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# NEET Mock Test - 5 (July 9, 2021)

## 180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series | NEET Mock Test - 5 (July 9, 2021)

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This mock test of NEET Mock Test - 5 (July 9, 2021) for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET NEET Mock Test - 5 (July 9, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NEET Mock Test - 5 (July 9, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this NEET Mock Test - 5 (July 9, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NEET Mock Test - 5 (July 9, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

### Physical quantity x depends on quantities y and z as x = Ay + B sin (C z), where A., B and C are constants. Which of the following have same dimension?

Solution:

[x] = [Ay] = [B]
[Cz] = [Mo Lo To] ⇒ [C] = [z-1]

QUESTION: 2

### Acceleration versus time graph for a particle is as shown in the figure. If the particle starts its motion from rest, then the maximum speed of the particle is

Solution:

Velocity is maximum when a = 0 ⇒ t =2s
⇒ v = 8 - 4 = 4 m/s

QUESTION: 3

### A body is dropped under gravity. The ratio of distances covered by the body in first and sixth second of motion is

Solution:

Galileo law of odd numbers

QUESTION: 4

The famous Big Ben clock tower in London has hour hand of approximate length 10 feet. Calculate the magnitude of change in velocity of change in velocity of hour hand of Big Ben in six hour  (1 feet = 0.305 m)

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

A particle revolving in a circular path completes first one third of circumference in 3s, while next one third in 2s. The average angular velocity of the particle is

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

The upper portion of an inclined plane is smooth and lower portion is rough. A particle slides down from rest from the top and just comes to rest at the foot. If the ratio of the smooth length to the rough length is m : n, the coefficient of friction is (α : angle of inclination)

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Two blocks A and B of masses 2 kg and 4 kg respectively are interconnected by an ideal spring of constant. 200 N/m and placed on a smooth horizontal surface. If the spring is initially unstretched and block B is given a rightward velocity 10 m/s, then the maximum extension attained in the spring will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

While visiting the orthopaedics department of AIIMS Delhi, Ram notices a datasheet which mentions that the human femoral cortical bone has an average Young’s modulus equal to 19000 MPa. A stress of approximately 200 MPa is the tensile strength of the bone. The maximum bearable strain of the bone will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

An engine of a motor pulls up a 20 kg mass slowly through a height of 10m in 10 s. The power consumption of the engine, if it works at an efficiency of 60% is (g = 10 m/s2

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

ABCD represents a uniform square lamina as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia along the corresponding axis are also indicated. The ratio  has a value

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

If R is the radius of a nucleus and A is mass number, then the plot of In(R/R0) versus In (A) will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

A monochromatic light of wavelength λ is incident on an isolated metallic sphere of radius R. The threshold wavelength is λ00 > λ). The number of photoelectrons emitted before the emission of photoelectron will stop, is

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

A photon of energy hv is absorbed by a free electron of a metal having work function (w < hv), then

Solution:

If hv> work function (w), then electron may come out the metal. Its energy may be equal or less than (hv - w)

QUESTION: 14

The plot of stopping potential (V) and frequency (v) of the light incident in an experiment on photoelectric effect is shown in the figure. The ratio (h/e) will come out

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

If the momentum of an electron is changed by ΔP, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.2%. The initial momentum of the electron will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

The diagram below shows an instantaneous position of a string as a transverse progressive wave travels along it from left to right

Solution:

Particle velocity Vp = - slope x wave velocity

QUESTION: 17

A tuning fork of frequency f produces 6 beats per second with a tuning fork of frequency of 248 Hz. And 9 beats with another tuning fork having frequency of 263 Hz. The value of f will be

Solution:

Possible value of f are 242 Hz and 254 Hz. To have 9 beats with 263 Hz, it should be 254 Hz.

QUESTION: 18

In a stationary wave produced in a string, all the particles

Solution:

In stationary wave in a string all the particles between two consecutive nodes oscillates in same phase.

QUESTION: 19

Fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire is v. If the length, tension and diameter of wire are doubled the new fundamental frequency becomes

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is 220 Hz. Now 1/4th of the pipe is filled with water, first overtone frequency of the pipe in this situation will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g, the speed with which a body hit the earth surface, when released from a height equal to radius of earth is

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Three particles of masses 2M, m and 3M are placed at points A, B and C respectively with BC = 3/2 AB. M is very small than 2M and at time t = 0 they are all at rest. A subsequent time s before any collision takes place

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

If gravitational force between two masses varies as F ∝ 1/r3 Then orbital speed of satellite varies with radius of orbit as

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

A uniform spherical shell gradually expands maintaining shape. Then gravitational potential at centre will (mass remains constant)

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

A wheel starts from rest and rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad/s2. The number of revolutions made by wheel in 10 s is nearly

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

A capacitor of capacitance C1 = 1 μF withstand a maximum voltage V1 = 6 kV, while a capacitor of capacitance C2 = 3.0 μF withstand the maximum voltage V2 = 4 kV. The maximum voltage which the capacitors can withstand when connected in series

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

Three charges are arranged on the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown in figure. The dipole moment of combination is

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

A thin metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q on it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of shell and charge – q1 5s placed outside it as shown in figure. The force on the charge at centre due to shell is

Solution:

The charge q, which is kept at the centre of metallic spherical shell transfered to the outer surface of shell and inside the shell the electric field is zero and hence force is also zero.

QUESTION: 29

In a certain region of space electric field is along the z-direction throughout. The magnitude of electric field is however, not constant but increases uniformly along positive z-direction at the rate of 106 N/Cm. The force experienced by a dipole of dipole moment 0.2 x 10-5 Cm in negative z direction

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

The equivalent capacitance of combination shown in figure between points A and B is

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

A transformer is used to light 150 W, 30 V lamp from a 240 V mains. The current in the main cable is 0.8 ampere. The efficiency of the transformer is nearly

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

In the circuit shown, there is a box containing a resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor of capacitance C connected in series to an alternating source of angular frequency 4 rad/s. Box has power factor 1/√3 and the circuit has overall power factor 1. The impedance of the box is

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

Let P and E denotes the linear momentum and energy of photon. If the wavelength is decreased

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

The number of photons emitted per second by 60 W source of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 A is

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

The ratio of magnetic dipole moment to angular momentum in a hydrogen like atom is

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

A  prism of refractive index ‘ μ ’ and refracting angle ‘A’ is placed in the minimum deviation position. If the angle of minimum deviation is A, then the value of A in tern of ‘ μ ’ is

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 10 and the length of telescope is 110 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope is when image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

The condition of observing Fraunhalfer diffraction, From a single slit is that the wave front incident on the slit must be

Solution:

If a very small opaque disc is placed in the path of mono chromatic light. It geometrical shadow has dark point at the centre surrounded by alternate bright and dark rings.

QUESTION: 39

A potential barrier V volts exists across P-N junction. The thickness of the depletion region is ‘d’. An electron with velocity ‘Vo’ approaches P-N junction from P side. The velocity of electron crossing the junction is

Solution:

direction of electric field across barrier will be from N type to P type therefore force will be in the direction of velocity.
v2 = u2 + 2 as

QUESTION: 40

For the given operational amplifier circuit, the value of output (Vo) will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field component to the intensity of an EM wave is

Solution:

Contribution of electric field and magnetic field in EM wave will be equal

QUESTION: 42

Which among the following are true for gamma rays?

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

The amplitude of magnetic field in a region carried by an electromagnetic wave is 0.2 μT. The intensity of the wave is nearly

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

Radiation pressure on any surface :

Solution:

Radiation pressure on any surface is dependent on nature of surface and intensity of high used.

QUESTION: 45

An Em wave transport energy along +ve  x-axis. If at any instant magnetic field vector is along +ve z-axis. The electric field vector at this instant along

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Na2 SO4 xH2O on heating loses 55.9% of its weight, value of x is.

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

1 L of an unknown gas at NTP weighs 1.97g, formula of the gas may be

Solution:

Molar mass of the gas
= 1.97 x 22.4 = 44 g
∴ Gas is CO2

QUESTION: 48

Number of radial nodes for 3d orbital is

Solution:

Radial nodes = n - I - 1 = 3 - 2 - 1 = 0

QUESTION: 49

Which of the following transitions will emit photon with minimum wavelength?

Solution:

Energy change is maximum for n4 → n1

QUESTION: 50

For a gas at 273 K and 20 at m, molar volume is 20 percent greater than that for an ideal gas under similar conditions. The correct statement about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is

Solution:

∴ Repulsive forces are dominantant

QUESTION: 51

A certain gas takes four times as long to effuse out as helium under similar conditions. The molecular mass of gas will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

At 298 K, a gas expands 0.1 L to 0.4 L against a constant pressure of 20 atm. The work done during the process is (given: 1 L atm = 100 J)

Solution:

W = -P (V2 - V1)
= - 20 (0.4 - 0.1) × 100 J = - 600 J

QUESTION: 53

Two moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be

Solution:

In vacuum, W = 0 as Pext = 0

QUESTION: 54

Molecule with sp3d hybridised central atom is

Solution:

XeOF2; Sp3​, XeF2; sp3d, PCl5; sp3d hybridised

QUESTION: 55

Select the molecule/ion having highest bond order among the following

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

Compound (z) is

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

Product (P) is

Solution:

QUESTION: 58

Compound (y) may be

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

Suitable pH range maintained in the above reaction to get a better yield is

Solution:

Slightly alkaline medium is required for the reaction

QUESTION: 60

Glucose  Product formed is

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Water soluble vitamin is

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Caprolactam is the monomer of

Solution:

Caprolactam is monomer of nylon -6

QUESTION: 63

Which of the following artificial sweeteners does not contain an amide linkage?

Solution:

Sucralose does not contain an amide bonding.

QUESTION: 64

Molar conductivities  at infinite dilution of NaCI, HCI and CH3COONa are x, y and z Respectively  for CH3COOH will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

Total charge required to reduce 1 mole of Cr2 O72− to Cr3+ ions is

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

Eo values of Li + Li , Pb+2 / Pb , Cu+2 / Cu , and Sn2+ / Sn are -3.05 V, -0.13 V, +0.34 V and -0.14 V respectively. Least reducing power is of

Solution:

More the reduction potential, lesser will be reducing power.

QUESTION: 67

Effective number of atoms in fcc unit cell is

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

For a reaction 2A + B → product , rate law is given as r = K[A]1 [B]1/2 . What will be the order of reaction if A is taken in excess?

Solution:

Order w.r.t. A become zero at excess concentration of A.

QUESTION: 69

The maximum power to precipitate CdS sol is of

Solution:

CdS is a negative colloid.

QUESTION: 70

Van’t Hoff factor for aqueous Na2SO4 solution with degree of ionisation α = 0.75 is

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

The species which will not undergoes disproportionation is

Solution:

F2 does not show disproportionation reaction since fluorine does not show any positive oxidation state.

QUESTION: 72

The method used to remove temporary hardness is

Solution:

In clark’s method, Mg(HCO3)2 and Ca(HCO3)2 reacts with lime and precipitation of CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2 takes place.

QUESTION: 73

The element which will not impart colour to flame is

Solution:

In beryllium, electrons are too strongly bound to get excited by flame.

QUESTION: 74

The mixture of gases which is known as producer gas is

Solution:

Mixture of CO +N2 is known as producer gas.

QUESTION: 75

The pH of a solution at 25oC that contains 10-2 M OH- is

Solution:

QUESTION: 76

The IUPAC name of the compound

Solution:

QUESTION: 77

Among the following aromatic species is

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

CH3 - CH2 - CHO and CH3 - CO - CH3 are

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

In the molecule, The hybridisation of C1, C3 and C5 respectively are

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the ammonia evolved from 1g of the compound is neutralized by 20 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

Solution:

QUESTION: 81

In the reaction, B is

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Meta-directing group towards electrophilic substitution reaction in benzene is

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

In Li2O, having the antifluorite structure, the coordination numbers for 2- ions Li+ ions respectively are

Solution:

In Li2O, O2- ions forms CCP structure and Li+ ions are present in all tetrahedral voids.

QUESTION: 84

In the following balanced equation,  ratio of b to c is

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

Ortho and para hydrogen differ in

Solution:

Nuclear (proton) spins are different for ortho and para H2

QUESTION: 86

20 volume H2O2 solution has its strength

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

Most soluble hydroxide in water is

Solution:

Basic strength of alkaline earth metal hydroxides increases down the group

QUESTION: 88

Select the correct match regarding composition of Portland cement

Solution:

In cement, % of CaO is 50-60%.
% of AI2O3 is 5-10%, % of Fe2O3 is 1-2.

QUESTION: 89

Number of Boron atom(s) having SP3 hybridisation in borax molecule is

Solution:

Borax has two sp3 hybridized and two sp2 hybridized – B atoms.

QUESTION: 90

0.5 g of an organic substance was kjeldahlised and the ammonia released was neutralised by 100 ml 0.1 M HCI. Percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

DNA is made up of building blocks called

Solution:

DNA is made of chemical building blocks called nucleotides. These building blocks are made of three parts: a phosphate group, a sugar group and one of four types of nitrogen bases. To form a strand of DNA, nucleotides are linked into chains, with the phosphate and sugar groups alternating.

QUESTION: 93

The primary electron acceptor of PSII during Non- cyclic photophosphorylation in plants is:

Solution:

During Non-cyclic photophosphorylation first electron acceptor from PS-।। Is phaeophytin.

QUESTION: 94

Tidal volume of lungs is

Solution:

The amount of air inhaled or exhaled in normal breathing is call tidal volume its value is 500ml

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following is a method of ex-situ conservation of diversity

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

Allogamy is best favoured by:

Solution:

In plants allogamy is used to mean specifically the use of pollen from one plant to fertilize the other and usually synonymous with the term cross fertilization. Dicliny refers to separation of male and female reproductive parts into different flowers.

QUESTION: 97

The population of a culture of E.coli was found to increase from 1.5 x 10cells/ml to 12 x 105 cells/ml in 42 min. The generation time of the organism present in the culture is:

Solution:

14 min. Because they need three generations to reach a population of 12 × 105.from 1.5 ×105 (1.5 -TO 3 TO - 6 -TO 12)×105 takes the generation 14 minutes.)

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following are correct statements?

i. M- phase is the shortest phase.

ii. Histones are formed during the S- phase.

iii. Chiasmata begins to appear during the pachytene stage.

iv. During gamete formation the enzyme recombinase participates during Prophase- I.

Solution:

Chiasmata begins to appear in diplotene stage

QUESTION: 99

The power house of the cell  is __________ and kitchen of the cell is _____

Solution:

Mitochondria produces ATP, and Chloroplasts produce food for their cells.

QUESTION: 100

mRNA is associated with:

Solution:

Polyribosomes or polysome is a complex of mRNA that strung along strand of mRNA that translate the genetic information coded in mRNA.

QUESTION: 101

Membraneless organelle is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

Select the option with correct labeling :

Solution:
QUESTION: 103

In sweet pea, genes C and P are needed for flower colour. What would be the percentage of coloured flowers in the offspring of the cross of ccPp X Ccpp?

Solution:

probabilities of the gamete formed
Ccpp will form Cp and cp
ccPp will form cP and cp
So the cross will result in 4 type of progenies
CcPp
Ccpp
ccPp
ccpp
hence 25% of the flowers will be coloured.

QUESTION: 104

Which of the following represents mitochondrial inheritance?

Solution:

Mitochondrial inheritance means inherited gene in mitochondria of zygote. As only nuclei of sperm fuse with ovum, the zygote have to use mitochondria of Ovum only. So all the progeny will be affected. So answer goes to (A) as all the progeny are affected.

QUESTION: 105

How many of the following families have been correctly matched with their characteristic inflorescence?
i. Asteraceae – Capitulum
ii. Labiateae – Verticillaster
iii. Euphorbiaceae – Cyathium
iv. Cruciferae – Raceme

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Pick the odd one out:

Solution:

Option b,c,d belongs to green algae but option a belongs to brown algae.

QUESTION: 107

Study the figure and select the correct statement

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Hypohydrophily occurs in:

Solution:

Hydrophily means pollination by water and vallisneria is an aquatic plant and it is pollinated by water. Hypohydrophily means here pollen grains moves on the surface of water not under water.

QUESTION: 109

Which one of the following is incorrect ?

Solution:

RNA polymerase 1- rRNARNA polymerase 2- tRNA, snRNARNA polymerase 3- rRNA, hnRNA.

QUESTION: 110

If one strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence ATTGCAT, its complementary strand will have the sequence

Solution:

Complementarity means if one strand has "A"then, the other strand will have "T" & viceversa And if one strand has "G" then, the other strand will have "C" & viceversa Given , ATTGCAT so,it's complementary strand will have TAACGTA Hence,Option B is correct And remember that for RNA for "A" complementary is "U"(uracil)& vice-versa.

QUESTION: 111

Match the following:

Solution:

Mutualism is shown by ophyrs and bees for pollination.
Commensalism is shown by epiphyte and mango tree because plants like orchid grow on the branches of a tree.
Parasitism is shown by ticks on a dog because the ticks feed on dogs of their food Competition is shown by balanus and chathamalas.
Predation is shown by sparrow and gram plants because sparrow's prey is gram seeds

QUESTION: 112

Triticale is a man made cereal produced by the hybridization of:

Solution:

Triticale is a man-made cereal grain species derived from hybridization of wheat and rye.

QUESTION: 113

What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs is reduced?

Solution:

If oxygen availability to activated sludge floes is reduced the center of floes will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of floes.

QUESTION: 114

Pick out the incorrect pair:

Solution:

Alec Jeffreys suggested the process of DNA fingerprinting.

QUESTION: 115

The deepest photosynthetic organism in ocean is:

Solution:

Most varieties of algae live near the surface of the water in order to get enough sunlight to live. Since they can absorb blue light, red algae can live in much deeper water where light of long wavelengths -- like red -- can't reach. Red algae have been found living in depths of over 500 feet.

QUESTION: 116

Match column I with the disease resistant variety in column II
Column I         Coulmn II
A. Cowpea       i. himgiri
B. Cheat           ii. Pusa komal
D. Brassica       iv. Pusa swarnim

Solution:
QUESTION: 117

Which of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots?

Solution:
QUESTION: 118

Which of the following is used in the recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants?

Solution:

Meristem culture is used for shoot apical meristem culture in vitro. When virus elimination is the objective, to obtain disease-free plants, shoot tips of up to 10 mm are used. For rapid clonal propagation, a shoot-tip culture is followed in which (5–10 mm) explants are used.

QUESTION: 119

Which of the following statements describes natural extinction?
i. Extinction abetted by human activity
ii. Quick replacement or loss of existing species
iii. Also known as background extinction
iv. A small population is most likely to be extinct

Solution:
QUESTION: 120

Which of the following can cause the damage of DNA in humans?

Solution:

UVB ranges from 290 to 320 nm. With even shorter rays, most UVC is absorbed by the ozone layer and does not reach the earth. Both UVA and UVB, however, penetrate the atmosphere and play an important role in conditions such as premature skin aging, eye damage (including cataracts), and skin cancers.

QUESTION: 121

Pick the incorrect statements:
i. Dikaryon is observed in Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes.
ii. Fungi imperfecti reproduce by Asexual reproduction only.
iii. Basidiocarp is the edible part of Puccinia visible above the ground
iv. Blakeslee discovered the phenomenon of heterothallism in Rhizopus.

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

Pick the correct match:

Solution:

Diatoms belong to chrysophyta . They are photosynthetic and aquatic.
Sexual reproduction occurs by oogamy in them.

QUESTION: 123

Tritcale is

Solution:

Sapindales belong to order. whereas others are families.

QUESTION: 124

Nitrogenase is sensitive to oxygen. Hence an anaerobic condition is maintained by:

Solution:

Leg haemoglobin is also called oxygen scavenger and it creates anaerobic condition.

QUESTION: 125

Match the following:

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

An element that is immobile and whose deficiency results in necrosis is:

Solution:

Calcium is used to build cell wall structure and because cell walls form around every cell, calcium is an essential element for maintaining cellular integrity.
It is found in large quantities in cells that are dividing (meristematic cells) and this is the reason why calcium deficiency often manifests in the growing roots, shoots, buds and young leaves. The leaves of some plants hook downward and exhibit marginal necrosis.
Calcium is absorbed through the growing root tips and is transported to the growing parts of the plants via xylem vascular system. Once deposited in cell walls it cannot be translocated to other parts of the plant

QUESTION: 127

In a cell:
i. DPD= φw = 0 for a turgid cell
ii.water potential of pure water is maximum and its value is 1
iii. TP = OP = φs
iv. φw indicates the free energy of the water molecules in a system

Solution:

Explanation : As turgor pressure exerts its impact outwardly i.e., on to the cell wall, the cell wall being plastic, exerts counter pressure; this is called wall pressure. When the TP (p) becomes equal to wall pressure, the water potential within the cell and outside the cell reaches an equilibrium state. Such a cell is called turgid cell and w.

The relation can be expressed in the following formulae:

If DPD = OP - TP

QUESTION: 128

Transpirational pull theory for ascent of sap  was proposed by:

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

The net gain of ATP produced during aerobic and anaerobic  are___________ respectively:

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

The coenzyme TTP and cofactor Zn2+ are required for:

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

The physical distance between two genes  can be determined by

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

In all ecosystem, pyramid of ……………… can never be inverted

Solution:

The pyramid of energy can never be inverted. The pyramid represents the amount of energy at each trophic level of the food chain.

QUESTION: 133

Photorespiration

Solution:

Photorespiration is a process that reduce the yield of photosynthesis, because the active site of RuBISCO accepts oxygen in place of carbon dioxide and generate no ATP.

QUESTION: 134

Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in

Solution:

Oxidative phosphorylation is the process in which ATP is formed as a result of the transfer of electrons from NADH or FADH2 to O2 by a series of electron carriers. This process, which takes place in mitochondria, is the major source of ATP in aerobic organisms

QUESTION: 135

Insect pollinated flowers

Solution:

Insects often pollinate Purple, violet & blue colour flower & flower which have more fragrance are pink white & purple.

QUESTION: 136

Although both seal and penguin have streamlined, fish- like bodies with a layer of insulating fat, they are not closely related. This similarity results from:

Solution:

Convergent evolution as they originated from anywhere else but their habitat is common.i.e. having common characteristic in species of different lineages.

QUESTION: 137

Which of the following would not result from the release of adrenaline (epinephrine)?

Solution:

Intestinal ischemia occurs when the blood flow through the major arteries that supply blood to your intestines slows or stops. The condition has many potential causes, including a blockage in an artery caused by a blood clot, or a narrowing of an artery due to buildup of deposits, such as cholesterol.

QUESTION: 138

Which of the following observations was not important in helping Darwin and Wallace develop their theory of natural selection?

Solution:

Darwinism is not based on DNA and it doesn't explain information about DNA and gene .

QUESTION: 139

Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function?

Solution:

Prostate gland is male accessory gland.*Helps in sperm activation.*It forms 30% of semen.*It COAGULATES SEMEN and reduces sperm mobility so their energy is conserved.*Prostate gland has no role in secretion of testosterone and male sex hormone.

QUESTION: 140

Suppose you were a neuroscientist and were given a sample of a new snake venom. You test its effect on action at a synapse, and find that it increases the magnitude of the normal depolarizing excitatory response.The most likely explanation for this is that the venom is:

Solution:

When the neurotoxin reaches the Neuromuscular junction then it induces the release of more amount of Ca ions in the pre syanaptic membrane due to which more amount of neurotransmitter is released (from vesicles) at synapse which increases the magnitude of depolarisation at synapse or it can also act as a duplicate of neurotransmitter and can cause increase of depolarisation which depends upon the similarity in their molecular function and structure

QUESTION: 141

Which statement amongst the following is not true?

Solution:

Hypothalamus is a region of forebrain not hindbrain.

QUESTION: 142

The trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles of humans have all of the following functions except:

Solution:

Increase the surface are for gas exchange because it's done by alveoli.

QUESTION: 143

Which statement is false?

Solution:

Blood that returns to the heart has picked up lots of oxygen from the lungs. At each body part, a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries connects the very small artery branches to very small veins. The capillaries have very thin walls, and through them, nutrients and oxygen are delivered to the cells.

QUESTION: 144

The mammalian heart beat:

Solution:

Vagal innervation of the heart. At the same time, the two branches of the autonomic nervous system act in a complementary way increasing or slowing the heart rate. In this context, the vagus nerve acts on sinoatrial node slowing its conduction thus actively modulating vagal tone accordingly.

QUESTION: 145

Suppose you are developing a new drug, and have found that when it is administered in humans there is a substantial increase in the volume of urine produced. When you administer antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin) at the same time, the volume of urine returns to normal. Which hypothesis best fits these observations? The new drug:

Solution:

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). ADH is produced in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It causes the kidneys to retain water, constricts arterioles in the peripheral circulation, and affects some social behaviors in mammals. ADH has two major effects.

QUESTION: 146

Some athletes take “steroids” in an attempt to enhance their physical performance. This can lead to decreased sperm production and even sterility. What is the most likely explanation for this effect?

Solution:

A negative feedback system occurs in the male with rising levels of testosterone acting on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary to inhibit the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH. The Sertoli cells produce the hormone inhibin, which is released into the blood when the sperm count is too high.

QUESTION: 147

If you were outside for a long time on a hot, dry day, without anything to drink, which of the following would happen?

Solution:

The release of anti-diuretic hormone from the pituitary gland into the blood stream is controlled by a number of factors. Secretion of anti-diuretic hormone also occurs if the concentration of salts in the blood stream increases, for example as a result of not drinking enough water on a hot day.

QUESTION: 148

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), and oxytocin are all:

Solution:

The anterior pituitary gland produces the following hormones and releases them into the bloodstream: adrenocorticotropic hormone, which stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete steroid hormones, principally cortisol. growth hormone, which regulates growth, metabolism and body composition.

QUESTION: 149

Which of the following statement about the mammalian heart function is false?

Solution:

The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs. The blood here passes through capillaries adjacent to alveoli and becomes oxygenated as part of the process of respiration. In contrast to the pulmonary arteries, the bronchial arteries supply nutrition to the lungs themselves.

QUESTION: 150

Antibodies are

Solution:
QUESTION: 151

The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle:

Solution:

Luteal phase. The luteal phase is the final phase of the ovarian cycle and it corresponds to the secretory phase of the uterine cycle. During the luteal phase, the pituitary hormones FSH and LH cause the remaining parts of the dominant follicle to transform into the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone.

QUESTION: 152

Which statement is false?

Solution:

The islets of Langerhans contain alpha, beta, and delta cells that produce glucagon, insulin, and somatostatin, respectively. The alpha cells of theislets of Langerhans produce an opposing hormone, glucagon, which releases glucose from the liver and fatty acids from fat tissue.

QUESTION: 153

Which of the following is true for Hardey Weinberg equilliberium except

Solution:
QUESTION: 154

How are the time of ovulation and the onset of menstruation related in the human menstrual cycle?

Solution:

If an egg is fertilized, progesterone from the corpus luteum supports the early pregnancy (15). If no fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum will start to break down between 9 and 11 days after ovulation (10). This results in a drop in estrogen and progesterone levels, which causes menstruation.

QUESTION: 155

Match the items in column I with those in column II and choose the correct phylum.

Solution:
QUESTION: 156

Which of the following would generally reduce the likelihood of speciation?

Solution:

Immigration and emigration are processes that help mingling between isolated populations. Since genetic isolation is necessary for speciation processes like this decelerate speciation.

QUESTION: 157

Which statement about gas exchange in vertebrates is false?

Solution:

When partial pressure of co² is low and partial pressure of O² is high as in the alveoli, binding of O² takes place.

QUESTION: 158

Trace a sperm cell from the structure where it is produced to the point of fertilization with the egg:
seminiferous tubules (1);
vas deferens (2);
uterus (3);
fallopian tube (4);
vagina (5);
epididymis (6);
urethra (7).

Solution:

After the process of spermatogenesis (formation of sperm), spermiation takes place i.e. release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules. From there it travels to the rete testis- epididymis-vas deferns-ejaculatory duct-urethra-penis. Then it reaches to vagina by sexual intercourse. From vagina it goes to cervix-uterus and then finally to fallopian tube for further fertilisation

QUESTION: 159

Which statement is false?

Solution:

The membrane at rest is semi-permeable with much higher permeability topotassium than to sodium (it contains potassium "leak channels"). This potential is usually somewhere between -70 and -90 millivolts, with the inside of thecell negative because positive potassium ions have left the cell.

QUESTION: 160

Oogenesis is a process in the ovary that results in the production of female gametes. Which statement about oogenesis in humans is false?

Solution:

Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic development stage.

QUESTION: 161

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor inhibit binding of a substrate to an enzyme?

Solution:

In biology, the active site is the region of an enzyme where substrate molecules bind and undergo a chemical reaction. The active site consists of residues that form temporary bonds with the substrate (binding site) and residues that catalyse a reaction of that substrate (catalytic site).

QUESTION: 162

Match the following columns :

Solution:
QUESTION: 163

Bt corn has been made resistant from corn borer disease by the introduction of the gene

Solution:

Cry1Ab-------Corn borer...
Cry1Ac & Cry 2 Ab---------Cotton bollworms.

QUESTION: 164