NEET 2014 Solved Question Paper


180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series 2020 & Past Year Papers | NEET 2014 Solved Question Paper


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This mock test of NEET 2014 Solved Question Paper for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET NEET 2014 Solved Question Paper (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NEET 2014 Solved Question Paper quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this NEET 2014 Solved Question Paper exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NEET 2014 Solved Question Paper extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Q. No. 1 - 45 carry 4 marks each and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.

The mean free path of molecules of a gas,(radius ‘r’) is inversely proportional to : 

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are (2m, 3m) at time t = 0,
(6m, 7m) at time t = 2s and (13m, 14m) at time t= 5s.
Average velocity vector  from t = 0 to t = 5s is :

Solution:

Average velocity Vector,

QUESTION: 3

Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by:

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be:

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

A balloon with mass ‘m’ is descending down with an acceleration ‘a’(where a<g). How
much mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’ ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

The Binding energy per nucleon of   nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV ,
respectively. In the nuclear reaction   the value of energy Q released is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

The angle of a prism is ‘A’. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index μ, of the prism is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 and R , respectively. When the
resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at  The
resistance ‘R’ is :

 

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5  The power loss in the wire is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = μ). The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is :
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de−Broglie wavelength of the particle is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

A beam of light of λ=600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :

Solution:

From the above figure,

For small θ and when θ is counted in rad, tan ≈ θ

So,

QUESTION: 14

A block hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape
from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be
compressed to be a black hole ?

Solution:


QUESTION: 15

The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation,
X = A cos (ωt)

Where X = displacement at time t
ω = frequency of oscillation
Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation ‘a’ with ‘t’ ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s−2 is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline of angle ‘θ’ without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius ‘r’ is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is :

Solution:

Effective length = 2r
Potential developed = 2rBv

QUESTION: 19

In the Young’s double−slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K,( λ being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is λ/4, will be :

Solution:

I = 4Io cos2(S/2)
4I0 = K

 δ = 2π if path different = λ

Phase difference when path difference  =Δ/4 is equal to  

QUESTION: 20

A radio isotope ‘X’ with a half life 1.4 × 109 years decays to ‘Y’ which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was found to contain ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the rock is

Solution:

Ratio of X:Y is given = 1:7
That is,

⇒ 7mx = my
Let, the initial total mass is m.

Therefore, time taken to become 1/8 unstable part
= 3 x T1/2
= 3 x 1.4 x 109
= 4.2 x 109 y

QUESTION: 21

Light with an energy flux of 25 x 104Wm−2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm2, the average force exerted on the surface is

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54° C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume
2v and then adiabatically to a volume 16v. The final pressure of the gas is: (Take γ = 5/3)

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5ms−1 and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 m/s at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms−2 ) is : ( given g = 9.8 m/s2)

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x − 8xy − 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z are in meters. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1,1,1) is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å . Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be:

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on:
(a) type of semi conductor material
(b) amount of doping
(c) temperature
Which one of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

If n1, n2, and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is
divided, then the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by:

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 29

If force (F), velocity (V) and time(T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are:

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of :

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the resistance, R connected across the given cell, has value of.

(i) infinity
(ii) 9.5,
the ‘balancing lengths’ , on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3m and 2.85m,
respectively.
The value of internal resistance of the cell is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

Copper of fixed volume ‘V’ is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. When this wire is subjected to a
constant force ‘F’, the extension produced in the wire is ‘Δl’. Which of the following graphs is straight line?

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other,  with one above other such that ‘O’ is their common point for the two. The wires carry I1 and I2 currents, respectively. Point ‘P’ is lying at distance ‘d’ from ‘O’ along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point ‘P’ will be :

Solution:


The point P is lying at a distance d along the z-axis.

QUESTION: 34

Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 (K1 < K2) are inserted between
plates of a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The variation of electric field ‘E’
between the plates with distance ‘d’ as measured from plate P is correctly shown by :

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

The number of possible natural oscillations of air column in a pipe closed at one end of
length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are : (velocity of sound = 340 ms−1)

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

A thermodynamics system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the
current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in
the primary coil respectively are :

Solution:

Initial power = 3000 W
As the efficiency is 90%, then final power 
That is,

QUESTION: 38

Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of
80°C, the mass of water present will be :
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g−1 °C−1 and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g−1]

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole moment  Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?

Solution:

The direction of magnetic moment is from S to N
Previous Year Questions (2014-19) - Electric Charges and Fields
Net magnetic moment will be maximum if cos θ is maximum.
cos θ will be maximum when θ will be minimum. So, at θ = 30º mnet will be maximum.
The direction of magnetic moment is from S to N
Previous Year Questions (2014-19) - Electric Charges and Fields
Net magnetic moment will be maximum if cos θ is maximum.
cos θ will be maximum when θ will be minimum. So, at θ = 30º mnet will be maximum.

QUESTION: 40

A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are :

Solution:


Electric field inside, Einside = 0
Potential, Vinside = Vsurface

QUESTION: 41

A body of mass (4m) is lying in x−y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two
pieces, each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (ν). The total
kinetic energy generated due to explosion is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph as shown below. The climate change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is,

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He
finds that traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at a
frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by
him will be :

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of
radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then :

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

The given graph represents V−I characteristic for a semiconductor device.

Which of the following statement is correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Q. No. 46 -90 carry 4 marks each and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.

Q.

Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH
hydrolyses ?

Solution:

Correct option (None)
Due to chirality

only compound (iv) will undergo racemisation. Hence. all the given options are incorrect.

QUESTION: 47

Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?

Solution:

Using Gibb's-Helmholtz equation,
ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
During adsorption of a gas, entropy decreases i.e. ΔS < 0
For spontaneous adsorption, ΔG should be negative, which is possible when ΔH is highly negative.

QUESTION: 48

For the reversible reaction :

N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇔ 2 NH3 (g) + heat

The equilibrium shifts in forward direction :

Solution:

N2 + 3H2  ⇔ 2NH3              ΔH = −ve

Exothermic Reactions are favoured at low temperature.

QUESTION: 49

Using the Gibbs energy change, ΔG0 = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction,

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions ?
(At. Nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

Which one of the following is not a common component of Photochemical Smog?

Solution:

Common component of Photochemical smog are peroxyacetyl nitrate, chlorofluorocarbons and ozone etc.

QUESTION: 52

For the reaction: X2O4 →2XO2 (g)

Solution:

QUESTION: 53

Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape ?

Solution:

Species with sp2 hybridisation are plane triangular in shape. Among the given species  is sp2 hybridised with no lone pair of electrons on central atom, N. Whereas, N3, and CO2 are sp hybridised with a linear shape.

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?

Solution:

QUESTION: 55

Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero crystal field stabilization energy
(CFSE) is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order :

Solution:

Acidic strength of hydrides increases as the size
of central atom increases which weakens the
M- H bond. Since, the size increases from S to Te
thus acidic strength follows the order.
H2S<H2Se<H2Te
Acidic nature ∝
S to Te size increases, bond dissociation enthalpy
decreases and acidic nature increases.

QUESTION: 57

When 0.1 mol   is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise   is :

Solution:

The oxidation reaction is

QUESTION: 58

1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
and how much ?
(At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles?

Solution:

Tyndall effect is due to the scattering of light and not due to charge. Thus, the Tyndall effect is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles. All other properties are dependent on the electric charge.
Hence, the correct option is B

QUESTION: 60

In the following reaction, the product (A)

Solution:

The above reaction is a coupling reaction of aniline with diazonium salt to give azo benzene compound. This coupling reaction takes place at the para-position to - NH2 group of benzene. This reaction act as electrophilic substitution reaction of aniline.

QUESTION: 61

Identity Z in the sequence of reactions :

Solution:

QUESTION: 62

Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water ?

Solution:

The highest pH refers to the basic solution containing OH- ions. Therefore, the basic salt releasing OH- ions on hydrolysis will give highest pH in water.
Only the salt of a strong base and weak acid would release OH-ion on hydrolysis. Among the given salts, Na2CO3 corresponds to the basic salt as it is formed by the neutralisation of NaOH [strong base] and H2CO3 [weak acid]

QUESTION: 63

Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ?

Solution:


in NH3, H is less electronegative than N and hence dipoie moment of each N - H bond is towards N and create high net dipole moment whereas in NF3 ,F is more electronegative than N, the dipole moment of each N - F bond is opposite to that of lone pair, hence reducing the net dipole moment.

QUESTION: 64

For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K'p are the equilibrium constants at temperatures
T1 and T2 , respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range
between T1 and T2 , it is readily observed that :

Solution:

For exothermic reactions, on increasing the temperature the value of equilibrium constant decreases.

QUESTION: 65

Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions ?

Solution:

Isoelectronic species contain same number of electrons. contains 2 electrons.
Among the given options, only contains 2 electrons and therefore, it is isoelectronic with 

Hence,is isoelectronic with

QUESTION: 66

What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum
numbers ? n = 3,= 1, ml = 0

Solution:

3p orbital can have n = 3, l = 1 and ml = 0  .

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates
glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?

Solution:

Cations lose electrons and are smaller in size than the parent atom, whereas anions add electrons and are larger in size than the parent atom. Hence, the order is H- > H > H+.
For isoelectronic species, the ionic radii decreases with increase in atomic number i.e. nuclear charge. Hence, the correct orders are O2- > F- > Na+ and N3- > Mg2+ > Al3+.

QUESTION: 69

Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent?

Solution:

cis-platin is known as an anticancer agent. The formula for cis-platin is cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]. Here, the word cis refers to a cis geometrical isomer of [PtCl2(NH3)2].

QUESTION: 70

Reason of lanthanoid contraction is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

a) H2O2 +O3 → H2O+ 2O2
b) H2O2 + Ag2O → 2Ag + H2O + O2

Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively :

Solution:

H2O2 acts as reducing agent in both the reactions

H2O2 +O3 → H2O+ 2O2
H2O2 + Ag2O → 2Ag + H2O + O2

QUESTION: 72

Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm :
(Planck's constant h = 6.63 × 10−34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms−1)

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer ?

Solution:

Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer

QUESTION: 74

Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at
temperature 27o C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H2:O2:methane
would be :

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

The weight of silver (at.wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600
mL of O2 at STP will be :

Solution:

According to Faraday's second law,

QUESTION: 76

Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following will not be soluble sodium hydrogen carbonate?

Solution:

Due to conjugation effect

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt ?

Solution:

Due to conjugation effect

QUESTION: 79

The pair of compounds that can exist together is :

Solution:

The compounds with lower oxidation number and which cannot reduce by one another can exist together. Thus, FeCl2 and SnCl2 can exist together as Fe2+ can not be reduced by Sn2+.
The compounds with lower oxidation number and which cannot reduce by one another can exist together. Thus, FeCl2 and SnCl2 can exist together as Fe2+ can not be reduced by Sn2+.

QUESTION: 80

Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product
(CO2)?

Solution:

HC ≡ CH and O = C = O both have sp−hybridised carbon

QUESTION: 81

In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved
from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil
is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction ?

Solution:

Aldehydes are more reactive than ketone towards nucleophillic addition reaction. Among aldehydes the one having electron withdrawing (−M) group is more reactive than that of electron supplying group(+M).

QUESTION: 83

What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br2 in the presence
of FeBr3?

Solution:

-CH3 group is o,p-directing. Because of crowding, no substitution occurs at the carbon atom between the two -CH3 groups in m-Xylene, even though two -CH3 groups activate that position.

QUESTION: 84

Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

When 22.4 litres of H2 (g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2 (g) , each at S.T.P., the moles of
HCl (g) formed is equal to :

Solution:

1 mole =22.4 liters at S.T.P.

Here, Cl2 is limiting reagent. So, 1 mole of HCI(g) is formed.

QUESTION: 86

The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic conditions gives :

Solution:

(2KMnO+ 3H2SO4 + 5H2O2 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 5O2)

QUESTION: 87

In acidic medium H2O2 changes Cr2O7 to CrO5 which has two −O−O− bonds. Oxidation state
of Cr in CrO5 is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold conditions only is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime
would be :

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

If 'a' is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one
corner atom in the cube will be :

Solution:

The distance between the body centered atom and corner atom

QUESTION: 91

Planaria possess high capacity of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

An example of ex-situ conservation is 

Solution:

Ex -situ or off-site conservation is the process of protecting endangered species fo plants and animals outside their natural habitat. This involves the conservation of genetic resources as well as species, Its example included seed banks, filed microbial culture collection, etc.

QUESTION: 93

To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken ?

Solution:

In plant tissue culture virus free plants can be obtained by both apical and axillary
meristems as rate of division of meristemetic tissue is faster than the rate of reproduction of virus.

QUESTION: 94

The motile bacteria are able to move by :

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?

Solution:

 On the basis of position of Protoxylem, root can be differentiated from shoot. In root
xylem is exarch i.e. protoxylem is towards periphery while in shoot xylem is endarch i.e.
protoxylem is towards centre.

QUESTION: 97

In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining
160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called :

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted
tubule?

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were
found to have become white−coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you
use to describe them?

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at :

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized by :

Solution:
PCR and RAPD
RAPD stand for Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA. It is a type of PCR reaction, but the segments of DNA that are amplified are random. Often, PCR is used to amplify a known DNA sequence. 
RAPD stand for Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA. It is a type of PCR reaction, but the segments of DNA that are amplified are random. Often, PCR is used to amplify a known DNA sequence. 
QUESTION: 103

Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in :

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

Fight−or−flight reactions cause activation of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to
peacock as food in the following chain?

Plant → mice → snake → peacock

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in :

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes :

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Fruit colour in squash is an example of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the :

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 112

The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce :

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released?

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called :

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Transformation was discovered by :

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action :

Solution:
QUESTION: 117

Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

Solution:
QUESTION: 118

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 119

During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?

Solution:
A cell cycle is divided into G1,S,G2 and M phase. G1 or first growth phase is followed by S phase or synthesis phase. DNA replication occurs in S phase and DNA amount doubles up i.e., a cell with 2C DNA in G1 phase will now have 4C DNA. G2 phase is the second growth phase where DNA content remains 4C. M phase is the phase where DNA content either regains 2C level(mitosis) or become halved i.e. 1C(in meiosis).
SO The Answer is only G2
QUESTION: 120

Non−albuminous seed is produced in :

Solution:
QUESTION: 121

Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species :

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on :

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

Select the correct option ;

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What
groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?

 

Options :

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use:

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering
branch is shown below?

Solution:
QUESTION: 127

Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of :

Solution: Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT) and Tubal Embryo Transfer (TET) ZIFT is also similar to IVF but involves transfer of the fertilized egg (the zygote) into the fallopian tube at the time of laparoscopy. In the past, like GIFT, ZIFT had a higher pregnancy rate than IVF.
QUESTION: 128

Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female:

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the
agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut coleoptile stumps. Of
what significance is this experiment?

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has :

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

Function of filiform apparatus is to :

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt :

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in :

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in :

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

Which one of the following shows isogamy with non−flagellated gametes?

Solution:
QUESTION: 140

A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called :

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

Viruses have :

Solution:
QUESTION: 142

Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are :

Solution:
QUESTION: 144

Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens?

Solution:
Amanita muscaria is fungus is known for its hallucinogenic properties with its main psychoactive constituent being the compound (muscimol).

QUESTION: 145

Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle :

Solution:
QUESTION: 147

When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the
condition is termed as :

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman, who had a colourblind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colourblind.

Solution:

As colour blindness is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder, for it is present at X -chromosome. Thus, according to the situation given in the question, a man whose father was colour blind (will be, i.e, XY normal) marries a woman whose mother was colour blind and father was normal (i.e, this woman will be a carrier) according to the cross given below.


Thus, when marriage will happen between a normal man and a carrier woman, in that case, percentage of a male child to be colour blind is 25% (this can be easily observed from the cross given below)

QUESTION: 149

Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate?

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking, forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs
of bats used in flying are an example of:

Solution:
QUESTION: 151

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 152

Pollen tablets are available in the market for :

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four
blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks.

Solution:
QUESTION: 154

Match the following and select the correct answer :

Solution:
QUESTION: 155

Which one of the following is wrong about Chara ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 156

The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 157

The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 158

An example of edible underground stem is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 159

An aggregate fruit is one which develops from-

Solution:
QUESTION: 160

Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’ ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 161

Which of the flowing shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 162

An alga which can be employed as food for human being is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 163

Choose the correctly matched pair :

Solution:
QUESTION: 164

Which one of the following are analogous structures?

Solution:
QUESTION: 165

Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported
to the lungs:

Solution:
QUESTION: 166

The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by:

Solution:
QUESTION: 167

Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in:

Solution:
QUESTION: 168

Match the following and select the correct option:

Solution:
QUESTION: 169

The organization which publishes the Red List of species is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 170

What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 171

Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot
summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions
move to:

Solution:
QUESTION: 172

Choose the correctly matched pair:

Solution:
QUESTION: 173

Geitonogamy involves:

Solution:
QUESTION: 174

A human female with Turner’s syndrome

Solution:
QUESTION: 175

The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis

Solution:
QUESTION: 176

Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function:

Solution:
QUESTION: 177

The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type
of monomer are known as:

Solution:
QUESTION: 178

How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 179

Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal
system:

Solution:
QUESTION: 180

Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA ?

Solution:

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