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NEET Mock Test - 4

180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series | NEET Mock Test - 4

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This mock test of NEET Mock Test - 4 for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET NEET Mock Test - 4 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NEET Mock Test - 4 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this NEET Mock Test - 4 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NEET Mock Test - 4 extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected by a massless strings, as shown, on a frictionless table. They are pulled with a force T3 = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4kg, the tension T2 will be

Solution:

For equilibrium of all 3 masses,
T3 = (m1 + m2 + m3)a or

For equilibrium of m1 & m2

T3 = 40 N

QUESTION: 3

If two vectors 2i + 3j + k and - 4i - 6j - λk are parallel to each other, then value of λ is

Solution:

The coefficient of i, j, k should be 9 constant ratio,
or
⇒ -1/λ = -1/2

⇒ λ = 2

QUESTION: 4

A pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental note of 412 Hz. It is cut in to two pieces of equal length. The fundamental frequencies produced by the two pieces are

Solution:

v/4ℓ = 412, when cut into two equal pieces, frequency of closed pipe of half the length

frequency of open pipe of half the length

QUESTION: 5

Two wheels having radii in the ratio 1:3 are connected by a common belt. If the smaller wheel is accelerated from rest at a rate 1.5 rad s-2 for 10 s. The velocity of bigger wheel is

Solution:

Since, two wheels are connected with a common belt, their lineas velocity is constant V1 = V2
Also, w = w0 + α t = 0 + 1.5 x 10
= 15 rod s-1

QUESTION: 6

In order to make the effective acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at the equator, the angular velocity of rotation of the earth about its axis should be (g = 10 ms-2 and radius of earth is 6400km)

Solution:

g' = g - ωR cos2λ
To make effective acceleration due to gravity zero at equator X = 0 and g' = 0

QUESTION: 7

A mass m moves with a velocity v and collides inelastically with another identical mass. After collision the first mass moves with velocity  in a direction perpendicular to the initial direction of motion. Find the speed of the second mass after collision.

Solution:

Let mass A moves with velocity v and collides inelastially with mass B. Which is at rest.

According to problem mass A moves in a perpendicular direction and let the mass B moves at angle θ with the horizontal with velocity v.
Initial horizontal momentum of system
(before collision) = mv ....(i)
final horizontal momentum of system
(after collsion) = mv' cos θ .....(ii)
From conservation of horizontal linear momentum
mv = mv cos θ ⇒ v = v' cos θ ... (iii)
Initial vertical momentum of system (before collision) is zero
Final vertical momentum of system
From the conservation of vertical linear momentum

On squaring and adding equn (ii) and (iv), we get

⇒
⇒

QUESTION: 8

A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that  is in plane of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque τ acts on it, the side l of the triangle is

Solution:

Torque (τ) on the triangle = M x B
τ = iAB       (since M = iA)

QUESTION: 9

When the disc rotates with uniform angular velocity which of the following is not true?

Solution:

Since, the disc ratates with uniform angular velocity.
So, the angular acceleration  must be zero.
So, option (d) is the only in correct options.

QUESTION: 10

Energy of simple harmonic motion depends upon [Here, a = amplitude, ω = angular velocity]

Solution:

Energy of simple harmonic motion ∝ a2

QUESTION: 11

For a satellite escape velocity is 11 Kms-1. If the satellite is launched at an angle of 60° with the vertical, then escape velocity will be

Solution:

Escape velocity is same for all angles of projection:

QUESTION: 12

A lead shot of 1 mm diameter falls through a long column of glycerine. The variation of its velocity v with distance covered(s) is represented by

Solution:

When a body falls through a viscous liquid, its velocity increases due to gravity but after some time its velocity becomes uniform because of viscous force becoming equal to the gravitational force. Viscous force itself is a variable force which increases as velocity increases, so curve (a) represents the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 13

Two water pipes of diameters 2cm and 4cm are connected with the main supply line. The velocity of flow water in the pipe of 2cm diameter is

Solution:

dA = 2 cm and dB = 4 cm.
∴ rA = 1 cm and rB = 2 cm.
From equation of continuity, av = constant
∴

⇒ VA = 4WB

QUESTION: 14

In Young’s expt., the distance between two slits is d/3 and the distance between the screen and the slit is 3 D. The number of fringes in 1/3 m on the screen, formed by monochromatic light of wavelength 3λ, will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

An inductor of reactance 1Ω and a resistor of 2Ω are connected in series to the terminals of a 6 V (rms) AC source. The power dissipated in the circuit is

Solution:

Here,XL = 1Ω ,R = 2Ω, Ev = 6V, P = ?

QUESTION: 16

When the amount of work done is 300 J and change in internal energy is 100 J, then the heat supplied is

Solution:

ΔQ = ΔE + ΔW = 100 + 300 = 400 J

QUESTION: 17

One end of a conducting rod is maintained at temperature 50°C and at the other end ice is melting at 0°C. The rate of melting of ice is doubled, if

Solution:

Rate of melting of ice ∝ rate of heat transfer

If temperature difference, A and l are doubled, then dQ/dt and hence rate of melting of ice will be doubled.

QUESTION: 18

A bar magnet of length 6 cm has a magnetic moment of 4 J T-1. Find the strength of magnetic field at a distance of 200 cm from the centre of the magnet along its equatorial line.

Solution:

Along the equatorial line, magnetic field strength

QUESTION: 19

If two waves of amplitude a produce a resultant wave of amplitude a, then the phase difference between them will be

Solution:

Here, R2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab cos θ
Hence, a2 = a2 + a2 + 2a9 cos φ
⇒
⇒ φ = 120°

QUESTION: 20

The minimum energy required to eject an electron, from the metal surface is called

Solution:

The minimum energy required for the emission of electrons is called work function.

QUESTION: 21

Two infinitely long parallel conducting plates having surface charge densities + σ and -σ respectively, are separated by a small distance. The medium between the plates is vaccum. If ε0 is the dielectric permittivity of vaccum, then the electric field in the region between the plates is

Solution:

Given that conducting plates have surface charge densities + σ and -σ, respectively, since, the sheet is large, the electric field E at energy point near the sheet will be perpendicular to the sheet.

The resultant electric field is given by
E' = E + E = 2 E
If σ is surface charge charge density, then electric field

∴

QUESTION: 22

If microwaves, X rays, infrared, gamma rays, ultraviolet, radio waves and visible parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are denoted by M, X, I, G, U, R and V then which of the following is the arrangement in ascending order of wavelength ?

Solution:

Gamma rays < X-rays < Ultra violet< Visible rays < Infrared rays < Microwaves < Radio waves.

QUESTION: 23

Figure below shows six equal capacitors each of capacitance C connected to each other.

What will be the value of equivalent capacitance between A and B ?

Solution:

C4 is in parallel to a balanced Wheatstone bridge made from the rest five capacitors as shown in the figure. Therefore, equivalent capacitance.

QUESTION: 24

A letter 'A' is constructed of a uniform wire with resistance 1.0 Ω per cm, The sides of the letter are 20 cm and the cross piece in the middle is 10 cm long. The apex angle is 60. The resistance between the ends of the legs is close to:

Solution:

Solving we get
x = 10 Ω
Putting the value of x = 10 Ω in equation (i)
We get

QUESTION: 25

The current in a coil changes from +10A to -2A in 3ms. What is the induced emf in the coil? The self-inductance of the coil is 2 mH.

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

A steel rod of radius R = 10 mm and length L = 100 cm is stretched along its length by a force F = 6.28 x 104N. If the Young’s modulus of steel is Y = 2 x 1011 N/m2, the percentage elongation in the length of the rod is

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

An electric charge oscillating with a frequency of 1 kilo cycle/s can radiate electromagnetic wave of wavelength

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s atomic model?

Solution:

Obviously, difference of 11.1e V is not possible.

QUESTION: 29

In the given figure, C is middle point of line S1S2. A monochromatic light of wavelength λ is incident on slits. The ratio of intensity of S3 and S4 is

Solution:

AS3, Δx = S1S3 - S2 S3 = 0
∴

l0 = 4l0

The poth difference at S4 is

QUESTION: 30

A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 ms-1 and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms-1 at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms-2) given g = 9.8 m/s2

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

If the energy of photons corresponding to the wavelength of 6000 Å is 3.2 x 10-19J, the photon energy for a wavelength of 4000 Å will be

Solution:

⇒
So,

QUESTION: 32

If a current increases from zero to one ampere in 0.1 second in a coil of 5 mH, then the magnitude ofthe induced e.m.f. will be

Solution:

ε = (5 x 10-3) (1/0.1) = 0.05 V.

QUESTION: 33

The correct relation for the cohesive energy is

Solution:

Cohesive energy = free energy of atom - crystal energy

QUESTION: 34

When the current in an ac circuit is wattless, the phase difference between the applied voltage and circuit current will be

Solution:

The current in an ac circuit is said to be wattless, if the power loss in the circuit is zero, i.e.,
P = VI cos θ = 0
which gives
cos θ = 0 ⇒ 0 = 90°

QUESTION: 35

For the ground state, the electron in the H-atom has an angular momentum = h, according to the simple Bohr’s model. Angular momentum is a vector and hence, there will be infinitely many orbits with the vector pointing in all possible directions. In actually, this is not true

Solution:

According to Bohr's model, infact does not gives correct voluex of angular momentum of revolving electron. It gives only the magnitude of angular momentum, which is a vector. So, the given statement in the question is not true,

QUESTION: 36

In the electric network shown, when no current flows through the 4Ω resistor in the arm EB, the potential difference between the points A and D will be:

Solution:

As no current flows through arm EB then
VD = 0V
VE = 0V
VB = -4V
VA = 5V
So, potential difference between the points A and D
VA - VD = 5V

QUESTION: 37

The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are 16.2 cm and 10.1 cm, respectively. The area of the sheet in appropriate significant figures and error is

Solution:

Here l = (16.2 ± 0.1)cm, b = (10.1 ± 0.1) cm
A = l x b = 16.2 x 10.1 = 163.62
Rounding off to one significant digits.
A = 164 cm2

Therefore, as per rule, the area will have only three significant figures and errors will have only one significant figure.
Rounding off, we get A=164±3cm2

QUESTION: 38

A capillary tube is immersed vertically in water and the height of the water column is x. When this arrangement is taken into amine of depth d, the height of the water column is y. If R is the radius of earth, the ratio x/y is:

Solution:

Acceleration due to gravity changes with the depth,

QUESTION: 39

Two identical square rods of metal are welded end to end as shown in Fig. (i), 20 cal of heat flows through it in 4 min. If the rods are welded as shown in Fig. (ii), the same amount of heat will flow through the rods in

Solution:

⇒  t ∝ R    [∵ Q and ΔQ are same]
⇒
⇒

QUESTION: 40

A Carnot engine is working between 127°C and 27°C. The increase in efficiency will be maximum when the temperature of

Solution:

is is maximum in case (b).

QUESTION: 41

Young’s double slit experiment is performed with light of wavelength 550 nm. The separation between the slits is 1.10 mm and the screen is placed at a distance of 1 m. What is the distance between the consecutive bright and dark fringes?

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

A charge of total amount Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of radii r and R (R > r) such that the surface charge densities on the two spheres are equal. The electric potential at the common centre is

Solution:

Let q1 and q2 be charge on two spheres of radius 'r' and 'R' respectively
As, q1 + q2 = Q and σ1 = σ2 [Surface charge density are equal]

QUESTION: 43

The length of a wire increases by l due to a force F applied on it. Then, the work done Win stretching the wire will be

Solution:

Work done = Plastic potential energy stored
Or
Or

QUESTION: 44

A particle of mass 2 kg is moving such that at time t, its position, in meter, is given by  The angular momentum of the particle at t = 2s about the origin in kg m-2 s-1 is:

Solution:

Angular momentum

QUESTION: 45

The number N of nuclei of a radioactive element X, at time t, if at time t = 0, the element has N0 number of nuclei. Nuclei of the element X is being produced at a constant rate a and the element has a decay constant λ is

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 mL. The volume of O.INNaOH required to completely neutralise 10 mL of this solution is

Solution:

Equivalent mass of

Number of equivalents of oxalic acid = 6.3 = 0.1
Number of equivalents of oxalic acid in 10 mL

Number of equivalents of NaOH = Num ber of equivalents of oxalic acid

∴ V = 40 mL

QUESTION: 47

The correct statement for the molecule, Csl3 is:

Solution:

Csl3 dissociates as CsI3 →Cs+ + I3-

QUESTION: 48

The ratio of radii of 2nd, 4th and 6th orbit of hydrogen atom is

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

For the graph below, select correct order of temperature?

Solution:

Temp ↑ extent of adsorption ↓

QUESTION: 50

Aluminium is diagonally related to

Solution:

The following pairs show diagonal relationship.

QUESTION: 51

Pollution can be checked only by :

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, both the species are not likely to exist?

Solution:

Species with zero bond order does not exist.
H22+ : σ (1s)°, Bond order = zero

QUESTION: 53

Which of the following metal ions will form complexes with the same magnetic moment and geometry irrespective of the nature of ligands?

Solution:

Cu2+ forms complexes with the same magnetic moment and geometry irrespective of the nature of ligand.

So, any incoming ligand whether it is strong or weak will result in the formation of same geometry. Moreover, the complex formed will have same magnetic moment due to this unpaired e-.

QUESTION: 54

The kinetic energy of N molecules of O2 is x joule at -123°C. Another sample of O2 at 27°C has a kinetic energy of 2x joule. The latter sample contains

Solution:

Sample (1)

Sample (2)

From (i) and (ii)

N1 = N

QUESTION: 55

Enthalpy and entropy change for a chemical reaction are -2.5 x 103 cals and 7.4 cals respectively. At 25°C the reaction is:

Solution:

ΔH = - 2.5 x 10cal ; ΔS = 7.4 cal
ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
= -2.5 x 103 - 298 x 7.4 = -4705.2cal.
ΔG = - ve; so process is spontaneous
ΔG = 0 (Equilibrium)
ΔG = + ve; Non-spontaneous

QUESTION: 56

Under the same conditions how many mL of 1M KOH and 0.5 M H2SO4 solutions, respectively, when mixed to form a total volume of 100 mL produce the highest rise in temperature?

Solution:

The equation of neutralisation is

∴

Let x mL of KOH is mixed with (100 - x) mL H2SO4 for complete neutralisation.
From equation (i)

x = 50mL
∴ 50 mL KOH will be neutralised exactly by 50 mL H2SO4 to get highest rise in temperature.

QUESTION: 57

One litre of 1 M CuSO4 solution is electrolysed. After passing 2 F of electricity, molarity of CuSO4 solution will be

Solution:

1 L of 1M CuSO4 = 1 mol of Cu2+
Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu
2 F of electricity will convert Cu2+ into Cu, hence [CuSO4] = 0

QUESTION: 58

At temperature T, a compound AB2 (g) dissociates according to the reaction
2 AB2 (g) ⇌  2 AB (g) + B(g)

With a degree of dissociation ‘x’ which is small as compared to unity. The expression for Kp, in terms of ‘x’ and total pressure ‘p’ is

Solution:

The given equation is

Here x is very small, therefore,
(1 - x) ≈ 1, (2 + x) = 2
∴

QUESTION: 59

Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of a gas on surface of solid?

Solution:

On increasing temperature adsorption of a gas on surface of solid decreases. Solid adsorb greater amount of substances at lower temperature.

QUESTION: 60

The solubility product of CaSO4 is 2.4 x 10-5. When 100 mL of 0.01 MCaCl2 and 100 mL of 0.02 M Na2SO4 are mixed, then.

Solution:

Ksp of CaSO4 = 2.4 x 10-5, 100 mL of 0.01M CaCl2 is mixed with 100 mL of 0.02 M Na2SO4. Concentration of Ca2+ and So42- will become Half because volume becomes double.

Kip = [Ca2+] [SO42-]
= 0.005 x 0.01 = 5 x 10-5

Kip > Ksp
Then, CaSO4 will precipitate.

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following is the correct match?

Solution:

In Lassaigne's test, fusion with sodium take place and following species form ed respectively.

Reaction of CN- with hot and acidic solution of FeSO4 lead to formation of Fe4[Fe(CN6)]3 which is blue in colour. It contains iron in both II and III oxidation state.
Reaction of S2- with sodium nitroprusside

Phenoxide ion on reacting with FeCl3 give red colour with FeCl3.

QUESTION: 62

Consider the following reaction

The value of x, y, z in the reaction are respectively

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Which one of the following statements concerning lanthanide elements is false?

Solution:

The ionic radii of trivalent lanthanides decreases progressively with increase in, atomic number. This decrease is known as lanthanide contraction.

QUESTION: 64

On heating sodium carbonate.....is evolved.

Solution:

Sodium carbonate has water of crystallisation which is evolved on heating it.

Na2CO3 is a stable compound. It does not decompose.

QUESTION: 65

The hypothetical complex chlorodiaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride can be represented as

Solution:

Chlorodiaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride is [CoCl(NH3)3 (H2O)2]Cl2

QUESTION: 66

The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.30 g of an organic compound for the estimation of nitrogen was passed in 100 mL of 0.1M sulphuric acid. The excess of acid required 20 mL of 0.5 M sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralization.The organic compound is

Solution:

Meq. of H2SO= Meq. of NaOH + Meq. of NH3
100 x 0.1 x 2 = 20 x 0.5 x 1 + Meq. of NH3
So, Meq. of NH3 = 20 - 10 = 10
Millimols of NH3 = 10
So, millimols of N2 = 5

Weight = 0.14 g

% of N in urea (NH2CO NH2)

So, the compound is urea.

QUESTION: 67

In the following reaction ‘A’ is

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

The most reactive hydrocarbon is

Solution:

π -bond is weaker th an a σ-bond and is easily broken, hence alkenes (alkynes) are more reactive than alkanes (ethane and methane). Due to greater electro negativity of SP-hybridized carbon atom of triple bond than sp2-hybridised carbon atom of double bond, the π-electrons of alkynes are more tightly attached to the carbon atom than π-electrons in alkanes and hence, are less easily available for addition reactions with electrophiles arid so, ethyne is less reactive than ethene.

QUESTION: 69

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Lung diseases are four times more in urban areas than rural areas. This is due to the presence of

Solution:

SO2 is present in large amounts in urban atmosphere due to industrial units, Coal consumption and conbustion of petroleum products. It is highly irritating gas to respiratory tract of human beings and animals.

QUESTION: 71

A compound X, of boron reacts with NH3 on heating to give another compound Y which is called inorganic benzene. The compound X can be prepared by treating BF3 with lithium aluminium hydride. The compounds X and Y are represented by the formulas.

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to

Solution:

D -Sugar component is optically active due to the presence of chiral carbons.

QUESTION: 73

Identify the correct order of electron affinity for O-, O and F-.

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3 / H2SO4 at 80-100°C forms which one of the following products?

Solution:

-NO2 is a m-directing group and hence 1, 3- dinitrobenzene is formed.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following can not be isoelectronic?

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Propionic add with Br2/P yields a dibromo product, It’s structure would be

Solution:

Bromination occurs at a-position.

QUESTION: 77

The rate law for the reaction is given by the expression k [A][B], A + B → Product If the concentration of B is increased from 0.1 to 0.3 mole, keeping the value of A at 0.1 mole, the rate constant will be:

Solution:

Rate constant is independent of concentration.

QUESTION: 78

Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one of the following functional group?

Solution:

Chloroform in the presence of NaOH introduces — CHO group in phenol-Reimer-Tiemann Reaction.

QUESTION: 79

An unknown metal M displaces nickel from nickel (II) sulphate solution but does not displace manganese from manganese sulphate solution. Which order represents the correct order of reducing power?

Solution:

Oxidation potential of M is more than Ni and less than Mn. Hence reducing power Mn > M > Ni

QUESTION: 80

Which one of the following organohalogen compounds when heated with alcoholic potassium hydroxide does not undergo dehydrodhalogenation reaction?

Solution:

I since neopentyl chloride does not have a β-hydrogen, therefore, dehydrohalogenation.

by E2 mechanism does not occur. If it all it occurs, it occurs slowly via E1-mechanism.

QUESTION: 81

Fluorine does not show higher oxidation state like other halogens, because

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is

Solution:

In a simple cube, no. of atoms/unit cell

Volume of the atom 4/3 πr3
Volume of the cube = a3 = (2r)3 = 8r3 (∵ a = 2r)

QUESTION: 83

Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium. Which of the following similarity is incorrect:

Solution:

The Be (OH)2, and Al (OH)3 are amphoteric in nature.

QUESTION: 84

Which of them is not equal to zero for an ideal solution?

Solution:

For ideal solution =, ΔHmix  = 0, ΔVmix = 0, ΔP = 0
(∵ PObserved = PRaouit) but ΔSmix ≠ 0 because or mixing entropy always increases.

QUESTION: 85

The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl4- is

Solution:

ICl5 is sp3y2 hybridised (5 bp, 1 Ip)
ICl4- is sp3d2 hybridised (4 bp, 2 Ip)

QUESTION: 86

For a first order reaction, the time taken to reduce the initial concentration by a factor of 1/4 is 20 minutes. The time required to reduce initial concentration by a factor of 1/16 is

Solution:

Time taken to reduce by factor of 1/4 = 20 min.
∴ Time taken to reduce by factor of 1/2.

Total time required = 4 x t1/2 = 4 x 10 min = 40 min

QUESTION: 87

The major product of the following reaction is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth floatation process. Which on of the following sulphide ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching?

Solution:

Argentite [Ag2S] being a low grade are is preferably extracted by leaching with NaCN.

QUESTION: 89

Consider the van der Waals constants, a and b, for the following gases for the following gases,

Which gas is expected to have the highest critical temperature?

Solution:

Critical temperature = 8a/27Rb
Value of a/b is highest for Kr. Therefore, Kr has greatest value of critical temperature.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?

Solution:

Ac(6d1 7S2) shows only +3 oxidation state.

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:

Uterus consists of body or corpus, a narrow uterine cavity and a lower cylindrical structure where the attachment of developing foetus takes place known as implantation. It takes place after 7 day of fertilisation (10-15 days in human).

QUESTION: 92

The largest flower found is known as

Solution:

Rafflesia or Corpse flower is a total root parasite. It obtains the total nourishment from the root o f the host plant. Its flowers only come out of the host plant and they have a diameter of 1 m and weight around 10kg.

QUESTION: 93

The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to

Solution:

The edible white part of coconut is known as endosperm (seed accumulates inside a pulp) that is equivalent to coconut water.

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following are protozoans?

Solution:

Option ( b) - sporozoa, flagellate, amoebas, ciliate  is the right answer

No, diatoms cannot be under protozoan… because diatoms are Algae  which is different from protozoan. But they also belong to the same kingdom…Protista.

QUESTION: 95

The pollination of two flowers on different plants is known as

Solution:

Fertilisation of a flower by pollen from a flower on a genetically different plant called as xenogamy

QUESTION: 96

A plant tissue when stained showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in cells wall of its cells. The tissue is called

Solution:

Collenchyma is living mechanical tissue, found beneath the epidermis (i.e., hypodermis) of herbaceous dicot stem. The intercellular spaces in this tissue are absent because in intercellular spaces at the comer of cells thickenings of cellulose and pectin develop due to which the cell wall become rigid and thick at comers.

QUESTION: 97

In which one of the following pairs is the specific characteristic of soil not correctly matched?

Solution:

Chernozem is the black colored soil which is known for being rich in humus. This is the richest soil in the world and used for the cultivation of the cereals. Black soil is rich in calcium carbonate and iron. This soil also contains the lime, potash, aluminum, etc. Laterite soil contains the bauxite which is the ore of the aluminum. Terra Rossa is the red clayey soil. The soil formed from the limestone and is used for the production of the vine plants.

QUESTION: 98

Chromosome duplication without nuclear division refers to

Solution:

Division of chromosomes not following by nuclear division tht results in on increased number of chromosomes in the cell is called as endomitosis.

QUESTION: 99

The slime moulds and multicellular algae are presently included in the kingdom-Protista because

Solution:

Slime moulds belongs to the kingdom protista where they appear to be more closely related to unicellular eukaryotes and does not follow characteristic of fungi and other plants because they are algal and they do not follow other three kingdoms exclude protista.

QUESTION: 100

Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of food because they possess

Solution:

Phloem is a conducting tissue that transports food materials, usually from leaves to other part of the plants. In phloem, sieve elements arranged one above the other in distinct linear rows and have sieve plates (oblique or transverse perforated septa) on their end walls. These are associated with companion cells.

QUESTION: 101

Which of the following unicelluar organisms has a macronucleus for trophic function and one or more micronuclei for reproduction?

Solution:

Paramecium is an unicellular organism that has a macronucleus for trophic function and one or more micronuclei for reproduction.

QUESTION: 102

One of the most resistant biological material is

Solution:

Each pollen has two layered wall. The outer layer is thick, tough, cuticularised called exine which is composed of a material called “sporopollenin”. It is highly resistant to biological and physical decomposition, due to which pollens are preserved for a long time in fossils.

QUESTION: 103

Which one of the following is caused by Lyssa virus?

Solution:

The lyssa virus is a genus of RNA viruses in the family Rhabdoviridae, is a zoonotic virus closely related to Rabies virus.

QUESTION: 104

Select the incorrect statement out of the following.

Solution:

Aerial or epiphytic roots hang down in air, they do not possess root caps and root hair instead they possess a covering of dead spongy tissue called velamen.

QUESTION: 105

One of the following is true for Mendible

Solution:

Mendible is a largest and strongest bone of face that is called as lower jaw bone or jaw bone.

QUESTION: 106

In which one of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most?

Solution:

Desert show maximum difference between day and night temperature.

QUESTION: 107

Vegetative propagation in mint and Chrysanthemum occurs by

Solution:

Asexual or vegetative propagation of plants is that form of plant propagation in which the new individual arises from parent by sucker, e.g, in lawn grass cyanodon (Doob grass); mint and Chrysanthemum.

QUESTION: 108

When secondary growth is initiated in dicot stem what will happen first?

Solution:

The parenchymatous cells present between vascular bundle dedifferentiate and become meristematic and forms interfascicular cambium.

QUESTION: 109

Peripatus is a connecting link between

Solution:

Peripatus is a soft bodied wormlike, bilaterally symmetrical animal that is a living connecting link between arthropods and annelids.

QUESTION: 110

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

Which one of the following sets of animals share a four-chambered heart?

Solution:

Four chambered heart have a pulmonary circuit pathway (taking blood from heart to lung and back to heart). Crocodiles, birds and mammals have four chambered heart, birds have much larger heart to the mammal.

QUESTION: 112

Which of the following is correct set of micronutrient for plants?

Solution:

The essential elements are divided into macroelements and microelements based on the quantity in which they are required by the plants. Mn, Fe, Cu, Mo, Zn, B, and Cl are the micronutrients needed in very small quantities by the plants. C, H, O, N, P, S, K, Ca, Mg are the macronutrients required in more quantity.

QUESTION: 113

Which one of the following is the most suitable medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster?

Solution:

Most suitable culturing media for Drosophila melanogaster is ripe banana which gives good results in the laboratories.

QUESTION: 114

Match the cell organelles given in column-I with cellular processes in column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Wobble pairing takes place

Solution:

Wobble pairing takes palce in some cases between the third base of codon and that of an anticodon.

QUESTION: 116

Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?

Solution:

Gibberllic acid stimulates cell growth of leaves and stem, causing their expansion, elongation respectively and leaf fall is controlled by ABA.

QUESTION: 117

Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand because

Solution:

Discontinuous replication or synthesis of DNA molecule as a series of short fragments. Extension of RNA primers occurs by the addition of DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses.

QUESTION: 118

Mutations can be induced with

Solution:

Mutation is the process by which genetic variations are created through changes in the base sequence within genes. It is possible to induce mutations artificially through use of chemicals or radiations (like gamma radiations).

QUESTION: 119

Bt gene, which produces protein toxic to insect larvae is

Solution:

cry genes encoded the protein (toxin) are isolated from the bacterium and incorporated into several crop plants. Bt gene have maximum numbers of cry genes, e.g; cry I Ac, Cry II Ab cry I Ab etc.

QUESTION: 120

Pneumatophores are characteristic of plants growing in

Solution:

Some plants growing in salty marshes develop special roots for respiration, called pneumatophores. They are (-)vely geotropic.

QUESTION: 121

Megasporangium is equivalent to

Solution:

Megasporangium is a female sporangia produce megasporocytes the yield megaspore. The ovule appears to be a megasporangium with integuments surrounding it.

QUESTION: 122

The reaction rate of salivary amylase on starch decreases as the concentration of chloride ions is reduced. Which of the following describes the role of the chloride ions?

Solution:

Many enzymes requires a non-protein component for activity. These components are known as co-factors, which may be metal ions or organic in nature. The metal ions may be actually bound to the substrate rather than the enzyme.

QUESTION: 123

In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small multicellular, free living photosynethetic, thalloid gametophyte called

Solution:

In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small multicellular, free living photosynthetic, thalloid gametophyte called as “Prothallus”.

QUESTION: 124

PEP carboxylase

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

Which of the following statements is not true about genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

Solution:

Genetic linkage is the tendency of alleles that are close together. The recombination frequency will be 50% when two genes are located on different chromosomes that are tightly linked to each other.

QUESTION: 126

Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Magnesium competes with iron and manganese for uptake and with iron for binding with enzymes.
(ii) Magnesium inhibit calcium translocation in shoot apex.
(iii) Excess of manganese may induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium.
(iv) Symptoms of manganese toxicity may actually be the deficiency symptoms of iron, magnesium and calcium.

Solution:

Manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake, and with magnesium for binding with enzymes. Manganese also . inhibits calcium translocation in shoot apex.

QUESTION: 127

Adiantum is called ‘walking fern ’ because

Solution:

Adiantum is known as walking fern because of its ability to form new plants, whenever the leaf tip happens to come in contact with soil.

QUESTION: 128

Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:

Solution:

In this technique nematode specific genes are introduced in the host plant in such a way that it produces both sense and antisense RNA. The two RNA’s being complementary to each other form a double stranded RNA (dsRNA) which is also called interfering RNA responsible for initiating RNA interference (RNA i). This (dsRNA) bind to and prevent translation of specific mRNA of nematode (gene silencing). Thus transgenic plants based on RNAi technology are resistant to nematode.

QUESTION: 129

Which era could be called the ‘age of mammals and birds’?

Solution:

The Cenozoic Era is the most recent subdivision of other divisions. The Cenozoic Era describes age of mammals including Birds, while Mesozoic era was age of reptiles.

QUESTION: 130

Aqueous humour produced by the ciliary body is secreted into the posterior chamber and enters the anterior chamber through

Solution:

The pupil permits the passage of light waves and the passage of aqueous humour.

QUESTION: 131

Which of the following is a dinoflagellate responsible for red tides?

Solution:

Red tides are caused by an explosive growth and accumulation of certain microscopic algae also known as Algal Bloom that they discolour Coastal water, hence the name “red tide”. Red tides are not just the source of beach goers, they are also deadly to marine like fish etc.

QUESTION: 132

The ‘Earth Summit’ held at Rio de Janerio in 1992 resulted into

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

The floral formula represents

Solution:

Brassica campestris belongs to the mustard family with the floral formula

QUESTION: 134

Which of the following is true?
(i) ‘Operon hypothesis’ was proposed by Jacob and Monod
(ii) ‘One gene-one enzyme theory’ was proposed by Beadle and Tatum
(iii) ‘Southern blotting’ is used in DNAfmgerprinting
(iv) Uracil and Thymine bases remain present in DNA and RNA respectively

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

Phylloclade is photosynthetic, succulent specialized plant part found in

Solution:

The most common culinary species that belongs to the Cactus family is Opuntia plant which phylloclade is photosynthetic and succulent specialized plant.

QUESTION: 136

Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong ?

Solution:

While working at the Rockefeller Institute, Brown reported isolation of a PPLO from human arthritic joint tissue in 1938.
In discussing the significance of this observation, Brown reported successful treatment of arthritic patients in 1949 with a new antibiotic called aureomycin.

QUESTION: 137

If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

Prior to mutation, a sequence of DNA reads GAGCCTATGCCAGTA. After the mutation, the sequence reads GAGCGTACGCCATTA. Which of the following best explains the change in DNA that has occurred?

Solution:

Since the total number of bases is the same, either no deletions or insertions occurred, or an equal number of each must have occurred. In this case, however, simply comparing each strand base for base shows that the multiple substitutions took place along the sequence.

QUESTION: 139

Which among the following is not characteristic of yellow fibres of connective tissue?

Solution:

Elastic fibers or yellow fibers are bundles of proteins (elastin) found in extracellular matrix of connective tissue in straight and branched form with fewer number. It provides smoothness and elasticity to the body tissue.

QUESTION: 140

Which of the following is a large middle layer consisting of main uterine gland as well as blood vessels?

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

Which of the following crops is being grown in India for biodiesel?

Solution:

Jatropha Curcas, generated interest as an oil crop for biodiesel production in India.

QUESTION: 142

Which one of the following is correct match?

Solution:

Morphine is an opiate narcotic, Bhang is a hallucinogen, Reserpine derived form Raimolffia, is used as tranquiliser, cocaine is a stimulant.

QUESTION: 143

Cell theory was proposed by Schleiden and Schwann .Which of the following is an exception for cell theory?

Solution:

Cell theory states that “all living cells are made of cells that, are fundamental unit of life” but viruses are not made up of cells. But it is considered to be living. Therefore it is an exception of the theory.

QUESTION: 144

The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector cells are

Solution:

The organs where B-cells and T-cells interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector cells are called secondary lymphoid organs. After maturation in primary lymphoid organs, these cells migrate via blood and lymph to the secondary lymphoid organs. In these organs, B-cells and T-cells do not remain confined, and move from one lymphoid organ to another through blood and lymph. Spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer's patches of the small intestine, tonsils, appendix and mucosal associated lymphyoid tissues (MALT) are secondary lymphoid organs.

QUESTION: 145

Accordance to the human genome project, select the incorrect statement.

Solution:

Human genome project was the goal of determining sequence pf chemical base pair. Two major approaches involved i.e; ESTs and SNPs in human. This project was launched in 1990 and finally declared complete in 2003.

QUESTION: 146

The technique called Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

Solution:

Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females who cannot produce an ovum. In this process, the eggs of the donor woman are removed and in a form of mixture with sperm transferred into fallopian tube of another woman who cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation. Thus in GIFT, site of fertilisation is fallopian tube, not laboratory.

QUESTION: 147

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is

Solution:

Torpedo is a marine cartilaginous fish that produces electric current for the protection or self defence.

QUESTION: 148

Which of fee following statement(s) is/are correct regarding class aves?
(i) The forelimbs are modified into wings and the hindlimbs generally have scales and are modified for walking, swimming or clasping the tree branches.
(ii) Heart is completely four-chambered.
(iii) They are warm- blooded (homoiothermous) animals i.e., they are able to maintain a constant body temperature.
(iv) They are oviparous and development is direct.

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

Which is the thickest part of mammalian heart?

Solution:

The myocardium is the thick, middle layer of the heart and is composed of cardiac Muscle.

QUESTION: 150

If you examine the reproductive system of a normal human female before she undergoes puberty, which of the following would you not expect to find ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 151

Ringer solution contain

Solution:

Ringer's solution is a solution of several salts dissolved in water for the purpose to creating an isotonic solution that contains sodium and potassium ion.

QUESTION: 152

Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred to as

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

Pteridophytes were well adapted and advanced in survival on land but they cannot be much successful and widespread as gymnosperms and angiospermic Plants because they lack

Solution:

Pteridophytes lack freedom from water for fertilisation and well advanced and adapted therefore can not be get much success as gymnosperms and angiosperms.

QUESTION: 154

Which one of the following is a matching pair of a substrate and its particular digestive enzyme?

Solution:
QUESTION: 155

Most of the fat digestion occurs in

Solution:

Small intestine is a principal organ for absorption of nutrients and completes the digestion where final products of digestion are glucose, fructose, fatty acids, glycerol and amino acids are absorbed through the mucosa into the blood stream and lymph.

QUESTION: 156

Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as

Solution:
QUESTION: 157

Which one of these is an in-situ method of conservation?

Solution:

On-site-conservation is the conservation of living resources within the natural ecosystems. It includes a Comprehensive system of protected areas such as National parks, santuaries, Natural reserves, cultural landscapes etc.

QUESTION: 158

Find out the correct order of succession levels in Xerarch.

Solution:
QUESTION: 159

The values of osmotic potential (π) and pressure potential (P) of cells A, B, C and D are given below.

Identify the correct sequence that shows the path of movement of water from among the following.

Solution:

The values of osmotic potential (π) is double of the values of pressure potential (ρ) of cells. In the path of water movement it shows acsending values are
B → D → A → C

QUESTION: 160

Genetic drift is change of

Solution:

Genetic drift is also known as Sewall Wright effect. It refers to the random changes in gene frequencies in a population by chance, either due to intensive inbreeding or death of a small section of population by natural calamity. Its effect is more marked in small isolated population.

QUESTION: 161

Endemic goitre is a state of

Solution:

Endemic goitre is associated with dietary iodine deficiency cause a swelling in the frontal part of the neck or endemic goitre occurs when the prevalence of thyroid enlargement in which thyroid gland decrease their function to the stimulation of hormone.

QUESTION: 162

Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to honey bees?

Solution:

Karl Von Frisch, carried out many experiments and determined that when a foraging bee returns to the hive, it performs a waggle dance. Honey is predominantly glucose and fructose. Dorsata is a bigger bee than Apis indica (a medium sized bee). Bees wax is secreted by special wax glands to make compartments.

QUESTION: 163

Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to

Solution:

In fertilisation, the acrosomal reaction provides the sperm with an enzymatic drill to get through the zona pellucida of the ova.

QUESTION: 164

Arrange the following ecosystems in increasing order of mean NPP (Tonnes / ha / year).
1. Tropical deciduous forest
2. Temperate coniferous forest;
3. Tropical rain forest
4. Temperate deciduous forest

Solution:

Net primary productivity (NPP) is the biomass or storage of energy by green plants. It is equal to the gross primary productivity minus loss due to respiration. The productivity generally increases from polar regions toward the tropics because of the increasing sunlight and temperature.

QUESTION: 165

In an experiment demonstrating the evolution of oxygen in Hydrilla, sodium bicarbonate is added to water in the experimental set-up. What would happen if all other conditions are favourable?

Solution:

Amount of oxygen increases as the availability of carbon dioxide increases in given experimental condition.

QUESTION: 166

Food chain is a series of population which starts with producers. Its is concerned with