NEET 2016 Solved Question Paper


180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series 2020 & Past Year Papers | NEET 2016 Solved Question Paper


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This mock test of NEET 2016 Solved Question Paper for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET NEET 2016 Solved Question Paper (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NEET 2016 Solved Question Paper quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this NEET 2016 Solved Question Paper exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NEET 2016 Solved Question Paper extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop ?

Solution:

The question is illustrated in the figure below,

Let, the tension at point A be TA.
Using Newton's second law, we have

Energy at point C is,

At point C, using Newton's second law,

In order to complete a loop, T≥ 0
so,

From equation (i) and (ii)
Using the principle of conservation of energy,

QUESTION: 2

If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the

angle between these vectors is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

At what height from the surface of earth the gravitational potential and the value of g are -5.4 x 10-7J

kg-2 and 6.0 ms-2 respectively ? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.

Solution:

-GM/r = 5.4 x 10-7

-GM/r= 6.0

dividing both the equations, r = 9000 km.

so height from the surface = 9000 - 6400 = 2600 km

QUESTION: 4

A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 x 10-3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is

Solution:

Given,
Number of turns in the solenoid, N = 1000
Current, I = 4 A
Magnetic flux, straight phi subscript straight B = 4 x 10-3 Wb
Self-inductance of solenoid is given by,

Putting the value of equation in (i), we get

= 1H

QUESTION: 5

An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor. 40Ω are connected in series across a source of

emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is

Solution:


QUESTION: 6

Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two mass less strings of lengths ℓ are initially at a distance d(d << ℓ) a part because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as :

Solution:



QUESTION: 7

A capacitor of 21F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is :

Solution:

Consider the figure given above.
When switch S is connected to point 1, then initial energy stored in the capacitor is given as,

When the switch S is connected to point 2, energy dissipated on connection across 8μF will be,

Therefore, per centage loss of energy 

QUESTION: 8

A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r = cosωtx + sinωty. Where ω is a constant.

Which of the following is true?

 

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

From a disc of radius R and mass M1 a circular hole of diameter R1 whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about at perpendicular axis, passing through the centre ?

Solution:



QUESTION: 10

The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is :

Solution:

According to question, emf of the cell is directly proportional to the balancing length.
i.e., E∝ ℓ    ... (i)
Now, in the first case, cells are connected in series
That is,
Net EMF = E1 + E2
From equation (i),
E1 + E2 = 50 cm (given)  ... (ii)
Now, the cells are connected in series in the opposite direction,
Net emf = E1 - E2
From equation (i)
E1 - E2 = 10       ... (iii)
From equation (ii) and (iii),

QUESTION: 12

A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15 ms-1. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is : (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms-1)

Solution:



 

Since the observer and the wall are stationary so frequency of echo observed by the observer will also

be 838 Hz.

QUESTION: 13

To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is :

Solution:

The resultant boolean expression of the above logic circuit is given by,
Y = (A+B).C
Using the inputs given in the options,
If A = 0, B = 0,C = 0, we have
Y = (0+0).0
i.e., Y = 0
If A = 1, B = 1, C = 0, then we have
Y = (1+1).0
i.e., Y = 1.0 = 0
If A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, then
Y = (1+0).1
i.e., Y = 1.1 = 1
If A = 0, B = 1, C = 0, then
Y = (0+1).0
i.e., Y = 1.0
Y = 0
Therefore, output Y = 1 only when inputs A = 1, B = 0 and C = 1.

QUESTION: 14

In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a' the first minimum is observed at an angle 30 deg when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of :

Solution:

Given that, first minimum is observed at an angle of 30º in a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a.
i.e., n = 1, θ = 30º
According to the Bragg's law of diffraction,

For 1st secondary maxima,

Putting the value of a from Eqn. (i) to Eqn. (ii), we get

QUESTION: 15

When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2:, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is :

Solution:

When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V.
Photoelectric equation can be written as,

Now, when the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. So, photoelectric equation can be written as,

From equations (i) and (ii), we get

When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ stopping potential is V.
Photoelectric equation can be written as,

Now, when the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. So, photoelectric equation can be written as,

From equations (i) and (ii), we get

QUESTION: 16

When an α-particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity ' v ' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze' its distance of closet approach from the nucleus depends on m as :

Solution:

When an alpha particle moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, then there will be no loss of energy.
Initial Kinetic energy of the alpha particle = Potential energy of alpha particle at closest approach.
That is,


This is the required distance of closest approach to alpha particle from the nucleus.
When an alpha particle moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, then there will be no loss of energy.
Initial Kinetic energy of the alpha particle = Potential energy of alpha particle at closest approach.
That is,


This is the required distance of closest approach to alpha particle from the nucleus.

QUESTION: 17

Match the corresponding entries of column-1 with column-2. [Where m is the magnification produced

by the mirror]

Column - 1                   Column - 2

(A) m = -2               (a) Convex mirror

(B) m = -1/2            (b) Concave mirror

(C) m = +2              (c) Real image

(D) m = =1/2            (d) Virtual image

Solution:

(A) m = -2, so image is magnified and inverted. Which is possible only for concave mirror. since image is i inverted so it will be real.

(B) M = -1/2 , so image is inverted and diminished. since image is inverted, so it will be real, and the

mirror will be concave.

(C) M = +2, image is magnified so the mirror will be concave. Image is erect so it will be virtual.

(D) m = +1/2 , image is erect so image will be virtual. Image is virtual and diminished, so the mirror should be convex. Ans. will be (2)

QUESTION: 18

A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 x 10-4J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion ?

Solution:

Given, mass of particle. m = 0.01 kg
Radius of circle along which particle is moving , r = 6.4 cm
Kinetic energy of particle, K.E. = 8 x 10-4 J

Given that, KE of particle is equal to 8 x 10-4 J by the end of second revolution after the beginning of the motion of particle.
It means, initial velocity (u) is 0 m/s at this moment.
Now, using the Newton's 3rd equation of motion,

QUESTION: 19

A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sinωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C :

Solution:

Capacitor does not consume energy effectively over full cycles

QUESTION: 20

A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first ?

Solution:

Time does not depend on mass, else

K2/Ris least for sphere and hence least time is taken by sphere

QUESTION: 21

Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2 . Lengths of brass and steel rods are ℓ1 and ℓ2 respectively. If (ℓ2 - ℓ1 ) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good ?

Solution:

Coefficient of linear expansion of brass = α1
Coefficient of linear expansion = 
Length of brass and steel rods are l1 and l2 respectively.
Given,
Increase in length (l2'-l1' ) is same for all temperature.
So,

QUESTION: 22

A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance :

Solution:

According to a question,
Focal length of the objective lens, Fo = +40 cm

Focal length of eyepiece, Fe = 4 cm

Object distance for objective lens (uo) = -200 cm
Applying lens formula for objective lens,


Image will be formed at the focus of a eyepiece lens.
So, for normal adjustment distance between objectives and eyepiece (length of tube) will be, v + Fe = 50 + 4 = 54 cm

QUESTION: 23

A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. it is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s-2. Its net acceleration in ms-2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately :

Solution:

The angular speed of disc increases with time, and hence centripetal acceleration

QUESTION: 24

A refrigerator works between 40 celcius and 300 celcius. It is requiredto remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is :(Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)

Solution:

Given,
Temperature of the source, T = 30o C = 30 + 273  = 303 K
Temperature of sink, T2 = 4o C = 4 + 273 = 277 K
We know,

where, Q2 is the amount of heat drawn from the sink at T2,
W is the work done on the working substance,
Q1 is the amount of heat rejected to source at room temperature T1.
That is,

QUESTION: 25

A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then

Solution:

Directly from graph the magnitude of work done = Area under p-v plot is larger for adiabatic compression

QUESTION: 26

The intensity at the maximum in Young's double slit experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used is the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d ?

Solution:

Given, 

Maximum intensity = Io

Distance between the slits, d = 5λ

Distance of screen from the slit, D = 10d
Using the formula,
Path difference, 
Here,

D = 10d = 50λ
So,

Corresponding phase difference will be



QUESTION: 27

Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is :

Solution:

For diode as ideal
I = ΔV/R = 4-(-6)/ 10= 10-2 A

QUESTION: 29

A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle .. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the care and the road is 1s. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:

Solution:

A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at angle straight theta and the coefficient of friction between the tyres of car and the road is straight mu subscript straight s.
The given situation is illustrated as:

In the case of vertical equilibrium,

Dividing Eqns. (i) and (ii), we get

QUESTION: 30

A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B`, at a radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:

Solution:

Consider two amperian loops of radius a/2 and 2a as shown in the diagram.

Applying Ampere's circuital law for these loops, we get

B1 acts at a distance a/2 from the axis of the wire.
Similarly, for bigger amperian loop,

Total current enclosed by amperian loop 2.
 at a distance 2a from the axis of the wire.

QUESTION: 31

Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107 m-1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be :

Solution:

Rydberg constant, r = 107 m-1
For last line in Balmer series,
n2 = ∞; n1 = 2
We know,

QUESTION: 32

If the velocity of a particle is

   

where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

The angle incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45 degree.The angle of prism is 60 degree If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms-1 at 27°C and 1.0 x 10-5 Nm-2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and 0.05 x 105Nm2, the r.m.s. velocity of velocity of its molecules in ms-1 is ;

Solution:

It is given that,
vrms = 200 m/s
T1 = 300 K
P1 = 105 N/m2 
rms velocity of gas molecules, 
For two different cases,

It is given that,
vrms = 200 m/s
T1 = 300 K
P1 = 105 N/m2
rms velocity of gas molecules,  
For two different cases,

 

QUESTION: 35

An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonantes with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:

Solution:


QUESTION: 36

The magnetic susceptibility negative for

Solution:

μr = 1 + x
so, μr is negative if and only if  x is negative and x is negative only for diamagnetic materials.

QUESTION: 37

An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Brogli wavelengths associated with them is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force , when  are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at - bt2, where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is :

Solution:

Given,
Charge, Q = at - bt2   ... (i)
We know that,
Current, I = dθ/dt
So, equation (i) can be written as,

For maximum value of t, the current is given by,
a-2bt = 0
Therefore, t = a/2b    ..(iii)
Total heat produced (H) can be given as,

On solving the above equation, we get

Given,
Charge, Q = at - bt2   ... (i)
We know that,
Current, I = dθ/dt
So, equation (i) can be written as,

For maximum value of t, the current is given by,
a-2bt = 0

Total heat produced (H) can be given as,

On solving the above equation, we get

QUESTION: 40

A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192Ω , the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be :

Solution:

Given,
Resistance across load, RL = 800 ohm
Voltage drop across load, VL = 0.8 V
Input resistance of the circuit, Ri = 192 ohm
Collector current is given by,


QUESTION: 41

a piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted in to heat during its fall. The value of h is : [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 x 105 J/Kg and g = 10 N/kg]

Solution:

As per conservation of energy, energy gained by the ice during its fall from height h is given by, E = mgh,
Given, only one-quarter of its energy is absorbed by the ice.
So,

QUESTION: 42

A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be:

Solution:




QUESTION: 43

A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ12 is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

A block body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1 at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 x 10nmK. Which of the following is correct ?

Solution:

Given, temperature, T1 = 5760 K
Given that energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm in U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3.
Now, according to Wein's law, we get

where, b = Wien's constant = 2.88 x 106 nmK

λm is the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy, so U2 > U1.
Given, temperature, T1 = 5760 K
Given that energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm in U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3.
Now, according to Wein's law, we get
λmT =b
where, b = Wien's constant = 2.88 x 106 nmK 

λm is the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy, so U2 > U1.

QUESTION: 45

Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave ?

Solution:

An electric charge at rest has electric field in the region around it, but magnetic field is absent. A moving charge produces both electric and magnetic field. When a charge is moving with constant velocity, electric and magnetic field will not change with time. Therefore, no electromagnetic wave will be produced.
But, if the charge is moving with non-zero acceleration, electric and magnetic field will change with space and time. Electromagnetic waves will be produced.
Therefore, accelerated charge emits electromagnetic waves.

QUESTION: 46

Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption ?

Solution:

According to Gibbs Helmholtz equation, ΔG = ΔH & TΔS

Adsorption is a spontaneous process (where ΔS < 0, ΔG < 0 and ΔH < 0)

QUESTION: 47

The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is :

Solution:

pH = 7 for water.

QUESTION: 48

The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?

Solution:

Catalyst can affect only activation energy of the chemical reaction and cannot alter any thermodynamic

parameters :

(ie. ΔH , ΔG , ΔS )

QUESTION: 49

For the following reaction :

Which of the following statements is correct ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is :

Solution:

In arylamines, lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom is delocalised over the benzene ring, thus, not available for donation. So, arylamines are less basic than alkylamines.

QUESTION: 52

Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape ?

Solution:

we have given, 
a number of moles of hydrogen and (nH2) that of oxygen are(nO2) not equal.

QUESTION: 53

The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:

Solution:


Magnitude of torsional strain depends upon the angle of rotation about C-C bond. Staggered form has the least torsional strain and the eclipsed form has the maximum torsional strain. So, the staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than the eclipsed conformation.

*Multiple options can be correct
QUESTION: 54

In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it ?

Solution:

The correct order of increasing negative electron gain enthalpy is : I < Br < F < Cl and the correct order of increasing first ionisation enthalpy is B < C < O < N.

QUESTION: 55

The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol ℓ-1 s-1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol ℓ-1 s-1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces :

Solution:

Nitric acid acts as an oxidising agent while reacting with copper.
i) when copper reacts with dilute nitric acid it forms,
3Cu + 4HNO3(dilute) → 3Cu(NO3)2 +2NO +4H2O
ii) When copper reacts with concentrated nitric acid it forms,
Cu +4HNO3(conc.) → Cu(NO3)2 +NO2 +2H2O

QUESTION: 57

In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by :

Solution:

Two amino acids on the protein are linked by a peptide bond. For example. Glycyllalanine is formed when carboxyl group of glycine combines with the amino group of alanine.

Two amino acids on the protein are linked by a peptide bond. For example. Glycyllalanine is formed when carboxyl group of glycine combines with the amino group of alanine.

QUESTION: 58

Fog is a Colloidal solution of :

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code :

Solution:

(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Cyanide process is used for extracting Au (gold) from low-grade ore by converting the Au to the water soluble coordination complex.
Froth flotation process is used for the dressing of sulphide ore such ZnS.
Electrolytic reduction is used for the extraction of Al. The extraction of aluminium is carried out in a steel tank lined inside with graphite. Here graphite used serves as a cathode.
Zone refining is used for ultra pure Ge element. An ingot of Ge is first purified by zone refining. Then a small amount of antimony is placed in the molten zone which is passed through the pure Ge with the proper choice of rate of heating and other variables.

QUESTION: 60

Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar ?

Solution:

sucrose is non-reducing sugar because it has one -CHO group

QUESTION: 61

The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is :

Solution:

In DNA, two helically twisted strands connected together by steps. Each strand consists of alternating molecules of deoxyribose at 2'-position and phosphate groups. 
On another hand, in RNA, the pentose sugar has an identical structure with deoxyribose sugar except that there is an -OH group instead of -H on carbon atom2'. Hence it is only called ribose.

QUESTION: 62

The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is :

Solution:

ΔG = ΔH - TΔS

For spontaneous process (ΔG = -Ve) at all temperature, ΔH < 0 & ΔS > 0.

QUESTION: 63

Which is the correct statement for the given acids?

Solution:

Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
Phosphinic acid


Due to the presence of one replaceable proton in phosphinic acid, it is monoprotic acid. and due to the presence of two replaceable proton in phosphinic acid, it is diprotic acid.

QUESTION: 64

MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 x 10-13 at room temperature, which statements would be true in regard to MY and NY3?

Solution:

For MY,

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following in an analgesic?

Solution:

Novalgin is an analgesic it is a fact.

QUESTION: 66

The pair of electron in the given carbanion,

, is present in which of the following orbitals?

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

Among the following, the correct order of acidity is :

Solution:

As oxidation number of central atom increases, acidic nature increases.

HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

QUESTION: 68

Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?

Solution:

K2Cr2O7  → Cr2(SO4)3 green solution obtain where as SO2 oxidise into sulphate SO2-4

(K2Cr2O7 + SO2 + H2SO4 → Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + K2SO4)

QUESTION: 69

Predict the correct order among the following :

Solution:

The order of repulsion force according to VSEPR theory :

lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair

QUESTION: 70

Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :

Solution:

Same orbital can have two different values of spin of eof +1/2 and -1/2 (spin quantum number)

QUESTION: 71

The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is :

Solution:

When calcium carbide reacts with nitrogen under high temperature, it forms calcium cyanamide which is also called nitrolim.

QUESTION: 72

Natural rubber has :

Solution:

The repeating unit in natural rubber has the cis-configurations with chain extensions on the same side of the ethylene double bond, which is essential for elasticity. If the configuration is trans, the polymer is hard plastic.

All cis-configuration.

QUESTION: 73

Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?

Solution:

Bond dissociation energies of halogen family decrease down the group as the size of the atom increases. The bond dissociation energy of fluorine, is, however, lower than those of chlorine and bromine because of interelectronic repulsions present in the small atom of fluorine.
Hence bond energy decreases in the order Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

QUESTION: 74

The reaction :

can be classified as :

Solution:

The reaction can be classified as Williamson ether synthesis reaction.
In this reaction, sodium alkoxide reacts with alkyl halide to form an ether.
In the given reaction, cyclopentanol reacts with sodium hydride to form sodium salt of cyclopentanolate. It then reacts with methyl iodide to form methoxycyclopentane.

QUESTION: 75

Lithium has bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m-3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol-1. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02 x 1023 mol-1)

Solution:

Given, Li has a bcc structure
Density (ρ) =530 kg-m-3
atomic mass (M) = 6.94 g mol-1
Avogadro's number of atoms per unit cell in bcc (Z) = 2.
∴ we have the formula for density.

QUESTION: 76

The ionic radii of A+ and Bions are 0.98 x 10-10 m and 1.81 x -10 m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is

Solution:

Given, ionic radius of cation (A+) =0.98 x 10-10m
Ionic radius of anion (B-)=1.81 x 10-10m
therefore,
The coordination number of each ion in AB =?
Now we have.

If radius ratio range is in between 0.441-0.732 ion would have an octahedral structure with coordination number six.

QUESTION: 77

At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be :

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 78

The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63) Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are :

Solution:

63Eu → [Xe] 4f7 6s2

64Gd → [Xe] 4f7 5d16s2

65Tb → [Xe] 4f9 5d06s2

*Multiple options can be correct
QUESTION: 79

Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect ?

Solution:

1 and 2 option are incorrect

Correct . Dihydrogen act as reducing agent for eg 3H2 + N2 → 2NH3

Correct . Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium (1H1) is the most common.

QUESTION: 80

In the reaction

Solution:

NaNH2/liq.NH3 behaves as a base, so it abstracts a proton from acetylene to form acetylide anion followed by alkylation to give compound (X) i.e 1-butyne (X) further reacts with NaNH2/Liq NH3 followed by alkylation with ethyl bromide yields 3-hexyne (Y).

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium.

Liquid ⇌ Vapour

Which of the following relations is correct ?

Solution:

 


The given phase equilibria is
Liquid ⇌ Vapour
This equilibrium states that, when liquid is heated, it converts into vapour but on cooling, it further converts into liquid, which is derived by Clausius clapeyron and the relationship is written as,

QUESTION: 82

Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given Vapour Pressure Data at 25ºC, Benzene = 12.8kPa, toluene = 3.85kPa)

Solution:

Due to high partial vapour pressure of Benzene as compare to that of toluene so the mole fraction of Benzene will be higher than that of toluene. As a result the vapour will contain a higher percentage of

Benzene.

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following biphenyls is optically active

Solution:

o-Substituted biphenyls are optically active as both the rings are not in one plane and their mirror images are non-superimposable.

QUESTION: 84

Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1,2- diol from the trans-isomer ?

Solution:


trans-isomer does not react with acetone.

QUESTION: 85

The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is :

Solution:

It is known that basic need for the existance of Keto-enol tautomers is the presence of at least one hydrogen atom at adjacent sp3 carbon of carbonyl carbon.

QUESTION: 86

Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statement is false ?

Solution:

The H-O-H bond angle in H2O  is larger than the H-C-H bond angle in CH4.
According to VBT: lone pair-lone pair repulsion is more than a bond pair -lone pair repulsion.
As the number of lone pair of electrons on central element increases, repulsion between that lone pair of electrons increases and therefore, bond angle decreases.

QUESTION: 87

Match the compound given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark the correct option.

Column-I                Column-II 

(a) XeF6            (i) distorted octahedral

(b) XeO3           (ii) square planar

(c) XeOF4         (iii) pyramidal

(d) XeF4            (iv) square pyramidal

Code :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution:

(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

QUESTION: 88

Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3 . If a larger amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture the rate of nitration will be :

Solution:

IN the nitration of benzene in the presence of conc. H2SO4 and HNO3, benzene is formed.
HNO3 +H2SO4 
If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to this mixture more HSO4- ion furnishes and hence the concentration of electrophile decreases, rate of electrophilic aromatic reaction slows down.
IN the nitration of benzene in the presence of conc. H2SO4 and HNO3, benzene is formed.
HNO3 +H2SO4
If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to this mixture more HSO4- ion furnishes and hence the concentration of electrophile decreases, rate of electrophilic aromatic reaction slows down.

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following statement is false ?

Solution:

Ca+2 are important in blood clotting and are also important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following has longest C-O bond length ? (Free C-O bond length in CO is 1.128Å)

Solution:

The greater the negative charge on the carbonyl complex, the more easy it would be for the metal to permit its electrons to participate in the back bonding, the higher would be the M-C bond order and simultaneously there would be larger reduction in the C-O bond order. Thus, [Fe(CO)4]2- has the lowest C-O bond order means the longest bond length.

QUESTION: 91

In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates :

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

Solution:

Anthocyanin in stored in vacuole

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 93

Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other ?


Solution:

Parathormone → increases blood Ca+2 level

Calcitonin → decreases blood Ca+2 level

insulin → decreases blood glucose level

glucagon → increases blood glucose level

Aldosterone → increases B. P.

ANF → decreses B. P.

Relaxin → causes pelvic musculatur relaxation

inhibin → inhibits FSH

So, Relaxin & inhibin not antagonistic

QUESTION: 94

Mitochondria and chloroplast are :

(a) semi-autonomous organelles

(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing

machinery.

Which one of the following options is correct ?

Solution:

Mitochondria and chloroplast have their own ribosomes wwith help of which they can synthesize protein.

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?

Solution:

Plasmide are double stranded DNA.

QUESTION: 96

A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ?

Solution:

C4 plants have high rate of photosynthesis at higher temperature.

QUESTION: 97

Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:

Solution:

Red drop occur due decreased functioning of ps-II beyond 680 nm and when both ps I and ps II are functioning together their is enchancement in quantum yield.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 98

Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?


Solution:

QUESTION: 99

When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) :

Solution:

QUESTION: 100

Which one of the following statements is not true ?

Solution:

Dehiscence of anther occur due to stomium cells of endothecium

QUESTION: 101

Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

Solution:

Eubacteria are called true bacteria.

QUESTION: 102

The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:

Solution:

Avena curvature bioassay is done to test function of IAA.

QUESTION: 103

Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is :

Solution:

Higher blood pressure in pulmonary vein than pulmonary artery is an abnormal condition leading to pulmonary hypertension & pulmonary oedema.

*Multiple options can be correct
QUESTION: 105

Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

In meiosis crossing over is initiated at :

Solution:

In pachytene recombination nodule is formend after which crossing over occur

QUESTION: 107

 Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds arc included in the kingdom

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as :

Solution:

Tonus - low level activity of muscles at rest to maintain posture.

Spasm - Sudden involuntary muscle contraction

fatigue - decline in muscle activity

Tetanus - Sustained muscle contraction in response to successive stimuli

QUESTION: 109

Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin' :

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ?

Solution:

Gene related with haemophilia is always present on X chromosome and it is present on X chromosome and it is recessive gene disorder as it express itself in females when comes an homonzygous condition

QUESTION: 112

Select the correct statement:

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?

Solution:

QUESTION: 114

A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?

Solution:

Synapsis is pairing of homologous chromosomes which occurs during meiosis but it is absent in mitos.

QUESTION: 117

Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

Solution:

Cancer will be caused by increased telomerase activity making the cancerous cells immortal & not by inhibition of telomerase production.

QUESTION: 118

One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 119

Cotyledon of maize grain is called :

Solution:

In maize grains single large shield shaped cotyledon is called scutellum.

QUESTION: 120

Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks ?

Solution:

Lichens are pioneer organisms on bare rocks as they corrode the rocks by secreting enzyme & converted into soil.

QUESTION: 121

Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of :

Solution:

GnRH pulse frequency in controlled by estrogen and progesterone both after puberty

QUESTION: 122

Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain :

Solution:

OPV is of 2 types :

(i) OPV sabin - Live attenuated vaccine

(ii) OPV salk - Killed vaccine

QUESTION: 123

Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:

Solution:

Rhodopsin is made of opsin & retinal.

QUESTION: 124

Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called :

Solution:

As subsidiary cells & guard cells both are modification of epidermal cells in which guard cells have chloroplasts which is absent in surroundings subsidiary cells.

QUESTION: 125

Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum - Arthropoda?

Solution:

Parapodia is a characteristic of Annelida.

QUESTION: 126

Reduction in pH of blood will :

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 127

Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?


Solution:

Reptilia has an order crocodilia which shows 4 chambered heart. In mammals, prototheria group shows oviparity while metatheria & eutheria show viviparity. Chordates can be gnathostomata & agnatha (without jaws). Only cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes) show cartilaginous endoskeleton without exception

QUESTION: 128

Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column IIand choose the correct option:

Column I                                    Column II

(a) Dominance                        (i) Many genes govern a single character

(b) Codominance                   (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself

(c) Pleiotropy                         (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully

(d) Polygenic inheritance      (iv) A single gene influences many characters

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

A typical fat molecule is made up of :

Solution:

fat is a triglyceride which is made up of 3 molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol

QUESTION: 130

Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the :

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

Solution:

Glycine is the simplest amino acid which is devoid of sulpher content

QUESTION: 132

Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon. dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options :

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in :

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the :

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?

Solution:

Periplaneta Americana shows indeterminate and spiral cleavage

QUESTION: 140

A system of rotating crops with legume or gras pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 141

Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?


Solution:
QUESTION: 142

In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?

Solution:

Urea/Ornithine cycle takes place in liver so the vein leaving liver possesses maximum urea which is hepatic vein

QUESTION: 143

Pick out the correct statements :

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.

(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.

(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.

Solution:

Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal codominant disorder

QUESTION: 144

Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?

Solution:
QUESTION: 145

Microtubules are the constituents of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

The coconut water from tender coconut represents :

Solution:

In tender coconut, edible part is liquid endosperm that represents free nuclear endosperm

QUESTION: 147

Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

Which of the following is not a stem modification?

Solution:

Pitcher of nepenthes is modification of leaf

QUESTION: 149

The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from :

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as :

Solution:
QUESTION: 151

In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self, If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to :

Solution:

If self & non-self recognization power is lost than immune cells can attack our own body cells and cause auto immune disease

QUESTION: 152

Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature.

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires :

Solution:
QUESTION: 154

In context of Amniocentesis,which of the following statement is incorrect ?

Solution:

Cleft palate is a structural defect and cannot be determined by amniocentesis.

QUESTION: 155

In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the :

Solution:

gastric acid is HCl secreted by parietal or oxyntic cells.

QUESTION: 156

Spindle fibres attach on to:

Solution:

kinetochore of chromosome facilitates the attachment of spindle fibre (chromosomal fibre) and pole

QUESTION: 157

Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 158

Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?

Solution:

Except Lysosome, all three are bounded by double membrane

QUESTION: 159

The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked togetherby :

Solution:
QUESTION: 160

In which of the following, all three are macronutrients ?

Solution:

No answer is correct

QUESTION: 161

Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?

Solution:

In viroid, RNA is of low molecular weight

QUESTION: 162

Analogous structures are a result of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 163

Select the incorrect statement:

Solution:

LH and FSH both increase during follicular phase.

QUESTION: 164

Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? .

Solution:

birds are oviparous while mammals are oviparous(prototherians) and viviparous(metatherians and eutherians).

QUESTION: 165

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 166

Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of :

Solution:
*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 167

Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?


Solution:

vasectomy causes sterilization by preventing transfer of sperms into semen

QUESTION: 168

The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of :

Solution:
QUESTION: 169

A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in :

Solution:
QUESTION: 170

Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:

Solution:
*Multiple options can be correct
QUESTION: 171

Asthma may be attributed to :

Solution:

asthma is an allergic disease caused by allergens and characterized by inflammation of tracheobronchial tree.

QUESTION: 172

The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called

Solution:
QUESTION: 173

Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

Solution:
QUESTION: 174

It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:

Solution:

smaller animals have higher BMR related with sustained energy production and delayed muscle fatigue

QUESTION: 175

Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :

(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably

anaerobes.

(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?

Solution:

First originated organism was prokaryote chemoheterotroph and oxygen was not available on earth at that time so it must be anaerobic too. Even the first autotroph was dependent on chemicals so oxygen is not released

QUESTION: 176

A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in

Solution:
QUESTION: 177

Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:

Solution:
QUESTION: 178

Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:

Solution:
QUESTION: 179

Which one of the following is the starter codon?

Solution:
QUESTION: 180

The term ecosystem was coined by :

Solution:

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