NEET Practice Test - 23 - NEET MCQ

# NEET Practice Test - 23 - NEET MCQ

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## 179 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series 2025 - NEET Practice Test - 23

NEET Practice Test - 23 for NEET 2024 is part of NEET Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The NEET Practice Test - 23 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Practice Test - 23 MCQs are made for NEET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Practice Test - 23 below.
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NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 1

### The standard enthalpy of formation (∆fH°298) for methane, CH4 is – 74.9 kJ mol–1. In order to calculate the average energy given out in the formation of a C – H bond from this it is necessary to know which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 1
To calculate average enthalpy of C - FI bond in methane following informations are needed

(i) dissociation energy of H2, i.e.

∆H = x(Suppose)

(ii) Sublimation energy of C(graphite) to C(g)

∆H = y (Suppose)

C (graphite) + 2H 2(g) → CH4 (g); ∆H = 75 kj mol-1

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 2

### Addition of HI to double bond of propene yields isopropyl iodide and not n-propyl iodide as the major product, because addition proceeds through

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 2
All are examples of electrophilic addition reactions and involve the formation of stable carbocation leading to the formation of addition product according to Markovnikov’s rule
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NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 3

### Which of the following is a redox reaction?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 3
N2 + O2 → 2NO

O.N. of N changes from 0 to +2 (oxidation) and O.N. of O changes from O to -2 (reduction).

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 4

The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane with silver powder is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 4

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 5

The electronegativity follows the order

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 5
F and O belong to 2nd period whereas Cl and Br belong to the 3rd and 4th periods respectively. Hence the sequence of the E.N. is F>0>C l>B r
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 6

The anime that does not react with acetyl chloride is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 6
The compounds containing active H-atoms (H atoms attached to N, O or S) react with CH3COCl to form acetyl derivatives.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 7

The activation energy for a hypothetical reaction, A → Product, is 12.49 kcal/mole. If temperature is raised from 295 to 305, the rate of reaction increased by

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 7
For 10°C rise of temperature the rate is almost doubled,
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 8

Indicate the wrongly named compound

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 8

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 9

Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 9
SiF4 and CO2 have zero dipole moment due to symmetrical tetrahedral and linear structures, NO2 and O3 both have V-shape and certain value for dipole moment.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 10

An unknown metal M displaces nickel from nickel (II) sulphate solution but does not displace manganese from manganese sulphate solution. Which order represents the correct order of reducing power?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 10
Oxidation potential of M is more than N and less than Mn. Hence reducing power Mn > M > Ni
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 11

Beilstein’s test is given by which of the following:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 11
Pyridine and thiourea form volatile cupric cyanide and also give bluish green flame like volatile cupric halides.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 12

At STP, the order of root mean square speed of molecules H2, N2, O2 and HBr is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 12

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 13

Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 13
Cyanide process is for gold (I-D); floatation process - pine oil (II-B); Electrolytic reduction - A1 (III-C); Zone refining -Ge (IV-A).
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 14

The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen atoms is : (Plank's const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34 Js ; mass of electron = 9.1091 × 10–31 kg ; charge of electron e = 1.60210 × 10–19 C ; permittivity of vacuum ε0 = 8.854185 × 10–12 kg–1 m–3 A2)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 14
Radius of nth Bohr orbit in H -atom = 0.53 n2Å

Radius of II Bohr orbit t = 0.53 x (2)2

= 2.12Å

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 15

The value of the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is 2.84 BM.

The correct one is

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 16

CsCl crystallises in a body centered cubic lattice.

If ‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following expressions is correct?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 16
Relation between radius of cation, anion and edge length of the cube

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 17

The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution reactions is

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 18

When gypsum is heated to 393 K, it forms:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 18
Gypsum on heating to 393 K forms plaster ofParis.

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 19

Number of electrons transferred in each case when KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent to give MnO2, Mn2+, Mn(OH)3 and MnO42- are respectively

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 20

Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 20

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 21

Consider the following changes

The energy required to pull out the two electrons are E1 and E2 respectively. The correct relationship between two energies would be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 21
IE1 is always less than IE2
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 22

Which one of the following statements is not true?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 22
The pH of 1 x 10-8 M HCl is always less than 7. Since the solution is of acid . It can be shown as

[H+] = 10-7 from H2O and 10-8 from HCl

[ H+] 10-8 (10 : 1)

[H+] = 10-8 x 11

- log [H+] = 8 log 10 - log 11

pH = 8 - log 11

pH=6.93.

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 23

Which of the following is not formed when glycerol reacts with HI?

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 24

For preparing a buffer solution of pH 6 by mixing sodium acetate and acetic acid, the ratio of the concentration of salt and acid should be (Ka = 10–5)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 24

or 10:1.

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 25

BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl3 is pyramidal because

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 25
(a) In BCl3 there is sp2 hybridisation (planar) in NCl3 hybridisation is sp3 hence shape is pyramidal
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 26

An organic compound, C3H6O does not give a precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenyl-hydrazine reagent and does not react with metallic sodium.

It could be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 26
Negative reaction with 2, 4- dinitrophenyl-hydrazine indicates absence of aldehydic (option a ) and ketonic (option c) group, while negative reaction with metallic sodium indicates absence of an alcoholic group (option b), hence die organic compound, C3H6O is CH2 = CHOCH3 (option d).
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 27

An element has a bcc structure having unit cells 12.08 × 1023. The number of atoms in these cells is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 27
Number of unit cells

= Total number of atoms / Rank of Unit Cell ( Z )

∴ Number of atoms = 12.08 x 1023 x 2 = 24 .16 x 1023 (for bcc z = 2)

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 28

From the following statements regarding H2O2, choose the incorrect statement:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 28
H2O2 has oxidizing and reducing properties both.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 29

Complete hydrolysis of starch gives :

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 29
Starch is a mixture of amylose & amylopectin polysaccharides and monomer is glucose. Thus on complete hydrolysis it gives only glucose.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 30

Which of the following is not true?

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 31

In which of the following, resonance will be possible?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 31
Only structure (b) has a conjugated system, which is necessary for resonance.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 32

Point out the false statement

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 32
Liquid - liquid system is known as emulsion.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 33

The structure and hybridization of Si(CH3)4 is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 33
Hybridisation in Si(CH3)4 (1/2 [4 + 4 + 0 - 0] = 4) is sp3 which is tetrahedral.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 34

An example of Perkin’s reaction is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 34
In general,

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 35

Which of the following is not an essential amino acid?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 35
Tyrosine is a non-essential amino acid.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 36

(i) According to a convention, the cell potential of hydrogen electrode (S.H.E.) is considered to be zero at all temperatures.

(ii) e.m.f. of the cell Pt(s)/H2(g, 1 bar )/H+ (aq, 1 M) || Zn2+ (aq,1M) / Z n is – 0.76. This negative value indicates that Zn2+ ion reduces less easily then H+ ions.

(iii) Copper does not dissolve in HCl but dissolves in HNO3 as in nitric acid it gets oxidised by nitrate ions.

(iv) Inert metals like Pt or Au are used in certain electrodes i.e., these metals does not participate in reaction but provide surface for oxidation and reduction reactions. (v) Fluorine has the highest electrode potential thereby making it the strongest oxidising agent whereas lithium with lowest electrode potential is the weakest oxidising and strongest reducing agent.

Which of the following are the correct statements above?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 36
All statements given above are correct.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 37

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

(i) The numerical value of the equilibrium constant for a reaction indicates the extent of the reaction.

(ii) An equilibrium constant gives information about the rate at which the equilibrium is reached. (iii) If Kc > 103, products predominate over reactants, i.e., if Kc is very large, the reaction proceeds nearly to completion.

(iv) If Kc < 10–3, reactants predominate over products, i.e., if Kc is very small, the reaction proceeds rarely.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 37
An equilibrium constant does not give any information about the rate at which the equilibrium is reached.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 38

Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing acidity

:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 38
Electron withdrawing substituents like - NO2, - C l increase the acidity of phenol while electron releasing substituents like - CH3, - OCH3 decreases acidity, hence the correct, order of acidity will be

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 39

Sodium Carbonate cannot be used in place of (NH4)2CO3 for the identification of Ca2+, Ba2+ and Sr2+ ions (in group V) during mixture analysis because :

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 39
If Na2CO3 is used in place of (NH4) ,CO3. It will precipitate group V radicals as well as magnesium radicals. The reason for this is the high ionization of Na2CO3 in water into Na+ and CO32–. Now the higher concentration of CO32– is available which exceeds the solubility product of group V radicals as well as that of magnesium radicals.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 40

The increasing order of pKb values of the following compounds is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 40

- OCH3 group increases electron density of ring at o- and p- position making (I) most basic. (Ill) is least basic due to -I effect of -CN group at meta position.

Since, -I effect of-CN > -I effect of -OH group.

Hence, correct basic strength will follow the order

I > II > IV > III

Order of Kb value is, I < ii="" />< iv="" />< />

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 41

AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond enthalpies of A2, AB and B2 are in the ratio 1:1 :0.5 and enthalpy of formation of AB from A2 and B2 is –100 kJ mol–1 . What is the bond energy of A2 :

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 41
Let bond energy of A2 be x then bond energy of AB is also x and bond energy of B2 is x/2.

Enthalpy of formation of AB is - 100 kJ/mol;

or

∴ x = 400kJ

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 42

Match the following:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 42

(I) Lucas reagent - Cone. HCl/ZnCl2

(II) Dumas method - CuO/CO2

(III) Kjeldahl's method - H2SO4

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 43

If the nitrogen atom had electronic configuration 1s7 it would have energy lower than that of the normal ground state configuration 1s2 2s2 2p3 because the electrons would be closer to the nucleus. Yet 1s7 is not observed. It violates

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 43
Not more than two electrons can be present in the same atomic orbital. This is Paulis exclusion principle.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 44

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the above reduction of benzaldehyde to benzyl alcohol?

(i) One hydrogen is coming from H2O as H+ and another from C6H5CHO as H

(ii) One hydrogen is coming from H2O as H and another from C6H5CHO as H+

(iii) One hydrogen from H2O and another from C6H5CHO, both in the form of H

(iv) The reduction is an example o f disproportionation reaction

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 44
The hydrogen atom that is added to the carbonyl carbon of the aldehyde in the reduction is derived directly from the other aldehyde molecule as a hydride ion. The second hydrogen that is added to the negatively charged oxygen is coming from the solvent (consult mechanism of Cannizzaro reaction). Oxidation of one molecule of the compound at the expense of another molecule of the same compound is known as disproportionation.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 45

Which of the following statements is correct if the intermolecular forces in liquids A, B and C are in the order A < B < C?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 45
Lesser the intermolecular forces, the more the volatile character.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 46

A physical quantity P is described by the relation P = a1/2 b2 c3 d–4. If the relative errors in the measurement of a, b, c and d respectively, are 2%, 1%, 3% and 5%, then the relative error in P will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 46
Given , P = a1/2 b2 c3 d–4,

Maximum relative error,

= 1/2 x 2 + 2 x 1 + 3 x 3 + 4 x 5

= 32%

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 47

If µr, µk and µs represent the coefficients of rolling friction, kinetic and static friction, then

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 48

If the density of a small planet is the same as that of earth, while the radius of the planet is 0.2 times that of the earth, the gravitational acceleration on the surface of the planet is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 48
We know that,

∴ g' = 0.2 g

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 49

A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height 100 m and at the same time another ball is projected vertically upwards from ground with a velocity 25 ms–1. Then the distance from the top of the tower, at which the two balls meet is

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 50

Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are kept as shown in figure, touching each other, with their centres on a straight line. If their centres are marked P, Q, R respectively, the distance of centre of mass of the system from P is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 50

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 51

A particle moves under the effect of a force F = cx from x = 0 to x = x1, the work done in the process is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 51

=

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 52

Six equal resistances are connected between points P, Q and R as shown in figure. Then net resistance will be maximum between:

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 53

A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air = 1 m/s. The viscosity of air is 8 × 10–5 poise. The viscous force on it is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 53
F = 6 πηrv

= 6 x 3.14 x ( 8 x 10- 5) x 0.03 x 100

= 4.52 x 10-3 dyne

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 54

A person who can see things most clearly at a distance of 10 cm, requires spectacles to enable to see things clearly at a distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal length of the spectacles?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 54
The person suffers from short-sightedness because he is unable to see objects at normal distance but can see objects at nearer distance.

He will require a concave lens. Things placed at 30 cm will appear to be placed at 10 cm.

So, u = 30; v= 10; f= ?

From lens formula

⇒ f = - 30/2 = 15cm

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 55

A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure. The value of the current supplied by the battery when in one case battery’s positive terminal is connected to A and in other case when positive terminal of battery is connected to B will respectively be:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 55
When positive terminal connected to A then diode

D1 is forward biased, current, I = 2/5 = 0.4 A

When positive terminal connected to B then diode D2 is

forward biased, current, I = 2/10 = 0.2 A

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 56

A solid cylinder of mass m & radius R rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The speed of its C.M. when it reaches the bottom is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 56
By energy conservation

(K.E)i + (P.E)i = (K.E)f + (P.E)f

(K.E)i = 0, (P.E)i = mgh,(P.E)f = 0

(K.E)f = ½ Iω2 + ½ mv2cm

Where I (moment of inertia) = ½ mR2(for solid cylinder)

so mgh =

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 57

Steam is passed into 22 gm of water at 20ºC. The mass of water that will be present when the water acquires a temperature of 90ºC (Latent heat of steam is 540 cal/g) is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 57
Let m be the mass of steam condensed. Then m x 540 + m x 10/2 = 22 x 70

∴ m = 2 . 8 3 g m

Now, total mass = 22 + 2.83 = 24.83 gm

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 58

Select the incorrect statement about Lorentz Force.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 58
If charge is not moving then the magnetic force is zero.

Since

As = 0, for stationary charge

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 59

A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 60

A glass rod 20 cm long is clamped at the middle. It is set into the longitudinal vibration.

If the emitted sound frequency is 4000 Hz, the velocity of sound in glass will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 60

The length of the rod (L),

= 0.2 = λ/2 ⇒ λ = 0.4 m

∴ the velocity of the sound in gas (v),

= v x λ = 4000 x 0.4 = 1600 m/s

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 61

In bringing an electron towards another electron, the electrostatic potential energy of system

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 61
The electrostatic potential energy of the two electrons, placed at the separation r from each other, is

which increases when the one electron is brought towards the other and the separation r decreases.

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 62

A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular velocity 5 radians per second. If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2×10–4T, then the e.m.f. developed between the two ends of the conductor is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 62
l = 1 m , ω = 5 rad/s, B = 0.2 x 10-4 T

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 63

A plane electromagnetic wave has a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and its energy density is 1.02 × 10–8 J/m3 in vacuum. The amplitude of the magnetic field of the wave is close to ( and speed of light = 3 × 108 ms–1) :

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 63

Energy Density =

= 160 nT

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 64

An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs 6 kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 64

Efficiency = T1 - T2 / T1

T1 = 227 + 273 = 500 K

T2= 127 + 273 = 400K

Hence , V = (η) x H = ⅕ x 6 = 1.2 kcal

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 65

A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam incident normally on the face AB is totally reflected to reach on the face BC if

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 65
The phenomenon of total internal reflection takes place during reflection at P.

…..(i)

When θ is the angle o f incidence at P

Now,

Putting in (i),

sin θ should be greater than or equal to 8/9

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 66

The work function of a metallic substance is 5 eV. The threshold frequency is approximately

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 66
Work function (W0) and the threshold frequency (V0) are related as below

W0 = hv0

= 1.2 x 1015Hz

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 67

What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of the Balmer series to the shortest wavelength of the Lyman series?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 67
For Lyman series

For shortest wavelength, n = ∞,

Therefore,

For Balmer series

For shortest wavelength, n = ∞,

The ratio

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 68

At the centre of a cubical box + Q charge is placed. The value of total flux that is coming out a wall is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 68
According to Gauss ’ Law

So total flux = Q / ɛo

Since cube has six face, so flux coming out through one wall or cne face is Q / 6ɛo.

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 69

According to the kinetic theory of gasses, the pressure exerted by a gas on the walls is measured as

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 70

The fundamental frequency of a closed end organ pipe is n. Its length is doubled and radius is halved. Its frequency will become nearly

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 70
Frequency does not depend upon radius. As length is doubled, fundamental frequency becomes half.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 71

A particle moves such that its acceleration ‘a’ is given by a = –bx where x is the displacement from equilibrium position and b is constant. The period of oscillation is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 71

=

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 72

The magnetic field of earth at the equator is approximately 4 × 10–5 T. The radius of earth is 6.4 × 106 m. Then the dipole moment of the earth will be nearly of the order of:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 72
Given, B = 4 x 10-5 T

r = 6.4 x 106m

Dipole moment of the earth M = ?

∴ M ≌ 1023 Am2

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 73

A point initially at rest moves along the x-axis. Its acceleration varies with time as a = (6t + 5)m/s2. If it starts from origin, the distance covered in 2s is

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 74

A nuclear reaction is given by , represents

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 74
-1e° is known as β- particle & is known as antineutrino. Since in this reaction is emitted with -1e°(β- particle or electron), so it is known as β - decay.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 75

Electromotive force is the force which is able to maintain a constant

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 75
Electromotive force is a force which is able to maintain a constant potential difference. This force comes from the chemical reaction taking place in the battery.
NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 76

In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency w in a magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in the coil is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 76

=

⇒ emax = NBAω

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 77

The effective capacitance between the points P and Q of the arrangement shown in the figure is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 77
5µF capacitor is ineffective, and so equivalent capacitance, will be

CPQ = 1µF.

NEET Practice Test - 23 - Question 78