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# NEET Mock Test - 2

## 180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers | NEET Mock Test - 2

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This mock test of NEET Mock Test - 2 for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET NEET Mock Test - 2 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NEET Mock Test - 2 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this NEET Mock Test - 2 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NEET Mock Test - 2 extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

### The radius of gyration of body about centre of mass is 24 cm. Then radius of gyration of body about an axis parallel to axis passing through centre of mass and at a distance 7 cm from centre of mass is

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

A spherical shell of mass m and radius R is pulled on a horizontal plane by a horizontal force F acting on its centre of mass. If shell is rolling without slipping, then angular acceleration of the spherical shell will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

A uniform rod AB of mass ’m’ length ‘2a’ is allowed to fall under gravity with AB in horizontal position. When the speed of rod is ‘V’ suddenly the end ‘A’ is fixed. The angular velocity of rod with which it begins to rotate will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

The amplitude of vibration of particle is given by  where a0, a, b and c are positive. The condition for single resonant frequency will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

A particle performing SHM with frequency 10 Hz and amplitude 5 cm is initially in left extreme position. The equation of its displacement will be (x is in meter)

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

The gravitational field at some point in space is The force exerted on a 2 kg mass placed at a point is

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

A wire having a linear mass density 5.0 x 10-3 kg/m is stretched between two rigid supports with tension of 450 N. The wire resonates at frequency 400 Hz. The next higher frequency at which the wire resonates is 500 Hz. The length of the wire will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following is correct

Solution:
• Sound waves require a material medium for their propagation. So the observed frequency of sound when the source moves towards the observer is different from the case when the observer moves towards the source with the same relative velocity.
• We say that the Doppler effect in sound is asymmetric. On the other hand, no material medium is required for propagation of light waves. So the apparent frequency is same whether the source moves towards the observer or the observer moves towards the source. We say that the Doppler effect in light is symmetric.
QUESTION: 11

If V is speed, r is radius and g is acceleration due to gravity, which of the following is dimensionless?

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

For a man running horizontally along east at spped of 4 km/hr, rain appears to fall vertically. If he doubles his speed the rain appears to hit him at an angle at 30o with vertical. The original speed and direction of rain will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

The rod as shown in figure starts slipping. The speed of the lower end, at the instant when speed of upper end is 3 m/s and rod makes an angle of 30o with x-axis is

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

On the horizontal surface of truck a block of mass x2 kg is placed and coefficient of friction between the block and surface is (μs = 0.6) truck starts moving with acceleration 4 m/s2 , the frictional force on the block will (g = 10 m/s2)

Solution:

If the block has to move, it should overcome static frictional force which is μmg = 0.6 × 2 × 10 = 12N

As the truck is moving with an acceleration, a pseudo force acts on the block which is ma = 2 × 4 = 8N

As this force is not enough for the block to move, an equal frictional force acts in the opposite direction which is equal to 8N.

QUESTION: 15

A man is supplying an instantaneous power of 500 J/s to a massless string by pulling it at an instantaneous speed of 10 m/s as shown. It is known that kinetic energy of the block is increasing at a rate of 100 J/s at that instant. Then the mass of the block is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

An ideal diatomic gas undergoes a thermodynamic process where pressure (P) as a functional of volume (V) is given by The average rotational kinetic energy of the gas

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

Each side of regular polygon of n sides has a resistance R. The equivalent resistance between any two adjacent vertices is

Solution:

When, a uniform wire of resistance R is shaped into a regular n-sided polygon, the resistance of each side of polygon is R/n​

Let, R1​ and R2​ be the resistances between two parts of polygon between opposite corners. Polygon will get divided into n/2 sides on both sides. Therefore,

The two parts are parallel to each other hence, equivalent resistance between two opposite corners is

Also, the polygon is equivalent to the combination of two resistances.
The resistance of one side ,

The resistance of (n−1) side,

Since, the two parts are parallel, hence equivalent resistance between two adjacent corners is

QUESTION: 18

When a lens of power P (in air) made of material of refractive index 3 is dipped in a liquid of refractive index 4, the new power of lens is

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an average power output of 800 W. The maximum value of electric field at a distance 3.5 m from source will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

Two plates (area : a each) given charges + q1 and + q2 (q2 < q1) are brought closer to form a capacitor of capacitance C. The potential difference across the plates is

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

A and B are inputs to a logic gate as shown in the figure.

For the given set of inputs and corresponding output data identify the logic gate.

Solution:

Explanation : Y = A.B + (A)bar.(B)bar

or

Y = Ex-NOR

QUESTION: 22

A 220 V ac supply is connected between the two points A and B as shown in the figure. The output waveform (qualitative) across the diode is

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

Figure below shows the transfer characteristics of a CE amplifier. Choose the false statement.

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

Consider the statements given below.
1. At absolute zero temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor acts as an insulator
2. The Fermi level in an intrinsic semi conductor lies between the valence band and conduction band
Choose the correct statement (S)

Solution:

At 0o C, semiconductor acts as an insulator and in an intrinsic semiconductor. Fermi level just lies in mid between the valence band conduction band.

QUESTION: 25

In a Zener regulated power supply, a Zener diode with Vz = 6.0 V , Iz = 5IL is used for regulation. The load current is to be 4.0 mA and the unregulated input is 10 V, as shown in the figure. The value of series resistance Rs required will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

Two rods on is semi circular of thermal conductivity K1 and other is straight of thermal conductivity K2 and of same cross-sectional area are joined as shown in figure. The point A and B are maintained at same temperature difference. If rate of flow of heat is same in two rods then K1/K2 is

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

A spring-block system undergoes simple harmonic motion on smooth horizontal surface. The block is now given some positive charge and a uniform horizontal electric field to the right is switched on as a result of

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

The latent heat of vaporisation of water is more than latent heat of fusion of ice, because

Solution:

The latent heat of vaporisation of water is more than latent heat of fusion of ice because on vaporisation much large increase in volume takes place

QUESTION: 29

The emissive power of a black body at T = 300 K is 100 W/m2. Consider a body B of area A = 10 m2, coefficient of reflectivity r = 0.3 and absorptivity a = 0.2. If its temperature is 300 K then markout the correct statement.

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

For the indicator diagram given below, correct statement is

Solution:

Cycle-I is clockwise therefore work done will be positive for cycle-I

QUESTION: 31

The light waves having displacements y1 = 10 sin(ωt - kx) and y2 = 2sin(ωt - kx) interfere. The ratio of maximum to minimum average intensity of light in interference pattern is

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm passes through a long slit of width 0.4 mm. The angular divergence in which most of the light is diffracted is

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

When a hydrogen atom, initially at rest emits a photon resulting n transition from n = 6 to n = 1, its recoil speed will be (mass of proton 1.6 x 10−27 kg)

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

For a plane electromagnetic wave, average of which among the following is zero

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

The power factor of the circuit shown in the figure is  The reactance of capacitance of the circuit is

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is indicated in the following figure. A, B, C and D are four nuclei indicated on the curve. Among the following, the process that would yield maximum energy is

Solution:

Energy would be released when products of high BE/nucleon are produced.

QUESTION: 37

A charged beam consisting of electrons and positrons enter into a region of uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to field, with a speed v. The maximum separation between an electron and a proton will be (mass of electron =  mass of proton = m)

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following is true for Lyman series in hydrogen atom?

Solution:

Largest wavelength of Lyman series is 1215.7 Å.

QUESTION: 39

In a young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the two slits is . The distance of the screen from the slits is 50 cm. If the wavelength of light used is 4000 Å, then the angular position of first dark fringe is

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

Snapshot of a transverse disturbance on a stretched string is shown in the following figure. The wave is travelling is along positive x-direction. The particles for which velocity is directed along negative y-direction is

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

Which among the following has smallest wavelength?

Solution:

Among the given, X-Rays has smallest wavelength.

QUESTION: 42

The amplifiers A, B and C are connected in series. If the voltage gain of A,B and C are 10, 15 and 20 respectively and input signal 2 mV peak value. Then the output signal voltage’s peak value will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

The heat absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in figure is

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

The length of a metal wire is I1 when the tension in it is T1 and I2 when the tension in it is T2. The outstretched length of the wire is

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

A body falls freely from rest for 4s. The average speed will be (g = 10 m/s2

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

The correct order of increasing energies of atomic orbitals in multi electronic system is

Solution:

Higher is the (n+I) value of an orbital, higher will be its energy.

QUESTION: 48

Which of the following set of quantum numbers does not exit?

Solution:

The value of I can be 0 to (n-1)

QUESTION: 49

For a first order reaction, the half life period is 5 minutes. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from xM to  is

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

The number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons around chlorine in CIF3 respectively are

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

The bond order of O+2 is

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

Equal masses of CH4 and O2 are mixed in a container at 25oC. Fraction of total pressure exerted by O2 is

Solution:

Let the mass of O2 and CH4 be W gram each

QUESTION: 53

Average molar kinetic energies of O2 and SO2 at same temperature are related as (K1 is the kinetic energy of O2 and K2 is the kinetic energy of SO2 at same temperature)

Solution:

Kinetic energy is a function of temperature only.

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following is not a path function?

Solution:

Enthalpy is a state function.

QUESTION: 55

The change in internal energy if 20J of heat is given to the system at constant pressure and 10J of work is done by the system is

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

For a reaction H2 (g) + I→ 2HI (g), delta H = 37.5  kJ/mol and ΔS = 150 JK-1 mol -1 the temperature at which the reaction will be at

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

For the reaction,  If the value of equilibrium constant is K, then the equilibrium constant for the reaction,

Solution:

If the reaction is reversed, the value of equilibrium constant is reciprocated. Also, if the reaction is multiplied by a factor (n) then the value of equilibrium constant becomes

QUESTION: 58

The conjugate acid of HCO3 is

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

The solubility of a salt A2B in pure water will be (Ksp of A2B=1.08x10-16)

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Given the standard electron potentials,

Al3+/ Al = -1.66V
K+/K = - 2.93 V
Mg2+/ Mg = - 2.36 V
Cu2+/Cu = 0.34 V
Zn2+/ Zn= -0.74 V

The correct order of these metals in their increasing order of reducing power is

Solution:

Higher is the negative value of standard reduction potential, stronger is the reducing power.

QUESTION: 62

Which of the following is an electron precise hydride?

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Which among the following has the highest hydration enthalpy?

Solution:

The hydration enthalpy of alkali metals ions decreases with increase in ionic sizes.

QUESTION: 64

Chemical formula of washing soda is

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

The correct order of ionisation enthalpy of group-13 elements is

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

Neutral oxide among the following is

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

The maximum boiling point among the following is of

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

In E1cB mechanism intermediate formed is

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Catechol is

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Which among the following compound gives 1o-alcohol on reaction with Grignard reagent (RMgCI) followed by hydrolysis.

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

The major product (A) of the given reaction is

Solution:

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following is not a use of zeolite(s) as catalyst(s)?

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following is a polar molecular solid?

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following is an incorrect match?

Solution:

ZnO is hexagonal.

QUESTION: 75

The electrode potentials for  are -0.04 V and -0.44 V respectively. The value of  will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 76

Standard electrode potential of three metals A, B and C are -0.49 V, -0.28 V and +0.20 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be

Solution:

The lower is Eoreduction, the higher is reducing power

QUESTION: 77

An aqueous solution contains 0.5 molal Na2S. Which of the following changes will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase ?

Solution:

Addition of less concentrated solution increases the mole fraction of water in aqueous solution.

QUESTION: 78

At 25oC, the highest boiling point is shown by 0.01 molal solution of (Consider complete ionisation of electrolytes)

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

0.2 g of an organic compound gave 0.466 g of BaSO4. The % of sulphur in the compound is (molecular mass of BaSo4=233u)

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

Which of the following alkane on monochlorination give only one product?

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

Sodium propionate on heating with soda lime gives

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Which among the following alkanes is/are liquid at 298 K?

Solution:

Alkane having 5 to 17 carbons are liquid at 298 K.

QUESTION: 83

Product P is

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Total number of conformers for ethane is

Solution:

There are infinite conformers possible for ethane.

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following dn configuration shows strongest Jahn-Teller distortion for ocrahedral complex?

Solution:

Jahn-teller distortion applicable under the unsymmetric filling of eg level i.e.d7 (low spin complex)

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following will not give chromylchloride test?

Solution:

Covalent chloride HgCI2 does not respond chromyl chloride test

QUESTION: 87

Which of the following does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction?

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

Which of the following compounds is least acidic?

Solution:

Compound of highest pKa will be, least acidic

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Select the correct order of acidic strength of the following compounds

Solution:

Due to backbonding in conjugate anion of CHCI3 it is more stable hence more acidic. Order of acidic strength :

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:

Uterus consists of body or corpus, a narrow uterine cavity and a lower cylindrical structure where the attachment of developing foetus takes place known as implantation. It takes place after 7 day of fertilisation (10-15 days in human).

QUESTION: 92

The largest flower found is known as

Solution:

Rafflesia or Corpse flower is a total root parasite. It obtains the total nourishment from the root of the host plant. Its flowers only come out of the host plant and they have a diameter of 1 m and weight around 10kg.

QUESTION: 93

The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to

Solution:

The edible white part of coconut is known as endosperm (seed accumulates inside a pulp) that is equivalent to coconut water.

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following is true about protozoans?

Solution:

All four of these groups are protozoans.

QUESTION: 95

The pollination of two flowers on different plants is known as

Solution:

Fertilisation of a flower by pollen from a flower on a genetically different plant called as xenogamy.

QUESTION: 96

A plant tissue when stained showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in cells wall of its cells. The tissue is called

Solution:

Collenchyma is living mechanical tissue, found beneath the epidermis (i.e., hypodermis) of herbaceous dicot stem. The intercellular spaces in this tissue are absent because in intercellular spaces at the comer of cells thickenings of cellulose and pectin develop due to which the cell wall become rigid and thick at comers.

QUESTION: 97

The carrying capacity of a population is determined by

Solution:

The carrying capacity of a biological species in an environment is the maximum population size of the species that the environment can sustain indefinitely, given the food, habitat, water, and other necessities available in the environment.

QUESTION: 98

DNA duplication takes place in which of the following stage of cell cycle

Solution:

There are 4 phases of the cell cycle, namely G1​ phase, S phase, G2​ phase and M phase. During G1​ phase or gap 1 phase, the cell increases in size. Also, various proteins are synthesized in this phase. During S phase or synthesis phase, the DNA replication or duplication takes place. During G2​ phase, cell continues to grow until it enters the M phase or mitosis phase. Cell division takes place in M phase.

Thus, the correct answer is 'S'.

QUESTION: 99

The slime moulds and unicellular algae are presently included in the kingdom-Protista because

Solution:

Slime moulds belongs to the kingdom protista where they appear to be more closely related to unicellular eukaryotes and does not follow characteristic of fungi and other plants because they are algal and they do not follow other three kingdoms exclude protista.

QUESTION: 100

Food in sieve tube is transported in the form of

Solution:

Phloem is a conducting tissue that transports food materials, usually from leaves to other part of the plants. In phloem, sieve elements transport sucrose. Starch is stored in tissues.

QUESTION: 101

Which of the following is assumed to be connecting link between plants and animals?

Solution:

Euglena contains characters of both plants and animals.

QUESTION: 102

Which of the following material is responsible for non-degradable nature of pollens?

Solution:

Each pollen has two layered wall. The outer layer is thick, tough, cuticularised called exine which is composed of a material called “sporopollenin”. It is highly resistant to biological and physical decomposition, due to which pollens are preserved for a long time in fossils.

QUESTION: 103

Which one of the following is caused by virus?

Solution:

Mumps is a viral infection that primarily affects saliva-producing (salivary) glands that are located near your ears. Mumps can cause swelling in one or both of these glands.

Measles is a highly contagious, serious disease caused by a virus.

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging your immune system, HIV interferes with your body's ability to fight infection and disease.

QUESTION: 104

Select the incorrect statement out of the following.

Solution:

Aerial or epiphytic roots hang down in air, they do not possess root caps and root hair instead they possess a covering of dead spongy tissue called velamen.

QUESTION: 105

One of the following is true for Mandible

Solution:

Mendible is a largest and strongest bone of face that is called as lower jaw bone or jaw bone.

QUESTION: 106

In which one of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most?

Solution:

Desert show maximum difference between day and night temperature.

QUESTION: 107

Vegetative propagation in Chrysanthemum occurs by

Solution:

Asexual or vegetative propagation of plants is that form of plant propagation in which the new individual arises from parent by sucker, e.g, in lawn grass cyanodon (Doob grass); and Chrysanthemum.

QUESTION: 108

When secondary growth is initiated in dicot stem what will happen first?

Solution:

The parenchymatous cells present between vascular bundle dedifferentiate and become meristematic and forms interfascicular cambium.

QUESTION: 109

Peripatus is a connecting link between

Solution:

Peripatus is a soft bodied wormlike, bilaterally symmetrical animal that is a living connecting link between arthropods and annelids.

QUESTION: 110

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

Which one of the following sets of animals share a four-chambered heart?

Solution:

Four chambered heart have a pulmonary circuit pathway (taking blood from heart to lung and back to heart). Crocodiles, birds and mammals have four chambered heart, birds have much larger heart to the mammal.

QUESTION: 112

Which of the following is correct set of micronutrient for plants?

Solution:

The essential elements are divided into macroelements and microelements based on the quantity in which they are required by the plants. Mn, Fe, Cu, Mo, Zn, B, and Cl are the micronutrients needed in very small quantities by the plants. C, H, O, N, P, S, K, Ca, Mg are the macronutrients required in more quantity.

QUESTION: 113

Which one of the following is the most suitable medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster?

Solution:

Most suitable culturing media for Drosophila melanogaster is ripe banana which gives good results in the laboratories.

QUESTION: 114

Match the cell organelles given in column-I with cellular processes in column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Which of the following set are all stop codon

Solution:

Stop codons are UAG, UAA and UGA

QUESTION: 116

Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?

Solution:

Gibberllic acid stimulates cell growth of leaves and stem, causing their expansion, elongation respectively and leaf fall is controlled by ABA.

QUESTION: 117

Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand because

Solution:

Discontinuous replication or synthesis of DNA molecule as a series of short fragments. Extension of RNA primers occurs by the addition of DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses.

QUESTION: 118

Zeatin is a type of

Solution:

Zeatin is a cytokinin present in maize.

QUESTION: 119

Bt gene, which produces protein toxic to insect larvae is

Solution:

Cry genes encoded the protein (toxin) are isolated from the bacterium and incorporated into several crop plants. Bt gene have maximum numbers of cry genes, e.g; cry I Ac, Cry II Ab, Cry I Ab etc.

QUESTION: 120

Pneumatophores are characteristic of plants growing in

Solution:

Some plants growing in salty marshes develop special roots for respiration, called pneumatophores. They are (-)vely geotropic.

QUESTION: 121

Megasporangium is equivalent to

Solution:

Megasporangium is a female sporangia produce megasporocytes the yield megaspore. The ovule appears to be a megasporangium with integuments surrounding it.

QUESTION: 122

The reaction rate of salivary amylase on starch decreases as the concentration of chloride ions is reduced. Which of the following describes the role of the chloride ions?

Solution:

Many enzymes requires a non-protein component for activity. These components are known as co-factors, which may be metal ions or organic in nature. The metal ions may be actually bound to the substrate rather than the enzyme.

QUESTION: 123

In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small multicellular, free living photosynethetic, thalloid gametophyte called

Solution:

In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small multicellular, free living photosynthetic, thalloid gametophyte called as “Prothallus”.

QUESTION: 124

PEP carboxylase is

Solution:

Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEPC) catalyzes the fixation of carbon dioxide with phosphoenolpyruvate to produce oxaloacetate and inorganic phosphate. PEPC is found in most plants and bacteria.

QUESTION: 125

Which of the following statements is not true about genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

Solution:

Genetic linkage is the tendency of alleles that are close together. The recombination frequency will be 50% when two genes are located on different chromosomes that are tightly linked to each other.

QUESTION: 126

Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Magnesium competes with iron and manganese for uptake and with iron for binding with enzymes.
(ii) Magnesium inhibit calcium translocation in shoot apex.
(iii) Excess of manganese may induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium.
(iv) Symptoms of manganese toxicity may actually be the deficiency symptoms of iron, magnesium and calcium.

Solution:

Manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake, and with magnesium for binding with enzymes. Manganese also inhibits calcium translocation in shoot apex.

QUESTION: 127

Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom because

Solution:

Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom because these plants live in soil but they need water for sexual reproduction. They are mostly found on marshy and wetlands where they can adapt to survive with both water nutrients and soil nutrients. So, bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom.

QUESTION: 128

Cry genes has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:

Solution:

Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm

QUESTION: 129

Which era could be called the ‘age of mammals and birds’?

Solution:

The Cenozoic Era is the most recent subdivision of other divisions. The Cenozoic Era describes age of mammals including Birds, while Mesozoic era was age of reptiles.

QUESTION: 130

Aqueous humour produced by the ciliary body is secreted into the posterior chamber and enters the anterior chamber through

Solution:

The pupil permits the passage of light waves and the passage of aqueous humour.

QUESTION: 131

Which of the following is a dinoflagellate responsible for red tides?

Solution:

Red tides are caused by an explosive growth and accumulation of certain microscopic algae also known as Algal Bloom that they discolour Coastal water, hence the name ―red tide”. Red tides are not just the source of beach goers, they are also deadly to marine like fish etc.

QUESTION: 132

The ‘Earth Summit’ held at Rio de Janerio in 1992 resulted into

Solution:

The Earth Summit of Rio de Janeiro, also known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), was held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June 1992. It resulted in the Convention on Biodiversity, a multilateral treaty. Three major goals were addressed in this convention which included: conservation of biodiversity; sustainable use of its components; and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the genetic resources.

QUESTION: 133

Papilionaceous  corolla is a characteristic feature of

Solution:

Papilionaceous corolla is the special type of aestivation found in family Papilionaceae in which there are five petals, the largest petal known as standard or vexillum overlaps the two lateral petals known as wings which in turn overlaps two smallest anterior petals known as keels.

QUESTION: 134

Which of the following is true?
(i) ‘Operon hypothesis’ was proposed by Jacob and Monod
(ii) ‘One gene-one enzyme theory’ was proposed by Beadle and Tatum
(iii) ‘Southern blotting’ is used in DNAfingerprinting
(iv) Uracil and Thymine bases remain present in DNA and RNA respectively

Solution:
*Multiple options can be correct
QUESTION: 135

Phylloclade is photosynthetic, succulent specialized plant part found in

Solution:

Phylloclades are fleshy, green flattened of unlimited growth. The leaves of such plants are modified into spines or scales to check transpiration. They take part in photosynthesis and store water. These are seen in a xerophytic plant like  Opuntia, Euphorbia etc.

QUESTION: 136

Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong ?

Solution:

Mycoplasma is a single-celled, prokaryotic organism. The organism lacks the cell wall. The antibiotic penicillin interferes with the process of cell wall synthesis in which the N-acetyl muramic acid, N-acetyl glucosamine and amino acids in peptidoglycan are linked. The antibiotic interferes with the process of linking of these molecules in the cell wall. Since there is no cell wall in the Mycoplasma, there is no effect of penicillin.

QUESTION: 137

If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be

Solution:

When a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned male, daughters will be carrier for this disease and all sons will be colour blind, this can be represented as follows:

QUESTION: 138

Prior to mutation, a sequence of DNA reads GAGCCTATGCCAGTA. After the mutation, the sequence reads GAGCGTACGCCATTA. Which of the following best explains the change in DNA that has occurred?

Solution:

Since the total number of bases is the same, either no deletions or insertions occurred, or an equal number of each must have occurred. In this case, however, simply comparing each strand base for base shows that the multiple substitutions took place along the sequence.

QUESTION: 139

Ligament is present between

Solution:

A ligament is the fibrous connective tissue that connects bones to other bones. It is also known as articular ligament, articular larua, fibrous ligament, or true ligament. Other ligaments in the body include the: Peritoneal ligament: a fold of peritoneum or other membranes.

QUESTION: 140

Which of the following is a large middle layer consisting of main uterine gland as well as blood vessels?

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

Which of the following crops is being grown in India for biodiesel?

Solution:

Jatropha Curcas, generated interest as an oil crop for biodiesel production in India.

QUESTION: 142

Which one of the following is correct match?

Solution:

Morphine is an opiate narcotic, Bhang is a hallucinogen, Reserpine derived form Raimolffia, is used as tranquiliser, cocaine is a stimulant.

QUESTION: 143

Cell theory was proposed by Schleiden and Schwann .Which of the following is an exception for cell theory?

Solution:

Cell theory states that ―all living cells are made of cells that, are fundamental unit of life” but viruses are not made up of cells. But it is considered to be living. Therefore it is an exception of the theory.

QUESTION: 144

The site where lymphocytes matures ?

Solution:

B cells matures in bone marrow and T cells matures in thymus.

QUESTION: 145

Accordance to the human genome project, select the incorrect statement.

Solution:

Human genome project was the goal of determining sequence pf chemical base pair. Two major approaches involved i.e; ESTs and SNPs in human. This project was launched in 1990 and finally declared complete in 2003.

QUESTION: 146

The technique called Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

Solution:

Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females who cannot produce an ovum. In this process, the eggs of the donor woman are removed and in a form of mixture with sperm transferred into fallopian tube of another woman who cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation. Thus in GIFT, site of fertilisation is fallopian tube, not laboratory.

QUESTION: 147

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is

Solution:

Torpedo is a marine cartilaginous fish that produces electric current for the protection or self defence.

QUESTION: 148

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding class aves?
(i) The forelimbs are modified into wings and the hindlimbs generally have scales and are modified for walking, swimming or clasping the tree branches.
(ii) Heart is completely four-chambered.
(iii) They are warm-blooded (homoiothermous) animals i.e., they are able to maintain constant body temperature.
(iv) They are oviparous and development is direct.

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

Which one of the following is the thickest part of mammalian heart?

Solution:

The myocardium is the thick, middle layer of the heart and is composed of cardiac Muscle.

QUESTION: 150

If you examine the reproductive system of a normal human female before she undergoes puberty, which of the following would you not expect to find ?

Solution:

Corpus leuteum is formed after ovulation only.

QUESTION: 151

Which of the following bonds are found in DNA?

Solution:

Glycosidic bond is present between Pentose sugar and N-base, and phosphodiester bond is found between nucleotides.

QUESTION: 152

Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred to as

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

Pteridophytes were well adapted and advanced in survival on land but they cannot be much successful and widespread as gymnosperms and angiospermic Plants because they lack

Solution:

Pteridophytes lack freedom from water for fertilisation and well advanced and adapted therefore can not be get much success as gymnosperms and angiosperms.

QUESTION: 154

Which one of the following is a matching pair of a substrate and its particular digestive enzyme?

Solution:

Intestinal juices contain a number of oligasaccharidase which hydrolyse the specific oligasaccharides into their monosaccharides. Maltase is one of them, which hydrolyses maltose into two glucose molecules

QUESTION: 155

Most of the fat digestion occurs in

Solution:

Small intestine is a principal organ for absorption of nutrients and completes the digestion where final products of digestion are glucose, fructose, fatty acids, glycerol and amino acids are absorbed through the mucosa into the blood stream and lymph.

QUESTION: 156

Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as

Solution:

Some of the carbon dioxide is transported dissolved in the plasma. Some carbon dioxide is transported as carbaminohemoglobin. However, most carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate. As blood flows through the tissues, carbon dioxide diffuses into red blood cells, where it is converted into bicarbonate.

QUESTION: 157

Which one of these is an in-situ method of conservation?

Solution:

On-site-conservation is the conservation of living resources within the natural ecosystems. It includes a Comprehensive system of protected areas such as National parks, santuaries, Natural reserves, cultural landscapes etc.

QUESTION: 158

Find out the correct order of succession levels in Xerarch.

Solution:

Xeric succession commonly occurs on bare rock surfaces (Lithosere) resulting from glaciation or from erosion by wind and water.

QUESTION: 159

The values of osmotic potential (π) and pressure potential (P) of cells A, B, C and D are given below.

Identify the correct sequence that shows the path of movement of water from among the following.

Solution:

The values of osmotic potential (π) is double of the values of pressure potential (ρ) of cells. In the path of water movement it shows ascending values are B → D → A → C

QUESTION: 160

Genetic drift is change of

Solution:

Genetic drift is also known as Sewall Wright effect. It refers to the random changes in gene frequencies in a population by chance, either due to intensive inbreeding or death of a small section of population by natural calamity. Its effect is more marked in small isolated population.

QUESTION: 161

Endemic goitre is a state of

Solution:

Endemic goitre is associated with dietary iodine deficiency cause a swelling in the frontal part of the neck or endemic goitre occurs when the prevalence of thyroid enlargement in which thyroid gland decrease their function to the stimulation of hormone.

QUESTION: 162

Which variety of rice caused green revolution in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 163

Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to

Solution:

In fertilisation, the acrosomal reaction provides the sperm with an enzymatic drill to get through the zona pellucida of the ova.

QUESTION: 164

Arrange the following ecosystems in increasing order of mean NPP (Tonnes / ha / year).
1. Tropical deciduous forest
2. Temperate coniferous forest;
3. Tropical rain forest
4. Temperate deciduous forest

Solution:

Net primary productivity (NPP) is the biomass or storage of energy by green plants. It is equal to the gross primary productivity minus loss due to respiration. The productivity generally increases from polar regions toward the tropics because of the increasing sunlight and temperature.

QUESTION: 165

In an experiment demonstrating the evolution of oxygen in Hydrilla, sodium bicarbonate is added to water in the experimental set-up. What would happen if all other conditions are favourable?

Solution:

Amount of oxygen increases as the availability of carbon dioxide increases in given experimental condition.

QUESTION: 166

Food chain is a series of population which starts with producers. It is concerned with

Solution:

Transfer of food energy from the producers through a series of organisms with repeated eating and being eaten is known as food chain. Producers utilise the solar energy and transformed it to chemical form (ATP) during photosynthesis.

QUESTION: 167

Which of the following is a Ribozyme?

Solution:

Ribozymes (ribonucleic acid enzymes) are RNA molecules that are capable of catalyzing specific biochemical reactions. Ribozymes were discovered in the early 1980s by Thomas R.Cech et al. peptidyl transferase is an riboenzyme, which help in peptide bond formation during translation.

QUESTION: 168

Smooth muscles are

Solution:

Smooth muscles are involuntary in nature and do have cells with tapering ends.

QUESTION: 169

Functional unit of skeletal muscle is called

Solution:

A sacromere is the basic unit of skeletal muscle tissue, contains many parallel actin (thin) and myocin (thick) filaments.

QUESTION: 170