AIPMT 2013 Solved Question Paper


180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series 2020 & Past Year Papers | AIPMT 2013 Solved Question Paper


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This mock test of AIPMT 2013 Solved Question Paper for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET AIPMT 2013 Solved Question Paper (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this AIPMT 2013 Solved Question Paper quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this AIPMT 2013 Solved Question Paper exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other AIPMT 2013 Solved Question Paper extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows : 

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is It's velocity (in m/s) at point B is -

 

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward
force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the
block of mass 2m ? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

Solution:

Blocks are moving with constant speed so net force on each block will be zero.
Here F = ma              a = 0
So F = 0

QUESTION: 5

The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block
starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction
between the block and lower half of the plane is given by -

Solution:

Gain of kinetic energy = loss of KE due to friction in lower half.

QUESTION: 6

A uniform force of  newton acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced from
position   meter. The work done by the force on the particle is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each
other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 ms–1 speed. If the third part files off with 4 ms–1 speed, then its mass is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to
point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initially velocity 'v'. It reaches upto a
maximum height of 3v2/4g with respect to the initial position. The object is - 

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

A body of mass 'm' is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth.
The change in potential energy of body will be -

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on x-axis at distances 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m, … ,
respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be -

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on -

Solution:

The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends on angle of contact between the surface and the liquid.

QUESTION: 14

he molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv,
respectively. If γ= Cp/Cand R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to -

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using -

Solution:

We know Wien's displacement law  

QUESTION: 16

A gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C → A, as shown. What is the net work done by the gas ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cfor the gas is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2 ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from T1 K to T2 K is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1m, wavelength 2πm and
frequency of 1/π Hz is represented by -

Solution:

y = a sin (ωt – kx)
OR
y = a sin (kx – ωt)

QUESTION: 21

It we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statement is not true -

Solution:

When pipe is open at both ends then ratio of frequency
(i) ν : 2 ν : 3 ν : 4 ν : 5 ν
where ν= v/2L

odd and even both harmonics will present
So, option (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
∴ pressure variation is minimum at antinode
∴ (4) is wrong option.

QUESTION: 22

A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz.
The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the
equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The
equilibrium separation between the balls now become -

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is -

Solution:

Electric field is from high potential to low potential.
So, potential is maximum at B.

QUESTION: 25

A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be -

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2A through a resistance of 10Ω is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be -

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v0 it moves with an initial acceleration 3a0 toward west. The electric
and magnetic fields in the room are -

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

A current loop in a magnetic field -

Solution:

θ = 0º stable equilibrium
θ = 180º unstable equilibrium

QUESTION: 30

A bar magnet of length ‘l’ and magnetic dipole moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure.
The new magnetic dipole moment will be –

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb
decreases when -

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most
efficiently is -

Solution:

In the presence of microwave water molecules oscillates the frequency of microwave and large heat is
developed.

QUESTION: 34

Ratio of longest wave lengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

The half-life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The
two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock
is estimated to be -

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion
reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u is – (Given 1 u = 931 MeV)

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is ν. If radiation of frequency 2ν impinges
on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass) -

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by -

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices μ1 and μ2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40D and the least converging power of
the eye lens behind the cornea is 20D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the corneaeye lens can be estimated to be -

Solution:

lens + cornea) should form image of distance object at retina
Converging power (40 + 20) D = 60 D

So distance between retina and cornea should be 1.67 cm.

QUESTION: 41

In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two
wavelengths λ1 = 12000 Å and λ2 = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright
fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright
fringe from the other ?

Solution:

At 6 mm distance from center bright fringe 5th fringe of first coincides with 6th of second

QUESTION: 42

A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct ?

Solution:

As speed of an electron increases.
Its de-Broglie wavelength decreases

and angular width for central maxima is ω = 2λ/d

QUESTION: 43

In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true -

Solution:

In n-type – Minority are hole and dopant are pentavalent

QUESTION: 44

In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has transconductance
0.03 mho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one with transconductance
0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be -

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be -

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The speed of light is 3 × 1017 nm s–1. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 × 1015 s–1 ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum
numbers ?

n = 3, l = 1 and m = –1.

Solution:

QUESTION: 48

What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20ºC to 35ºC ? (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing
hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has -

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

At 25º C molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 ohm–1 cm mol–1  and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1. The degree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

Based on equation  certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not
correct ?

Solution:

As we move nearer to the nucleus e are more strongly bonded.

QUESTION: 53

A button cell used in watches functions as following

Solution:

QUESTION: 54

How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO3 ?
The concentrated acid is 70 % HNO3

Solution:

but 70 % solution
70 g is used the wt. of solution is 100 g
31.5 g is used the wt. of solution is ?

QUESTION: 55

The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from :

Solution:

NH3 is polar molecule
∴ intermolecular force of attraction are very high
∴ a is maximum and deviation is maximum.

QUESTION: 57

A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm–3.
The molar mass of the metal is :

[NA Avogadro's constant = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1]

Solution:

QUESTION: 58

Dipole - induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :

Solution:

Dipole - induced dipole interaction present in HCl & He atom. Because HCl molecule is polar and induces
dipole in He atom.

QUESTION: 59

magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following -

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is colorless gas with choking smell of burnt
sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is -

Solution:

Roasting process carried out in reverberatory furnace. It is used for sulphide ore's to convert in metal oxide.

QUESTION: 61

Which is the strongest acid in the following ?

Solution:

According to relative acid base strength, HClO4 has maximum acidic strength

QUESTION: 62

Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Which of the following structure is similar to graphite ?

Solution:

BN(Inorganic graphite) and graphite have hexagonal structure (sp2)

QUESTION: 64

The basic structural unit of silicates is -

Solution:

Basic unit of silicate is tetrahedral  

QUESTION: 65

Reaction by which Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared - 

Solution:

Zn-Hg/conc.HCl is Clemmenson reduction. It can be used for  only.

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic ? (At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium-

Solution:

IA group elements sulphide are highly soluble, Zn+2 is IV group radical and Cu+2 is II group radical

∴ Na2S > ZnS > CuS

QUESTION: 69

XeF2 is isostructural with-

Solution:

QUESTION: 70

An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetraaquachrominum (III) chloride.
The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be-

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base ?

Solution:

BF3 is electron deficient so act as Lewis acid.

QUESTION: 72

KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the reaction :  The reaction can go to completion by removing OH ions by adding-

Solution:

 oxidizes HCl and SO2 to Cl2 and SO3 respectively

 does not oxidizes H2CO3 (maximum oxidation state of C)

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following is electron-deficient ?

Solution:

CH3 – CH3, SiH3 – SiH3 and PH3 contain eight electron in valence shell. In B2H6 molecule sufficient
electron are not available for bonding and it contain tricentric bond. So B2H6 molecule is electron deficient.

QUESTION: 74

Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid is-

Solution:

3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methyl hex-3-en-5-ynoic acid

QUESTION: 75

Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer ?

Solution:

Linear chain silicone form by hydrolysis of Me2SiCl2 followed by condensation.
Cross link silicone form by hydrolysis of MeSiCl3.
Me3SiCl is used to stop chain length

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect ?

Solution:

Interstitial compound are chemically inert.

QUESTION: 77

Which one of the following molecules contains no π bond ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microrganisms. Identify which of the following
statements is not true-

Solution:

Chlorine is disinfectants but Iodine is antiseptics

QUESTION: 79

Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

Nylon is an example of-

Solution:

Nylon is polyamide

QUESTION: 81

The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80 – 100ºC forms which one of the following products?

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Some meta - directing substitution in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating ?

Solution:

 –NO2 is strong deactivating group

QUESTION: 84

6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following is a polar molecule ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 86

Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the following ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

In the reaction 

Solution:

H3PO2 and H2O works as a reducing agent

QUESTION: 88

The radical  is aromatic because it has

Solution:

Only benzene is considered in aromatic.
∴ 6p-orbitals (π-electrons) and 6 unpaired electrons are present

QUESTION: 89

The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft reaction easily-

Solution:

–NO2 group is strong deactivating.
∴ It inhibits F.C.R.

QUESTION: 91

Select the wrong statement :

Solution:

In oomycetes sexual reproduction occur by Isogamy or Oogamy. In isogamy both the fusing gametes are similar in structure, while in oogamy in oomycetes male gamete and female gamete both are nonmotile and
female gamete is large while male gamete is small.

QUESTION: 92

Which one of the following is not a correct statement ?

Solution:

Museum is the collection of dead and preserved specimen of animals generally

QUESTION: 93

Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:

Solution:

In spirogyra isogamy occur by nonomotile gametes

QUESTION: 94

Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of :

Solution:

Coralloid root of cycas plant possess cyanobacteria

QUESTION: 95

Megasporangium is equivalent to :

Solution:

Ovule is megasporangium and have sporogenous cells which produce megaspore by meiosis

QUESTION: 96

Read the following statements (A– E) and answer the question which follows them :
(A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living
(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogameous
(D) The sporophytes in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(E) Both, Pinus and Marchentia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct ?

Solution:

Statement A, B and C are correct

QUESTION: 97

Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean,
chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have hypogynous
flower ?

Solution:

Mustard, brinzal, chinarose, chili, petunia, tomato, withania, Potato, onion, aloe, tulip, lupin, sunnhemp,
gram and bean. Fifteen plant have hypogynous flower.

QUESTION: 98

Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of :

Solution:

Interfascicular cambium is developed from the cells of medullary ray

QUESTION: 99

In china rose the flowers are :

Solution:

Malvaceae family

QUESTION: 100

Lenticels are involved in

Solution:

Lenticels are involved in gaseous exchange of tree trunk and environment

QUESTION: 101

Age of a tree can be estimated by :

Solution:

Generally one annual ring is formed in one year due to secondary growth. Thus by counting annual ring, age
of tree can be determined

QUESTION: 102

Seed coat is not thin membranous in :

Solution:

Seed coat of legume (gram) is hard and thick due to presence of sclereids

QUESTION: 103

Transition state structure of the substate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

Solution:

Transition state is intermediate state produced during enzymatic biochemical reaction which is transition
state and unstable state

QUESTION: 104

A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :

Solution:

Fatty acid can be saturated or unsaturated. Here fatty acid are found esterified with glycerol which is attached
with phosphate group

Ex. Lecithin

 

QUESTION: 105

Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are

Solution:

In some photoautotrophic bacteria bacteriochlorophyll and bacteriophaeophytin or bacterioviridin pigments containing membraneous extensions called chromatophores are present. These are sites of bacterial photosynthesis.

QUESTION: 106

A major site for synthesis of lipids is :

Solution:

The site for lipid synthesis is SER

QUESTION: 107

The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :

Solution:

Homologous chromosome are paired and synapsed during zygotene stage of meiosis-I and known as bivalent

QUESTION: 108

The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration.
Arrows represent net reactants or products

Arrows numbered 4, 8, and 12 can all be

Solution:

Pathway-A is glycolysis
Pathway-B is Krebs cycle
Pathway-C is Electron transport system
1, 5 are respiratory substrates like protein and fats
6,7,3,9,10 are NADH2, FADH2
* 4, 8, 12 are ATP produced

QUESTION: 109

The most abundant intracellular cation is :

Solution:

K+ is most abundant ion of intracellular fluid while Na+ is extra cellular fluid

QUESTION: 110

During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by :

Solution:

Gibberellin have characteristic function breaking of seed dormancy by activating stored food hydrolyzing enzymes amylase, lipase, protease.

QUESTION: 111

Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport ?

Solution:

Facilitated transport means transport with help of carrier proteins which may be both uphill i.e. against the concentration gradient and down hill i.e. in order of concentration gradient which is also called as facilitated
diffusion or passive facilitated transport

QUESTION: 112

The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is :

Solution:

Product of fixation of N2 in leguminous plants by it's symbiotic associate Rhizobium bacteria, in root nodules
is NH3 (ammonia)

QUESTION: 113

Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins ?

Solution:

Pyruvic acid is intermediate compound which is produced during oxidation of all types of respiratory substrates carbohydrates, fats, proteins

* option (4) Acetyl CoA may also be answer but more appropriate is pyruvic acid as it formed directly by all these respiratory substrates

QUESTION: 114

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Solution:

Tapetum is innermost layer of anther provide nutrition to developing microspore / pollens

QUESTION: 115

Product of sexual reproduction generally generates

Solution:

Sexual reproduction leads to new genetic combination leading to variation as it involves mixing of gametes to two different parents which are produced (gametes) by meiosis

QUESTION: 116

Meiosis takes place in :

Solution:

Meiocyte are the cells in which meiosis occur

QUESTION: 117

Advantage of cleistogamy is :

Solution:

Cleistogamy means closed flower which are bisexual does not requires pollinator still have assured seed set.

QUESTION: 118

Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :

Solution:

QUESTION: 119

Perisperm differs from endosperm in :

Solution:

Perisperm is persistent nucellus within seeds. It is not common as nucellus is nutritive tissue provide
nutrition to embryosac. Nucellus is diploid tissue. In Beet, Piper it is persists within seed so it is diploid (2n)
while endosperm is a triploid (3n) tissue

QUESTION: 120

Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency ?

Solution:

If gene are present on same chromosome and tightly linked they show very few recombinant so they show
50% recombinant is wrong statement.

QUESTION: 121

Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is
referred to as :

Solution:

If gene migration due to gene flow happens multiple times this variation in gene frequency change occurs by
chance is genetic drift.

QUESTION: 122

If two persons with 'AB' blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children
could be classified as 'A' blood group : 'AB' blood group : 'B' blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique
of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both 'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group individuals.
This is an example of :

Solution:

IA and IB present together they both express their own type of sugar on the surface of RBC is codominance

QUESTION: 123

The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in
response to a common environmental challenge is called :

Solution:

Due to common environmental changes different animals develop similar looking feature. This phenomenon
is known as convergent evolution.

QUESTION: 124

The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :

Solution:

Gene frequency remain stable or constant from generation to generation in a random mating population is Hardy weinberg principle if population lack random mating than

QUESTION: 125

Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers ?

Solution:

Bt cotton is commonly grown Bt crop of India

QUESTION: 126

good product of citric acid is :

Solution:

Aspergilus niger is used in formation of citric acid

QUESTION: 127

DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :

Solution:

DNA fragment generated by restriction endonuclease is separated by Gel-electrophoresis.

QUESTION: 128

Which of the following is not corretly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme ?

Solution:

Methylase enzyme is used for methylation.

QUESTION: 129

The colonies of recombinat bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria
because of :

Solution:

If insertion inactivation of α-galactosidase or z-gene of lac-operon in plasmid of E.Coli take place then it will
not produce α-galactosidase or lactase enzyme (this enzyme convert x-gel chromogen into blue colour) due
to lack of this enzyme this reaction does not take place so recombinant bacteria appears white in contrast to
blue colonies.

QUESTION: 130

Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water ?

Solution:

In deep sea water no light is reach the archaebacteria like sulphur bacteria methanomonas are present and
their nutritional category is chemoautotrophs or chemosynthetic bacteria.

QUESTION: 131

Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :

Solution:

Phosphorous cycle is sedimentary cycle whose reservoir lies in Rocks and Sediments

QUESTION: 132

Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by :

Solution:

Secondary productivity is biomass assimilated by consumers.

QUESTION: 133

Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?

Solution:

Shifting cultivation or Jhum cultivation is a kind of deforestation not conservation.

QUESTION: 134

Kyoto-Protocol was endorsed at :

Solution:

Kyoto protocol was endorsed at CoP-3
CoP – Confrence of Parties occurs before and after the endorsement of kyoto protocol.
CoP-1 : held at Berlin (Germany) also known as Berlin mendeate in 1995.
CoP-2 : held at Geneva (Switzerland) also known as Ministerial Declaration.
Cop-3 : held at kyoto, (Japan) in 1997 endorsed kyoto protocol

QUESTION: 135

Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity ?

Solution:

Fungi has highest species diversity among all plant groups

QUESTION: 136

Match the name of the animal (Column I), with one characteristics (Column II), and the phylum/class
(column III) to which it belongs :

Solution:

Petromyzone is a vertebrate belonging to cyclostomata (cyclo = Rounded, Stoma = mouth) They remain as
an ectoparasite on merine fishes & turtles.

QUESTION: 137

Which of the following are correctly matched with respect of their taxonomic classification ?

Solution:

House fly, butterfly, tsetse fly, silverfish, all are Insects

QUESTION: 138

Which group of animals belong to the same phylum ?

Solution:

Prawn, Scorpion & Locusta all belong to phylum Arthropoda

QUESTION: 139

One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is :

Solution:

Silverfish (Book-worm) belongs is phylum arthropoda

QUESTION: 140

The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to -

Solution:

The edges of thin filament (Actin) on either side of thick filaments (myosin) partially overlap the free ends of
the thick filaments (myosin) leaving the centralpart of thick filament (myosin). This central part of thick
filament (myosin),not overlapped by thin filaments (Actin) is called the 'H'-zone.

QUESTION: 141

What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph ?

Solution:

The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only adult cockroaches have wings.

QUESTION: 142

The Golgi complex plays a major role :

Solution:

Golgi complex is involved in glycosidation of protein and lipid and formation of glycolipid and glycoprotein

QUESTION: 143

Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function ?

Solution:

Given figure is RER, which is involved in protein synthesis

QUESTION: 144

Macro molecule chitin is :

Solution:

Chitin is polymer of N-acetyl galactosamine (NAGA) so it is Nitrogen containing polysaccharide

QUESTION: 145

The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are :

Solution:

Coenzymes are loosely attached organic parts of conjugated enzymes which are generally derivatives of
vitamins.

QUESTION: 146

A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the
stage with its characteristics.

Solution:

Given figure is telophase stage in which nuclear envelope and golgi complex is reformed

QUESTION: 147

Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in colum I with their absorption site and
mechanism in column II.

Solution:

Various nutrients like amino acids, glucose, electrolytes like Na+ are absorbed into the blood by Active
transport.

QUESTION: 148

A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence
quotient and abnormal skin.
This is the result of :

Solution:

Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation of the growing baby leading
to stunted growth, mental retardation low intelligence quotient abnormal skin.

QUESTION: 149

The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the
option which gives correct identification and main function and / or characteristic.

Solution:

Alveoli in lungs are thin walled air sacs where gaseous exchange takes place

QUESTION: 150

Figure shows schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give
its function/s.

Solution:

Vena Cava takes blood from to body parts to right auricle. Partial pressure of CO2 is 45 mmHg Hg under
which CO2 is taken form tissues.

QUESTION: 151

The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the :

Solution:

P wave in an ECG shows contraction of both the atria

QUESTION: 152

Figure shows human urinary system with structures labeled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies
them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.

Solution:

In the given answer function of adrenal gland is correctly given that it releases adrenaline & nor adrenaline
(collectively known as catecholamine) that stimulates glycogen breakdown during emergencies.

QUESTION: 153

Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans :

Solution:

Gouty arthritis is cansed by excessive formation of uric acid. It gets deposited in joints as monosodium salts.

QUESTION: 154

The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is :

Solution:

In between two bones a space is found called synovial space or cavity this space provides free movement to the bone.

QUESTION: 155

A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.

Solution:

In this diagramatic question 'A' label is correct which represent receptor of neurotrans mitter and C lable
represent synaptic vesicle

QUESTION: 156

Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct
identification along with its functions/characteristics :

Solution:

In this diagramatic question 'A' label is correct with its function / Character because of Retina contain
photosensory receptor – rod and cones

QUESTION: 157

Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system

Solution:

Hormones are non-nutritional chemical substances which produced by body / glands in tracess

QUESTION: 158

Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its
function/deficiency symptom :

Solution:

Thyroid gland synthesis thyroxine with the help of iodine and lack of iodine in diet results in goitre

QUESTION: 159

What is the correct sequence of sperm formation ?

Solution:

The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid & spermatozoa

QUESTION: 160

Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :

Solution:

Fall in the level of progesterone results in meustrual flow due to breaking of the blood vessels of uterine wall

QUESTION: 161

Which one of the following is not the function of placenta ? it :

Solution:

Oxytocin is released from the neurohypophysis of pituitary gland at the time of child birth

QUESTION: 162

One of the legal methods of birth control is :

Solution:

MTP can be non surgically performed on prescription of mifepristone+Prostaglandins on the prescription of
registered medical practitioner under his supervision.
This is legal method of termination of pregnancy.
Duration of menstrual cycle in all female is not fixed hence ovulation can occur anytime between 8 to 19th
day hence this method of abstinence is not practically possible for birth control.

QUESTION: 163

Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

Solution:

Jaundice cant be detected by amniocentesis

QUESTION: 164

Artificial insemination means :

Solution:

Artificial insemination means artificially introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

QUESTION: 165

Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents ?

Solution:

This is codominace but question is concern with mendel idea so it depicted with mendel idea of law of
dominance.

QUESTION: 166

The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :

Solution:

Haemophilia is sex linked recessive disease

QUESTION: 167

If both parents are carriers for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of
pregnancy resulting in an affected child ?

Solution:

Thalessemia is autosomal recessive disease if both parent are carrier then their genotype will be

QUESTION: 168

The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

Solution:

This is central dogma in molecular biology proposed by Francis CrickThis is central dogma in molecular biology proposed by Francis Crick

QUESTION: 169

Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense mutation in the lac Y gene ?

Solution:

Non sense mutation is point mutation which result in premature stop codon so transcription stop there.

 

QUESTION: 170

According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to -

Solution:

According to Darwinism competition between two different species is the key factor for organic evolution Since it results in divergent evolution.

QUESTION: 171

The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function, This
is an example of :

Solution:

Eye of octopus & cat are analogous organs since they are different in structure but perform same function

QUESTION: 172

Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :

Solution:

Contaminated water and soil (with eggs of Ascaris) is the source of infection with Ascasis

QUESTION: 173

The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by :

Solution:

T-Lymphocytes mddiate C.M.I (cell-mediated immunity.)

QUESTION: 174

In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all
genes in a given crop is called :

Solution:

Entire collection of plants / seeds having all diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called as germplasm collection

QUESTION: 175

During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :

Solution:

During sewage treatment in secondary treatment the biogas is produced in anaerotric sludge digestor have anaerobic bacteria which produce gases like CO2, H2S, CH4

QUESTION: 176

A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn, He found that the average natality was 250, average
mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :

Solution:

Natality = 250, Immigration = 20
Mortality = 240, Emigration = 30
Increase in Popolution size
P.D = [(Natality + Immigration) – (Mortality + Emigration)]
= [(250 + 20) – (240 + 30)]
= 0

QUESTION: 177

Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described ?

Solution:

Fragmentation is break down of detritous into small fragments by detrivores like earthworm

QUESTION: 178

A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :

Solution:

The association between sea anemone and hermit crab is symbiosis as both live together for very long duration

QUESTION: 179

Global warming can be controlled by :

Solution:

Global warming can be controlled by reducing the concentration of green house gases which can be achived by decreasing deforestation and reducing the use of fossil fuels

QUESTION: 180

The Air Prevention and control of pollution Act came into force in :

Solution:

Air prevention and control of pollution act came into existence in 1981

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