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NEET Part Test - 4


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NEET Part Test - 4 for NEET 2022 is part of NEET Mock Test Series preparation. The NEET Part Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Part Test - 4 MCQs are made for NEET 2022 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Part Test - 4 below.
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NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 1

A and C are concentric conducting spherical shells of radius a and c respectively. A  is surrounded by a concentric dielectric medium of inner radius a, outer radius b and dielectric constant K as shown in the figure. If sphere A is given a charge Q, the potential at the outer surface of the dielectric is.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 1

Charge on outer surface of C = - charge on inner surface of C
Hence potential at B due to charge on conductor C = 0 charge on outer surface of dielectric = - charge on inner surface of dielectric
∴ Potential at B due to charge on dielectric = 0 
Potential at B due to charge on A 
∴ net potential at B 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 2

In the given circuit the rms value of voltage across the capacitor C, inductor L and resister R1 are 12V, 10V and 5V respectively. Then the peak voltage across R2 is

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 2

In parallel combination each branch should have equal potential but in AC circuit in a branch 




∴ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 3

Two identical capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series with a battery. They are fully charged. Now a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of C2. The potential difference across C1 will :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 3

Potential difference across ‘C1

When dielectric is inserted, C2 will increase. So V1 will increase.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 4

A solenoid having an iron core has its terminals connected across an ideal DC source. If the iron core is removed, the current flowing through the solenoid

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 4

Current will have to increase in order to oppose the cause (decrease in flux). 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 5

An electric field ‘E’ whose direction is radially outward varies as distance from origin ‘r’ as shown in the graph. E is taken as positive if its direction is away from the origin. Then the work done by electric field on a 2 C charge if it is taken from (1, 1, 0) to (3, 0, 0) is 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 5

work done on 2C charge 
[∵ r for (1, 1, 0) = √2 & r for (3,0, 0) = 3] 
= 2 x (area of E-r graph from r = √2 m to r = 3) 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 6

A negative test charge is moving near a long straight current carrying wire. A force will act on the test charge in a direction parallel to the direction of the current, if the motion of the charge is in a direction:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 6

The magnetic force shall act on the negatively charged test particle in direction parallel to current carrying wire, if the velocity  of the negative charge is as shown. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 7

Potential difference between centre and the surface of sphere of radius R and having uniform volume charge density ρ within it will be :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 7


NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 8

The magnetic field at the origin due to the current flowing in the wire is 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 8

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 9

There exists a uniform electric field in the space as shown. Four points A, B, C and D are marked which are equidistant from the origin. If VA, VB, VC and VD are their potentials respectively, then   

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 9

Four lines, perpendicular to lines of electric field and passing through A, B, C and D are drawn. These are equipotential lines. As potential decreases in the direction of electric field, therefore VA > VB > VD > VC 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 10

A current carrying wire AB of the length L is turned along a circle, as shown in figure. The magnetic field at the centre O. 

   

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 10

Let r be the radius of new arc 
∴ r(2π - θ) = L or 
∴ Magnetic field at centre O is

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 11

Total electric force on an electric dipole placed in an electric field of a point charge is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 11

Electric field of a point charge is non-uniform hence net force can never be zero. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 12

The magnitude of magnetic field at O (centre of the circular part) due to the current carrying coil as shown is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 12

Magnetic field due to circular segment 
Due to one straight wire segment (sin 45° + sin 0°) = 
Net field 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 13

Eight point charges (can be assumed as small spheres uniformly charged and their centres at the corner of the cube) having values q each are fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux through square surface ABCD of the cube is 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 13

Net charge enclosed inside the cube 
net electric flux through cube 
∵ charges are symmetrically placed so the flux through each face 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 14

A charged particle is moving in the region around a long current carrying wire. Due to wire, it may experience:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 14

The charge particle will experience magnetic as will as gravitational force due to wire. Gravitation force is very small.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 15

The figure shows a charge q placed  inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. 
Now if an external electric field is switched on :    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 15

The distribution of charge on the outer surface, depends only on the charges outside, and it distributes itself such that the net, electric field inside the outer surface due to the charge on outer surface and all the outer charges is zero. Similarly the distribution of charge on the inner surface, depends only on the charges inside the inner surface, and it distributes itself such that the net, electric field outside the inner surface due to the charge on inner surface and all the inner charges is zero.
Also the force on charge inside the cavity is due to the charge on the inner surface. Hence only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 16

Two infinite sheets carrying current in same direction  (of equal current per unit length K) are separated by a distance ‘d’. A proton is released from a point between the plates with a velocity parallel to the sheets but perpendicular to the direction of current in the sheets. Then the path of the proton is 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 16

As the net force acting on the proton is zero, it will move on straight line

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 17

Three large parallel charged conducting plates are placed at a small distance d apart from each other. The surface charge density on the face B of the conductor is +5.0 εo coulomb/m2 and that on face E is + 6.0 εo columb/m2. Charges on other faces are not known. The electric field intensity at P (shown in the figure) between the plates is     

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 17

From Gauss theorem surface charge density on C face is – σ . 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 18

A horizontal metallic rod of mass 'm'  and length  ' l '  is supported by two vertical identical springs of spring constant 'K'  each and natural length  l​0. A current  ' i ' is flowing in the rod in the direction shown. If the rod is in equilibrium then the length of each spring in this state is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 18

The force on the rod due to magnetic field and gravity is i ℓ B–mg (upwards)
Hence the extension in the springs is

(Note that effective spring constant is 2k)
Therefore the length of the spring is 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 19

A 150 m long metal wire connects points A and B. The electric potential at point B is 50 V less than that at point A. If the conductivity of the metal is 60 × 106 mho/m, then magnitude of the current density in the wire is equal to :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 19


(or as J = σ E)
using values j = 20 x 106 A/m2

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 20

A toroid of mean radius ' a ' , cross section radius ' r ' and total number of turns N. It carries a current ' i '. The torque experienced by the toroid if a uniform magnetic field of strength B is applied :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 20

The resultant magnetic dipole moment of toroid is zero. of small parts of toroid turn along a circle and hence there resultant is zero.
∴ Torque acting on it is zero. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 21

The equivalent resistance between A and B will be (in ?) 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 21


As C & D are at same potential by symmetry of circuit ° 
It is balanced wheat-stone bridge Hence the circuit has equivalant resistance 7/3 Ω 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 22

As shown in figure, a permanent magnet and current carrying coil are placed. If the coil is moved towards magnet, then current in coil (Magnet is symmetrical) :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 22

No change in the flux occurs due to the described motion of the magnet. Hence no current will be induced in the coil. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 23

In the figure shown:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 23

Current through resistance woll be from
A to B if
20 – ε > 2 ⇒ ε < 18
and from
B to A if  20 – ε < 2

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 24

A super conducting loop having an inductance 'L' is kept in a magnetic field which is varying with respect to time. If is the total flux, e = total induced emf, then:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 24

For any loop εtotal , = iR, For superconductor, R = 0 

∴ εtotal = 0 ⇒  ⇒  φ = constant

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 25

A battery of internal resistance ' r ' and e.m.f. ε is connected to a variable external resistor AB. If the sliding contact is moved from A to B, then terminal potential difference of battery will :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 25

V = E - i r. Now, if we go from A → B, then resistance of the circuit increases, ' i ' decreases
∴ V increases 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 26

Figure shows a conducting  horizontal rod of resistance r  is made to oscillate simple harmonically with a fixed amplitude in a uniform and constant magnetic field B, directed inwards. The ends of rod always touch two parallel fixed vertical  conducting rails. The ends of rails are joined by an inductor and a capacitor having self inductance and capacitance 1/π Henry and 1/π farad respectively. The amplitude of current in the circuit depends on the frequency of oscillation  of rod. The amplitude of the current will be maximum when the time period of rod is : (do not consider self inductance anywhere other than in the inductor) 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 26

Here oscillating rod is an AC source because emf induced in it is (vBℓ) ; which varies sinusoidally because v varies sinusoidally.
Maximum current will flow through the circuit under resonance condition. Therefore time period of oscillation of rod  is 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 27

In the figure shown the equivalent capacitance between 'A' and 'B' is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 27

Equivalent circuit is

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 28

A very small circular loop of area 5 × 10–4 m2 and resistance 2 ohm  is initially concentric and coplanar with a stationary loop of radius 0.1 m. If one ampere constant current is passed through the bigger loop and the smaller loop is rotated about its diameter with constant angular velocity ω. The current induced (in ampere) in the smaller loop will be :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 28


NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 29

The capacitor shown in figure 1 is charged completely by connecting switch S to contact a. If switch S is thrown to contact b at time t = 0, which of the curves in figure 2 above represents the magnitude of the current through the resistor R as function of time t ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 29

The potential difference across completely charged capacitor is V. As the switch is pushed to b, the initial current in the resistor R is V/R. Hence J is the correct curve. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 30

At a given instant the current and self induced emf in an inductor are directed as shown in figure. If the induced emf is 17 volt and rate of change of current is 25 kA/s the correct statement is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 30

Current is decreasing and 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 31

In the figure shown a parallel plate capacitor has a dielectric of width d/2 and dielectric constant K = 2. The other dimensions of the dielectric are same as that of the plates. The plates P1 and P2 of the capacitor have area 'A' each. The energy of the capacitor is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 31


 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 32

A rod of length l having uniformly distributed charge Q is rotated about one end with constant frequency ' f '. Its magnetic moment.    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 32

Charge on the differential element dx,  equivalent current di = f dq
∴ magnetic moment of this element du = dμ = (di) NA (N = 1) 

 ⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 33

Two identical spheres of same mass and specific gravity (which is the ratio of density of a substance and density of water) 2.4 have different charges of Q and – 3Q. They are suspended from two strings of same length l fixed to points at the same horizontal level, but distant l from each other. When the entire set up is transferred inside a liquid of specific gravity 0.8, it is observed that the inclination of each string in equilibrium remains unchanged. Then the dielectric constant of the liquid is

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 33



NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 34

Two infinitely long parallel wires are a distance d apart and carry equal parallel currents I in the same direction as shown in the figure. If the wires are located on y axis (normal to x-y plane) at y = d/2 and y = then the magnitude of x-coordinate of the point on x-axis where the magnitude of magnetic field is maximum is (Consider points on x-axis only)

 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 34

The magnetic field at point P is  are magnetic field at P due to wire 1 and 2.

where r2 = x2 + (d/2)2

∴ field is along +y direction at point P and its magnitude is 

B is max when dB/dx = 0 i.e. at x = d/2.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 35

Figure shows a uniformly charged hemispherical shell. The direction of electric field at point p, that is off-centre (but in the plane of the largest circle of the hemisphere), will be along

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 35

 

Let electric field at point . 'p' has both x and y component. So similar electric field will be, for other hemisphere (upper half). Now lets overlap both. 

(Enet)p = 2 Ex and it should be zero (as E inside a full shell = 0).
So Ex = 0, So electric field at 'p' is purely in y direction. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 36

A wooden stick of length 3l is rotated about an end with constant angular velocity w in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of motion. If the upper one third of its length in coated with copper, the potential difference across the copper coating of the stick is 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 36

When the rod rotates, there will be an induced current in the rod. The given situation can be treated as if a rod 'A' of length '3ℓ' rotating in the clockwise direction, while an other rod 'B. of length '2ℓ' rotating in the anticlockwise direction with same angular speed 'ω'. 
As ]  
For 'A'  


Resultant induced emf will be : 

⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 37

The resistance of each straight section is r. Find the equivalent resistance between A and B.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 37

From symmetry, the current distribution in branches LP, MP, NP and OP are as shown in figure 1. Therefore junction at P can be broken as shown in figure 2 

⇒ 
⇒ 
Hence equivalent resistance is 3.5 r. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 38

PQ is an infinite current carrying conductor. AB and CD are smooth conducting rods on which a conductor EF moves with constant velocity V as shown. The force needed to maintain constant speed of EF is.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 38

 

Induced emf 
⇒ Induced emf  ⇒ Power dissipated 
Also, power = F.V   ⇒ 
⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 39

When a galvanometer is shunted with a 4? resistance, the deflection is reduced to one-fifth. If the galvanometer is further shunted with a 2? wire, the further reduction in the deflection will be (the main current remains the same).

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 39

When shunted with 4 Ω

 ⇒ 
Further reduction in current
Hence further reduction in deflection = 8/13 of the deflection when shunted with 4Ω only.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 40

An inductor (xL = 2?) a capacitor (xC = 8?) and a resistance (8?) is connected in series with an A.C. source. The voltage output of A.C. source is given by v = 10 cos 100πt. The instantaneous potential difference between A and B, when it is half of the voltage output from source at that instant will be : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 40

The current leads in phase by (∵Xc > XL)
φ = 37°
∴  = cos (100 π t + 37°) 

The instantaneous potential difference across A B is 

The instantaneous potential difference across A B is half of source voltage.
⇒ 6 cos (100 π t - 53°) = 5 cos 100 π t 
solving we get
∴ instantaneous potential difference

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 41

Figure shows a system of three concentric metal shells A, B and C with radii a, 2a and 3a respectively. Shell B is earthed and shell C is given a charge Q. Now if shell C is connected to shell A, then the final charge on the shell B, is equal to : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 41

From given conditions,



⇒  .....(1)


⇒  .....(2)
Using it in (1),   

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 42

A ring of mass m, radius r having charge q uniformly distributed over it and free to rotate about its own axis is placed in a region having a magnetic field B parallel to its axis. If the magnetic field is suddenly switched off, the angular velocity acquired by the ring is : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 42



⇒  ⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 43

Four infinite ladder network containing identical resistances of R ? each, are combined as shown in figure. The equivalent resistance between A and B is RAB and between A and C is RAC. Then the value of  is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 43

Let the equivalent resistance of one infinite ladder be x. Then the complete network reduces to


NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 44

Two small balls, each having equal positive charge Q are suspended by two insulating strings of equal length L from a hook fixed to a stand. If the whole set-up is transferred to a satellite in orbit around the earth, the tension in equilibrium in each string is equal to 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 44

A satellite is in a state of free fall & hence weightlessness. Thus only electric force is responsible for the tension 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 45

In a practical wheat stone bridge circuit as shown, when one more resistance of 100 ? is connected in parallel with unknown resistance ' x ', then ratio l/ l2 becomes '2'. l1 is balance length. AB is a uniform wire. Then value of ' x ' must be : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 45

∵ wheat stone bridge is in balanced condition


∵ 
⇒ x = 100 Ω

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 46

If the anions (A) form hexagonal close packing and cations (B) occupy only 2/3rd octahedral voids in it, then the general formula of the compound is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 46

No of octahedral voids in hcp = 6 so formula A6B4 = A3B2

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 47

In an ionic solid r(+)  = 1.6 Å and r(+) = 1.864 Å. Use the radius ratio rule to determine the edge length of the cubic unit cell in Å.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 47


So, it is CsCl type of unit cell

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 48

Three lines are drawn from a single corner of an FCC unit cell to meet the other corner such that they are found to pass through exactly only 1 octahedral void, no voids of any type and exactly 2 tetrahedral voids with 1 octahedral void. Identify the line in the same order.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 48

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 49

Platinum crystallises in a face centered cube crystal with a unit cell length of 3.9231 Å. The density and atomic radius of platinum are respectively. [Atomic mass of Pt = 195]

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 49


for fcc lattice, 4r = a√2
so, 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 50

A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20 percent ionised. The freezing point of this solution is (Given kf = 1.86º C kg mol–1 for water) :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 50

ΔTf = 0.2 x 1.2 x 1.86 = 0.45 therefore freezing point = – 0.45°C

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 51

The vapour pressure of the solution of two liquids A(pº = 80 mm) and B(pº = 120 mm) is found to be 100 mm when xA = 0.4. The result shows that :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 51

PTotal  = 0.4 x 80 + 0.6 x 120 = 104 > 100 mm of Hg
Experimental Ptotal is lower then ideal Ptotal, So solution shows negative deviation. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 52

A 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with 0.010 M solution of glucose at same temperature. The apparent percentage dissociation of Na2SO4 is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 52


NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 53

Consider equimolal aqueous solutions of NaHSO4 and NaCI with ΔTb and ΔT'b as their respective boiling point elevations. The value of 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 53

As m → 0 (infinite dilution) both electrolytes will be completely dissociated so 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 54

The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative if (T = 298 K) :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 54


∴ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 55

Aqueous solution of Na2SO4 containing a small amount of Phenolphthalein is electrolysed using Pt-electrodes. The colour of the solution after some time will

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 55

Remains colourless since solution is acidic and Phenolphthalein shows pink colour only in basic medium. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 56

A very thin copper plate is electro-plated with gold using gold chloride in HCl. The current was passed for 20 minutes and the increase in the weight of the plate was found to be 2 gram [Au = 197]. The current passed was

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 56

w = Zit

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 57

A current is passed through two voltameters connected in series. The first voltameter contains XSO4 (aq.) and second has Y2SO4 (aq.) the relative atomic masses of X and Y are in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio of the mass of X liberated to the mass of Y liberated is : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 57

Suooose atomic mass of X = 2m and Y = m

Ratio of masses of liberated X and Y = 2m : 2m = 1 : 1

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 58

Given :
(i) MnO4- + 8H+ + 5e- → Mn2+ + 4H2O    E0 + x1 V
(ii) MnO2 + 4H+ + 2e- → Mn2+ + 2H2O    E0 + x2 V
Find E0 for the following reaction : 
MnO4- + 4H+ + 3e- → MnO2 + 2H2O

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 58

∴ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 59

The specific conductivity of an aqueous solution of a weak monoprotic acid is 0.00033 ohm–1cm–1 at a concentration 0.02 M. If at this concentration the degree of dissociation is 0.043, then calculate the value of  (in ohm–1 cm2 /eqt) :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 59

 and  λm = 0.00033 x 50 x 103 = 33 x 50 x 10-2
so 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 60

Which of the following ions will be most effective in coagulating the As2S3 sol :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 60

According Hardy-Schulze rule.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 61

For the cell prepared from electrode A and B, electrode and electrode  E0red. = 0.77 V, which of the following statement is not correct?  

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 61

A acts as cathode and B acts as anode because reduction potential of A is more.
Anode is B   ⇒ is negative electrode.
⇒ electrons flow from B to A.
⇒ e.m.f. = (1.33 – 0.77) V 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 62

6I- (aq) + BrO3-(aq) + 6H+ (aq) → 3I2 (aq) + Br- (aq) + 3H2O(ℓ)
These data were obtained when this reaction was studied.

What are the units of the rate constant for this reaction ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 62

Order of reaction is 2 therefore unit of K is mole-1 Ls-1.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 63

In a gaseous phase reaction. The increase in pressure from 100 mm to 110 mm is observed in 5 minute. The rate of disappearance of A2 in mm min-1 is : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 63



rate of disappearence of A2 = 20/5 = 4

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 64

In a certain reaction, 10% of the reactant decomposes in one hour, 20 % in two hours, 30% in three hours and so on. The dimensions of the rate constant is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 64

It is a zero order reaction therefore units of K is mol L-1 s-1.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 65

Which of the following is wrong :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 65

The correct statement is : Enthalpy (numerical value) of physisorption is lower than that of chemisorption. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 66

For the decomposition of HI the following logarithmic plot is shown : 
[R = 1.98 cal/mol-K] 
The activation energy of the reaction is about :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 66


thus slope of graph will be 
⇒ Ea = 2.303 x 1.98 x 104 = 45600 cal

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 67

Rate constant for the reaction NO2+ CO → NO + CO2 are 1.3 M-1S-1 at 700 K and 23 M-1S-1 at 800 K. What will 3 be the rate constant at 750 K ? 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 67


⇒ 
then] 


⇒ 
⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 68

Given that the normal energy of the reactant and product are 40J and 20J respectively and threshold energy of the uncatalysed reaction is 120 J. If the rate of uncatalysed reaction at 400 K becomes equal to the rate of catalysed reaction at 300 K, then what will be the activation energy of the catalysed forward and backward reactions respectively?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 68

In absence of catalyst = In presence of catalyst

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 69

A hypothetical reaction, A2 + B2 → 2AB
Follows mechanism as given below : 

The order of overall reaction is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 69

Rate is governed by slowest step

From 



NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 70

If uranium (mass number 238 and atomic number 92) emits an α-particle, then mass number and atomic number of product are respectively :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 70

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 71

An aqueous solution of NaCI freezes at -0.186°C. Given that  kg mol-1 and kg mol-1, the elevation in boiling point of this solution is : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 71

 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 72

For a saturated solution of AgCI at 25°C, k = 3.4 x 10-6 ohm-1 cm-1 and that of H2O(ℓ) used is 2.02 x 10-6 ohm-1 cm-1. λ°m for AgCI is 138 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1, then the solubility of AgCl in moles per liter will be : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 72

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 73

The vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent A is 0.80 atm. When a non-volatile substance B is added to the solvent, its vapour pressure drops to 0.60 atm. mole fraction of the component B in the solution is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 73

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 74

Osmotic pressure  [in atm] of a 0.1 M solution of K4[Fe(CN)6], which undergoes 50% dissociation, will be ________ at 270C :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 74

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 75

What weight of glucose dissolved in 100 grams of water will produce the same lowering of vapour pressure as one gram of urea dissolved in 50 grams of water, at the same temperature?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 75

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 76

(half-life = 15 hrs.) is known to contain some radioactive impurity (half-life = 3 hrs.) in a sample. This sample has an initial activity of 1000 counts per minute, and after 30 hrs it shows an activity of 200 counts per minute. What percent of the initial activity was due to the impurity ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 76

Let the activity due to impurity be 'a' cpm.
∴ due to Na it is (1000 – a) cpm.
After 30 hrs 'a' would be reduced to   a cpm and (1000 – a) would be reduced to  cpm
∴ total activity after 30 hrs would be
= 200 (given)
solving we get 
 
∴  ⇒ a = 200
Hence 20% activity was due to impurity.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 77

For the cell (at 298 K)
Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | Cl– (aq) || AgNO3 (aq) | Ag(s) 
Which of following is correct :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 77

It [Ag+]3 = [Ag+]c then both the electrodes have same potential. [AT+] will increase in anodic compartment. AgCI(s) precipitate in anodic compartment will increase. 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 78

At 298K the standard free energy of formation of H2O(l) is –257.20 kJ/mole while that of its ionisation into H+ ions and OH ions is 80.35 kJ/mole, then the emf of the following cell at 298 K will be (Take F = 96500 C] :
H2(g,1 bar) | H+ (1M) || OH¯ (1M) | O2 (g, 1bar)

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 78

Cell reaction
Cathode : 
Anode :  


Also we have 


 

Hence for cell reaction

So, 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 79

Consider the reaction, NH2NO2 (aq) ———? N2O(g) + H2O(l)
The concentration of nitramide as a function of time is shown below for a particular run.

Which line represents the correct tangent to the graph at the origin (t = 0) ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 79




NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 80

In a hypothetical reaction

A(aq)  2B(aq) + C(aq)        (1st order decomposition)

'A' is optically active (dextro-rototory) while 'B' and 'C' are optically inactive but 'B' takes part in a titration reaction (fast reaction) with H2O2. Hence the progress of reaction can be monitored by measuring rotation of plane of plane polarised light or by measuring volume of H2O2 consumed in titration. 
In an experiment the optical rotation was found to be θ = 40° at t = 20 min and θ = 10° at t = 50 min. from start of the reaction. If the progress would have been monitored by titration method, volume of H2O2 consumed at t = 15 min. (from start) is 40 ml then volume of H2O2 consumed at t = 60 min will be:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 80

As only A is optically active. So concentration of A at t = 20 min ∝ 40° While concentration of A at t = 50 min ∝ 10°, so t1/2 = 15 min.
So volume consumed of H2O2 at t = 15 min = t1/2 , is according to 50% production of B at t = 60 min. production of B = 94.75% (four half lives) 
So volume consumed = 75 ml Ans.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 81

How many m.moles of sucrose should be dissolved in 500 grams of water so as to get a solution which has a difference of 103.57°C between boiling point and freezing point ?

(Kf = 1.86 K Kg mol–1, Kb = 0.52 K Kg mol–1)

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 81

Boiling point of solution = boiling point + ΔTb = 100 + ΔTb
Freezing point of solution = freezing point – ΔTf = 0 – ΔTf
Difference in temperature (given) = 100 + ΔTb – (– ΔTf) 103.57 = 100 + ΔTb + ΔTf = 100 + molality x Kb + molality x Kf = 100 + molality (0.52 + 1.86) 

and molality Moles of solute 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 82

When a graph is plotted between log x/m and log p, it is straight line with an angle 45° and intercept 0.6020 on y-axis. If initial pressure is 0.3 atm, what will be the amount of gas adsorbed per gram of adsorbent :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 82



NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 83

Diamond has face-centred cubic lattice. There are two atoms per lattice point, with the atoms at (000) and  coordinates. The ratio of the carbon-carbon bond distance to the edge of the unit cell is: 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 83

Carbon atoms are at corners and are at alternate corners. So from geometry. 

So required ratio 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 84

Assuming the formation of an ideal solution, determine the boiling point of a mixture containing 1560 g benzene (molar mass = 78) and 1125 g chlorobenzene (molar mass = 112.5) using the following against an external pressure of 1000 Torr:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 84

20 mole C6H6, 10mole C6H5Cl 
⇒ 
At t = 100°C 
⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 85

Decomposition of A follows first order kinetics by the following equation.
4A(g) → B(g)  +  2C(g)

If initially, total pressure was 800 mm of Hg and after 10 minutes it is found to be 650 mm of Hg. What is half-life of A ? (Assume only A is present initially)

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 85


Pressure of A = 200, so
∴ 2 x t1/2 = 10 minutes
t1/2 = 5 minutes

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 86

For the following parallel chain reaction

what will be that value of overall half-life of A in minutes? 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 86

We have, 
So, 
Now, 

so, 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 87

You are given the following cell at 298 K, = – 0.76 V. Which of the following amounts of NaOH (equivalent weight = 40) will just make the pH of cathodic compartment to be equal to 7.0 :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 87

Anode  Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-
Cathode 2H+ + 2e- → H2
Cell :  ; E0cell = 0 - (- 0.76) = 0.76 V
∴ 
∴ [H+] = 10-2 M
∴ NaOH required is 0.01 mole = 0.4 grams

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 88

Electrolysis of a solution of HSO4- ions produces S2O8– –. Assuming 75% current efficiency, what  current  should  be  employed  to  achieve  a  production  rate  of 1 mole of S2O8- - per hour ? 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 88

so required rate = 1 mole/hr
= 2 mole of e-/hr

so required current 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 89

In an f.c.c. unit cell, atoms are numbered as shown below. The atoms not touching each other are :

(Atom numbered 3 is face centre of front face).

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 89

Atoms along one edge or at corners do not touch each other in fcc cell.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 90

In an f.c.c. crystal, which of the following shaded planes contains the following type of arrangement of atoms?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 90

Shown arrangement is hexagonally closed pack plane and these type of planes are arranged perpendicular to
body diagonal of fcc unit cell as shown.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 91

Which of the following not occur in 5’ to 3’ direction?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 91

DNA replication, transcription and translation occur in 5’ to 3’ direction

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 92

Which of the following process not have basis complimentary base pairing-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 92

translation is sequencing amino acid according to sequence of Nitrogenous bases

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 93

Few properties of Nucleic acid is given , how many belong to RNA- Reactive, catalytically active, 2’-H present, able to mutate , 2’-OH , thermostable

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 93

RNA is not thermostable and have 2’-OH group

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 94

DNA of nucleoid is present in form of –

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 95

Mark the correctly matched-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 95

DNA polymerase polymerise in 5’ to 3’ direction

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 96

Which of the following is correctly matched-

(A) mRNA – provides template

(B) tRNA – reads genetic code in protein synthesis

(C ) rRNA – strucutural role in protein synthesis

(D ) rRNA- catalytic role

(E) tRNA – brings amino acid

How many of the following is correctly matched-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 97

Mark the incorrect –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 97

The template with 3’ to 5’ polarity show countinuos DNA replication –

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 98

Considering DNA replication is semiconsevative if two cell with N15 DNA on both strand is grown on source with N14 DNA for three generation than percentage of N14 N15  DNA is-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 98

total 16 cell and 4 cell with N14 N15 DNA

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 99

The beads on sting structure in ………………. Is packaged to form ……………… that further condensed in metaphase stage

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 100

Which of the following not present in RNA-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 100

RNA evolve into DNA by chemical modification and further evolving repair

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 101

At stop codon which of the following binds-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 102

Which of the following is gene-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 102

segment of DNA code for any type of RNA

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 103

Which of the following is not DNA dependent polymerase - 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 103

reverse transcriptase is RNA dependent DNA polymerase

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 104

Which of the following is not nucleotide-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 104

adenylic acid is a nucleic acid and not a nucleotide. Thus, option (a) will be the answer.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 105

Consider the following-

(a) origin is not replicated in DNA replication during s-phase

(b) minisatellite DNA mainly use for DNA fingerprinting

How many are correct

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 105

origin also get replicated during s-phase

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 106

Which of the following can make polynucleotide chain  without template –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 106

polynucleotide phosphorylase is for template free RNA synthesis

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 107

Consider the following –

(a) DNA ligase can join 5’ to 3’ phosphodiester linkage                         

(b) Both strand of DNA of structural gene can not be transcribed                             

How many is /are correct-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 108

If lactose is absent in medium than which is probable correct for lac operon-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 108

Small level of lac operon expression always present

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 109

The sequence of Chromosome I was completed only in –

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 110

Which is correct about DNA polymorphism-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 111

Mark the wrongly matched –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 111

High levels of phenylalanine, as seen in untreated PKU, cause brain damage and associated mental retardation. Early implementation of a low phenylalanine diet prevents the mental retardation associated with this condition.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 112

In a cross between AABb and AaBb , percentage of progeny with AaBb Genotype is-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 112

50 percent gamete receive Aa gametes

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 113

From given example  which of the following is not according to mendel law of dominance- 

(a) endosperm of gymnosperm         

(b) aleurone layer in monocot seed                             

(c) nucellus of gymnosperm                                                       

Mark the correct answer-                                                                     

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 113

for mendel law of dominance factor should be in pair

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 114

Law of segregation is not valid in case of –

(a) gametogenesis in algae

(b) sporogenesis in algae                                                           

(c) embyrogenesis in bryophytes

Mark the correct answer-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 114

for law of segregation meiosis should occur

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 115

Which of the following amino acid have three codon in genetic code-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 116

Mendal;s work was rediscovered in

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 117

Three gene polygene heterozygous is selfed give ………….number of progeny and………of phenotype classes respectively-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 117

three gene polygene give 7 phenotypic classes

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 118

AaBbCc genotype form 3 type of different gamete this means –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 118

de to linkage of two genes number of gamets reduce

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 119

Female heterogamety present in –

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 120

Two linked gene give non-parental gene combination due to

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 120

crossing increase non-parental gene combination

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 121

Which of the following is wrong statement-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 122

A colour blind Man marries to normal female have one normal daughter and one colourblind son which is probability of next daughter to be colour blind-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 122

mother is carrier so every time 50 percent chance is tha daughter is colour blind

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 123

In a population of 100 humans 4 show fuse Ear lobe , if it is autosomal recessive character and  population is in genetic equlilibrium calculate frequency of dominant allele -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 123

hardy Weinberg problem

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 124

AaBbCc individual is selfed than number of progeny with AABbCC phenotype is-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 124

number of progeny is 2 out of 64 or 1 out of 32

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 125

If individual with genotype TtRr(tall round) is crossed with ttrr (dwarf wrinkled) than it give two type of genotype only-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 125

In complete linkage only parental type obtained

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 126

Which of the following is intra- alleleic interaction-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 126

intra alleleic interaction is between allele of same trait

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 127

Mark the incorrect-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 127

In co-dominance dominant recessive relationship is absent

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 128

When one allele  mask the expression of another allele at same loci on homologus chromosome than it is-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 128

epistatis is at different gene loci

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 129

Which is true about hybridization experiment conducted by mendel-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 130

Mendels finding was general rule of inheritance rather than unsubstainted data because-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 131

Phenotype of organism not affected when modified allele present in homozygous state and  produce-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 131

phenotype of organism not affected when it produce normal enzyme

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 132

In some organism if only half the sperm have X-chromosome and other half lack X chromosome  this than type of sex-determination is-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 133

A female can be haemophilic , for this which is most necessary-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 133

father has to be affected

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 134

Which is incorrect regarding t-RNA –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 134

tRNA is functional in secondary strucuture

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 135

In lac operon which is incorrect-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 135

Product of regulator gene is important it should not present close to lac genes

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 136

Mark the wrong statement-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 136

DNA from different cell show different degree of polymorphism

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 137

In pBR322 restriction site for which of the following enzyme is  absent-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 138

Mark the incorrect statements-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 138

non-functional origin give zero copy number

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 139

What is true about selectable marker- 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 139

selectable marker help to slect transfomants out of non-transformants 

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 140

Which is correct order in genetic engineering-

(1) gene transfer for expression 

(2) creation of recombinant DNA

(3) use of gene amplification

(4) isolation of DNA

Correct sequence is -                                                             

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 140

gene is isolated, recombinanat is created and amplified before transfer

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 141

What is true about plasmid-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 141

small size plasmid will transfer easily

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 142

Consider the following statements and mark incorrect-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 142

Any palindrome cut in centre produce blunt end

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 143

Two enzyme……… restrict the growth of bacteriophage is  isolated from E.Coli was discovered in…….. year --

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 144

Consider the following statement, how many statements are correct -

(A) More than 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated from 230 strains of bacteria 

(B) plasmid having functional  origin can not use host DNA polymerase to replicate

(C) DNA runs towards cathode in gel electrophoresis when current  is applied

(D) Recombinant plasmid  will not obtain if source of gene and plasmid will cut with different R.E 

Mark the correct answer-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 145

Which of the following is  correctly matched

(A) Biolistic - liver cell

(B) Microinjection - parenchyma

(C) Alter genotype - heterologus host

(D) Bioreactor - synthetic production

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 146

Consider the following statements

1) EcoR1 cuts after A of palindrome sequence  5’—GAATTC—3’

2) EcoR1 restriction enzyme obtained from RY15 strain.

3) It is necessary that alien DNA and Restriction site of cloning  should be cut by same palindrome 

how many statements are correct-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 146

If host DNA and foreign DNA cut with same restriction site it will generate same sticky end

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 147

Mark the correct statement

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 148

IARI develops several variety for micronutrients ,which is wrong-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 149

Which of the following is wrongly matched- 

(1) hairy leaf - jassids 

(2) smooth leaf and nectarless - aphids

(3) Flat bean - jassids

(4) Pusa swarnim - white rust

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 150

Source of  SCP is -

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 151

Source of  SCP is -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 151

Methylophilus methylotrophus are a very good source of SCP, because of it's high biomass production and growth can be expected to produce about 25 tonnes of protein.

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 152

Disarmed retrovirus is develop for-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 153

In a few plant cell which can be most useful cloning vector-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 154

A divalent ion provided during heat shock technique–

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 154

Large size DNA not show transformation

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 155

Mark the correctly matched-

(1) Gene gun - silver and tungsten

(2) Cystic fibrosis – alpha-1- antitypsin

(3) Pusa sawani - shoot and fruit borer

(4) Pusa komal - chilli mosaic virus

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 156

RNA from DNA of eukaryotes is removed during isolation of DNA by –

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 157

Ethanol precipitation without RNase treatment will-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 157

Ethanol can precipitate both RNA and DNA

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 158

Mark correctly matched

(1) DNA precipitation - spooling     

(2) gel electrophoresis -  isolation of DNA

(3) Emphysema - alpha-1- antitypsin    

(4) blue white selection -  tetracycline resistance

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 158

alpha-1- antitypsin  Cure Emphysema

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 159

Which step involve phosphodiester bond formation in PCR-

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 160

In A test tube ‘PCR’ is carried out with primers , if DNA amplication  or PCR cycle require 3 min and we start with single DNA piece than DNA amplification stops after –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 160

PCR stop when nucleotide or Primer gent finish

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 161

Taq polymerase obtain from –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 161

thermos aquaticus is archaebacteria

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 162

Recombinant protein is all except –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 162

recombinant potein form by host genome

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 163

Mark the incorrectly matched- –

(1) Bioreactor - production of Enzyme 

(2) bioreactor - ethanol fermentation

(3) Cultivar -  develop new variety 

(4) High yielding wheat – introduced into 1963

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 163

cultivar is variety which is under cultivation

NEET Part Test - 4 - Question 164

Sparged in sparged stirred tank bioreactor help in-