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NEET Part Test - 3


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180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series | NEET Part Test - 3

NEET Part Test - 3 for NEET 2022 is part of NEET Mock Test Series preparation. The NEET Part Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Part Test - 3 MCQs are made for NEET 2022 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Part Test - 3 below.
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NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 1

A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 1

In an ideas gas internal energy 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 2

Maxwell’s velocity distribution curve is given for two different temperatures. For the given curves.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 2

Higher is the temperature greater is the most probable velocity.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 3

The ratio of translational and rotational kinetic energies at 100 K temperature is 3 : 2. Then the internal energy of one mole gas at that temperature is [R = 8.3 J/mol-K]

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 3

According to law of equipartition of energy, energy equally distributes among its degree of freedom, Let translational and rotational degree of freedom be f1 and f2
∴  and 

Hence the ratio of translational to rotational degrees of freedom is 3:2. Since translational degrees of freedom is 3, the rotational degrees of freedom must be 2. 
∴ Internal energy (U) = 
 = U 2075 J

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 4

12 gm He and 4 gm H2 is filled in a container of volume 20 litre maintained at temperature 300  K. The pressure of the mixture is nearly : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 4

PV = nRT

= 6.25 x 105 Pa

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 5

Which of the following will have maximum total kinetic energy at temperature 300 K. 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 5

Total KE = U = f/2nRT

In case of H2 degree of freedom is greatest and  number of moles n is highest. So this is the case of maximum kinetic energy.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 6

A ring shaped tube contains two ideal gases with equal masses and atomic mass numbers M1 = 32 and M2 = 28. The gases are separated by one fixed partition P and another movable conducting partition S which can move freely without friction inside the ring. The angle a as shown in the figure in equilibrium is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 6

 

P1 = P2      T1 = T2  

 or 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 7

In an experiment the speeds of any five molecules of an ideal gas are recorded. The experiment is repeated N times where N is very large. The average of recorded values, is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 7

When speed of 5 molecules which are selected randomly are recorded, then the average is most likely to be equal to the most probable speed. 
∴ The average of these values is most likely equal to 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 8

Temperature at which Fahrenheit and Kelvin pair of scales give the same reading will be:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 8


 ⇒ 5θ - 32 x 5 = 9θ - 273 x 9 
= θ = 574.25

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 9

20 gm ice at –10 ºC is mixed with m gm steam at 100 ºC. The minimum value of m so that finally all ice and steam converts into water is : (Use sice = 0.5 cal/gmºC,swater = 1 cal/gmºC,L (melting) = 80 cal/gm and L (vaporization) = 540 cal/gm)    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 9

For minimum value of m, the final temperature of the mixture must be 0°C. 
∴  = m 540 + m.1. 100
∴ 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 10

An ice block at 0°C is dropped from height ‘h’ above the ground. What should be the value of ‘h’ so that it melts completely by the time it reaches the bottom assuming  the loss of whole gravitational potential energy is used as heat by the ice ? [Given : Lf = 80 cal/gm]

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 10

Applying energy conservation : mgh = mLf 
⇒   
= 33.6 km

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 11

n moles of a gas filled in a container at temperature T is in thermodynamic equilibrium initially.  If the gas is compressed slowly and isothermally to half its initial volume the work done by the atmosphere on the piston is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 11

 

Work done by atmosphere = Patm ΔV = 
...........(i)
Initially gas in container is in thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings.
∴ Pressure inside cylinder = Patm 
& PV = nRT ⇒ Patm V = nRT or 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 12

In a process the pressure of an ideal gas is proportional to square of the volume of the gas. If the temperature of the gas increases in this process, then work done by this gas: 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 12

As p ∝ V2
T ∝ V3
i.e. if temperature increases, volume also increases hence work done will be positive.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 13

A vessel contains an ideal monoatomic gas which expands at constant pressure, when heat Q is given to it. Then the work done in expansion is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 13

For process at constant pressure 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 14

5 moles of Nitrogen gas is enclosed in an adiabatic cylindrical vessel. The piston itself is a rigid light cylindrical container containing 3 moles of Helium gas. There is a heater which gives out a power 100 cal/sec to the nitrogen gas. A power of 30 cal /sec is transferred to Helium through the bottom surface of the piston. The rate of increment of temperature of the nitrogen gas assuming that the piston moves slowly:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 14

Net power given to N2 gas = 100 - 30 = 70 calls
The nitrogen gas expands isobarically.
∴ 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 15

The gas law PV/2 =constant for a given amount of a gas is true for :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 15

As PV = nRT
For n = constant :  = constant for all changes Hence (C)

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 16

All the rods have same conductance ‘K’ and same area of cross section S. If  ends A and C are maintained at temperature 2T0 and T0 respectively then which of the following is/are correct:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 16

By symmetry 
IAB = IBC & IAD = IDC
∴ No current in BO and OD
∴ TB = TO = TD

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 17

A hollow copper sphere and a hollow copper cube, of same surface area and negligible thickness, are filled with warm water of same temperature and placed in an enclosure of constant temperature, a few degrees below that of the bodies. Then in the beginning :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 17

[Newton's law of cooling]
∴ Rate of loss of heat is same

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 18

The colour of a star indicates its :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 18

The colour of an object indicates the rate at which energy is emitted and hence indicates the temperature.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 19

Two identical solid spheres have the same temperature. One of the sphere is cut into two identical pieces. The intact sphere radiates an energy Q during a given small time interval. During the same interval, the two hemispheres radiate a total energy Q'. The ratio Q'/Q is equal to :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 19

Heat radiated (at temp same temp) ∝ A
⇒ Q ∝ 4πR2 and Q' ∝ (4πR2 + 2 x πR2)
⇒ 
Here πR2 is extra surface area of plane surface of the hemisphere

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 20

A calorimeter contains 50 g of water at 50°C. The temperature falls to 45°C in 10 minutes. When the calorimeter contains 100 g of water at 50°C, it takes 18 minutes for the temperature to become 45°C. then  the water equivalent of the calorimeter is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 20

assuming rate of heat transfer to be constant.
s (m1 + w) ΔT = Q1 where s = specific heat of water = 1 g/cc s
s (m2 + w)ΔT = Q2 w = water equivalent of calorimeter 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 21

Heat is flowing through two cylindrical rods made of same materials whose ends are maintained at similar temperatures. If diameters of the rods are in ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in ratio 2 : 1, then the ratio of thermal current through them in steady state is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 21

Thermal resistance 
for same temperature difference, thermal current 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 22

A balloon containing an ideal gas has a volume of 10 litre and temperature of 17ºC. If it is heated slowly to 75ºC, the work done by the gas inside the balloon is (neglect elasticity of the balloon and take atmospheric pressure as 105 Pa)        

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 22

Since elasticity of balloon is negligible, pressure inside ballon outside baloon = Patm.
= Vin = 10 litre. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 23

In the P-V diagram shown. The gas does 5 J of work in isothermal process a b and 4 J in adiabatic process b c. What will be the change in internal energy of the gas in straight path c to a?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 23

ΔU in a - b process = 0 (isothermal process)
in b - c process Q = 0 (adiabatic process)
∴ ΔU = - W = - 4 J
ΔU in cyclic process = 0
∴ ΔU in c - a process = 4J 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 24

A monoatomic ideal gas is filled in a nonconducting container. The gas can be compressed by a movable nonconducting piston. The gas is compressed slowly to 12.5% of its initial volume. The percentage increase in the temperature of the gas is 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 24

Let initial temperature and volume be T0 and V0. Since the process is adiabatic, the final temperature and volume is  (γ = 5/3 for monoatomic gas)
∴ 
∴ percentage increase in temperature of gas is 4 x 100 - 100 = 300% 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 25

A diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant volume until the pressure is doubled and again heated at constant pressure until volume is doubled. The average molar heat capacity for whole process is: 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 25

Let initial pressure, volume, temperature be P0, V0, To indicated by state A in P-V diagram. The gas is then isochorically taken to state B (2P0, V0, 2T0) and then taken from state B to state C (2P0, 2V0, 4T0) isobarically. 

Total heat absorbed by 1 mole of gas


Total change in temperature from state A to C is ΔT = 3T0
∴ Molar heat capacity  

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 26

The ratio of final root mean square velocity to initial root mean square velocity of nitrogen molecules if nitrogen gas is compressed adiabatically from a pressure of one atmosphere to a pressure of two atmosphere is : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 26

 and  
= 21/7

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 27

Four particles have velocities 1, 0, 2, 3 m/s. The root mean square velocity of the particles is: (in m/s) 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 27

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 28

V–T diagram for a process of a given mass of ideal gas is as shown in the figure. During the process pressure of gas. 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 28

PV = nRT   P(aT - b) = nRT 
⇒ 

now as T increases then  increases hence P decreases

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 29

A slab X of thickness ‘t’, thermal conductivity ‘K’ and area of cross-section ‘A’ is placed in thermal contact with another slab Y which is 2n2 times thicker, 4n times conductive and having n times larger cross section area. If the outside face of X is maintained at 100°C, the outside face of Y at 0°C, then the temperature of the junction θ is represented by the graph (n > 0) :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 29

At equilibrium : 
⇒ 
⇒ θ = 100/3.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 30

Two conducting movable smooth pistons are kept inside a non conducting, adiabatic container with initial positions as shown. Gas is present in the three parts A, B & C having initial pressures as shown. Now the pistons are released. Then the final equilibrium position length of part A will be     

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 30

Moles in 'A' initially & finally will be same
 ......(1)


Moles in 'B' remain same
 ......(2)
Divided (1) by (2) 

⇒ x = L/4

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 31

4 gms of steam at 100°C is added to 20 gms of water at 46°C in a container of negligible mass. Assuming no heat is lost to surrounding, the mass of water in container at thermal equilibrium is. Latent heat of vaporisation = 540 cal/gm. Specific heat of water = 1 cal/gm-°C.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 31

Heat released by steam inconversion to water at 100°C is Q1 = mL = 4 x 540 = 2160 cal.
Heat required to raise temperature of water from 46°C t 100°C is Q2 = mS Δθ = 20 x 1 x 54 = 1080 J 

Hence all steam is not converted to water only half steam shall be converted to water
∴ Final mass of water = 20 + 2 = 22 gm 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 32

A diatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic change according to the P–V diagram shown in the figure. The total heat given to the gas is nearly (use ln2 = 0.7) :     

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 32



 

Process BC 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 33

Two rods are joined between fixed supports as shown in the figure. Condition for no change in the lengths of individual rods with the increase of temperature will be (α1, α2 = linear expansion co-efficient A1, A2 = Area of rods Y1, Y2 = Young modulus)    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 33

 
In both the rods tension will be same so T1 = T2
Hence Y1 A1 α1 ΔT = Y2 A2 α2 ΔT 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 34

For a gas sample with N0 number of molecules, function N(V) is given by :  < V < V0 and N(V) = 0 for V > V0. Where dN is number of molecules in speed range V to V+ dV. The rms speed of the molecules is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 34






⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 35

The co-efficient of thermal expansion of a rod is temperature dependent and is given by the formula α = a T, where a is a positive constant and T in ºC. If the length of the rod is l at temperature 0 ºC, then the temperature at which the length will be 2 l is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 35


∴ 

∴ 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 36

A black body emits radiation at the rate P when its temperature is T. At this temperature the wavelength at which the radiation has maximum intensity is λ0. If at another temperature T' the power radiated is P' and wavelength at maximum intensity is then 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 36

For a block body, wavelength for maximum intensity :
 & PαT4 ⇒ 
⇒ P' = 16P. ∴ P'T' 32PT ⇒ P' = 16P.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 37

Thermal coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure for an ideal gas sample of n moles having pressure P0, volume V0 and temperature T0 is    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 37


 and  
For given temperature T0

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 38

There are two thin spheres A and B of the same material and same thickness. They emit like black bodies. Radius of A is double that of B. A and B have same temperature T. When A and B are kept in a room of temperature T0 (< T), the ratio of their rates of cooling (rate of fall of temperature) is: [assume negligible heat exchange between A and B]

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 38

The rate of heat loss by a thin hollow sphere of thickness ‘Δx’, mean radius and made of density ‘ρ’ is given by 


⇒ is independent of radius
Hence rate of cooling is same for both spheres.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 39

A piston can freely move inside a horizontal cylinder closed from both ends. Initially, the piston separates the inside space of the cylinder into two equal parts each of  volume V0 , in which an ideal gas is contained under the same pressure p0 and at the same temperature. What work has to be performed  in order to increase isothermally the volume of one part of gas 2 times compared to that of the other by slowly moving the piston ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 39

External Work
= work done on both gases
= - (work done by the gases)

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 40

A uniform pressure P is exerted by an external agent on all sides of a solid cube at temperature tºC. By what amount should the temperature of the cube be raised in order to bring its volume back to its original volume before the pressure was applied if the bulk modulus is B and co-efficient of volumetric expansion is γ ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 40


 ⇒   ⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 41

Two rods of same dimensions, but made of different materials are joined end to end with their free ends being maintained at 100ºC and 0ºC respectively. The temperature of the junction is 70ºC. Then the temperature of the junction if the rods are interchanged will be equal to : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 41


 ⇒ ⇒ 

 ⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 42

Assume a sample of an ideal gas in a vessel. Where velocity of molecules are between 2 m/sec to 5 m/sec and velocity of molecules (v) and number of molecules (n) are related as n = 7v – v2 – 10. The most probable velocity in sample is. Where v is measured in m/sec.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 42

n = 7v - v2 - 10
for most probable velocity 
∴ n is maximum at this velocity

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 43

If specific heat capacity of a substance in solid and liquid state is proportional to temperature of the substance, then if heat is supplied to the solid initially at – 20°C (having melting point 0°C) at constant rate. Then the temperature dependence of substance with time will be best represented by :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 43


or S = K1T. (K1  being proportionality constant) 
Also, 
⇒  
⇒  ⇒  Hence, the graph will be parabolic 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 44

In the figure shown the pressure of the gas in state B is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 44

 






NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 45

A hot black body emits the energy at the rate of 16 J m–2 s–1 and its most intense radiation corresponds to 20,000 Å. When the temperature of this body is further increased and its most intense radiation corresponds to 10,000 Å, then the energy radiated in Jm–2 s–1 will be :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 45

Wein's displacement law is : λm . T = b

Here, λm becomes half.
∴ Temperature doubles.
Also E = σT4
⇒ 
⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 46

The statement that is not correct for the periodic classification of elements is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 46

The d-sub shells are not filled with electrons monotonically with increase in atomic number. There are some exceptions like Cr, Cu etc.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 47

The increasing order of acidic nature of Li2O, BeO, B2O3, CuO is 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 47

On moving left to right in periodic table, acidic nature of oxide increases. So, metallic oxides are basic, non metallic oxides are acidic and BeO is amphoteric. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 48

Which of the following statements is wrong for the transition elements ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 48

Transition elements starts from 4th period as they have valence shell configuration (n – 1)d1 - 10 ns0–2. Thus for n = 3, there is no d-orbital available.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 49

Which of the following is not isoelectronic series ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 49

The number of electrons present are not same in  (D) options N3– = 10 electrons, S2– = 18 electrons, Cl = 18 electrons. So this group does not represent the isoelectronic species.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 50

The first ionisation energy of Al is smaller than that of Mg because :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 50

Penetration of p-subshell electron is less than s-subshell electrons. In case of Mg, the first electron is to be removed from completely filled 3s2 valence shell configuration as compared to partially filled 3p1 of Al. These two factors collectively accounts for the higher ionisation energy of Mg than that of Al. Therefor, (C) option is correct.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 51

Which of the following properties is affected by stable configuration of an atom ?
(a) Electronegativity
(b) Ionisation potential
(c) Electron affinity    

Correct answer is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 51

The addition of extra electron is difficult to the atom having stable configuration and so electron affinity will be less or zero. Similarly the removal of electron is quite difficult for stable configuration and so ionisation energy is higher. Hence electron affinity and ionisation energy both are affected by stable configuration.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 52

Fluorine has the highest electronegativity among the ns2 np5 group on the Pauling scale, but the electron affinity of fluorine is less than that of chlorine because :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 52

There is more interelectronic repulsion in 2p-subshell of fluorine than 3p-subshell of chlorine due to its small atomic size.  So extra electron will be added easily in 3p-subshell of chlorine as compared to 2p-subshell of fluorine.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 53

Which of the following orders is incorrect ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 53

Option A is incorrect.
All are isoelectric species so with increasing effective nuclear charge :
(i) size decreases (ionic size ∝ 1/nuclear charge).
(ii) ionisation energy increases as size decreases and nuclear charge increases.
(iii) electron affinity increases as size decreases and nuclear charge increases. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 54

The correct order of the increasing ionic character is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 54

According to Fajan's rule as size of cations increase, their polarising power decrease and thus ionic character increase. So option (A) is correct. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 55

In which of the following sets the central atom of each member involves sp3 hybridisation ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 55

Hybridisation is calculated by steric number rule.
Steric no. = no. of atoms attached to central atom + no. of lone pairs present on central atom.
Steric no. for IO4- = 4 + 0 = 4 sp3 ; Steric no. for ICI4- = 4 + 2 = 6 sp3d2
Steric no. for IF4+ = 4 + 1 = 5 sp3d ; Steric no. for SO3 = 3 + 0 = 3 sp2
Steric no. for SO42- = 4 + 0 = 4 sp3 ; Steric no. for SO32- = 3 + 1 = 4 sp3
Steric no. for PCI4+ = 4 + 0 = 4 sp3 ; Steric no. for BF4- = 4 + 0 = 4 sp3
Steric no. for XeO3 = 3 + 1 = 4 sp3 ; Steric no. for XeO4 = 4 + 0 = 4 sp3
Steric no. for XeF4 = 4 + 2 = 6 sp3d2 ; Steric no. for CIO4- = 4 + 0 = 4 sp3

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 56

The average charge on each  O atom and average bond order of S–O bond in SO42– is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 56

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 57

Which is the right structure of XeF4 ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 57

Lone pair - lone pair repulsion is maximum.So to minimize the repulsion the lone pairs occupy the positions which are trans to each other in the given octahedral geometry. Therefore, (C) option is correct.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 58

According to Molecular orbital theory which of the following is correct ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 58

M.O configure for
As π2py and π2pz electrons participate in bonding so both the bonds between two carbon atoms are π bonds.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 59

A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2 D. If its bond distance is equal to 2.0Å then the % of ionic character in the diatomic molecular is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 59

Assuming complete charge transfer then dipole moment = (4.8 x 10-10 esu) (10-8 cm) x 2 = 9.6 D
so % ionic character = 12.5% 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 60

Correct order of bond energy is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 60

Bond order is directly proportional to the bond energy.
Bond order of N2 = 3 , N2+, N2- = 2.5 N22- = 2
But N2- has more electrons in antibonding MO's and thus N2+ is more stable than N2-. So correct order of bond energy will be N2> N2> N2-> N22- Therefore, (A) option is correct

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 61

Molecule XF4 has non-zero value of dipole moment. Then X is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 61

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 62

Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 62

Strength of H–bond depends on the size and electronegativity of the atom.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 63

The correct order of boiling point is :                    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 63

(i) H2O has highest boiling point because of H-bonding.
(ii) Boiling point also depends on the magnitude of van der Waal's force of attraction, which in turns depends on molecular weight of the compounds. Thus the correct order is H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 64

Which of the following statements is true for all the alkali metals ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 64

(A) 4 LiNO3 → 2Li2O + 4NO2 + O2
2NaNO3 → 2NaNO2 + O2 (similar decomposition with the nitrates of K, Rb and Cs)
(B) Only LiCI is deliquescent and crystallises as a hydrate LiCI.2H2
(C) 2M + 2H2O → 2M+ + 2OH- + H2 (M = an alkali metal)
(D) Halides of Li are covalent in nature. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 65

Property of all the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 65

(A), (C) and (D) decreases down the group but (B) increases down the group with increasing metallic character.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 66

Sodium and potassium react with water much more vigorously than lithium because :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 66

When sodium and potassium react with water, the heat evolved causes them to melt, giving a larger area of contact with water, lithium on the other hand, does not melt under these condition and thus reacts more slowly.
                                   Li    Na    K
Melting point (ºC)     180    98    64.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 67

On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature, which one of the folloiwng does not occur ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 67

liquid NH3 solution is paramagnetic due to the presence of solvated unpaired electrons.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 68

KO2 (potassium super oxide) is used in space and submarines because it  :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 68

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 69

Which of the following statements is incorrrect ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 69

(A) Bigger anion is stabilised by bigger cation through lattice energy effect.
(B) Because of their high reactivity towards air and water.
(C) True Statement
(D) In concentrated solution, unpaired electrons with opposite spins paired up-forming the solution diamagnetic.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 70

On commercial scale, sodium hydroxide is prepared by which one of the following methods ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 70

(A) Used for extraction of Mg from sea water.
(B) Used for the manufacture of Na2CO3 using NaCl as raw material.
(C) Used for manufacture of NaOH by electrolysis of brine(concentrated NaCl solution).    
(D) Used for the extraction of aluminium from bauxite.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 71

A metal (M) burns with dazzling brilliance in air to give a white powder. The white powder reacts with water to form a white precipitate and a colourless gas with a characteristic smell. The metal (M) decomposes hot water but not cold water, liberating the inflammable hydrogen gas. The metal(M) is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 71

Hydrogen is liberated when Mg reacts with hot water. Rb, K and Ca gives hydrogen gas even with cold water.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 72

On the addition of mineral acid to an aqueous solution of borax, the compound formed is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 72

Na2B4O7 + H2SO4 + 5H2O → Na2SO4 + 4H3BO3 (orthoboric acid) 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 73

B3+ cannot exist in aqueous solution becuase of its :    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 73

Being covalent in nature because of small size and large charge it gets hydrolysed in aqueous solution according to the following reaction
BCl3 + 3H2 H3BO3 + 3HCl.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 74

The decrease stability of higher oxidation state in p-block with increasing atomic number is due to :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 74

The inert pair effect is the tendency of the electrons in the outermost atomic s orbital to remain unionized or unshared in compounds of post-transition metals. Down the group in the p-block, the inert pair effect becomes more pronounced on account of enhanced increase in effective nuclear charge. Therefore, due to reluctance of electrons of s-subshell to participate in chemical bonding, there occurs a decrease in stability of higher oxidation states in p-block with increasing atomic number.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 75

The structural unit present in pyrosillicates is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 75

In pyrosilicate, one oxygen atom is shared between two SiO44- tetrahedra. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 76

Select the incorrect statement about the XeF6.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 76

Capped octahedron (or distorted octahedron) 

In tetramer, four square pyramidal XeF5+ ions are joined to two similar ions by means of two bridging F- ions. The Xe-F distances are 1.84 A on the square pyramidal units and 2.23 A and 2.60 A in the bridging groups. The solid has various crystalline forms, of which three are tetrameric and a fourth has both hexamers and tetramers. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 77

Based on the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) model, what is the geometry around the sulphur, carbon and nitrogen in the thiourea – S , S – dioxide, O2SC(NH2)2 ? (consider the Lewis structure with zero formal charges on all atoms).

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 77

Structure with zero formal charges on all atoms.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 78

The following flow diagram represents the manufacturing of sodium carbonate

Which of the following options describes the reagents, products and reaction conditions (given in parentheses)?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 78

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 79

When boron is fused with potassium hydroxide which pair of species are formed ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 79

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 80

B2H6 + NH3 → Addition compound  In the above sequence Y and Z are respectively : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 80

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 81

Orthosilicate ions, (SiO44-) undergo polycondensation to froms pyrosilicate [O3Si - O - SiO3]6-, in presence of:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 81

2SiO44- + H2O → [O3Si - O - SiO3]6- + 2OH- ; 2SiO44- + 2H+ → [O3Si - O - SiO3]6- + H2O. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 82

Which of the following statements is correct ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 82


(C) The hydrogen atoms are in a vertical plane with the axial fluorine atoms. 

Hydrogen atoms lie in the CSF2 axial plane. We know that the it bond involving a p-orbital on the carbon atom must lie in the equatorial plane of the molecule. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 83

The hybridisation and geometry of the anion of ICl3 in liquid phase is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 83


NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 84

Which of the following orders is correct for the size ?

(1) Mg2+ < Na+ < F < Al    
(2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Li+ < K+   
(3) Fe4+ < Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe   
(4) Mg > Al > Si > P

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 84

(1) Mg2+, Na+ and F- are isoelectronic and thus follows the order 12Mg2+ < 11Na+ < gF-. Al belongs to third period and has no charge so it is largest. Na+ = 102 pm; Mg2+ = 72 pm ; Al = 143 pm, F- = 133 pm.
(2) K+ has more number of shells than Mg2+ and Al3+. Al3+ and Mg2+ are isoelectronic but Al3+ has higher nuclear charge so Al3+ < Mg2+. Mg2+ and Li+ has diagonal relationship. But due to +2 charge in Mg2+, the Mg2+ is smaller than Li+ Hence Al3+ is the smallest one. K+ =1.38 Å, Li2+ = 0.76 Å Mg2+ = 0.72 Å and Al3+ = 0.535 Å.
(3) As the number of electrons are lost, the attraction between valence shell electrons and nucleus increases. As a consequence of this the electrons are pulled closer to the nucleus leading to the contraction in size of ions.
(4) Across the period the nuclear charge increases and thus the size of atoms decreases. Mg = 160 pm; Al = 143 pm; Si = 118 ; P = 110 pm. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 85

Which reactions involves a change in the electron–pair geometry for the under lined atoms ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 85

   

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 86

Anhydrous AlCl3 is covalent. From the data given below 
Lattice Energy = 5137 KJ/mol. 
ΔH hydration for Al3+ = – 4665 KJ/mol
ΔH hydration for Cl = – 381 KJ/mol

Identify the correct statement.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 86

⇒ 

Hence AlC13 will dissolve and solution consists of hydrated Al3+ and CI- ions. In other words higher hydration energy compensates the higher ionisation energy. As a result, it will exist as hydrated Al3+ and hydrated CI- in aqueous solution. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 87

In which of the following molecules / ions are all the bond angles not equal ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 87


Remaining molecules / ions have symmetrical structures ; so have all bonds equal. 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 88

When sodium nitrate is heated at 800ºC :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 88

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 89

In which of the following  reaction carbon monoxide is obtained as one of the products ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 89

(A) Na2Cr2O7 + 2C  Na2CO3 + Cr2O3+ CO
(B) Ba(COO)2  BaCO3 + CO (C) [Fe(CN)6]4- + 6 H2SO4 + 6H2O Fe2+ + 6 CO + 6 NH4+ + 6 SO42- 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 90

The repeating structural units in silicone is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 90

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 91

Consider the following statement A to E –

(A) PS II and PSI both present in mesophyll cell in C-3 plant

(B)  Mesophyll cell of C-4 plant lack rubisco

(C) Bundle sheath cell in C-4 plant lack PEPcase

(D)In C-4 plant calvin cycle is absent

(E)In CAM plant calvin cycle is absent

How many are correct-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 91

Explanation- calvin cycle occur in all photosynthetic plant cell

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 92

At high light intensity in summer which of the following can not be limiting factor-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 92

at high light intensity other factor is limiting

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 93

Which of the following is  an organic acid not form in C-4 plant during photosynthesis-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 93

Except alpha ketoglutaric acid all other form in C-4 plant

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 94

Mark the incorrect statetment-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 94

Lamellar thylakoid lack PSII in mesophyll cell

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 95

Colour for chl a  is

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 95

Chlorophyll is a green pigment that gives most plants their color.The reason that it is green is because it absorbs other colors of light such as red and blue, so in a way the green light is reflected out since the pigment does not absorb it.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 96

Which can be absent in C-4 plants-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 96

phosphoglycolate not form in C-4 plant as photorespiration absent

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 97

Consider the following-

(a) F0 is transmembrane channel which is responsible for facilitated diffusion of proton from lumen to matrix

(b) Chemiosmosis not require ATPase

How many are correct

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 97

chemiosmosis require a membrane, a proton pump, a proton gradient and ATPase 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 98

Which is incorrect regarding photorespiration-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 98

PGA also form during photosynthesis

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 99

Mark the incorrect statement –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 99

Current level of CO2 is limiting for C-3 plant not for C-4 plant

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 100

Mineral involve in chlorophyll biosynthesis -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 100

Magnesium is part of chlorophyll and iron require for biosynthesis

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 101

Mark the incorrect statement-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 101

micro-elements require in less than 10m mole per kg of  dry matter

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 102

In which type of Cell can not have fix sugar in all -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 102

mesophyll cell of C-4 plant lack calvin cycle and hence sugar

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 103

At CO2 concentration of below 360ppm,in C-4 plant rate of photosynthesis surely depend upon-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 103

CO2 conc. below 360 ppm rate of photosynthesis depend upon CO2 conc. for C-4 plant as saturation conc. for C-4 plant is 360ppm

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 104

Which of the following is not role of boron-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 105

Which of the following is not chemoautotroph-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 105

all bacteria involve in nitrification are chemoautotroph and thiobaccilus are involve in denitrification

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 106

Mineral is component of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase both-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 107

Deficiency of potassium and sulphur  involve in both-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 107

Deficiency of N, K, S and Mo causes stunted growth because of inhibition of cell division.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 108

In which of the following iron not required - 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 108

Iron is required for catalase and peroxidase both

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 109

Mineral not absorb in form of anion-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 110

Amination of which amino acid give amide –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 110

Aspargine and glutamine are already amide and OAA amination give amino acid

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 111

Mark the correct statement –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 111

Leghaemoglobin synthesis require both plant and  bacteria , bacteria establish connection with both xylem and phloem and association of rhizobium and leguminous plants are non-obligatroy 

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 112

Mark the incorrect statement-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 112

nitrogenase is present for N2 fixation , which is perform by both bacteria and cyanobacteria both is prokaryotes

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 113

Consider the following statement A to E –

(A) Water potential values can be positive, negative and zero

(B)  In an open beaker water potential is equal to solute potential

(C) Addition of solute decrease solute potential

(D) Maximum value of solute potential is zero

(E) pressure potential can not be zero

How many are correct-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 113

Explanation- In open beaker pressure potential is zero and value of water potential is equal to solute potential and if no solute is present in beaker than value of solute potential is maximum which is equal to zero

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 114

Which of the following statement is not true -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 114

channels are controlled through hormones and potential  

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 115

Which of the following is passive process-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 115

Explanation – all process not require energy

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 116

Few match the following is given, mark the wrongly matched –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 116

simple diffusion is not selective it facilitated diffusion which is selective

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 117

Diffusion of any molecule across membrane depend upon on all except-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 117

Diffusion is passive not require energy

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 118

Consider the following –

(A)turgor pressure      
(B) osmotic pressure      
(C) root pressure
(D) transpiration pull   
(E) Osmotic potential      
(F) Suction pressure

How many are positive pressure-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 118

osmotic potential, suction pressure and transpiration pull are negative pressure

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 119

Which of the following can contribute as a force for transport of water in plant-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 119

apoplast and symplast are pathway not force for transport of water

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 120

Which is correct regarding the transport in phloem-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 120

since sieve tube is living so movement is symplast and pressure is positive due to entry of water

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 121

Correct Reason for root pressure –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 121

Root pressure develop in roots due to accumulation of solute in Root xylem

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 122

Mark the incorrect -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 122

Explanation- cytoplasmic streaming help symplast movement

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 123

During opening of stomata all occur except –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 123

Cellulose microfibril orient radially   

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 124

Which is  involve in growth of root and root hair formation -

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 125

Consider the following statement-       

(1) ABA act as antagonist against GA

(2) adventitious root growth promoted by auxin

 How many correct-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 126

Hormone involve in adventitious shoot formation-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 127

Mutrient mobilization help in delay in senescence promoted by -

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 128

Mark the wrongly matched-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 128

Kinetin is furfuryl aminopurine not zeatin

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 129

Mark the incorrect statement-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 129

Differentiation in plants are also open

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 130

Which of the following is not product of redifferentiation-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 130

pimary xylem is product of differentiation

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 131

Maximum number of plasmodesmatal connection present in -

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 132

Consider the following –

(1) two leaf having different relative growth can have same absolute growth         

(2) two leaf having different absolute growth can have same relative growth

How many correct-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 132

If two leaf have different intial surface area can have same absolute growth with different relative growth and vice versa

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 133

Mark the incorrect stataement-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 133

In geometric growth increase is double than relatice growth rate is constant

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 134

If critical day length of LDP is 14hr than , mark the correct-

(I) flower when 11hr countinuos night is given

(II) flower when 8hr night is given than countinuos day

(III) flower when 10 hr day followed by 2hr darkness and again 10hr day

Mark the correct statement with respect to flowering-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 134

If 14hr critical day length , it will flower when countinuos  night of less than 10hr is given

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 135

Glycerol enter into respiratory pathway at  –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 135

Glycerol can enter at PGAL level

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 136

Tripalmitin produce … Number of CO2 in complete oxidation

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 137

Oxalo acetic acid is precursor of which amino acid-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 137

OAA on amination give  aspartate

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 138

Consider the following statement and mark correct –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 138

In glycolysis catabolism of glucose occur

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 139

Number of oxidative decarboxylation in complete oxidation of fructose in cell  is-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 139

all carbon lost in aerobic respiration by oxidative decarboxylation

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 140

Excess of amino acid can give energy by converging at –

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 141

Mobile electron carrier which get oxidise by complex II is –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 141

UQ is reduced by complex II

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 142

Which of the following reaction not occur in mitochondria –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 142

Complex IV is reduced by cyt c not oxidised

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 143

Which of the following can not be respiratory substrate –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 143

cell lack machinery to break coenzyme A for energy

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 144

Consider the following statement-

(1) oxidation of NADH occur fast in anaerobic than aerobic respiration

(2) Complex I of ETS is reduced by NADH

How many correct-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 145

Number of ATP produced by triose phosphate  in anaerobic respiration

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 145

triose enter into PGAL and produce 2ATP and 1 NADH

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 146

Which is correct order in decreasing percentage  of elements present in human body-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 147

Which of the following group of compounds obtained in acid insoluble pool when  chemicals extracted in tricholoroacetic acid.    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 147

Explanation- linolenic acid and palmitic acid are present in acid soluble pool

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 148

Consider the following statements-                 

(A) t-RNA are heteropolymer                                 

(B) all polysaccharides are heteropolymer  

Mark the correct statement-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 148

nucleic acid and protein are heteropolymer

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 149

Consider the following statements-               

(A) Ribozyme are made up of nucleic acid

(B) Both DNA and RNA have polynucleotide chain

Mark the correct statement-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 150

Co-factors affect enzyme  by–

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 151

Mark the incorrectly matched cofactor –

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 152

Mark the correct statement –

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 153

Which of the following is covalently linked-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 154

Which of the following is heterocyclic-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 155

Which of the following is  secondary metabolite-

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 156

Non- competitive inhibition is responsible for –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 156

actual number of enzyme decrease and hence Vmax decrease

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 157

Mark the incorrect –

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 158

Amount of DNA  and ploidy of diploid  cell in G2 phase-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 158

In G2 amount is double but ploidy is same

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 159

Histones are synthesise in –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 159

During S phase of the cell cycle, the histone proteins are synthesized in a eukaryotic cell. The major event in S phase is DNA replication. The goal of this process is to create exactly two identical semi-conserved chromosomes. The cell prevents more than one replication from occurring by loading pre-replication complexes onto the DNA at replication origins during G1 phase which is dismantled in S phase as replication begins.

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 160

In a diploid somatic  cell have 10 pair of chromosome present  than total number of chromatids in G1 and G2 are respectively-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 160

number of chromatid is double of chromosome and in G2 it is 4 time to pair of chromosome

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 161

Kinetochore is chemically is –

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 162

Tubulin protein is rich in amino acid -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 162

tubulin protein is rich in sulphur rich amino aicd

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 163

Which can be considered  last event in prophase -

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 164

In fungi imperfecti which is correct-               

(1) amount of DNA is varies between 1C and 2C               

(2) 4c amount never present in deuteromyces 

How many statement are correct-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 164

4c amount present in zygote after it completed S-phase And deutereomycetes lack sexual reproduction

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 165

A diploid cell if  form 32 type of gamets and considering no crossing over had occurred  than number of chromosome in somatic cell is

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 165

32 gamets obtained when 5 pair of chromosome present

NEET Part Test - 3 - Question 166