Biology Mock Test


90 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers | Biology Mock Test


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This mock test of Biology Mock Test for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 90 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET Biology Mock Test (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Biology Mock Test quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this Biology Mock Test exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Biology Mock Test extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animal is equivalent to which hierarchical level in classification of plants

Solution:

Classes comprising animals like fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds along with mammals constitute the next higher category called Phylum. All these classes are included in the phylum chordata. In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called Division.

QUESTION: 2

All living organisms are linked to one another because 

Solution:

All living organisms share common genetic material, i.e., DNA but with variations, e.g., bacteria have single stranded circular DNA while in highly evolved eukaryotic cells of plants and animals, DNA is a long double stranded helix.  

QUESTION: 3

Viruses are non-cellular organisms but replicate themselves once they infect the host cell. To which of the following kingdom do viruses belong to ?

Solution:

Viruses did not find a place in classification since they are not truly ‘living’ if we understand living as those organisms that have a cell structure. Viruses are neither prokaryotes nor eukaryotes. They are inert outside their specific host cell and cannot multiply of their own because they lack cellular machinery to use its genetic material. Viruses can only multiply in host or living cell.

QUESTION: 4

Members of Phycomycetes are found in

(i)   Aquatic habitats                                             
(ii)   On decaying wood
(iii)  Moist and damp places                                 
(iv)   As obligate parasites on plants

Choose from the following options.

Solution:

Phycomycetes are the members of fungi that can thrive well on dead and decaying wood as saprophytes. These prefer to live in moist and damp places and need water for the  movement of zoospore and sexual gametes and Few members of phycomycetes are obligate parasites like Phytophthora. So option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 5

A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never Produces fruits and Seeds. The most probable cause for the above situation is

Solution:

Fruits can develop from a single ovary of a single flower (simple fruit) or from several free carpels of a single flower (aggregate) or from whole inflorescence (multiple). In total, fruits develop from ovaries. This is why a dioecious plant (unisexual) bearing only staminate(male) flowers will not produce fruits, whereas monoecious plants (bisexual) or dioecious plant bearing only pistillate (female) flowers or pistillate and staminate both can bear fruits.

QUESTION: 6

The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively

Solution:

A typical microsporangium is generally surrounded by four-wall layers, i.e., the epidermis, (outermost protective layer),endothecia, (middle fibrous layers) and the tapetum (innermost nutritive layer). 

QUESTION: 7

Starting from the innermost part, the CORRECT sequence of parts in an ovule are

Solution:

The correct sequence of parts in an ovule are
Egg - embryo sac - nucellus - integument
(Inner)                                        (Outer)

QUESTION: 8

Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if

Solution:

Autogamy is pollination within a flower. Chasmogamous flowers are those in which anthers and stigma are exposed. For autogamy, in such a flower to take place, pollen and ovule should mature simultaneously and anther and stigma should lie close to each other.

QUESTION: 9

A particular species of plant produces light, non sticky pollen in large numbers and its stigma are long and feathery. These modifications facilitate pollination by

Solution:

Pollination by wind is called anemophily. Anemophilous flowers are small, in conspicuous non-scented without bright colours, nectar and fragrance. Wind pollination also requires that the pollen grains are light and non-sticky which is in large numbers and its stigmas are long and feathery.

QUESTION: 10

From among the situations given below, choose the one that Prevents autogamy and geitonogamy

Solution:

Autogamy (same flower); geitonogamy (different flowers of same plants; xenogamy (different plant’s flower).
Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

QUESTION: 11

All genes located on the same chromosome

Solution:

All the genes located on the same chromosome form one linkage group. A linkage group can be defined as all the genes on a single chromosome that move as a unit during the cell division. These genes do not tend to separate, until the crossing-over and if the distance between them is very less, they will not undergo the crossing-over. For examples, human beings have 23 linkage groups due to 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Form one linkage group'

QUESTION: 12

Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows

Solution:

Linkage is the phenomenon of physical association of genes on a chromosome and recombination is the generation of non-parental gene combinations. Strength of the linkage between two genes is inversely proportional to the, distance between the two, i.e., two linked genes show higher frequency of crossing over (recombination) if the distance between them is higher and lower frequency if the distance is small. But distance between gene has a direct relationship with percentage of recombination because with increase in distance between genes percentage of recombination increases.

So, the correct answer is 'A direct relationship'.

QUESTION: 13

Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of

Solution:

Both genes are equally expressed hence its codominance

QUESTION: 14

Across between two tall Plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. What would be the genotypes of both the parents?

Solution:

Tt and Tt let's use Mendel's cross of tall and dwarf pea plants as an example. The  plants of genotype Tt are self-pollinated.(both tall (T) but with dwarf (t) alleles).  
The letters T and t are used to represent the alleles of the gene that determine plant height by conventions. The upper case letter (T) represents the dominant allele and the recessive allele (t) is represented by the same letter in lower case. Thus, the tall parents plants having heterozygous alleles, results in off springs which comprises of both tall and dwarf plants. For the parental cross, both the parents are true breeding plants, the tall plant is homozygous for the tall allele T, while the dwarf plant is homozygous for the dwarf allele 't'. Mendel tracked each trait through two generations. When true breeding plants were crossed to each other, this is called a parental cross and offspring comprise the first filial or F1 - generation. When the members of the F1 - generation were crossed, this produced the F2-generation or second filial generation. A cross between true breeding tall and dwarf plants of the parent generation yield phenotypically tall plants. The cross between TT and Tt is called back cross, which results into two homozygous and two heterozygous dominant gametes. The cross between Tt and tt is called testcross which results into 1:1 ratio of gametes.

QUESTION: 15

In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio it denotes that

Solution:

Cross involving two contrasting characters is called dihybrid cross. The two flowers of each trait assort at random and independent of their traits at the time of meiosis (gametogenesis) and get randomly as well as independently rearranged in the offspring producing both parental and new combinations of traits. This explained the law of independent assortment given by Mendel.

So the correct option is "The alleles of two genes are segregating independently."

QUESTION: 16

Mendel’s law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the

Solution:

Mendal's Law of independent assortment tells us that the pairs of the alleles gets separated when the gametes are being formed that means the traits or characters that are being transferred to the offspring are independent.

Now the non homologous chromosomes are different from each other completely and they not take part in crossing-over.

QUESTION: 17

Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called

Solution:

Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one trait. This phenomenon is called pleiotropy. Sometimes, one trait will be very evident and others will be less evident, e.g., a gene for white eye in Drosophila also affect the shape of organs in male responsible for sperm storage as well as other structures.Similarly, sickle-cell anaemic individuals suffer from a number of problems, all of which are pleiotropic effects of the sickle-cell alleles. Multiple allelism is a series of three or more alternative or allelic forms of a gene, only two of which can exist in any normal diploid individual, e.g., genes of blood groups in humans. Mosaicism describes the occurrence of cells that differ in their genetic component from other cells of the body. Polygeny refers to a single characteristic that is controlled by more than two genes.(it is also known as multifactorial inheritance). 

QUESTION: 18

In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of Phenotypes and genotypes are

Solution:

In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are 4, 9 respectively.  

QUESTION: 19

In a DNA Strand the nucleotides are linked together by

Solution:

Two nucleotides are linked through 3 → 5 phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. More nucleotides are joined in a similar manner to form a polynucleotide chain.

QUESTION: 20

Both deoxyribose and Ribose belong to a class of sugars called

Solution:

Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a pentoses class of sugars.

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?

Solution:

Sick / cell anaemia: It is a molecular disease, autosomal recessive disorder and an example of pleiotropy. It cannot be treated with iron supplements and it confers resistance to acquiring malaria.

QUESTION: 22

While analysis the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were found out of which Guanine = 17% Cytosine = 32% Thymine = 17% Considering to chargaff’s rule it can be concluded that

Solution:

It cannot be a double stranded DNA because as per Chargaffs rule for a dsDNA, The ratios between adenine and thymine and guanine and cytosine are constant and equal. Hence it is a ssDNA.

QUESTION: 23

BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of

Solution:

BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of oxygen consumption.

QUESTION: 24

The technology of biogas production from cow dung was developed in India largely due to the efforts  of

Solution:

The technology of biogas production from cow dung was developed in India largely due to the efforts of Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi & Village Industries Commission (KVIC) .

So, the correct option is 'Option C' .

QUESTION: 25

Mycorrhiza does NOT help the host plant in

Solution:

Mycorrhiza help the host plant in enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity, increasing its tolerance to drought and enhancing its resistance to root pathogens.

QUESTION: 26

Salt concentration (salinity) of the sea measured in parts per thousand is

Solution:

Salinity is the concentration of salt in water, usually measured in parts per thousand (ppt). The salinity of seawater in the open ocean is remarkably constant at about 35 ppt.

QUESTION: 27

Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as

Solution:

The entire ecosystem is made up of biotic and abiotic factors. Temperature, rainfall, snowfall, constitute some important abiotic factors. As we move from the equator to poles, the temperature range goes on decreasing and rainfall varies from place to place. At the poles, there is hardly any rainfall but snowfall is seen very regularly. Fir tropical rainforests to grow, the temperature in the range of 18-25 degree Celcius is required. Rainfall of around 150-400 cm is also required for the same.

So, option A is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 28

What will happen to a well growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the forest in a park ?

Solution:

A well growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the forest in a park. It may not survive because of change in its micro climate.

QUESTION: 29

If a population of 50 paramoecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the growth rate of population ?

Solution:

Initial population of paramecium Pi = 50
After one hour population of paramecium Pf = 150
Growth rate after one hour = Pf – Pi
= 150-50= 100

QUESTION: 30

What parameters are used for tiger census in our country's national park sand sanctuaries?

Solution:

The parameters used for tiger census in our country's national park and sanctuaries are foot prints (pug marks) and faecal pallets of conserved animals. 

QUESTION: 31

During the process of ecological succession the changes that take place in communities are ?

Solution:

During the process of ecological succession, the changes that take place in a community are in a defined hierarchy. They change in a common trend in which the no. of individuals and the biomass increases sequentially.

So, the correct option is 'orderly and sequential'.

QUESTION: 32

The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is

Solution:

Primary succession in water is also called as hydrarch, which will lead from hydric to mesic conditions. Phytoplanktons(autotrophic) are generally the first to appear. Later zooplanktons feeding on phytoplanktons also appear. Next stage is characterized by the soft mud on the bottom having organic matter favouring the growth of rooted submerged plants. They are replaced by free-floating hydrophytes (Lemna, Wolffia etc). Rapid growth of these plants build up bottom as that water becomes shallow on periphery. In this shallow water, comes the reed-swamp stage(e.g., Typha). They produce abundant organic matter. Next stages are sedge or marsh-meadow stage which transpire rapidly and build up soil, on which the next stage, trees can grow.

So, the correct answer is 'Phytoplankton, rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow and trees'.

QUESTION: 33

The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Jenerio in 1992 is known as

Solution:

The historic convention on biological diversity held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992 is known as Earth Summit (Ist). The explanation for other options is CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of wild flora and fauna) has helped in restricting poaching and loss of rare species. MAB stands for Man and Biosphere Programme which undertakes establishment and maintenance of biosphere reserves.

QUESTION: 34

Match Correctly the following and choose the correct option

The correct matches is

Solution:

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is an act enforced for safeguarding the environment and the same has been passed to give effect to the decision taken at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm in which India was the signatory.
This Act may be called the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It extends to the whole of India. It shall come into force on such date1 as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint.
The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 was adopted by the Indian parliament with the aim of prevention and control of Water Pollution in India.
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1981 and amended in 1987 to provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution in India. This act was amended in 1987 to include noise as an air pollutant.

QUESTION: 35

The term Monera was given by

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong

(i)  The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

(ii)  Salvia is heterosporous

(iii) The life-cycle in all seed bearing plants is diplontic

(iv)  In pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees The two wrong statements together are

Solution:

The sporophyte is more developed in mosses rather than liverwort. The simplest sporophyte is found in Riccia, a liverwort, where it is represented by capsule only. The most complex sporophye is found in Funaria, a moss. However, the most advanced sporophyte is found in Anthoceros (a hornwort) due to the presence of intercalary meristem. Pinus (a gymnosperm) is a monoecious plant in which male and female cones are borne on different branches of the same plant.  Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 37

The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or Maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons ?

Solution:

The scutellum is part of the structure of a barley and rice seed, the modified seed leaf. The scutellum can also refer to the equivalence of a thin cotyledon in monocots. It is very thin with high surface area and serves to absorb nutrients from the endosperm during germination. The scutellum is believed to contain an as yet unidentified protein transporter that facilitates starch movement from the endosperm to the embryo.
Thus, the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 38

The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of (Hibiscus rosasinensis) is

Solution:

Hibiscus belongs to Malvaceae family. It possess numerous stamens that are called monadelphous.
In monadelphous condition, all filaments become fused and form a group, while anther remain free, eg, China rose Achyranthes, etc. In diadelphous, two separate bundles of united filaments are formed eg, pea. In polyadelphous, more than two separate bundles of filaments are formed, eg, Ricinus.

QUESTION: 39

Which one of the following is NOT a lateral meristem ?

Solution:

Intercalary meristem- Grasses have intercalary meristems located along the stems near the nodes. Cell divisions in this tissue push the stem upward. Grasses and other monocots have no lateral meristems so any lateral increase in size, is the result of primary tissue cell enlargement, not cell divisions. It is a primary meristem. Intrafascicular cambium, interfascicular cambium and phellogen are lateral meristems involves in secondary growth.
Thus, the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 40

Heartwood differs from sap wood in

Solution:

The older woody trees show two characteristic types of wood namely heartwood and sapwood. The heartwood is made up of dead xylem vessels that have been filled with tyloses and are rich in deposits of resins and tannins. These are non-functional and appear darker. The sapwood contains the newly formed vessels that are functional and appear lighter. The hardwood provides resistance from the pest attack and increases the durability of the wood.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Having dead and non-conducting elements'

QUESTION: 41

C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to

Solution:

In C3​ plants, CO2​ is pumped directly into the Calvin cycle, leaving rubisco exposed to O2​.  Rubisco in a C3​ will take up O2​ rather than CO2​ to undergo photorespiration.  Photorespiration occurs under low concentrations of CO2​ and high concentrations of O2​. This process reduces efficiency of photosynthesis, potentially reducing photosynthetic output by 25% in C3​ plants. C4​ plants capture carbon dioxide in their mesophyll cells forming oxaloacetate. This oxaloacetate is then converted to malate and is transported into the bundle sheath cells, where oxygen concentration is low to avoid photorespiration. So, C4​ plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3​ plants. Thus, option A is correct.

QUESTION: 42

The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called

Solution:

Fermentation is incomplete oxidation of food substances in absence of oxygen (external electron acceptor) into alcohol or lactic acid with the small amount of energy being released. Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as an electron acceptor for oxidation of substrates. Glycolysis is the first common stage of both fermentation and aerobic respiration. Photorespiration is oxidation of RuBP by enzyme RUBISCO and does not produce energy. Thus, the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 43

Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from

Solution:

In Citrus, apomictic embryo arises from diploid cells. (maternal sporophytic tissue) of the ovule occurring outside the embryo sac. Substitution of usual sexual reproduction by a form of reproduction which does not involve meiosis and syngamy is called apomixis. In Citrus, apomictic embryo arises from diploid cells.

 

QUESTION: 44

Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of

Solution:

F. W. Went found that when the tip of Avena coleoptile is cut, its elongation ceases. However, when auxin was added externally, its growth renewed. He suggested that experiments suggested that auxin is synthesized in the coleoptile tip and is translocated downwards towards the gravity. It moves from illuminated side to shaded side. More auxin is present on the shaded side than on the illuminated side. Due to this, the plant to grow more on the shaded side and bend in the direction of the light source. It shows positive phototropism where faster cell elongation is seen on the shaded side and less on the illuminated side.

Thus, the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 45

Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant  is called

Solution:

Geitonogamy is a type of self-pollination. Geitonogamous pollination is sometimes distinguished from the fertilizations that can result from it, geitonogamy. If a plant is self-incompatible, geitonogamy can reduce seed production.

QUESTION: 46

Reptiles are most successful land animal in vertebrate. Which type of locomotion is found in them?

Solution:

Reptiles use various forms of locomotion to move from place to place. Although most lizards walk on all fours, some use only their hind limbs when running. Some snakes and legless lizards move by attaching their belly scales to rough surfaces and pulling themselves forward.

QUESTION: 47

Which of the following group of the animals belongs to the same class ?

Solution:

A cephalopod is any member of the molluscan class Cephalopoda such as a squid, octopus, cuttlefish, or nautilus. These exclusively marine animals are characterized by bilateral body symmetry, a prominent head, and a set of arms or tentacles (muscular hydrostats) modified from the primitive molluscan foot. Fishermen sometimes call cephalopods "inkfish," referring to their common ability to squirt ink. The study of cephalopods is a branch of malacology known as teuthology.

QUESTION: 48

Binomial nomenclature is established by:

Solution:

Linnaeus established the practice of binomial nomenclature—that is, the denomination of each kind of plant by two words, the genus name and the specific name, as Rosa canina, the dog rose.

QUESTION: 49

What is the main function of prostomium in earthworm?

Solution:

Earthworms use the prostomium to see their environment, as earthworms have no eyes, ears, nose or hands. They depend on the prostomium and skin to help it feel their way through the soil.

QUESTION: 50

What is the principal role of blood glands in earthworm?

Solution:

Blood glands in earthworms are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th segments and produce blood cells and haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma.

QUESTION: 51

Nucleus is the site of

Solution:

In nucleus there is a region called nucleolus there will be the synthesis of r rna

QUESTION: 52

Classification of chromosomes with regardes to shape based on:

Solution:

Classification of chromosomes is based on position of middle part of centre of chromosome which is known as centromere.

QUESTION: 53

Chromosome with centromere slightly away from center is known as

Solution:

Sub-metacentric chromosome or submedian centromere: The centromere is present slightly away from the centre of a chromosome or nearer to one end of the chromosome. As a result, chromosome is divided into one shorter and one longer arm.

QUESTION: 54

Macro molecule chiting is

Solution:

Chitin is a long-chain polymer of a N-acetylglucosamine. It is a nitrogen containing polysaccharide and a derivative of glucose. It is a characteristic component of the cell walls of fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods such as crustaceans and insects, the radulae of molluscs, and the beaks and internal shells of cephalopods, including squid and octopuses.

QUESTION: 55

The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are

Solution:

Essential chemical components of many coenzymes are vitamins, e.g, coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP contain the vitamin niacin.

QUESTION: 56

Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body?

Solution:

Caecum, a part of large intestine, is a small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic micro-organisms which helps in synthesis of Vitamin- B12 and helps in digestion

So, the correct answer is 'Caecum'

QUESTION: 57

Argentaffin cells in human beings are found in

Solution:

Argentaffin refers to cells which take up silver stain. Enteroendocrine cells are sometimes also called "argentaffins", because they take up this stain. An argentaffin cell is any enteroendocrine cell, a hormone-secreting cell present throughout the digestive tract.

QUESTION: 58

Which of the following is NOT an effector of respiration?

Solution:

The trapezius muscle is a postural and active movement muscle, used to tilt and turn the head and neck, shrug, steady the shoulders, and twist the arms. The trapezius elevates, depresses, rotates, and retracts the scapula, or shoulder blade.

QUESTION: 59

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is

Solution:

Normally, an increased concentration of carbon dioxide is the strongest stimulus to breathe more deeply and more frequently. Conversely, when the carbon dioxide concentration in the blood is low, the brain decreases the frequency and depth of breaths.

QUESTION: 60

When we breathe in, we inhale many gases, including oxygen, What happens to the gases that the body can’t use?

Solution:

When we inhale, many gases are present in air, as the saying goes, the air we inhale includes oxygen carbon dioxide etc,when we exhale,the gases that is not needed  will be released.

QUESTION: 61

The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are

Solution:

Among wbc, basophil cells produce histamine and serotonin which induce inflammation and even it will produce Heparin which prevent the blood clotting.

QUESTION: 62

The second heart sound (dubb) is associated with the closure of–

Solution:

The closing of different valves in the heart produces different characteristic sound commonly known as the lub-dub sounds. The lub sound is the first sound of the heart. The dub sound is the second sound of the heart that is produced by the closing of the semilunar valves in the heart.

Thus, the correct answer is 'Semilunar valves.'

QUESTION: 63

What would be the cardiac output of  a person having 72 heart beats per minute and a stroke volume of 50 ml?

Solution:

The cardiac output of a person is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume and the heart rate. Hence, to alter a person’s cardiac output both the stroke volume and the heart rate can be altered. So, the cardiac output of a person having 72 heart beats per minute and a stroke volume of 50 mL would be 72 x 50 = 3600 mL.

Thus, the correct answer is '3600 mL.'

QUESTION: 64

Least toxic nitrogenous waste is

Solution:

Nitrogenous waste that is produced in the body needs to be excreted from the body as they are toxic to an organism. The waste is excreted in 3 forms, namely ammonia, uric acid, and urea. Ammonia is more water-soluble and most toxic. It requires less energy for excretion. Animals excreting nitrogenous waste in the form of ammonia are called as ammonotelic. Aquatic animals like protozoans, crustaceans, poriferans, fishes where water is not a constraint are ammonotelic. Urea requires comparatively more energy and is less toxic in nature. Animals excreting nitrogenous waste in the form of urea are called as ureotelic. Examples include cartilaginous fish, amphibians, mammals including humans. Uric acid is least soluble in water and is least toxic. However, it requires a large amount of energy. Examples include reptiles, birds.

QUESTION: 65

Vasa recta is

Solution:

The vasa recta capillaries are long, hairpin (U) shaped blood vessels that run parallel to the loops of Henle. The hairpin turns slow the rate of blood flow, which helps maintain the osmotic gradient required for water reabsorption.

QUESTION: 66

PCT helps to maintain the pH and ionic balance of body fluids by

Solution:

PCT also helps to maintain the pH and ionic balance of the body fluids by selective secretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia and potassium ions into the filtrate and by absorption of HCO3 – from it.

QUESTION: 67

Bone has a very hard matrix due to presence of

Solution:

The hardness and rigidity of bone is due to the presence of mineral salt in the osteoid matrix, which is a crystalline complex of calcium and phosphate (hydroxyapatite).

QUESTION: 68

Gout is the inflammation of joints due to accumulation of

Solution:

Gout occurs when urate crystals accumulate in your joint, causing the inflammation and intense pain of a gout attack. Urate crystals can form when you have high levels of uric acid in your blood. Your body produces uric acid when it breaks down purines — substances that are found naturally in your body.

QUESTION: 69

Knee joint and elbow joints are examples of

Solution:

There are many joints present in the skeleton. Joint is a point of contact between two bones. The various type of joints present in the body are:

Ball and socket joint:
Ball of one bone articulates in the socket of another bone. Head of the humerus and glenoid cavity of the pectoral girdle, femur and acetabulum, the joint between incus and stapes.

Hinge joint:
Movement is possible in one direction only. Joint of malleus and incus, knee joint, elbow joint, articulation joint of the lower jaw.

Pivot joint:
Helps in turning moments. One bone is fixed and second articulate. Atlas and axial of skull rotate with Axis vertebra

Gliding joint:
Limited movement in all directions. Radius and ulna

Saddle joint:
It is a ball and socket like a joint but not developed fully. Metacarpals of thumb and carpels of hand.
So, the correct option is 'hinge joint'

QUESTION: 70

Which of the following cells form myelin sheath around axon?

Solution:

Myelin is formed by Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system (CNS). Each Schwann cell forms a single myelin sheath around an axon.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following increases when an action potential is initiated?

Solution:

In the resting phase the inner side of the axon has -ve charge and outer side has +ve charge. This is the polarised state of an axon. The reason for this is that K+ is the most abundant intracellular cation but is abundance less than the extracellular cation which is mostly Na+. When an action Potential is generated the voltage gated Na+ channels open and there is a rapid influx of the Na+ leading to depolarization of the axon membrane with +ve charge on the inner side and -ve charge on the outer side.

QUESTION: 72

The correct sequence meninges from inner to outerside is–

Solution:

The meninges is the membranous coverings of the brain and spinal cord. It has three layers of protective tissues namely, dura mater, arachnoid mater and pia mater. Dura mater is the outermost covering present underneath the bones. Arachnoid is the middle layer present underneath the dura mater. There is space called sub-arachnoid space directly underneath the arachnoid. It contains cerebrospinal fluid, which acts as cushion for the brain. Pia mater is present underneath the sub-arachnoid space. It is adhere to the surface of brain and spinal cord.

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following hormones(s) is/are called emergency hormone(s) of “fight or flight”?

Solution:

Noradrenaline and adrenaline are catecholamines that play major roles in regulation of the ‘inner world’ of the body by the brain. Noradrenaline (synonymous with norepinephrine), the main neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system, is responsible for tonic and reflexive changes in cardiovascular tone. Adrenaline is a key determinant of responses to metabolic or global challenges to homeostasis, such as glucoprivation, and of manifestations of emotional distress. In contrast with the view that the sympathetic nervous and adrenomedullary hormonal systems function as a unit (the ‘sympathoadrenal system’) to maintain homeostasis in emergencies, across a variety of situations adrenaline responses are more closely linked to responses of the hypothalamic‐pituitary‐adrenocortical system than of the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic noradrenergic system is active even when the individual is at rest and maintains tonic levels of cardiovascular performance. Adrenoceptors in the membranes of effector cells determine the physiological and metabolic effects of catecholamines.

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following hormones does NOT act by  a second messenger system?

Solution:

Steroid harmones directly interact with the genome without producing second messenger.

QUESTION: 75

Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt :

Solution:

The primary function of the hypothalamus is homeostasis, which is to maintain the body's normal temperature and body's status. So, if there is an injury to the hypothalamus, the thermoregulatory centre is disturbed resulting in deregulation of body temperature.

So, the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 76

In human the oocyte is maintained in a state of meiotic arrest by secretion of

Solution:

Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a layers of granulosa cells and is called primary follicle oocytes are arrested by these cells so answer is A.

QUESTION: 77

Human primary spermatocyte contains

Solution:

Human primary spermatocyte has 23 pair or 46 chromosomes in which one pair is responsible for the sex determination of the progeny and it is known as sex chromosome which is either X or Y rest are allosomes or autosomes and responsible for the genetic information.

So the correct option is '22 pairs of autosomes and XY chromosomes'.

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following statements is WRONG?

Solution:

Yes,because test tube baby is fertilized outside by fusing gametes then it is grown into volunteer mothers womb or in a test tube. Hence it is followed by uterine fertilization is a wrong one.

QUESTION: 79

Which one of the following groups includes all sexually transmitted diseases?

Solution:

All of the diseases like AIDS, Gonorrhoea, hepatitis- B, chlamydiosis, and syphilis are sexually transmitted diseases. While cholera, malaria, hemophilia are water-borne, parasitic and Mendelian disorders respectively.

QUESTION: 80

Following is a weekly oral contraceptive

Solution:

Saheli is the only weekly oral contraceptive whereas the others are daily oral contraceptives

QUESTION: 81

Which word does not describe humans?

Solution:

Apes (Hominoidea) are a branch of Old World tailless simians native to Africa and Southeast Asia. They are the sister group of the Old World monkeys, together forming the catarrhine clade. They are distinguished from other primates by a wider degree of freedom of motion at the shoulder joint as evolved by the influence of brachiation.

Mammals are vertebrate animals constituting the class Mammalia, and characterized by the presence of mammary glands which in females produce milk for feeding (nursing) their young, a neocortex (a region of the brain), fur or hair, and three middle ear bones.

Amphibians are small vertebrates that need water, or a moist environment, to survive. The species in this group include frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts. All can breathe and absorb water through their very thin skin. Amphibians also have special skin glands that produce useful proteins.

primate is any member of the biological order Primates, the group that contains all the species commonly related to the lemurs, monkeys, and apes, with the latter category including humans. Primates are found all over the world.

QUESTION: 82

Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as

Solution:

Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a species of animals or plants and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats).

QUESTION: 83

Vermiform appendix in human is

Solution:

Vermiform appendix in human is lymphoid organs because this is situated at the outer layer of blood organ

 

QUESTION: 84

Which one of the following is NOT a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?

Solution:

Contact inhibition involves major histocompatibility complex and is the natural process of arresting cell growth when two or more cells come in contact with each other. It is a property of normal cells- Cancer cells divide in uncontrolled manner and do not show contact inhibition.

QUESTION: 85

Both, Hepatitis B and AIDS are

Solution:

Both HIV and HBV spread from person to person in semen, blood, or other body fluids. For this reason, the main risk factors for HIV and HBV are the same: having sex without a condom and injection drug use.

QUESTION: 86

Which one of the following species of bees is used for the commercial production of honey?

Solution:

The bee variety that is commonly used for commercial honey production is the Apis mellifera which is called the European honey bee or the western honey bee.

QUESTION: 87

Hisardale is a new breeed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing

Solution:

Hisardale is a new breed of sheep which was developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams. So the correct option is "Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams"

QUESTION: 88

Biogas contains

Solution:

It is also called as gobar gas and it is a renewable natural gas. The main components of biogas are methane and carbon-dioxide. It also contains small amounts of hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and hydrogen.

QUESTION: 89

DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by

Solution:

Electrophoresis is a technique used in the laboratories in order to separate macromolecules (DNA, RNA) based on size. The technique applies a negative charge so proteins move towards a positive charge. This is used for both DNA and RNA analysis.
So, the DNA fragments generated by restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by this process of gel electrophoresis.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following is used for the treatment of Cancer?

Solution:

In clinical trials, tetracycline antibiotics have proven effective in treating some pathological inflammation and cancer.

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