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# NEET Mock Test - 3 (09-02-2020)

## 180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series 2020 & Past Year Papers | NEET Mock Test - 3 (09-02-2020)

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This mock test of NEET Mock Test - 3 (09-02-2020) for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET NEET Mock Test - 3 (09-02-2020) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NEET Mock Test - 3 (09-02-2020) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this NEET Mock Test - 3 (09-02-2020) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NEET Mock Test - 3 (09-02-2020) extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Solution:

So A > B

QUESTION: 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

### In the formula X =3YZ2 , X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction respectively. What are the dimensions of Y in MKSQ system? (Q = charge)

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

A unitless quantity

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Which pair of following quantities has dimensions different from each other?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

The dimensions of 0 : permittivity of free space, E : electric field) is

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Pressure depends on distance as,   where α,β are constants, z is distance, k is Boltzmann’s constant and θ is temperature. The dimension of β are

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

What are the dimensions of electrical resistance?

Solution:

v = IR
v hss the dimension of

QUESTION: 9

An ant is at a corner of a cubical room of side ‘a’. The ant can move with a constant speed u. The minimum time taken to reach the farthest corner of the cube is

Solution:

on placing back face and bottom face in same plane

QUESTION: 10

A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration f. If the sum of the distances travelled in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100 cm, then its velocity after t seconds, in cm/s, is

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. It crosses a point at the height of 25 m twice at an interval of 4 secs. The ball was thrown with the velocity of

Solution:

25 = ut - 5t2
5t2 - ut = 25 = 0
Let t1, t2 be its roots
t1 + t2 = u/5, t1t2 = 5
Given, t2 - t1 = 4 sec.
(t2 - t1)2 = 16
⇒ (t2 - t1)2 - 4t1t2 = 16

u = 30 m/sec.

QUESTION: 12

A parachutist drops freely from an aeroplane for 10 s before the parachute opens out. Then he descends with a net retardation of 2.5 ms-2. If he balls out of the plane at a height of 2495 m and g = 10 ms-2, his velocity on reaching the ground will be

Solution:

Distance covered in first 10 sec

Remaining height from ground = 2495 - 500 = 1995 m
velocity on reaching the ground

QUESTION: 13

The velocity of a car moving on a straight road increases linearly according to equation, v = a + bx, where a & b are positive constants. The acceleration in the course of such motion: (x is the displacement)

Solution:

V = + bx
(V increases as x increases)

So, acceleration

QUESTION: 14

The position vector of a particle is given The time after which the velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

The retardation experienced by a moving motor boat after its engine is cut off is given by: , where k is a + ve constant. If vo is the magnitude of velocity at cut off, the magnitude of the velocity at time t after the cut off is

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

A bird flies for 4 seconds with a velocity of |t – 2| m/sec. In a straight line, where t = time in seconds. It covers a distance of

Solution:

Plotting velocity v against time t, we get  Area under the v–t curve gives distance

QUESTION: 17

The graph shown in the figure shows the velocity v versus time t of a body. Which of the graphs shown in figure represents the corresponding acceleration versus time graphs?

Solution:

Instantaneous, acceleration = slope of v–t graph  Hence, obviously, a – t graph will be as shown,

QUESTION: 18

A body is projected with a speed u at an angle to the horizontal to have maximum range. At the highest point the speed is

Solution:

For maximum range, θ = 45º
At the highest point,

QUESTION: 19

Ratio of the ranges of the bullets fired from a gun (of constant muzzle speed) at angle θ,2θ & 4θ is found in the ratio x : 2 : 2, then the value of x will be (Assume same muzzle speed of bullets)

Solution:

Range is same for 2θ and 4θ
∴ 2θ + 4θ = 90° ⇒ θ = 15°
∴ Ratio of ranges will be sin 30° : sin 60° : sin 120°

QUESTION: 20

A stone projected at angle 'θ' with horizontal from the roof of a tall building falls on the ground after three second. Two second after the projection it was again at the level of projection. Then the height of the building is

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

The vertical height of the projectile at time t is given by y =4t− t2 and the horizontal distance covered is given by x =3t . What is the angle of projection with the horizontal?

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

A stone projected at an angle of 60o from the ground level strikes at an angle of 30o on the roof of a building of height ‘h’. Then the speed of projection of the stone is

Solution:

Let initial and final speeds of stone be u and v
∴ v2 = u2 – 2gh   …(i)
and v cos 30º = u cos 60º  …(ii)
solving 1 and 2 we get

QUESTION: 23

A man holding a flag is running in North-East direction with speed 10 m/s. Wind is blowing in east direction with speed . Find the direction in which flag will flutter (w.r.t. man)

Solution:

The flag will flutter in the direction in which wind is blowing with respect to the man holding the flag.

This implies direction of wind with respect to man in south. Flag will flutter in south direction.

QUESTION: 24

A particle is projected at angle 60o with speed from the point ‘A’ as shown in the figure. At the same time the wedge is made to move with speed towards right as shown in the figure. Then the time after which particle will strike with wedge is (g = 10 m/sec2).

Solution:

⇒ t = 2 sec.

QUESTION: 25

A lift is moving in upward direction with speed 20 m/s and having acceleration 5 m/s2 in downward direction. A bolt drops from the ceiling of lift at that moment. Just after the drop, the

Solution:

The velocity of an object released in a moving frame is equal to that of the frame as observed from the frame

QUESTION: 26

At a harbour, a boat is standing and wind is blowing at a speed of due to which, the flag on the boat flutters along north-east. Now the boat enters in to river, which is flowing with a velocity of 2 m/sec due north. The boat starts with zero velocity relative to the river and its constant acceleration relative to the river is 0.2 m/sec2 due east. In which direction will the flag flutter at 10 seconds?

Solution:

So, the flag will flutter towards south-west.

QUESTION: 27

A man crosses the river perpendicular to river flow in time t seconds and travels an equal distance down the stream in T seconds. The ratio of man’s speed in still water to the speed of river water will be

Solution:

Let velocity of man in still water be v and that of water with respect to ground be u. Velocity of man perpendicular to river flow with respect to ground

Velocity of man downstream = v + u

QUESTION: 28

A particle is moving in a straight line whose acceleration versus time graph is given. Assume that initial velocity is in the direction of acceleration. Then which of the statement is correct between time t = 0 to t = to.

Solution:

It is clear from the figure that acceleration does not change sign, i.e., does not change in direction. Only the
∴ Velocity keeps on increasing.
Hence displacement also keeps on increasing.

QUESTION: 29

Two boats A and B having same speed relative to river are moving in a river. Boat A moves normal to the river current as observed by an observer moving with velocity of river current. Boat B moves normal to the river as observed by the observer on the ground.

Solution:

(Moderate) Speed of river is u and speed of boat relative to water is v.
Speed of boat B observed from ground
Speed of boat B observed from ground

From river frame, speed of boat A and B will be same.

QUESTION: 30

A train is standing on a platform, a man inside a compartment of a train drops a stone. At the same instant train starts to move with constant acceleration. The path of the particle as seen by the person who drops the stone is

Solution:

Relative to the person in the train, acceleration of the stone is ‘g’ downward, a (acceleration of train) backwards.

QUESTION: 31

Equation of straight line is 2x + 3y= 5 . Slope of the straight line is

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

If tan x. cos2 x then will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

If y = t sin(t2) then

Solution:

⇒

QUESTION: 34

If y = sin(2 x+ 3) then

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

The area of region between y = sin x and x–axis in the interval

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

Given:  The magnitude of

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Two vectors  and inclined at an angle θ w.r.t each other have a resultant which makes an angle β with . If the direction of  and are interchanged, then the resultant will have the same

Solution:

In first caseis at an angle β with horizontal and In second case is at angle (α – β) with horizontal.

QUESTION: 38

Magnitude of component of

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

The resultant of two forces acting at an angle 150o is 100 N and is perpendicular to one of the forces. The other force is

Solution:

F2 sin 30° = R

QUESTION: 40

If then the vector having the same magnitude asand same direction as

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

A : If the rectangular components of a force are 8N and 6N, then the magnitude of the force is 10N.

Solution:

Assertion is false, because direction of velocity is not specified. It is not necessary that when acceleration is negative positive slow down. As when both velocity and acceleration are negative or positive then particle will increase its speed.
Reason is true as direction of acceleration is independent of velocity.

QUESTION: 42

A : In a projectile motion, the velocity at its highest point is zero.
R : In a projectile motion from ground to ground projection, the acceleration is g downwards due to which speed of the projectile first decreases then increases to the same value.

Solution:

A particle is projected vertically upwards. In duration of time from projection till T reaches baxk to point of projection, average velocity is zero.
Hence statement I is false.

QUESTION: 43

A : Three projectiles are moving in different paths in the air. Vertical component of relative velocity between any of the pair does not change with time as long as they are in air. Neglect the effect of air friction.
R : R elative acceleration between any of the pair of projectiles is zero.

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

A : A particle having negative acceleration will slow down.
R : D ire ction of the acceleration is not dependent upon direction of the velocity.

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

A : A particle moves in a straight line with constant acceleration. The average velocity of this particle cannot be zero in any time interval.
R : For a particle moving in straight line with constant acceleration, the average velocity in a time interval is , where u and v are initial and final velocity of the particle of the given
time interval.

Solution:

Acceleration of each of the projectile
Relative acceler ation

QUESTION: 46

The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of A – B bond is

Solution:

We know that ionic characters = 16[EA− EB] + 3.5 × [EA − EB]2
or ionic characters = 72.24%

QUESTION: 47

The number of electrons that are paired in oxygen molecule is

Solution:

Configuration of O2 molecule is

No. of pair are 7 so total no. of paired electrons are 14.

QUESTION: 48

Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment.

(I) Toluene
(II) m − dichlorobenzene
(III) o − dichlorobenzene
(IV) p − dichlorobenzene

Solution:

The correct order of increasing dipole moment is
p-dichlorobenzene < Toluene < m-dichlorobenzene < o-dichlorobenzene.

QUESTION: 49

Which of the following arrangement of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole moments

Solution:

Ammonia molecule is more basic than nitrogen trifluoride and Boron trifluoride because ammonia molecule easily gives lone pair of electron.

QUESTION: 50

Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs, NF3 , NO3 , BF3 , H3O+ , HN3

Solution:

[NF3 and H3O+] are pyramidal while [NO3 and BF3] are planar. Hence answer (c) is correct.

QUESTION: 51

The correct order of increasing C −O bond length of

Solution:

B.O. in CO i.e.,  that of O = C = O is 2 while that of  ion is 1.33. Since the bond length increases as the bond order decreases i.e. . Thus option (d) is correct.

QUESTION: 52

In which of the following the central atom does not use sp3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding

Solution:

does not show sp3 –hybridization because this compound is not formed.

QUESTION: 53

N2 and O2 are converted into monocations respectively. Which is wrong

Solution:

has one unpaired electron so it would be paramagnetic.

QUESTION: 54

The common features among the species CN, CO and NO+ are

Solution:

Each of the species has 14 electron so isoelectronic and shows bond order 3.

QUESTION: 55

Bonds present in CuSO4 .5H2O is

Solution:

CuSO4 .5H2O has electrovalent, covalent and coordinate bonds.

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following atoms and ions are isoelectronic i.e. have the same number of electrons with the neon atom

Solution:

F have the same number of electrons with the neon atom.

QUESTION: 57

The increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e / m (charge/mass) for

Solution:

QUESTION: 58

The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000Å wavelength radiation to that of 4000Å radiation is

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

In a Bohr's model of atom when an electron jumps from n = 1 to n = 3 , how much energy will be emitted or absorbed

Solution:

According to Bohr’s model ΔE=E1 − E3

Since electron is going from n =1 to n = 3 hence energy is absorbed.

QUESTION: 60

The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is −13.6eV. The possible energy value(s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits to hydrogen is(are)

Solution:

Values of energy in the excited state

QUESTION: 61

The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 gm of N3  ion is (NA is the Avogadro's number)

Solution:

42g of N3 ions have 16 NA valence electrons 4.2g  of  N3 ion have =

QUESTION: 62

The frequency of a wave of light is 12×1014s−1. The wave number associated with this light is

Solution:

Frequency ν = 12 ×1014s−1 and velocity of light c =3×1010 cm s−1 . We know that the wave number

QUESTION: 63

The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is −13.6eV. The energy required to excite the electron in a hydrogen atom from the ground state to the first excited state is

Solution:

We know that energy required for excitation ΔE = E2− E1 = −3.4− (−13.6) = 10.2 eV

QUESTION: 64

Suppose 10–17J of energy is needed by the interior of human eye to see an object. How many photons of green light (λ = 550 nm) are needed to generate this minimum amount of energy?

Solution:

Let the number of photons required be n.

QUESTION: 65

The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63× 10−34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms−1 . Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometres of a quantum of light with frequency of  8×1015s−1

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the property of elements with an increase in atomic number in the carbon family (group 14)

Solution:

As we go down the group inertness of ns2 pair increase hence tendency to exhibit +2 oxidation state increases and that of +4 oxidation state decreases.

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character

Solution:

CaO is  basic; CO2 is acidic; SiO2 is weakly acidic. SnO2 is amphoteric.

QUESTION: 68

Arrange S, O and Se in ascending order of electron affinity

Solution:

Correct order of electron affinity is O < Se < S.

QUESTION: 69

In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated against it

Solution:

B <C< N < O ; When we move from B to O in a periodic table the first ionisation enthalpy increase due to the attraction of nucleus towards the outer most of electron.

QUESTION: 70

Strongest acid is

Solution:

The basic nature of oxide decreases across the period as metallic character decreases. Therefore acidic nature of oxide increases.

QUESTION: 71

Increasing order of electronegativity is

Solution:

Increasing order of electronegativity is Bi<P<S<Cl.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following configurations represents atoms of the elements having the highest second ionization energy

Solution:

Because for removing second electron, it has to be taken out from stable configuration that needs a large amount of energy.

QUESTION: 73

The elements which occupy the peaks of ionisation energy curve, are

Solution:

All the noble gases occupy the peaks of I.E. curve.

QUESTION: 74

A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionisation energies of an element would be associated with the electronic configuration

Solution:

1s2 2s2 p6 3s2 - In III transition e is to be removed from stable configuration.

QUESTION: 75

Arrange F, C l, O, N in the decreasing order of electronegativity

Solution:

Electronegativity increases on going from left to right in a period. Thus electronegativity of F >O> N−%Cl .

QUESTION: 76

Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules

Solution:

16g O2 has no. moles = 16/32 = 1/2
14g N2 has no. moles = 14/28 = 1/2
No. of moles are same, so no. of molecules are same.

QUESTION: 77

250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na2CO3 . If 10 ml of this solution is diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant solution (mol. wt. of Na2CO3 =106)

Solution:

10ml of this solution is diluted to 1000ml N1V1 = N2 V2

QUESTION: 78

The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is approx.

Solution:

44g of CO2 has 2x6x1023 atoms of oxygen
4.4. of CO2 has

QUESTION: 79

The number of water molecules present in a drop of water (volume 0.0018 ml) at room temperature is

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

19.7 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. How many atoms of gold were recovered (Au =197)

Solution:

Amount of gold = 19.7kg = 19.7×1000gm =19700gm

∴ No. of atoms = 100 x 6.023 x 1023 = 6.023 x 1025 atoms

QUESTION: 81

The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is

Solution:

16gm of CH4 = 1mole = 6.023×1023 molecules.

QUESTION: 82

The molecular weight of hydrogen peroxide is 34. What is the unit of molecular weight

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

The number of electrons in a mole of hydrogen molecule is

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Which of the following is Loschmidt number

Solution:

The no. of molecules present in 1ml of gas at STP is known as Laschmidt number.

22400ml of gas has total no. of molecules = 6.023×1023

1ml of gas has total no. of molecules

QUESTION: 85

The total number of gm-molecules of SO2Cl2 in 13.5g of sulphuryl chloride is

Solution:

Molecular weight of SO2Cl2 = 32+ 32 + 2 × 35.5 = 135gm
135 gm of SO2Cl2 = 1gm molecule

QUESTION: 86

Assertion : The atoms in a covalent molecule are said to share electrons, yet some covalent molecules are polar.
Reason : In a polar covalent molecule, the shared electrons spend more time on the average near one of the atoms.

Solution:

Polarity in covalent bond developed due to shifting of electrons towards one of the bonded atoms.

QUESTION: 87

Assertion : Pure water obtained from different sources such as, river, well, spring, sea etc. always contains hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio 1: 8 by mass.

Reason : A chemical compound always contains elements combined together in same proportion by mass, it was discovered by French chemist, Joseph Proust.

Solution:

Pure water always contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 1:8 by mass. This is in accordance with the law of constant composition.

QUESTION: 88

Assertion : The atomic radii of calcium is smaller than sodium.
Reason : Calcium has a lower nuclear charge than sodium

Solution:

Calcium has a higher nuclear charge than sodium.

QUESTION: 89

Assertion : The energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.
Reason : The principal quantum number n is a measure of the most probable distance of finding the electron around the nucleus.

Solution:

We know that principal quantum number represent the main energy level or energy shell. Since each energy level is associated with a definite amount of energy, this quantum number determines to a large extent the energy of an electron. It also determines the average distance of an electron around the nucleus. Therefore both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

QUESTION: 90

Assertion : A resonance hybrid is always more stable than any of its canonical structures.
Reason : This stability is due to delocalization of electrons.

Solution:

We know that a resonance hybrid or the actual molecule is always more stable than any of its canonical structures which is also called hypothetical or imaginary structures. This stability is due to delocalization of electrons and is measured in terms of resonance energy or delocalization energy, it is defined as the difference in internal energy of the resonance hybrid and the most stable canonical structure. Therefore both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

QUESTION: 91

State the correct naming of the virus components.

Solution:

This is the diagram of bacteriophage, front part is head which is jointed with sheath by collar. Six tail fibers are associated with sheath.

QUESTION: 92

Select the correct combinations or statements w.r.t. characteristics of certain organisms.

(A) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas.
(B) Nostoc is a filamentous green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
(C) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose.
(D) Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall and pathogenic to plant as well as animal.

Solution:

Nostoc is filamentous blue-green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the released energy for their ATP production.

QUESTION: 93

A fungus with hyphae containing nuclei from different genomes, the nuclei do not fuse and are without sex organ but produces sexual spore belongs to

Solution:

The intermediate phase between two stages (plasmogamy and karyogamy) is known as dikaryophase.
It gives rise to secondary mycelium. It has multiple septate hyphae. The septa have spores and hook shaped outgrowths. They are known as clamp connections. Septa mycelia multiply by formation of many spores including uredospores and chlamydospores. In basidia, karyogamy and meiosis occur which leads to the production of basidiospores.

QUESTION: 94

The sexual reproduction of fungi may occur by means of

Solution:

Zoospores, sporangiospores and aplanosporg are asexual spores. An oospore is a thick walled sexual spore that develops from a fertilized oosphere (union of oogonium and antheridium) in fungi and some algae. Ascospores and basidiospore are sexual spores of ascomycertes and basidiomy cetes respectively.

QUESTION: 95

Match the followings

Solution:

Morels are member of ascomycetes group. Basidiomycetes is a group of smut fungi and rust fungi. Bread moulds i.e. Rhizopus and Mucor are members of zygomycetes whereas deuteromycetes is a group called fungi imperfecti.

QUESTION: 96

Which is incorrect for yeast ?

Solution:

Yeast is unicellular fungi which do not produces conidia.

QUESTION: 97

Cell wall may be absent in

Solution:

Somatic parts of slime moulds are without cell walls. They are surrounded by the cell membrane only.

QUESTION: 98

Study the diagram given below and mark the correct option.

(1) It is two bacterial cell undergoing conjugation
(2) It is main mode of reproduction in bacteria
(3) It is bacteria undergoing fission
(4) It is structure formed by bacterium under unfavorable conditions

Solution:

It is bacteria undergoing binary fission which is main mode of reproduction.

QUESTION: 99

The main role of bacteria in carbon cycle is

Solution:

The main role of bacteria in carbon cycle is breakdown of organic compounds. They are termed as Nature's scavengers as they help in preventing the accumulation of dead remains of plants and animals.

QUESTION: 100

What is the similarly between bacteria involved in curd making, antibiotic production, nitrogen fixation.

Solution:

All of them are heterotroph.

QUESTION: 101

Cyanobacteria differ from bacteria as they

Solution:

Autotrophic bacteria do not use water as raw material in the process of food synthesis, so it cannot produce oxygen in photosynthesis.

QUESTION: 102

Lichens cannot survive in

Solution:

Lichens cannot survive in highly polluted atmosphere therefore they are called pollution indicators.

QUESTION: 103

Maximum metabolic diversity is found in the group

Solution:

Compared to many other organisms, bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity. Some of the bacteria are autotrophic. They may be photosynthetic autotrophic or chemosynthetic autotrophic while vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs. Bacteria are the members of kingdom monera.

QUESTION: 104

Classification undergoes constant modification this is due to

(1) New evidences from different source
(2) Improvement in our understanding of characteristics and evolutionary relationship
(3) Dynamic nature of living organism with respect to time
(4) Country specific nature of classification.

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

Cyanobacteria belong to monera because of their

Solution:

Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic organisms. All prokaryotes are placed in the kindom monera.

QUESTION: 106

A bacteriophage is usually _____ virus, while virus which infect plant has _____ as genetic material.

Solution:

Bacteriophage has a proteinaceous head in which a double stranded DNA is tightly packed. In general, virus that infact plants have single stranded RNA.

QUESTION: 107

Odd one out.

Solution:

Citrus canker is bacterial disease caused by bacteria Xanthomonas citri.

QUESTION: 108

Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria on the basis of

Solution:

The cell wall in archaebacteria contains pseudomurein and non cellulosic polysaccharides. It lacks peptidoglycans.

QUESTION: 109

Which statement depicts incorrect characteristic of Cyandoacteria ?

Solution:

Nitrogen fixation in cyanobacteria mainly occurs in specialized cells called heterocysts. Heterocysts are large sized, pale coloured, non motile, mucilage free thick walled cells which are impermeable to oxygen.

QUESTION: 110

How many statements are correct w.r.t crysophytes?

(1) They are found in marine environment, fresh water organisms are very rare.
(2) In diatoms, the cell walls form two thick overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box.
(3) The cell membranes of diatoms are embedded with silica and accumulation of them over billions of years is referred to as "diatomaceous earth".
(4) Being brittle and slippery  diatomaceous soil is used in polishing, filtration of oils and syrups.
(5) Diatoms are the chief "Producers" in the oceans.

Solution:

Diatoms are found in the fresh water as well as in the marine environment. The cell walls of diatoms form two thin overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box. The cell wall of is embedded with silica and accumulation of them over billion years is referred to as "diatomaceous earth". Being gritty and less slippery, this soil is used in polishing, filtration of oil and syrups.

QUESTION: 111

Which among the following fungi, Sexual reproduction is done by the fusion of two vegetative cells of different strains?

Solution:

These are the diagrams of fungi. (a) Mucor (b) Agaricus (c) Aspergillus.

They are members of zygomycetes, Basidiomycetes and ascomycetes respectively. Sexual reproduction in them are held by gametangial coupulation in zygomycetes and gametangial contact in ascomycetes. In basidiomycetes sexual reproduction is done by the method somatogamy in which fusion of two hyphal cells of two mating type (+) and (‒) occurs.

QUESTION: 112

Find out the incorrect statement regarding the discoveries of virus.
(i) D.J. Ivanowsky proposed the term virus and recognized them as causal organism of the mosaic disease of tobacco.
(ii) M.W. Beijerinek found the viruses to be smaller than bacteria because they passed through bacteria ‒ proof filters.
(iii) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized and crystals consist largely of proteins.

Solution:

The name virus that means venom or poisonous fluid was given by Pasteur. D.J. Ivanowsky recognised certain microbes as causal organism of the mosaic disease of tobacco. These were found to be smaller than bacteria because they passed through bacteria proof filters. M.W. Beijerinck demonstrated that the extract of infected plant of tobacco could cause infection in healthy plants and called the fluid as Contagium vivum fluidum.

QUESTION: 113

Find the incorrect match

Solution:

White rust disease on crucifers (mustard) is caused by Albugo candida. Rhizopus is bread / black mould.

QUESTION: 114

He made the origin of species diversity the central question of evolutionary biology and had given currently accepted definition of a biological species, person was

Solution:

Mayr is also known as Darwin of 20th century.

QUESTION: 115

On the basis of _____, the protists are grouped as photosynthetic algae, slime moulds and protozoans.

Solution:

On the basis of mode of nutrition, the protists are grouped as photosynthetic, slime moulds and protozoans.

QUESTION: 116

Which statement is incorrect w.r.t virus ?

Solution:

Ability of viruses to be crystallized is non living characteristic.

QUESTION: 117

Find out the incorrect statement.

Solution:

In basidiomycetes, basidiospores are produced exogenously, unlike ascomycetes where ascospores are produced endogenously.

QUESTION: 118

Which of the following statement is false?

Solution:

TMV has single stranded RNA.

QUESTION: 119

A _____ contains descriptive information of any one taxon.

Solution:

Monograph contains descriptive information of any one taxon.

QUESTION: 120

Which statement (s) is/are not true for five kingdom classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969).

(A) T he main criteria for classification used by him includes cell structure, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproductions and phylogenetic relationship.
(B) All prokaryotic organism such as bacteria, blue green algae and ferns are grouped together under kingdom Monera.
(C) Chlamy domonas, Chlorella and Spirogyra are placed in Algae within plants due to pressure of cell wall.
(D) Fungi are placed in a separate kingdom: kingdom fungi.  (E) Param ecium and Amoeba are placed in animal kingdom due to lack of cell wall.

Solution:

Ferns are not prokaryotes. They are pteridophytes and eukaryotic. Chlamydomonas and Chlorella were earlier placed in algae due to presence of cell wall but in R.H. Whittakar system of classification it is placed in protista. Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in protista as protozoans.

QUESTION: 121

Which taxonomic aid contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area ?

Solution:

Taxonomic aids flora and monographs both help in correct identification of organism. Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area while monograph contains information's of any one taxon. Key is based on similarities and dissimilarities and herbarium is store house of collected plants specimens that are dried.

QUESTION: 122

Which one of the following statements about binomial nomenclature is incorrect?

Solution:

Biological names are generally Latin and written in italics. They are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their origin.

QUESTION: 123

The study of biological diversity and evolutionary relationships between living and extinct organisms is most accurately referred to as

Solution:

Systematic takes into account evolutionary relationships between organisms. Therefore, the study of biological diversity and evolutionary the study of biological diversity and evolutionary relationships between living and extinct organisms is most accurately referred to systematic.

QUESTION: 124

Which group contains order names ?

Solution:

Primata, Diptera and Poales are order names of organisms Home sapiens, Musca domestica and Triticum aestivum respectively.

QUESTION: 125

How many of the following statement (s) are correct ?

(1) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to species.
(2) pardus and leo are two different species but both belong to the genus Felis.
(3) Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithets representing different organisms.
(4) Species is a group of individuals with highest fundamental similarities and maximum number of organisms.

Solution:

Pardus and Leo are two different species and both belong to the genus Panthera. Genus Felis includes cats. Same as species is a group of individuals with highest fundamental similarities and minimum number of organisms.

QUESTION: 126

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Solution:

Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the family polynomials mainly bases on the floral characters.

QUESTION: 127

Find the incorrect option about taxonomic key.

Solution:

Keys are taxonomic aids for identification of plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities among organisms. It is based on contrasting characters generally in a pair called couplet.

QUESTION: 128

Consider the statements regarding herbarium and select the correct option.

(i) Plant specimens are dried pressed and preserved on sheets.
(ii) Specimens along with their descriptions on herbarium sheets become a repository for future use.
(iii) The largest herbarium of the world is in India.
(iv) P lant and animal specimens are always preserved as dry specimens, using preservative solutions

Solution:

Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens only which are dried. Animals do not preserved as dry specimens in herbarium.

QUESTION: 129

Which pair of disease is caused by virus

Solution:

Measles and Rabies are diseases caused by virus. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family which attacks the CNS while measles is caused by a paromyxovirus (RNA virus).

QUESTION: 130

Which of the following statement is true for mycoplasma ?

Solution:

Mycoplasma are organisms that completely lack a cell wall. They are small living cells known and can survive without oxygen. They are pleomorphic and prokaryotic cell therefore no definite shape is found and nucleus or any membrane bound cell organelle is absent.

QUESTION: 131

Each of the question below consists of two statements-an Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the appropriate response as under:

A: In living organism growth is intrinsic.

R: Growth is defining feature of living organism.

Solution:

In living being growth is intrinsic but non-living thing can also grow.

QUESTION: 132

A:  Archaebacteria include the simplest and most primitive group of bacteria.
R:  Archaebacteria can face extremes of conditions.

Solution:

Archae bacteria can survive in extreme condition because of their cell wall structure.

QUESTION: 133

A :  Viroids depend entirely on host enzymes for replication.
R : Viroids are DNA particles that infect plant cells and use host machinery for replication.

Solution:

Viroids are naked RNA that infect plant cells and use host machinery for replication.

QUESTION: 134

A : In monera kingdom, cell wall bears unique polymers of amino sugars and amino acids called peptidoglycans.
R : It is derived from phospholipids.

Solution:

In kingdom monera, cell wall be unique polymers of amino sygars (N-acytyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid) and amino acids, called peptidoglycans but it is not derived from phospholipids.

QUESTION: 135

A : One species is distinguished from other closely related based on distinct morphological differences.
R : Species is group of individuals with fundamental similarities.

Solution:

Species is group of closely related individual with fundamental similarity.

QUESTION: 136

Which of the following sets of animals are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and hermaphrodite

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

Sea anemone is

Solution:

Sea anemone is Adamsia. It is a member of phylum Cnidaria.

QUESTION: 138

Common bath sponge is

Solution:

Sycon is crown sponge or urn sponge, Spongilla is fresh water sponge, Euplectella is Venus’s flower basket. It is given as wedding gift in Japan.

QUESTION: 139

Which of the following statements regarding Platyhelminthes is correct?

Solution:

Flatworms are free living as well as parasites, these don not show bioluminescence and these are acoelomates.

QUESTION: 140

A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis of  characteristics given below.

i. Metameric segmentation
ii. Presence of closed circulatory system.
iii. Presence of circular and longitudinal muscles for locomotion.

Identify the specimen.

Solution:

Pheretima is common Indian earthworm, it is a member of phylum Annelida.

QUESTION: 141

Select the incorrect features of Molluscs from the given statements.
i. Terrestrial or aquatic animals having cellular system level of organization.
ii. Radially symmetrical, acoelomate animals with two germinal layers.
iii. A file like rasping organ called radula is present.
iv. Usually dioecious and viviparous animals.
v. Examples include Pila, Octopus, and Dentalium.

Solution:

Molluscs are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical coelomate animals with organ-system level of body organisation.

QUESTION: 142

Which of the following animal is bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate?

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

Select the correct match

Solution:
QUESTION: 144

In which of the following animal, foot is situated on head?

Solution:

The given figure is of Octopus, it is a member of phylum Mollusca.

QUESTION: 145

Identify the correct characteristic feature shown by these animals?

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

Study the following and identify the incorrect option.

i. Parapodia – Lateral appendages of Neries.
ii. Hypostome – A central gastrovascular cavity with a double opening.
iii. Hooks and suckers – Present in Hirudinaria.
iv. Feather like gills – Present in mantle cavity (a space between the hump and mantle).

Solution:

Parapodia are extensions of body wall present in many annelids. Gastrovascular cavity has a single opening in cnidarians. Hirudinaria is leech and it doesn’t have hooks.

QUESTION: 147

Which of the following is a characteristic of Aschelminthes?

Solution:

Circular muscles are absent in roundworms.

QUESTION: 148

How many of the following can be used to distinguish a nematode worm from an annelid worm?

1. type of body cavity
2. number of muscle layers in the body wall
3. presence of segmentation
4. number of embryonic tissue layers
5. shape of worm in cross-sectional view

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

All of the following are regions of an insect except

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Which of the following animal belongs to that phylum in which respiratory organs can be gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system?

Solution:

These respiratory structures are found in members of phylum Arthropoda.

QUESTION: 151

Select the correct match

Solution:

Echinodermata is exclusively marine phylum and these animals have endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles.

QUESTION: 152

Identify the structure/feature which is involved in locomotion.

ii. Comb plates
iii. Cnidob lasts
iv. Water vascular system

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Solution:
QUESTION: 154

Which of the following describes echinoderms?

Solution:
QUESTION: 155

A stalked, sessile marine organism has several feathery feeding structures surrounding an opening through which food enters. The organism could potentially be a cnidarian, a tube-dwelling worm, a crustacean, or an echinoderm. Which of the following traits, if found in this organism, would allow the greatest certainty of identification?

Solution:

Water vascular system is characteristic feature of Echinoderms.

QUESTION: 156

Which of the following group of animals belong to phylum Mollusca?

Solution:

Locust is an arthropod, brittle star and sea urchin are echinoderms and Ctenoplana is a member of phylum Ctenophora

QUESTION: 157

Which of the following animals are bilaterally symmetrical?

Solution:
QUESTION: 158

Which structure does Pila use to feed on their prey?

Solution:
QUESTION: 159

The water vascular system of Asterias

Solution:
QUESTION: 160

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Solution:

Osculum is a large aperture which allows the exit of water. Water enters through ostia.

QUESTION: 161

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Solution:

Sea fan is Gorgonia, Sea pen is Pennatula.

QUESTION: 162

Which of the following is not a parasite

Solution:

Plasmodium causes malaria, Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness and Entamoeba causes intestinal disorders.

QUESTION: 163

Identify the name of the organism and the phylum to which it belongs.

Solution:
QUESTION: 164

Which of the following group includes all parasitic animals

Solution:

Apis is honey bee. Planaria is free living.

QUESTION: 165

Mark the correct match.

Solution:
QUESTION: 166

Which of the following is not the common fundamental feature for animal classification?

Solution:
QUESTION: 167

The given figures of animals (A & B) are distinguished on the basis of symmetry. Select the correct option which shows the type of symmetry and its description.

Solution:
QUESTION: 168

How many of the following are characteristics of at least some members of the phylum Cnidaria?

1. a gastrovascular cavity
2. a polyp stage
3. a medusa stage
4. cnidocytes
5. a pseudocoelom

Solution:
QUESTION: 169

Which of the following is true of members of the phylum Cnidaria?

Solution:
QUESTION: 170

The figure given below shows the germinal layers labeled as A, B, C and D. Identify the label showing undifferentiated layer and its location?

Solution:
QUESTION: 171

Match the basis of classification given in column I with their examples given in column II.

Solution:
QUESTION: 172

Identify the correct characteristics of porifera

i. Commonly known as sea walnuts.
ii. Presence of ostia and collar cells.
iii. Exhibit tissue level of organisation.
iv. It is the largest phylum of animal kingdom.
v. The body is supported by spicules and spongin fibers.
vi. Contains cnidocytes which are used for defense, anchorage and capturing of prey.

Solution:
QUESTION: 173

While sampling marine plankton in a lab, a student encounters large numbers of fertilized eggs. The student rears some of the eggs in the laboratory for further study and finds that the blastopore becomes the mouth. The embryo develops into a trochophore larva and eventually has a true coelom. These eggs probably belonged to a(n)

Solution:
QUESTION: 174

Refer the following statement and answer the question. ‘Name of phylum “X” is derived from stinging capsules. It exhibit metagenesis containing two body forms in which sessile and cylindrical form is called “Y” and umbrella shaped  free swimming form is called “Z”. Identify X, Y, and Z

Solution:
QUESTION: 175

The figure given below is the characteristic structure of the phylum in which animals are aquatic, free swimming or sessile, mostly marine, radially symmetrical. Identify the phylum and correct function of the structure.

Solution:

The given figure shows the structure of cnidoblast. Cnidoblast is the characteristic feature of porifera phylum. A cnidoblast (also known as a cnidocytes or nematocyte) is an explosive cell containing one giant secretory organelle that defines the phylum Cnidaria (corals, sea anemones, hydrae, jellyfish, etc.). They are used for prey capture and defense from predators.

QUESTION: 176

Assertion : In sponges fertilization is always internal and development is always indirect.
Reason : In sp onges fertilization takes place inside the body and larvae develop from zygote.

Solution:
QUESTION: 177

Assertion : Brittle stars have water vascular system which helps in many day to day activities.
Reason : Water vascular system is the distinctive feature of spiny bodied organisms.

Solution:
QUESTION: 178

Assertion : When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two  identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
Reason : Only diploblastic animals can have radial symmetry.

Solution:
QUESTION: 179

Assertion : Body surface of Annelids is distinctly marked out into segments or metameres.
Reason : Metameres are due to presence of longitudinal and circular muscles which help in locomotion.

Solution:
QUESTION: 180

Assertion : Roundworms may be freeliving, aquatic and terrestrial or parasitic in plants and animals.
Reason : Roundworms have  complete digestive canal with muscular pharynx.

Solution: