NEET Mock Test - 14


180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers | NEET Mock Test - 14


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This mock test of NEET Mock Test - 14 for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET NEET Mock Test - 14 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NEET Mock Test - 14 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this NEET Mock Test - 14 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NEET Mock Test - 14 extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The ratio of the energy of an X - ray photon of wavelength 1 Å to that of visible light of wave length 5000 Å is

Solution:

EX = hc/λX

And EV = hc/ λV

EX/EV = λVX = 5000/1

Hence B is correct.

QUESTION: 2

In a transformer, the output current and voltage are respectively 4 A and 20 V. If ratio of no. of turns in primary to secondary is 2:1, what is the input current and voltage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

When a particle of charge Q and mass M moving with a velocity V enters a magnetic field B, the particle is deflected into a circular path of radius

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

In the photo electric phenomenon, the number of photo electrons emitted is proportional to

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

A boy on a cycle pedals around a circle of 20 mts radius at a speed of 20 m/s. The combined mass of the boy and the cycle is 90 kg. The angle that the cycle makes with the vertical so that it may not fall is (g = 9.8 m/sec2)

Solution:

For balance, so that it may not fall, angle θ made with the vertical

QUESTION: 6

A potentiometer consists of a wire of length 4 m and resistance 10 Ω. It is connected to a cell of e.m.f. 2V. The potential difference per unit length of the wire will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

A milliammeter of range 10 mA has a coil of resistance 1 Ω. To use it as voltmeter of range 10 volt, the resistance that must be connected in series with it, will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

Photons of energy 6eV are incident on a metal surface whose work function is 4eV. The minimum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons will be

Solution:

Minimum kinetic energy is always zero.
Maximum kinetic energy = E−W= 6eV−4eV = 2eV

QUESTION: 9

Light of frequency v is incident on a certain photoelectric substance with threshold frequency v₀. The work function for the substance is

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

In an electron gun, the electrons are accelerated by the potential V. If e is the charge and m is the mass of an electron, then the maximum velocity of these electrons will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

Transformers are used in

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron when its kinetic energy is K is λ. What will be its wavelength when its kinetic energy is 4 K ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

Maxwell in his famous equation of electromagnetism introduced the concept of

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

Heat radiations propagate with the speed of

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

A straight wire of length l and electric dipole moment p is bent to from a semicircle. The new electric dipole moment would be

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

Two spherical conductors of radii 4 cm and 5 cm are charged to the same potential. If σ₁ and σ₂ be the respective values of the surface density of charge on both the conductors, then the ratio σ₁/σ₂ is

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

If a metallic sphere gets cooled from 62°C to 50°C in 10 minutes and in the next 10 minutes gets cooled to 42°C, then the temperature of the surroundings is

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Absolute temperature can be calculated by

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

Consider two unequal masses m₂ > m₁ connected by a string which passes over a frictionless and massless pulley. The tension T in string is

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

A current passing through a circular coil of two turns produces a magnetic field B at its centre. The coil is then rewound so as to have four turns and the same current is passed through it. The magnetic field at its centre now is

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

When 2 A current is passed through the coil of a tangent galvanometer, it gives a deflection of 45°. For 60° deflection, the current must be

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

Magnetic moment of a magnet is M. Maximum value of torque acting on this magnet when suspended in a uniform magnetic field of intensity B is

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

The potential energy of a molecule increases when it is brought to the surface from the interior of a liquid because

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Two wires of the same material and length, but diameters in the ratio 1 : 2 are stretched by the same force. The elastic potential energy stored per unit volume for the two wires when stretched, will be in the ratio of

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

The nucleus finally formed in fusion of protons in proton-proton cycle is

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge z1 and mass M1 approaches a target nucleus of charge z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

In the following reaction, the energy released is

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

When the bob of a simple pendulum, held in hand is subjected to and fro motion at hill, then the oscillations of the bob will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

When red glass is heated in dark room, it will seem

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Continuous emission spectrum is also called

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

A massless disc of radius r is attached with 5 masses of mass m on its rim. The total moment of inertia of the system is

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

The linear acceleration of centre of gravity of a ball which rolls down without slipping over an inclined plane with an angle of inclination of 30° will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

The general equation of S.H.M. is

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

When a P-N junction diode is forward biased then

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

P-N junction diode works as a insulator, if connected

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

A 500 watt heating unit is designed to operate from a 115 volt line. If the line voltage dropes to 110 volt, the percentage drop in heat output will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

540 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540 g of water at 80°C. The final temp. of the mixture in °C will be

Solution:

The amount of heat required to melt 540g of ice is given by

 = 540 × 80 = 43200 cal 

(latent heat of ice = 80 kcal ⁄ g) 

Now heat lost by 540 g of water form 80°C to 0°C.

= 540 × 1 × (80° − 0°) = 43200 cal 

Therefore, all the ice must be melt and temperature of mixture is zero.

QUESTION: 39

In an experiment, the temperature of a gas in kelvin increases 2 times, when it is suddenly compressed. What is the ratio of initial volume to the final volume of the gas, if the ratio of specific heats is 1.4?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of any of the following

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

If an open pipe of length l vibrates in fundamental mode, then pressure variation is maximum at

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The ratio of fundamental frequency of tube A and B is

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg and momentum of 2 Ns is

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

A metal ball falls from a height of 32 m on a steel plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to what height will the ball rise after second bounce

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

Two masses of 1 kg and 16 kg are moving with equal K.E. The ratio of magnitude of the linear momentum is

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson's synthesis?

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

In which of the following reactions, aldehydes and ketones are distinguished?

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24), the number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers l=1 and 2 respectively:

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Which of the following is not isoelectronic?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Electrophiles are

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

The most reactive nucleophile among the following is

Solution:

Although due to +I effect of methyl groups, (CH3)2 CHO and (CH3)3 CO are stronger bases but due to steric hindrance both are weaker nucleophiles than CH3O
Further due to resonance, C6H5O

is the weakest nucleophile
CH3O is most reactive (stronger) nucleophile

QUESTION: 52

On heating glucose with Fehling's solution we get a precipitate whose colour is

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

In the following reaction ,product P is

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

In a double bond connecting two atoms, there is a sharing of

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

H₂O is dipolar whereas BeF₂ is not. It is because

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

The enthalpy of combustion of C(graphite) and C (diamond) are -393.5 and -395.4 KJ mol⁻1 respectively .The enthalpy of conversion of C(graphite) to C (diamond) in KJ mol⁻1 is

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are -382.64 KJ mol⁻1 and -145.6 KJ⁻1mol⁻1,respectively.The standard Gibb's energy change for the same reaction at 298 K is

Solution:

Given, ∆H = -382.64 kJ mol-1 and ∆S = -145.6 JK-1mol-1
∆G = ∆H-T∆S
= -382.64 -298(-145.6/1000)
= -382.64+43.38
= -339.3 kJ mol-1
 

QUESTION: 58

In a reversible reaction, the catalyst

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and 280 K. The rate constants were found to be k1 and k2 respectively. Then

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

A particular reaction has a negative value for the free energy change. Then at ordinary temperature

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

The number of optical isomers of the compound CH₃CHBrCHBrCOOH is

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

To calculate the amount of work done in Joules during a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the volume must be expressed in

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

The number of isomers exhibited by [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃] is

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

The additive used in composite propellants is

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

During electrolysis, the species discharged at cathode are

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is a

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

The element, which forms oxides in all oxidation states + 1 to + 5, is

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Oxidation no. of Os in OsO₄ is

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

The CO₂ content in the atmospheric air by volume is about

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Potassium crystallises in a body centred lattice. Hence, the coordination number of potassium in potassium metal is

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

In the given reaction, the oxide of sodium is...
4Na + O₂ → 2Na₂O.
Na₂O + H₂O → 2NaOH

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

The weight of 11.2 litres of CO₂ at S.T.P. would be

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

What is the number of free electrons present on each carbon atom in graphite

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

Which of the following can give iodometric titration?

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Which one of the following is acid salt?

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Ammonium ion is

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Arrange the following halides in the decreasing order of SN1 reactivity.

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

In Kjeldahl's method, the nitrogen presence is estimated as

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

Among the bromide I-III given below, the order of their reactivity in the SN1 reaction is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

Orlon is a polymer of

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

The correct order of increasing basic nature in aqueous solution for the amines listed (I) to (V) 

I. C6H5NH2
II. CH3NHCH3
III. CH3NH2
IV. C6H5NHC6H5
V. (CH3)2 CH — NH — CH (CH3)2

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Two elements X(atomic mass = 75) and Y (atomic mass = 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8% X. The formula of the compound is

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Oxidation number of iron in potassium ferrocyanide, K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

An aqueous solution containing 1 g of urea boils at 100.25°C. The aqueous solution containing 3 g of glucose in the same volume will boil at (Molecular weight of urea and glucose are 60 and 180 respectively)

Solution:

Elevation in boiling point when urea is dissolved in water:

As wt. of water is constant, hence can be neglected.
K b = 100.25 x 60 = 6015
Elevation in boiling point when glucose is dissolved in water:

QUESTION: 86

The vapour pressure at a given temperature of an ideal solution containing 0.2 mol of a non-volatile solute and 0.8 mol of solvent is 60 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure of the pure solvent at the same temperature will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

The concentration units independent of temperature would be

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases because

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

When KI and CuSO₄ solutions are mixed, it gives

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Brass is an alloy of

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

The sexual reproduction is absent in

Solution:

Nostoc belongs to cyanophyceae. In this entire class sexual reproduction is completely absent. It reproduces by colony formation, hormogonia, akinetes, heterocysts and endospres. However genetic recombination has been observed. It may be probably through transformation or conjugation. The other three algae- Spirogyra, Ulothrix and Volvox belong to chlorophyceae. The members of this class show isogamous, anisogamous and oogamous type of sexual reproduction.

QUESTION: 92

Axolotl is the name given to the larva of:

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

In a plant organ covered by periderm, the stomata are absent. Gaseous exchange occurs through

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

In which plant sex organs are embedded in thallus

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

In Funaria stomata are present on the

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

In mitosis, the duplication of chromosomes occurs during

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

Liquid food drinking is

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

Meiosis II fails after completion of Meiosis I. The phenomenon is

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Peroxisomes possess

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

A prokaryotic cell lacks

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

Hexaploid wheat is

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

Deficiency of VIII factor leads to

Solution:
QUESTION: 103

Which are the largest of the white blood cells?

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

Which factor promotes the appearance of the platelet plug?

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

Which of the following is not involved in coagulation?

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Which of these factors will increase the RBC or RCC?

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

The present population of the world is estimated to be :

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

The tests that are used in the diagnosis of AIDS are :

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

Human population follows :

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

Where are the lacteals located?

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

pH of gastric juice is

Solution:

The gastric juice is highly acidic in nature due to the presence of hydrochloric acid.

QUESTION: 112

An ecosystem has two components such as

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

Coenzymes FMN and FAD are derived from vitamin

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

Brain sand is found in

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Savannah is found commonly in

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

Hypophysectomy results in

Solution:
QUESTION: 117

In competitive inhibition

Solution:
QUESTION: 118

We are living in

Solution:
QUESTION: 119

Incomplete dominance produces in F₂ generation

Solution:
QUESTION: 120

In a cross between pure tall Pea plant with green pods and dwarf Pea plant with yellow pods, how many short plant out of 16 would you expect in F2 generation?

Solution:
QUESTION: 121

Pollination in Pinus occurs at

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

The Gymnosperms do not have -

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

Select the statement which is not correct?

Solution:

Polygenic character is controlled by multiple genes – True, because many genes control a single character.

Numerous intermediate types are found in between the two extremes in polygenic inheritance – True because many phenotypes are appear between the parental phenotypes.

Height, weight and skin colour are polygenic – True, because many genes control variety of phenotypes in the living organisms.

Polygenic traits is controlled by multiple alleles – False, because many controls the one trait. It is called Polygenic inheritance.

So, the correct option is ‘Polygenic trait is controlled by multiple alleles’.

 

QUESTION: 124

Membranous labyrinth is concerned with

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

Which is not an immunological technique?

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

A compound formed in an organism for inhibiting of another organism is

Solution:
QUESTION: 127

Snake moulting consists of

Solution:
QUESTION: 128

Immunity acquired after an infection is

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

A fixed animal generally possesses

Solution:

Radial symmetry is seen in sedentary animals where the environment is same along all the radius, consequently, the body is also the same along all the radius. It allows the animal to detect food or danger approaching from any side. Radial symmetry is found in cnidarians, ctenophores and echinoderms.

QUESTION: 130

Antiboides are

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

VAM is

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

PPLO is

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

Bacterial pili are involved in

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

Lipids are insoluble in water, because lipid molecules are

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

In photosynthesis, splitting of water moleule and release of oxygen, is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

Which of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

Sand culture is a component of

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

In cockroach, the structure which is not associated with mouthparts is

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

Of the two pairs of wings in cockroach at rest

Solution:
QUESTION: 140

In Pheretima septa do not occur in

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

Salivary gland in earthworm is found in

Solution:
QUESTION: 142

The vascular bundle in a dicot stem is

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

Phloem serves as a passage for

Solution:

Phloem provides a passage for the downward movement of food manufactured in the leaves to various parts of the plant.

QUESTION: 144

Identify the plant in which vegetative propagation is possible by using tuber with a node (eye)

Solution:
QUESTION: 145

A person with a damaged medulla oblongata would have difficulty

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

In which the following plants vegetative reproduction takes place with the help of bulbils

Solution:
QUESTION: 147

Benthoic animals live

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

A number of geographical forms occur in an otherwise freely inbreeding species. The species is

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

H.G.Khorana was awarded the Nobel prize for

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Which of the following is not a fish?

Solution:
QUESTION: 151

Creosote is used to prevent

Solution:
QUESTION: 152

What does Bt stand for popular crop of Bt cotton

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

The most important discovery of the present century is

Solution:
QUESTION: 154

Insulin is secreted by

Solution:
QUESTION: 155

Haploid plant cultures are got from

Solution:
QUESTION: 156

Stele consists of

Solution:
QUESTION: 157

The application of engineering and technological principles to the life sciences is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 158

Yogurt is formed by

Solution:
QUESTION: 159

Bordered pits occur in

Solution:
QUESTION: 160

The noise created at the launching of space rocket measures around

Solution:
QUESTION: 161

Minamata disease first occurred in

Solution:
QUESTION: 162

Water pollution

Solution:
QUESTION: 163

Plankton is

Solution:
QUESTION: 164

Biotic succession is caused by

Solution:
QUESTION: 165

Solenocytes are the main excretory structures in

Solution:
QUESTION: 166

Middle layer of anther wall is formed by secondary outer parietal layer in

Solution:
QUESTION: 167

Seedless fruits can be obtained by the application of

Solution:
QUESTION: 168

The sperm penetrates the egg by means of enzymes that are found in the

Solution:
QUESTION: 169

The most diverse chemicals are

Solution:
QUESTION: 170

Xenia indicates the effect of pollen on

Solution:
QUESTION: 171

Vivipary may be described

Solution:
QUESTION: 172

Which of the following symptoms might be an indication of kidney failure?

Solution:
QUESTION: 173

There is no DNA in

Solution:
QUESTION: 174

Which of the following is not a function of seminal fluid?

Solution:
QUESTION: 175

Rutaceae differs from malvaceae in having-

Solution:
QUESTION: 176

The duct that is used by both the reproductive and excretory systems in males is the

Solution:
QUESTION: 177

According to Oswald Tippo, angiosperms are classified under phylum-

Solution:
QUESTION: 178

Which of the following is the source of aldosterone?

Solution:
QUESTION: 179

If the blood becomes acidic, the kidneys will maintain homeostasis by actively excreting