NEET Practice Test - 10 - NEET MCQ

# NEET Practice Test - 10 - NEET MCQ

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## 180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series 2025 - NEET Practice Test - 10

NEET Practice Test - 10 for NEET 2024 is part of NEET Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The NEET Practice Test - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Practice Test - 10 MCQs are made for NEET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Practice Test - 10 below.
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NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 1

### A ball falling freely from a height of 4.9 m hits a horizontal surface. If e = 3/4, then the ball will hit the surface for the second time after _________. (Take g = 9.8 m/s2)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 1
From equation of motion v2 = u2 + 2gh

where v is final velocity, u is initial velocity and h is height.

Given, h = 4.9 m, g = 9.8 m/s2, u = 0

=

= 9.8 m/s

Coefficient of restitution (e) of an object is a unit fraction value representing the ratio of velocities after and before an impact.

e = v'/v

Time taken from first bounce to second bounce is

= 1.5 s

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 2

### A source and an observer are approaching each other with 50 ms-1 velocity. What will be the original frequency if the observer receives 400 cycles/s? Take speed of sound = 340 m/s

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 2
As the obsererver and source both are approaching each other, so the apparent frequency

Where v is the velocity of the sound, v0 is the velocity of the observer, vs is the velocity of the source, f0 is the actual frequency and f' is the apparent frequency.

v0 = 50 m/s, vs = 50 m/s, v = 340 m/s, f' = 400 Hz

= 297 ≃ 300 cycles per second (Hz)

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NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 3

### In a potentiometer circuit, there is a cell of resistance 5 ohms and emf 2 V connected to a uniform wire of length 1000 cm and resistance 15 ohms. The potential gradient in the wire is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 3
Voltage across the ends of the potentiometer wire

Where V is emf of the cell, R is the resistance of the wire and r is the internal resistance of cell

L = 1000 cm

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 4

Electrons in a certain energy level (n = n1) can emit 3 spectral lines. When they are in another energy level, n = n2, they can emit 6 spectral lines. The orbital speeds of the electrons are in the ratio

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 4

As we know, (number of spectral lines)

Hence, n1 = 3

n2 = 4

And also we know that,

v ∝ 1/n

Hence, v1 / v2 = 4/3

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 5

A force-time graph for a linear motion of a body is shown in the figure. The change in linear momentum between 0 and 7 s is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 5
Since, F = Δp/Δt

or Δp = FΔt

we can say that momentum between 0 to 7 s is equal to the vector area enclosed by the force-time graph from 0 to 7s.

So, Change in linear momentum = vector area of triangle OAB + vector area of square BCDE + vector area of triangle EFG + vector area of square GHIJ + vector area of triangle JKL

=

=

= 2 N-s

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 6

If a coil of 40 turns and area 4.0 cm2 is suddenly removed from a magnetic field, it is observed that a charge of 2.0 x 10-4 C flows into the coil. If the resistance of the coil is 80Ω , the magnetic flux density in Wb/m2 is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 6

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 7

To reduce the de Broglie wavelength of an electron from 100 pm to 50 pm, the required increase in energy will be:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 7

Δk = 450 eV

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 8

Which of the following gates serve as building blocks in digital circuits?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 8
NAND and NOR gates are the universal gates hence they are the building blocks.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 9

The figure below shows three identical springs A, B and C. When a 4 kg mass is hung on A, it descends by 1 cm. When a 6 kg mass is hung on C, it will descend by

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 9
Let k be the force constant of each spring.

The force F needed to extend the spring A by an amount x is

F = kx or x = F/k

In IInd case the springs are connected in series.

Therefore, the force constant k' of the combination is given by

or

If a force F' is applied, the combination will extend by

Thus,

or x' = 3x = 3 × 1 cm = 3 cm

Hence the correct choice is (b).

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 10

A coil having an inductance of 0.5 H carries a current which is uniformly varying from 0 to 10 A in 2 s. The emf (in volts) generated in the coil is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 10

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 11

A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having radii in the ratio 1 : 2. Their velocities are in the ratio

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 11
Let A1 and A2 be the mass numbers of the two nuclear parts. Their radii are given by

R1 = R0 (A1)1/3 and R2 = R0 (A2)1/3

Dividing, we get

Hence the ratio of their masses is

m1 / m2 = 1/8

From the principle of conservation of momentum, the magnitude of p1 = magnitude of p2 or m1 v1 = m2 v2,

which gives

which is choice (a).

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 12

A metallic wheel with 8 metallic spokes, each of length r, is rotating at an angular frequency ω in a plane perpendicular to a magnetic field B. The magnitude of the induced emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 12
Let v be the frequency of rotation.

The time taken for 1 full rotation is T = 1/v.

Therefore, rate of change of area is

Now, the emf induced between the axle and rim is e = B × rate of change of area

=

Since the same emf is produced between the ends of each spoke, and these emfs are in parallel as is evident from Fig. the net emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel will be the same as that across each spoke. We notice that all the eight spokes are connected with one end at the rim and the other at the axle. Hence the magnitude of the net emf between the axle and the rim is independent of the number of spokes.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 13

Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to V2 in three different ways. The work done by the gas is W1 if the process is isothermal, W2 if purely isobaric and W3 if purely adiabatic. Then,

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 13
Isothermal, isobaric and adiabatic processes are represented on a P–V diagram as shown in the figure below

Since work done = Area under P-V diagram,

∴ W2 > W1 and W1 > W3

∴ W2 > W1 > W3

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 14

A rocket is fired from Earth to the Moon. The distance between Earth and the Moon is r and the mass of Earth is 81 times the mass of the Moon. The gravitational force on the rocket will be zero when its distance from the Moon is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 14
Let the rocket be at a distance x from the moon when the gravitational force on it is zero.

Its distance from earth = r - x. Gravitational force on the rocket due to earth is

where m is the mass of the rocket, Gravitational force on the rocket due to moon is

Since the two forces are in opposite directions, the net force on the rocket will be zero if Fe = Fm.

Equating the two we get

which gives x = r / 10

Hence the correct choice is (c).

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 15

The strength of the magnetic field around a long straight wire carrying current is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 15
Magnetic field around the straight current carrying wire is given by

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 16

An air bubble is inside the water (μwater = 4/3). Which of the following is correct?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 16

Explanation:

1. An air bubble in water will behave like a divergent lens because the refractive index of air (μair = 1) is less than the refractive index of water (μwater = 4/3). This means that light rays passing through the air bubble will diverge or spread out.

2. A divergent lens cannot form a real image of a point object because the light rays diverge after passing through the lens. For a real image to be formed, the light rays must converge at a point. However, divergent lenses can only form virtual images, where the light rays appear to converge but do not actually do so.

3. A divergent lens can produce a real image of a virtual object when the virtual object is located within the focal length of the lens. In this case, the light rays appear to converge at a point after passing through the lens, creating a real image. This is a rare situation but is possible under specific circumstances.

So, all of these statements are correct.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 17

A light ray is incident at an angle of 60° at one face of a prism. If emergent ray makes an angle of 30° with the incident ray, then correct statement is (Angle of prism is given as 30°)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 17
δ = (i1 + i2) - A

30 = (60 + i2) - 30

⇒ i2 = 0

Also,

= √3

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 18

An astronomical telescope in normal adjustment receives light from a distant source S. The tube length is now decreased slightly, then

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 18
When tube length is decreased, the (real) intermediate image formed by the objective will lie between the eyepiece and its focus. This will cause a virtual image to be formed.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 19

Ratio of intensities of coherent waves in YDSE is 9 : 4. Ratio of intensities of minima to the maxima produced is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 19

= 1 : 25

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 20

It is given that μ1 > μ2 > μ3. Find angle made by the ray of light with the normal in medium of refractive index (μ3).

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 20

For 1st refraction, sini x 1 = sinr1 x μ1

For 2nd refraction, sinr1 x μ1 = sinr2 x μ2

For 3rd refraction, sinr2 x μ2 = sinr3 x μ3

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 21

An object O is moving towards the surface of water with a speed of 2 ms–1 and fish F is moving towards the surface with a speed of 5 ms–1. Find the speed of the object O as seen by fish.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 21
Position of image of O w.r.t fish will be AO’

=

Now let relative separation is equal to r.

Then

= 6.33 ms-1

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 22

A marginal ray falls upon a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm as shown in figure. Find distance CM (in cm).

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 22
In figure, CA = 20 cm = R

Using Sine law,

⇒ CM = 20 / √3

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 23

The coordinate of a point where parallel rays are focussed by the thin convex lens is [where focal length of convex lens is 10 cm and it is placed along y-axis]

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 23

tanθ = y/f, θ = 45°, f = 10 cm

y = 10 cm

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 24

A convex lens forms an image at a distance 10 cm when a parallel beam of light is incident on it. Find the position(s) of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 5 cm such that the final image is formed at infinity

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 24

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 25

An astronomical telescope has magnification 8 for normal adjustment. A person using this telescope finds that when distance between objective and eyepiece is made 40 cm, the final image is formed at infinity. Select the correct pair of focal lengths of objective and eyepiece respectively.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 25
Because image forms at infinity f0 + fe = 40 cm and f0 / fe = 8

Solving, f0 = 320/9 cm and fe = 40/9 cm

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 26

An unpolarised beam of light is made to incident on an arrangement of four polarising sheets arranged in such a way that the characteristic direction of each polarising sheet makes an angle of 45° with that of preceding sheet. What fraction of incident unpolarised light will be transmitted finally?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 26

Intensity of light from 1st polarising

sheet = i1 = I0 / 2

Intensity of light from 2nd sheet,

Intensity of light from 3rd sheet,

Intensity of final transmitted light from last sheet,

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 27

thickness t and refractive index μ = 1.5 is placed just in front of upper slit, the central bright fringe shifts to nth bright fringe. Then n is (λ = Wavelength of light in air)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 27

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 28

If intensity of principal maximum in Fraunhofer single slit diffraction is I0. Then, intensity of second order secondary maxima is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 28
Intensity of nth order secondary maxima

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 29

The de Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with a velocity of 2 × 108 ms–1 is equal to the wave length of photon. What will be ratio of kinetic energy of the moving particle to that of energy of a photon?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 29

=

=

= 1/3

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 30

Consider a monochromatic linear source of light which is placed at a distance of r from a very small metal plate. Due to photoelectric effect electrons are ejected at rate N per second and it is found that maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron is K. If source is brought closer to a distance r / 3, the rate of emission and the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron become nearly

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 30
Photoelectric emission rate ∝ intensity ∝ 1 /r (for linear source), maximum kinetic energy does not depend upon intensity of light. Hence, kinetic energy = k, and emission become three times.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 31

It is observed that when electromagnetic radiation of two frequencies 4 × 1015 Hz and 8 × 1015 Hz is allowed to fall on the same plate, the maximum kinetic energy ratio of electrons in photoelectric emission is 1 : 5. The work function for the metal will be (h = Planck’s constant)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 31
hf1 = Φ + k and hf2 = Φ + 5k

Solving for Φ, Φ = 3h x 1015.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 32

A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated from rest by same potential difference. Ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 32

= 2√2 : 1

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 33

Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 33

Find the correct wavelength of each wave.

AM radio waves - 102 m

Microwaves - 10−2 m

X-rays - 10−10 m

So the correct option is (a).

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 34

Given below are two statements:

I: Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current-carrying conductor only.

II: Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q.

In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 34
Statement I is correct which says that Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only while statement II is incorrect as Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 35

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

Assertion: Two adjacent conductors of unequal dimensions, carrying the same positive charge have a potential difference between them.

Reason: The potential of a conductor depends upon the charge given to it.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 35
Let us consider two spherical shells of radii r1 and r2 which are possessing the same positive charge Q. Therefore the potential on the surface of each conductor will be

V1 = KQ/r1

V2 = KQ/r2

Since r1 ≠ r2, V1 ≠ V2 and consequently there will be a potential difference between the two conductors.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 36

A thermonuclear fusion reactor is better than a fission reactor for all of the following reasons, except that

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 36
Thermonuclear reaction is difficult to produce in a controlled manner because we have to provide enough energy to overcome the force of repulsion between reacting particles before fusion can occur or we can say to produce a self-sustaining reaction, we have to provide the particles with enough thermal energy so that they can fuse when they collide.

Each fusion reaction is characterized by a specific ignition temperature, which must be surpassed before the reaction can occur. The deuterium and tritium reaction has an ignition temperature above 108 K. In a hydrogen bomb, a fission reaction produced by a small atomic bomb is used to heat the contents to the temperature required to initiate fusion. Hence we can say that it is very difficult to control a nuclear fusion reaction.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 37

A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 x 104 turns per metre. At the centre of the solenoid, a 100-turn coil of radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid is decreased at a constant rate from + 2 A to - 2 A in 0.08 s. The emf (in mV) induced in the coil is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 37
Change in current ΔI = -2 - (+2) = -4 A.

Time taken Δt = 0.08 s. Therefore, induced emf is

So the correct choice is (C).

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 38

If energy E, velocity V and time T are chosen as the fundamental units, the dimensional formula for surface tension will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 38

Let S - kEaVbTc

[M1L0T-2] = [ML2T-2]a[LT-1]b[T]c

= [MaL2a + bT-2a - b + c]

Applying principle of homogeneity of dimensions, we get, a = 1 .....(i)

2a + b = 0 ....(ii)

-2a - b - c = -2 ....(iii)

Adding (ii) and (iii), we get

c = -2

From (ii), b = -2a = -2

∴ S = kEV-2 T-2 or [S] = [EV-2T-2]

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 39

A transmitting antenna of height 20 m and a receiving antenna of height h are separated by a distance of 40 km for satisfactory communication in line-of-sight mode. The value of h (given radius of Earth is 6400 km) is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 39
The maximum line-of-sight distance dM between two antennas having heights hT and hR is

where R is the radius of the earth, hT and hR are the heights of the transmitting and receiving antennas respectively.

Here, dM = 40 km = 40 × 103 m, hT = 20 m,

hR = h, R = 6400 km = 6400 × 103 m

= 45 m

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 40

The rate of increase of thermo-emf with temperature at the neutral temperature of a thermocouple

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 40
Thermo-emf with temperature at the neutral point of a thermocouple is maximum. So, the rate of increase of thermo-emf with temperature at the neutral point of a thermocouple is zero.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 41

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.

Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of the same dimensions.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 41
The stretching of coil simply changes its shape without any change in the length of the wire used in the coil. So the stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Hence, the assertion is correct.

A coil spring of copper has less tensile strength than a steel spring of the same dimensions. So, the reason is wrong.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 42

With an increase in temperature, surface tension of liquid (except molten copper and cadmium)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 42
The surface tension of liquid decreases with rise of temperature. The surface tension of liquid is zero at its boiling point and it vanishes at critical temperature. At critical temperature intermolecular forces for liquid and gases becomes equal and liquid can expand without any restriction. For small temperature differences, the variation in surface tension with temperature is linear and is given by relation

T1 = T0(1−αt)

Where T1,T0 are the surface tension at t℃ and 0℃ respectively and αα is the temperature coefficient of surface tension.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 43

The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 amu0.0303 amu. What is the binding energy per nucleon for helium in MeV?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 43

Total binding energy of helium = ∆mc2

So, binding energy = (0.0303 amu) × 931 MeV

Number of nucleons in helium = 4

Binding energy per nucleon for helium =Total BE / Number of nucleons

= 0.0303×9314

= 7 MeV

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 44

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 44

(a) - (ii)

(b) - (iii)

(c) - (iv)

(d) - (i)

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 45

Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.

(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.

(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 45
• In reverse biased, after breakdown, voltage across the zener diode becomes constant. Therefore zener diode is connected in reverse biased when used as voltage regulator.

• Potential barrier of silicon diode is nearly 0.7 V statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 46

During detection of nitrogen in Lassaigne's test, instead of deep blue colouration, sometimes a blood red colouration is observed. Which of the following statements is/are true?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 46

Inadequate use of sodium produces sodium thiocyanate if both sulphur and nitrogen are present.

Na + C + S + N → NaCNS

This gives blood red colouration with Fe3+ ion due to the formation of ferric thiocyanate.

Fe3+ + 6 CNS- → [Fe(CNS)6]3-

(1) This is wrong as nitrogen must be present to form CNS- ion which gives blood red colouration with Fe3+.

(2) This is also wrong as sulphur must be present to give CNS- ion.

(3) This is wrong as both N and S must be present to give CNS- ion.

(4) This is true as both must be present.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 47

The number of secondary alcoholic groups in glycerol is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 47
There is one secondary alcoholic group in glycerol.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 48

Denaturation of proteins involves breakdown of

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 48
Denaturation of proteins involves the disruption and possible destruction of secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 49

Which among the following have unpaired electrons?

B2, C2, N2, O2

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 49

B2 (10 electrons): (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (π2px)1 (π2py)1

O2 (16 electrons): (σ1s)2, (σ*1s)2, (σ2s)2, (σ*2s)2, (σ2pz)2, (π2px)2

= (π2py)2, (π*2px)1 = (π*2py)1

Both B2 and O2 have 2 unpaired electrons each.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 50

The dipole moments of diatomic molecules AB and CD are 10.41 D and 10.27 D, respectively, while their bond distances are 2.82 and 2.67 , respectively. What does this indicate? [Electronic charge (q) = 4.8 × 10-10 esu]

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 50
Dipole moment of AB molecule when the bond between A and B is 100% ionic

= q × d (charge × distance)

(electronic charge) q = 4.8 × 10-10 esu

d = distance in cm.

= 4.8 × 10-10 esu × 2.82 × 10-8 cm

= 13.536 × 10-18 esu cm

= 13.536 D

[D = Debye unit of dipole moment:

1D = 10-18 esu-cm]

Actual dipole moment of AB molecule

= 10.41D

% age ionic character

=

= 76.9%

Similarily, dipole moment of CD molecule when the bond is 100% ionic,

= q x d = 4.8 x 10-10esu × 2.67 × 10-8 cm

= 12.816 × 10-18esu-cm = 12.816 D

Actual dipole moment of CD molecule = 10.27 D

% ionic character =

So, we can say that AB is less ionic than CD.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 51

The value of magnetic moment for [CoF6]3- is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 51

Number on unpaired electrons = 4

= 4.9 BM

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 52

Match the following:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 52
The correct sequence of codes is P - 3, Q - 1, R - 4, S – 2.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 53

The enthalpy and entropy changes for the reaction Br2(I) + CI2(g) 2BrCI(g) are 30 kJ mol–1 and 105 JK–1 mol–1, respectively.

The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 53

We know,

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

When the reaction is in equilibrium, ΔG = 0.

0 = ΔH – TΔS T = ΔH / ΔS

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 54

The ion precipitating first, when a solution containing 0.01 M each of Pb2+, Zn2+, Mn2+ and Co2+ is saturated with H2S (which provides 1.0 10–14 M of S2– in the solution), is

(Given: Ksp(PbS) = 2.3 10–27 M2, Ksp(ZnS) = 1.0 10–21 M2, Ksp(MnS) = 7.9 10–13 M2 and K(CoS) = 7 10–23 M2.)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 54
The lesser the value of Ksp, the earlier the salt precipitates. Hence, Pb2+ is precipitated first.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 55

The addition of ammonia to AgBr solution results in formation of a complex. How many moles can be dissolved in 10 L of 1 M NH3 solution if Kf = 1.6 x 107 for the complex and solubility product is Ksp = 5 x 10-13?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 55

Thus, mole of AgBr in 10 litres of ammonia solution = 2.8 x 10-3

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 56

Which of the following is not a component of pyroligneous acid?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 56
The principal components of pyroligneous acid are acetic acid, ether and methanol. It was once used as a commercial source for acetic acid. In addition, the vinegar often contains 80-90% water along with some 200 organic compounds.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 57

In the titration of Fe2+ ions versus Cr2O72- ions using diphenylamine as the internal indicator, phosphoric acid is added in the solution containing Fe2+ ions. The role of phosphoric acid is to

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 57
The reduction reaction to be considered is Fe3+(aq) + e- → Fe2+(aq).

Its Nernst equation is:

The addition of phosphoric acid forms the complex with ferric ion and thus lowers its concentration. Hence, the reduction potential becomes more negative.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 58

Potassium crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice with unit cell of length a = 5.20 . Which of the following statements is wrong?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 58

In a body centred unit cell the atoms touch along the body diagonal.

Body diagonal (4r) = √3a

The distance between the nearest neighbours(2r)

=

Hence (a) is correct.

The next nearest neighbours lie at the corners and the distance between them is equal to the edge length i.e., 5.20 .

Hence (b) is correct.

Each body centre touches 8 atoms at the corners. Hence (c) is correct.

Each atom has six next nearest neighbours. Hence (d) is incorrect.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 59

The product of the given reaction will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 59

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 60

Butane gas present in a cylinder leaked. Find the amount of gas leaked if initial amount of gas was 15 kg, 10 atm, 27oC and final pressure is 8 atm.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 60
Use P1/P2 = n1/ n2 = W1M/W2 / M = W1/W2;

10/8 = 15/W2 ⇒ W2 = 12 kg

Gas leaked = 15 - 12 = 3 kg

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 61

Dilute H2SO4 and dilute HCI in the presence of air react with

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 61

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 62

p-type semiconductor is formed when germanium is doped with

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 62
Group 13 elements when doped with germanium, p-type semiconductors are formed.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 63

Choose the correct statement among the

following

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 63
In fluorite structure, Ca2+ forms CCP while F- anions occupy all the tetrahedral voids hence coordination number of F- is 4.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 64

The unit cell parameters of Tetragonal crystal is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 64
In unit cell of tetragonal crystal, a = b ≠ c, α = β = ү = 90°
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 65

The length of body diagonal of body centred cubic unit cell is 728 pm. If the radius of cation is 231 pm, the radius of the anion is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 65

∵ 2(r+ + r- ) = 728

r+ + r- = 364

r = 364 - 231

= 133 pm

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 66

A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q.

Atoms of Q are at corners and face centres of the cube and P at all octahedral voids then the coordination numbers of P and Q respectively are

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 66
Number of Q atoms = 4

Number of P atoms = 4

∴ Formula of the compound is PQ.

⇒ The coordination number of P and Q are 6 and 6 respectively.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 67

In BCC unit cell, if half of the atoms per unit cell are removed, then packing efficiency will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 67
If half of the atoms per unit cell are removed then Zeff is 1, packing efficiency will be half of the 68%.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 68

Metal oxide that is ferromagnetic in nature is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 68

Ferromagnetism:- A few substances like iron, cobalt, nickel and CrO2 are attracted very strongly by a magnetic field.

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 69

Number of octahedral voids present in hexagonal close-packed unit cell is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 69

In HCP unit cell

⇒ Effective number of atoms = 6

⇒ Number of octahedral voids = 6

⇒ Number of tetrahedral voids = 12

NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 70

Solid H2 is an example of

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 70
Solid H2 is example of molecular solids.
NEET Practice Test - 10 - Question 71

If the radius ratio of cation and anions is 0.40 then the co-ordination number of the cation in the ionic compound is