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AIPMT 2012 Paper With Detailed Solutions

200 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series | AIPMT 2012 Paper With Detailed Solutions

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This mock test of AIPMT 2012 Paper With Detailed Solutions for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET AIPMT 2012 Paper With Detailed Solutions (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this AIPMT 2012 Paper With Detailed Solutions quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this AIPMT 2012 Paper With Detailed Solutions exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other AIPMT 2012 Paper With Detailed Solutions extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Solution:

F = KV

QUESTION: 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

A particle has initial velocity  and acceleration . The magnitude of velocity after 10 seconds will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a fictionless road. If the banking angle
is 45º, the speed of the car is

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with velocity 4 ms–1. It collides with a horizontal spring of force constant 200 Nm–1. The maximum compression produced in the spring will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

The potential energy of a particle in a force field is  where A and B are positive constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2 respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B is moving with
velocity v along x-axis. After collision B has a velocity V/2. in a direction perpendicular to the original
direction. The mass A moves after collision in the direction

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the
boat is 3.0 m and weighs 100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg man and sits with him. If the
boat is in still water the center of mass of the system shifts by

Solution:

Since Fext = 0

CM will not shift

QUESTION: 10

ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre   represent three forces acting along the sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O is zero then the magnitude of

is

Solution:

Net torque = 0
(F1 + F2 – F3)R = 0
F3 = F1 + F2

QUESTION: 11

When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along

Solution:

Right hand thumb rule

QUESTION: 12

A spherical planet has a mass Mp and diameter Dp. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity, equal to

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above that surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the surface of the earth is

Solution:

T2 = 6/√2 hour

QUESTION: 14

The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1th/ 16 its weight on the surface of earth (radius R), is

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by y1=4sin600πt
and y2 = 5sin608πt. An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

When a string is divided into three segments of length l1, l2 and l3 , the fundamental frequencies of these
three segments are ν1, ν2 and ν3 respectively. The original fundamental frequency (v) of the string is

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes: It first undergoes
isothermal expansion from volume V to 3V and then its volume is reduced from 3V to V at constant
pressure. The correct P-V diagram representing the two processes is

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas
during the cycle is

Solution:

In cyclic process
ΔQ = ΔW = area under the cycle
= –2 PV
∴ Heat rejected = 2 PV

QUESTION: 19

Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant.
Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time?

Solution:

Boiling point of oxygen is 50.5 K. First liquid oxygen will be heated then it will be converted into gas at its boiling point then the temperature of gas will increase upto 300 K.

QUESTION: 20

If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in
which the rate of energy production is Q?

(σ stands for Stefan's constant.)

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

A coil of resistance 400 Ω is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux φ (wb) linked with the coil
varies with time t (sec) as

φ = 50t2 + 4

The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

The current (I) in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.

Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil?

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed
from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is π/3. If instead,
C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3. The power factor of the circuit is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 Ω. Find the points A and B, as shown in the figure,
at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance R of the sub circuit
between these points is equal to 8/3 Ω

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt - 100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the
rated value by which the power would decrease is

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500 Ω and
R = 100 Ω the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of VB is

Solution:

Potential drop across R = 100 Ω is 2V.

QUESTION: 27

The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is given by  where E, z and t are in volt/m, metre and seconds respectively. The value of wave vector k is

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

What is the flux through a cube of side a if a point charge of q is at one of its corner?

Solution:

Eight such cubes will completely encapsulate the charge symmetrically

QUESTION: 29

An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E . The dipole acquires a position
such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when θ = 90°, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be

Solution:

By definition

QUESTION: 30

Four points charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between
Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It

Solution:

Horizontal component of earth’s field is absent there

QUESTION: 32

A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range. The value
(in ohm) of necessary shunt will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The
currents flowing in them are I and 2I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the centre
will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

An alternating electric field, of frequency ν, is applied across the dees (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is
being used to accelerate protons (mass = m). The operating magnetic field (B) used in the cyclotron and
the kinetic energy (K) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given by

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the
objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence, i, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small)
and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is μ, the angle of incidence
i, is nearly equal to

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

A concave mirror of focal length 'f1' is placed at a distance of 'd' from a convex lens of focal length 'f2'. A
beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens - concave mirror combination returns
to infinity. The distance d must equal

Solution:

d = 2f1 + f2

QUESTION: 38

When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet
of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index.

Solution:

When refractive index will be same, the rays will not deviate and the combination will behave as glass sheet.

QUESTION: 39

An α-particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m2. The de Broglie wavelength associated with the particle will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground
state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured do be 3.57 V. The threshold
frequency of the material is

Solution:

(10.2 eV – 3.57 eV) = hf
∴ f = 1.6 × 1015 Hz

QUESTION: 41

A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 μm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in
converting electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow light it emits per second is

Solution:

200 × 25% =

∴ n = 1.5 × 1020 per second

QUESTION: 42

Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second
excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelengths λ1 : λ2 emitted in the two cases is

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be

Solution:

As per conservation of momentum
Momentum of photon = Momentum of atom

QUESTION: 44

If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 Fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu is Fermi is

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively.
Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of the two in the mixture will become
equal after

Solution:

By arithmetic calculation using

A=A0/2(n = number of half lives)

QUESTION: 46

Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is

Solution:

I=5/10 =0.5 (D2 is reverse biased)

QUESTION: 47

The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave forms across
A, B and C are as given. The logic circuit gate is

Solution:

Using the truth table.

QUESTION: 48

In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 kΩ is 2 V. If the
base resistance is 1 kΩ and the current amplification of the transistor is 100, the input signal voltage is

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is insulator whereas Si is intrinsic semiconductor. This is because

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] for a base biased transistor in CE
configuration is as shown in the figure. For using transistor as a switch, it is used

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

In a zero-order reaction for every 10° rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become

Solution:

Rate = (2)9 = 512 times

QUESTION: 52

Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e. having the same shape and hybridization)?

Solution:

Both are sp3 and tetrahedral

QUESTION: 53

In which of the following reactions, standard reaction entropy change (ΔS°) is positive and standard Gibb's
energy change (ΔG°) decreases sharply with increasing temperature?

Solution:

QUESTION: 54

In a reaction, A + B → Product, rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate
increases by a factor of 8 when the concentrations of both the reactants (A and B) are doubled, rate law
for the reaction can be written as

Solution:

Rate = k[A]2[B]

QUESTION: 55

Limiting molar conductivity of  is equal to

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the central atom?

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because

Solution:

They give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali

QUESTION: 58

In Freundlich Adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is

Solution:

Freundlich Adsorption isotherm, applicable at moderate pressure

1/n=0 to 1

QUESTION: 59

pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about enzyme catalysis?

Solution:

Enzymes are most reactive at optimum temperature

QUESTION: 62

pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary
solution. If xA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is expressed in terms of

Solution:
Gold number
Lyophobic sols are unstable, so they re-stabilised by adding some lyophilic colloids which protect them from precipitation. Thus, lyophilic colloids are called protecting colloids. Their protecting power is expressed in terms of gold number.

[Lesser the gold number, higher si the protecting power,]

Lyophobic sols are unstable, so they re-stabilised by adding some lyophilic colloids which protect them from precipitation. Thus, lyophilic colloids are called protecting colloids. Their protecting power is expressed in terms of gold number.

[Lesser the gold number, higher si the protecting power,]
QUESTION: 64

Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is

Solution:

l = 3, n = 4 ⇒ ∴ 4f sub-shell orbital ?→ 14e.

QUESTION: 65

50 mL of each gas A and of gas B takes 150 and 200 seconds respectively for effusing through a pin hole
under the similar conditions. If molecular mass of gas B is 36, the molecular mass of gas A will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

Standard enthalpy of vapourisation   for water at 100° C is 40.66 kJmol–1. The internal energy of
vapourisation of water at 100°C (in kJmol–1) is

(Assume water vapour to behave like an ideal gas)

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close-packed structure is

Solution:

Number of atom per unit cell in cubic close-packed = 4
Number of octahedral voids in cubic close-packed = 4

QUESTION: 68

The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is

Solution:

QUESTION: 69

A metal crystallizes with a face-centered cubic lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter
of the metal atom is

Solution:

QUESTION: 70

The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0ºC is

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state?

Solution:

QUESTION: 72

Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of

Solution:

Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2

QUESTION: 73

Which of the statements is not true?

Solution:

K2Cr2O7 is preferred over Na2Cr2O7 is volumetric analysis because Na2Cr2O7 is deliquescent

QUESTION: 74

A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid and sulphuric acid is heated. During the reaction which
element undergoes maximum change in the oxidation number?

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour?

Solution:

[Ni(NH3)6]+2 = sp3d2
It has two unpaired electron

QUESTION: 76

The ease of adsorption of the hydrates alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resins follows the order

Solution:

Li+ < K+ < Na+ < Rb+

QUESTION: 77

Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of these will record
the highest pH value?

Solution:

BaCl2 is made up of Ba(OH)2 + HCl.
Ba(OH)2 is strongest base among the given option

QUESTION: 78

Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous
oxide with

Solution:

Auto-reduction.

QUESTION: 80

Identify the wrong statement in the following

Solution:

Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on cation, larger is the ionic radius

QUESTION: 81

Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus?

Solution:

Hypophosphorus acid, H3PO2 is monoprotic acid.

QUESTION: 82

Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it

Solution:

Steel contains carbon which is non-metal

QUESTION: 83

The pair of species with the same bond order is

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

Bond order of 1.5 is shown by

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?

Solution:

Magnetite → Fe3O4

QUESTION: 86

Which one of the alkali metals, forms only, the normal oxide, M2O on heating in air?

Solution:

Lithium being small in size forms only normal oxide

QUESTION: 87

The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid
(C) and formic acid (D) is

Solution:

Electron withdrawing group increases the acidic character

CF3COOH > CCl3COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH

QUESTION: 88

In the following reaction :

The major product is

Solution:

Reaction has carbocation as intermediate

QUESTION: 89

Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system?

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is

Solution:

More the number of α-H, more the hyperconjugation and more the reactively

QUESTION: 91

Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct?

Solution:

Photochemical smog causes irritation in eyes.

QUESTION: 94

In the following sequence of reactions

the end product (C) is

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?

Solution:

Neoprene is addition polymer of chloroprene

QUESTION: 96

Predict the products in the given reaction.

Solution:

Cannizaro reaction

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism?

Solution:

Maleic acid.

QUESTION: 98

CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by:

Solution:

CH3CHO will give positive iodoform test but C6H5CH2CHO does not

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following statements is false?

Solution:

Nylon 66 is fibre.

QUESTION: 100

Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 101

Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having:

Solution:

Both Cycas and Adiantum (walking fern) have multiciliated sperms.
Cambium & seeds are present in Cycas.
Vessels are absent in both.

QUESTION: 102

Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack:

Solution:

Xylem fibre is in very less amount in soft wood.

QUESTION: 103

Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group:

Solution:

Monerans are photoautotrophs (photosynthetic) ecologically they are producers and decomposers

QUESTION: 104

Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?

Solution:

Asexual reproduction in all by fragmentation

QUESTION: 105

Which statement is wrong for viruses?

Solution:

They are helical, polygonal and binal in shape

QUESTION: 106

Which one of the following is a correct statement

Solution:

Origin of seed habit from heterosporous pteriodophyte i.e. Selaginella

QUESTION: 107

Nuclear membrane is absent in

Solution:

Nuclear membrane is absent in prokaryotes

QUESTION: 108

During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during

Solution:

Recombinase synthesis occurs in pachytene stage of prophase 1

QUESTION: 109

Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?

Solution:

The cell membrane of prokaryotes is structurally similar to that of eukaryotes.

QUESTION: 110

PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for

Solution:

RFLP/VNTR is the basis of genetic finger printing. PCR is employed for gene/DNA amplification

QUESTION: 111

Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of

Solution:

RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, ScRNA, 5S rRNA, and SnRNA.

QUESTION: 112

Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical
areas is known as

Solution:

Evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known as adaptive radiation. Divergent evolution occurs in homologous structures.

QUESTION: 113

Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called

Solution:

Splicing

QUESTION: 114

Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?

Solution:

The inducer (lactose/allolactose) is not the component of transcription unit.

QUESTION: 115

An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme
is

Solution:

Sporopollinin is resistant to enzyme, acid and alkali treatment

QUESTION: 116

Best defined function of Manganese in green plants is

Solution:

QUESTION: 117

Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in

Solution:

Schizo-lysigenous water cavity is found in the VBs of Monocot stem.

QUESTION: 118

Closed vascular bundles lack

Solution:

Cambium is absent in closed VBs.

QUESTION: 119

Placentation in tomato and lemon is

Solution:

Axile placentation is characteristics of Solanaceae and Rutaceae

QUESTION: 120

Companion cells are closely associated with

Solution:

Companion cells associated with phloem

QUESTION: 121

Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family

Solution:

Vexillary aestivation is found in corolla of family fabaceae

QUESTION: 122

Phyllode is present in

Solution:

Modified, green petiole/rachis in Australian acacia

QUESTION: 123

The common bottle cork is a product of

Solution:

Cork cells and secondary cortex are formed by the activity of cork cambium (Phellogen)

QUESTION: 124

Which one of the following is wrong statement?

Solution:

P is component of DNA and RNA but not in proteins.

QUESTION: 125

How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence?
Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry.

Solution:

Composite fruits are fig(syconus), mulberry and pineapple (sorosis)

QUESTION: 126

Cymose inflorescence is present in

Solution:

Cymose inflorescence in solanaceae

QUESTION: 127

Which one of the following is correctly matched?

Solution:

None of the option is correct w.r.t., question statement

QUESTION: 128

A process that makes important difference between C3 and C4 plants is

Solution:

C4-plant lack photorespiration

QUESTION: 129

The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is

Solution:

Photorespiration required 3 cell organelles-chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.

QUESTION: 130

The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to

Solution:

Coconut is fibrous drupe with edible endosperm.

QUESTION: 131

The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of

Solution:

Apocarpous condition is found in Michelia.

QUESTION: 132

Which one of the following is correctly matched?

Solution:

Chlamydomonas-Zoospores.

QUESTION: 133

Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in

Solution:

Papaya is dioecious plant

QUESTION: 134

Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in

Solution:

Closed bisexual flowers are found in Commelina.

QUESTION: 135

Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?

Solution:

Hotspots of India - Western Ghats and Sri Lank Himalayas and Indo-Burma

QUESTION: 136

Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?

Solution:

Stratification is structural component

QUESTION: 137

The upright pyramid of number is absent in

Solution:

Forest/tree ecosystem supporting parasitic food chain

QUESTION: 138

Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem?

Solution:

Phosphorus shows sedimentary cycle.

QUESTION: 139

Which one of the following is a wrong statement?

Solution:

Ozone in upper part i.e., stratosphere is beneficial.

QUESTION: 140

The highest number of species in the world is represented by

Solution:

Fungi - 7200 species.

QUESTION: 141

Yeast is used in the production of

Solution:

Yeast is used in bread and beer production.

QUESTION: 142

Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their
nutrition?

Solution:

Glomus is endomycorrhiza

QUESTION: 143

A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

Solution:

A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule is called a probe, it is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography.

QUESTION: 144

A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given

Solution:

To dissolve clot in heart patients the doctors give streptokinase injection

QUESTION: 145

A nitrogen fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is

Solution:

Cyanobacteria (Anabaena) are important biofertilizers of paddy field.

QUESTION: 146

Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?

Solution:

In PCR, thermostable Taq DNA polymerase is used isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus.

QUESTION: 147

Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin
'A' deficiency?

Solution:

Golden rice is rich in vitamin A and iron.

QUESTION: 148

Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

Solution:

RNA polymerase III activity in nucleus for tRNA synthesis

QUESTION: 149

Which part would be most suitable for raising virus-free plants for micropropagation?

Solution:

Virus-free plants are obtained from apical or axillary meristem

QUESTION: 150

For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of

Solution:

Biolistic or gene gun is a direct or vector less method of gene transfer. In this microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA are bombarded on plant cells.

QUESTION: 151

The cyanobacteria are also referred to as

Solution:

Cyanobacteria or BGA

QUESTION: 152

Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic
group?

Solution:

Yeast is used in bread and beer production

QUESTION: 153

In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly
matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?

Solution:

Pila belongs to the phylum mollusca. In this phylum we include soft bodied unsegmented animals including
Pila.

QUESTION: 154

Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane

Solution:

Most accepted model.

QUESTION: 155

Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which
is this stage?

Solution:

Crossing over occurs in pachytene (Prophase-I)

QUESTION: 156

Which one out of A - D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?

options

Solution:

The choice (4) represents basic amino acid lysine, with the structure formula

Whereas, the choice A, represents glutamic amino acid, and choice B represent alcoholic amino and acid

QUESTION: 157

What is true about ribosomes ?

Solution:

Ribosomes = r-RNA + Protein

QUESTION: 158

Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic
compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component "X' in it

Solution:

Nucleoside is made up of ribose sugar and nitrogenous base only.

QUESTION: 159

Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in :

Solution:

Nucleolus is the site of rRNA synthesis

QUESTION: 160

F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2 :
1. It represents a case of

Solution:

Both phenotypic and genotypic ratio are similar in incomplete dominance.

QUESTION: 161

What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?

Solution:

The most important trend in human evolution is increase in cranial capacity.

QUESTION: 162

If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary
RNA strand sequence?

Solution:

Sequence on RNA will be UAGAC

QUESTION: 163

Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution?

Solution:

Eye of octopus and mammals is an example of convergent evolution, whereas bones of forelimbs of vertebrates is an example of divergent evolution.

QUESTION: 164

A normal-visioned man whose father was colour-blind, marries a woman whose father was also
colour blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be
colour-blind?

Solution:

QUESTION: 165

Select the correct statement rega