In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows :
The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is It's velocity (in m/s) at point B is -
A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is -
Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward
force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the
block of mass 2m ? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)
Blocks are moving with constant speed so net force on each block will be zero.
Here F = ma a = 0
So F = 0
The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block
starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction
between the block and lower half of the plane is given by -
Gain of kinetic energy = loss of KE due to friction in lower half.
A uniform force of newton acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced from
position meter. The work done by the force on the particle is -
An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each
other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 ms–1 speed. If the third part files off with 4 ms–1 speed, then its mass is -
A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to
point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is -
A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initially velocity 'v'. It reaches upto a
maximum height of 3v2/4g with respect to the initial position. The object is -
A body of mass 'm' is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth.
The change in potential energy of body will be -
Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on x-axis at distances 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m, … ,
respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be -
The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied ?
The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on -
The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends on angle of contact between the surface and the liquid.
he molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv,
respectively. If γ= Cp/Cv and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to -
A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using -
We know Wien's displacement law
A gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C → A, as shown. What is the net work done by the gas ?
During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is -
In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2 ?
The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from T1 K to T2 K is -
A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1m, wavelength 2πm and
frequency of 1/π Hz is represented by -
y = a sin (ωt – kx)
y = a sin (kx – ωt)
It we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statement is not true -
When pipe is open at both ends then ratio of frequency
(i) ν : 2 ν : 3 ν : 4 ν : 5 ν
where ν= v/2L
odd and even both harmonics will present
So, option (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
∴ pressure variation is minimum at antinode
∴ (4) is wrong option.
A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz.
The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is -
Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the
equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The
equilibrium separation between the balls now become -
A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is -
Electric field is from high potential to low potential.
So, potential is maximum at B.
A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be -
The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2A through a resistance of 10Ω is -
The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be -
When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v0 it moves with an initial acceleration 3a0 toward west. The electric
and magnetic fields in the room are -
A current loop in a magnetic field -
θ = 0º stable equilibrium
θ = 180º unstable equilibrium
A bar magnet of length ‘l’ and magnetic dipole moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure.
The new magnetic dipole moment will be –
A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is -
A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb
decreases when -
The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most
efficiently is -
In the presence of microwave water molecules oscillates the frequency of microwave and large heat is
Ratio of longest wave lengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is -
The half-life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The
two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock
is estimated to be -
A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion
reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u is – (Given 1 u = 931 MeV)
For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is ν. If radiation of frequency 2ν impinges
on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass) -
The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by -
A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices μ1 and μ2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is -
For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40D and the least converging power of
the eye lens behind the cornea is 20D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the corneaeye lens can be estimated to be -
lens + cornea) should form image of distance object at retina
Converging power (40 + 20) D = 60 D
So distance between retina and cornea should be 1.67 cm.
In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two
wavelengths λ1 = 12000 Å and λ2 = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright
fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright
fringe from the other ?
At 6 mm distance from center bright fringe 5th fringe of first coincides with 6th of second
A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct ?
As speed of an electron increases.
Its de-Broglie wavelength decreases
and angular width for central maxima is ω = 2λ/d
In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true -
In n-type – Minority are hole and dopant are pentavalent
In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has transconductance
0.03 mho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one with transconductance
0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be -
The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be -
The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The speed of light is 3 × 1017 nm s–1. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 × 1015 s–1 ?
What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum
n = 3, l = 1 and m = –1.
What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20ºC to 35ºC ? (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing
hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be ?
A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has -
At 25º C molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1. The degree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is -
Based on equation certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not
As we move nearer to the nucleus e– are more strongly bonded.
A button cell used in watches functions as following
How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO3 ?
The concentrated acid is 70 % HNO3
but 70 % solution
70 g is used the wt. of solution is 100 g
31.5 g is used the wt. of solution is ?
The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is -
Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from :
NH3 is polar molecule
∴ intermolecular force of attraction are very high
∴ a is maximum and deviation is maximum.
A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm–3.
The molar mass of the metal is :
[NA Avogadro's constant = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1]
Dipole - induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :
Dipole - induced dipole interaction present in HCl & He atom. Because HCl molecule is polar and induces
dipole in He atom.
magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following -
Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is colorless gas with choking smell of burnt
sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is -
Roasting process carried out in reverberatory furnace. It is used for sulphide ore's to convert in metal oxide.
Which is the strongest acid in the following ?
According to relative acid base strength, HClO4 has maximum acidic strength
Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
Which of the following structure is similar to graphite ?
BN(Inorganic graphite) and graphite have hexagonal structure (sp2)
The basic structural unit of silicates is -
Basic unit of silicate is tetrahedral
Reaction by which Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared -
Zn-Hg/conc.HCl is Clemmenson reduction. It can be used for only.
Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating ?
Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic ? (At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)
Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium-
IA group elements sulphide are highly soluble, Zn+2 is IV group radical and Cu+2 is II group radical
∴ Na2S > ZnS > CuS
XeF2 is isostructural with-
An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetraaquachrominum (III) chloride.
The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be-
Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base ?
BF3 is electron deficient so act as Lewis acid.
KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the reaction : The reaction can go to completion by removing OH– ions by adding-
oxidizes HCl and SO2 to Cl2 and SO3 respectively
does not oxidizes H2CO3 (maximum oxidation state of C)
Which of the following is electron-deficient ?
CH3 – CH3, SiH3 – SiH3 and PH3 contain eight electron in valence shell. In B2H6 molecule sufficient
electron are not available for bonding and it contain tricentric bond. So B2H6 molecule is electron deficient.
Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid is-
3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methyl hex-3-en-5-ynoic acid
Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer ?
Linear chain silicone form by hydrolysis of Me2SiCl2 followed by condensation.
Cross link silicone form by hydrolysis of MeSiCl3.
Me3SiCl is used to stop chain length
Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect ?
Interstitial compound are chemically inert.
Which one of the following molecules contains no π bond ?
Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microrganisms. Identify which of the following
statements is not true-
A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant.
Chlorine and Iodine are used as strong disinfectants.
Dilute solution of boric acid is an antiseptic used to wash eyes and hydrogen peroxide is disinfectant.
Disinfectants harm the living tissues.
Hence, statement B is not true.
Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI ?
Nylon is an example of-
Nylon is polyamide
The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is-
Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80 – 100ºC forms which one of the following products?
Some meta - directing substitution in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating ?
–NO2 is strong deactivating group
6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is-
Which of the following is a polar molecule ?
Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the following ?
In the reaction
H3PO2 and H2O works as a reducing agent
The radical is aromatic because it has
Only benzene is considered in aromatic.
∴ 6p-orbitals (π-electrons) and 6 unpaired electrons are present
The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is-
Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft reaction easily-
–NO2 group is strong deactivating.
∴ It inhibits F.C.R.
Select the wrong statement :
In oomycetes sexual reproduction occur by Isogamy or Oogamy. In isogamy both the fusing gametes are similar in structure, while in oogamy in oomycetes male gamete and female gamete both are nonmotile and
female gamete is large while male gamete is small.
Which one of the following is not a correct statement ?
Museum is the collection of dead and preserved specimen of animals generally
Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:
In spirogyra isogamy occur by nonomotile gametes
Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of :
Coralloid root of cycas plant possess cyanobacteria
Megasporangium is equivalent to :
Ovule is megasporangium and have sporogenous cells which produce megaspore by meiosis
Read the following statements (A– E) and answer the question which follows them :
(A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living
(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogameous
(D) The sporophytes in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(E) Both, Pinus and Marchentia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct ?
Statement A, B and C are correct
Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean,
chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have hypogynous
Mustard, brinzal, chinarose, chili, petunia, tomato, withania, Potato, onion, aloe, tulip, lupin, sunnhemp,
gram and bean. Fifteen plant have hypogynous flower.
Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of :
Interfascicular cambium is developed from the cells of medullary ray
In china rose the flowers are :
Lenticels are involved in
Lenticels are involved in gaseous exchange of tree trunk and environment
Age of a tree can be estimated by :
Generally one annual ring is formed in one year due to secondary growth. Thus by counting annual ring, age
of tree can be determined
Seed coat is not thin membranous in :
Seed coat of legume (gram) is hard and thick due to presence of sclereids
Transition state structure of the substate formed during an enzymatic reaction is
Transition state is intermediate state produced during enzymatic biochemical reaction which is transition
state and unstable state
A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :
Fatty acid can be saturated or unsaturated. Here fatty acid are found esterified with glycerol which is attached
with phosphate group
Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are
In some photoautotrophic bacteria bacteriochlorophyll and bacteriophaeophytin or bacterioviridin pigments containing membraneous extensions called chromatophores are present. These are sites of bacterial photosynthesis.
A major site for synthesis of lipids is :
The site for lipid synthesis is SER
The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :
Homologous chromosome are paired and synapsed during zygotene stage of meiosis-I and known as bivalent
The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration.
Arrows represent net reactants or products
Arrows numbered 4, 8, and 12 can all be
Pathway-A is glycolysis
Pathway-B is Krebs cycle
Pathway-C is Electron transport system
1, 5 are respiratory substrates like protein and fats
6,7,3,9,10 are NADH2, FADH2
* 4, 8, 12 are ATP produced
The most abundant intracellular cation is :
K+ is most abundant ion of intracellular fluid while Na+ is extra cellular fluid
During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by :
Gibberellin have characteristic function breaking of seed dormancy by activating stored food hydrolyzing enzymes amylase, lipase, protease.
Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport ?
Facilitated transport means transport with help of carrier proteins which may be both uphill i.e. against the concentration gradient and down hill i.e. in order of concentration gradient which is also called as facilitated
diffusion or passive facilitated transport
The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is :
Product of fixation of N2 in leguminous plants by it's symbiotic associate Rhizobium bacteria, in root nodules
is NH3 (ammonia)
Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins ?
Pyruvic acid is intermediate compound which is produced during oxidation of all types of respiratory substrates carbohydrates, fats, proteins
* option (4) Acetyl CoA may also be answer but more appropriate is pyruvic acid as it formed directly by all these respiratory substrates
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Tapetum is innermost layer of anther provide nutrition to developing microspore / pollens
Product of sexual reproduction generally generates
Sexual reproduction leads to new genetic combination leading to variation as it involves mixing of gametes to two different parents which are produced (gametes) by meiosis
Meiosis takes place in :
Meiocyte are the cells in which meiosis occur
Advantage of cleistogamy is :
Cleistogamy means closed flower which are bisexual does not requires pollinator still have assured seed set.
Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :
Perisperm differs from endosperm in :
Perisperm is persistent nucellus within seeds. It is not common as nucellus is nutritive tissue provide
nutrition to embryosac. Nucellus is diploid tissue. In Beet, Piper it is persists within seed so it is diploid (2n)
while endosperm is a triploid (3n) tissue
Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency ?
If gene are present on same chromosome and tightly linked they show very few recombinant so they show
50% recombinant is wrong statement.
Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is
referred to as :
If gene migration due to gene flow happens multiple times this variation in gene frequency change occurs by
chance is genetic drift.
If two persons with 'AB' blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children
could be classified as 'A' blood group : 'AB' blood group : 'B' blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique
of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both 'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group individuals.
This is an example of :
IA and IB present together they both express their own type of sugar on the surface of RBC is codominance
The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in
response to a common environmental challenge is called :
Due to common environmental changes different animals develop similar looking feature. This phenomenon
is known as convergent evolution.
The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :
Gene frequency remain stable or constant from generation to generation in a random mating population is Hardy weinberg principle if population lack random mating than
Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers ?
Bt cotton is commonly grown Bt crop of India
good product of citric acid is :
Aspergilus niger is used in formation of citric acid
DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :
DNA fragment generated by restriction endonuclease is separated by Gel-electrophoresis.
Which of the following is not corretly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme ?
Methylase enzyme is used for methylation.
The colonies of recombinat bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria
because of :
If insertion inactivation of α-galactosidase or z-gene of lac-operon in plasmid of E.Coli take place then it will
not produce α-galactosidase or lactase enzyme (this enzyme convert x-gel chromogen into blue colour) due
to lack of this enzyme this reaction does not take place so recombinant bacteria appears white in contrast to
Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water ?
In deep sea water no light is reach the archaebacteria like sulphur bacteria methanomonas are present and
their nutritional category is chemoautotrophs or chemosynthetic bacteria.
Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :
Phosphorous cycle is sedimentary cycle whose reservoir lies in Rocks and Sediments
Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by :
Secondary productivity is biomass assimilated by consumers.
Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?
Shifting cultivation or Jhum cultivation is a kind of deforestation not conservation.
Kyoto-Protocol was endorsed at :
Kyoto protocol was endorsed at CoP-3
CoP – Confrence of Parties occurs before and after the endorsement of kyoto protocol.
CoP-1 : held at Berlin (Germany) also known as Berlin mendeate in 1995.
CoP-2 : held at Geneva (Switzerland) also known as Ministerial Declaration.
Cop-3 : held at kyoto, (Japan) in 1997 endorsed kyoto protocol
Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity ?
Fungi has highest species diversity among all plant groups
Match the name of the animal (Column I), with one characteristics (Column II), and the phylum/class
(column III) to which it belongs :
Petromyzone is a vertebrate belonging to cyclostomata (cyclo = Rounded, Stoma = mouth) They remain as
an ectoparasite on merine fishes & turtles.
Which of the following are correctly matched with respect of their taxonomic classification ?
House fly, butterfly, tsetse fly, silverfish, all are Insects
Which group of animals belong to the same phylum ?
Prawn, Scorpion & Locusta all belong to phylum Arthropoda
One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is :
Silverfish (Book-worm) belongs is phylum arthropoda
The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to -
The edges of thin filament (Actin) on either side of thick filaments (myosin) partially overlap the free ends of
the thick filaments (myosin) leaving the centralpart of thick filament (myosin). This central part of thick
filament (myosin),not overlapped by thin filaments (Actin) is called the 'H'-zone.
What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph ?
The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only adult cockroaches have wings.
The Golgi complex plays a major role :
Golgi complex is involved in glycosidation of protein and lipid and formation of glycolipid and glycoprotein
Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function ?
Given figure is RER, which is involved in protein synthesis
Macro molecule chitin is :
Chitin is polymer of N-acetyl galactosamine (NAGA) so it is Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are :
Coenzymes are loosely attached organic parts of conjugated enzymes which are generally derivatives of
A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the
stage with its characteristics.
Given figure is telophase stage in which nuclear envelope and golgi complex is reformed
Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in colum I with their absorption site and
mechanism in column II.
Various nutrients like amino acids, glucose, electrolytes like Na+ are absorbed into the blood by Active
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence
quotient and abnormal skin.
This is the result of :
Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation of the growing baby leading
to stunted growth, mental retardation low intelligence quotient abnormal skin.
The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the
option which gives correct identification and main function and / or characteristic.
Alveoli in lungs are thin walled air sacs where gaseous exchange takes place
Figure shows schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give
Vena Cava takes blood from to body parts to right auricle. Partial pressure of CO2 is 45 mmHg Hg under
which CO2 is taken form tissues.
The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the :
P wave in an ECG shows contraction of both the atria
Figure shows human urinary system with structures labeled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies
them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.
In the given answer function of adrenal gland is correctly given that it releases adrenaline & nor adrenaline
(collectively known as catecholamine) that stimulates glycogen breakdown during emergencies.
Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans :
Gouty arthritis is cansed by excessive formation of uric acid. It gets deposited in joints as monosodium salts.
The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is :
In between two bones a space is found called synovial space or cavity this space provides free movement to the bone.
A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.
In this diagramatic question 'A' label is correct which represent receptor of neurotrans mitter and C lable
represent synaptic vesicle
Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct
identification along with its functions/characteristics :
In this diagramatic question 'A' label is correct with its function / Character because of Retina contain
photosensory receptor – rod and cones
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system
Hormones are non-nutritional chemical substances which produced by body / glands in tracess
Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its
function/deficiency symptom :
Thyroid gland synthesis thyroxine with the help of iodine and lack of iodine in diet results in goitre
What is the correct sequence of sperm formation ?
The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid & spermatozoa
Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :
Fall in the level of progesterone results in meustrual flow due to breaking of the blood vessels of uterine wall
Which one of the following is not the function of placenta ? it :
Oxytocin is released from the neurohypophysis of pituitary gland at the time of child birth
One of the legal methods of birth control is :
MTP can be non surgically performed on prescription of mifepristone+Prostaglandins on the prescription of
registered medical practitioner under his supervision.
This is legal method of termination of pregnancy.
Duration of menstrual cycle in all female is not fixed hence ovulation can occur anytime between 8 to 19th
day hence this method of abstinence is not practically possible for birth control.
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
Jaundice cant be detected by amniocentesis
Artificial insemination means :
Artificial insemination means artificially introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents ?
In co-dominance, the resulting progeny inherits the characters of both the parents because neither of the alleles is recessive and both the alleles express their phenotype in the heterozygous condition. Eg: A cross between red flowers and white flowers of Camellia will result in flowers which have both red and white flecks. Law of dominance holds true when the other allele is recessive and the heterozygous F1 generation resembles only dominant parent. So the correct solution is option B.
The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :
Haemophilia is sex linked recessive disease
If both parents are carriers for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of
pregnancy resulting in an affected child ?
Thalessemia is autosomal recessive disease if both parent are carrier then their genotype will be