

Solution:

Hint : The progeny are genetically similar to parent and called clone

QUESTION: 99

Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is

Solution:

Hint : Common cold is due to rhinovirus

QUESTION: 100

Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are

Solution:

Hint : Cadmium is not essential element for plants

QUESTION: 101

Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system ?

Solution:

Hint : Except peroxisome the remaining three and ER are the parts of Endomembrane system.

QUESTION: 103

Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation :

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a common
characteristics of two of these animals

a) b) c) d) Solution:

Hint : FromAnnaelida to chordata all are Eucoelomate C-Mollusca (Octopus), D-Arthropoda (Scorpion)

QUESTION: 106

In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female
child ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organism ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

Ureters act as urogenital ducts in :

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

The type of muscles present in our :

Solution:

Hint : Thigh muscles are skeletal muscle that are striated and voluntary

QUESTION: 112

Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them

(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactal bumin enriched.
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology.
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host.

Which are the two statements having mistakes ?

Solution:

Hint : Transgenic Rosie is actually cow Restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific site The separation of DNA is performed by Gel electrophorasis.

QUESTION: 113

The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone :

Solution:

Hint : Responsible for circadian cycle

QUESTION: 114

Guttation is the result of :

Solution:

Hint : Guttation is due to root pressure.

QUESTION: 115

Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c and d) correctly
identified.  Solution:
QUESTION: 116

Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctlymatched with their respective inclusive
skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair. Solution:

Hint : Glenoid cavity found in pectoral girdle.

QUESTION: 117

Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 118

"Good ozone " is found in the :

Solution:

Hint : Ozone of Stratosphere provides protection from UV rays

QUESTION: 119

Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining
three are correct ?

Solution:

Hint : Clostridium butylicum form butyric acid.

QUESTION: 120

The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation :

Solution: