NEET Practice Test - 4 - NEET MCQ

# NEET Practice Test - 4 - NEET MCQ

Test Description

## 180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series 2025 - NEET Practice Test - 4

NEET Practice Test - 4 for NEET 2024 is part of NEET Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The NEET Practice Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Practice Test - 4 MCQs are made for NEET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Practice Test - 4 below.
Solutions of NEET Practice Test - 4 questions in English are available as part of our NEET Mock Test Series 2025 for NEET & NEET Practice Test - 4 solutions in Hindi for NEET Mock Test Series 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for NEET Exam by signing up for free. Attempt NEET Practice Test - 4 | 180 questions in 200 minutes | Mock test for NEET preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study NEET Mock Test Series 2025 for NEET Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 1

### What will be the value of force on an electron moving with velocity = 2.5 106 m/s in a magnetic field = Wb/m2, if charge on an electron e is 1.6 x 10-19 C?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 1
Using,

=

= 1.6 x 10–19 x 15 x 108

= 24 x 10–11

= 2.4 x 10–10 N

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 2

### In a compound microscope, the objective and the eyepiece have focal lengths of 1 cm and 5 cm, respectively, and both are kept at a distance of 20 cm. If the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision from the eyepiece, find the total magnification.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 2

Least distance of distinct vision D = 25 cm

Given Ve = D = 25cm

fe = 5cm

Apply lens formula for the eyepiece

ue = -25/6 = -4.17 cm (left of the eyepiece)

Obtectrve and eyepiece are separated by distance L = 20 cm

As measured from the objective

v0 = L - ue

20 - 4.17

= 15.83

Apply lens formula for the objective

= -107cm (left of the objective)

Total magnification in a compound microscope when the final Image Is formed at D is given by

 1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you?
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 3

### Three thermally radiating carbon black coated discs A, B and C with radii 2 m, 4 m and 6 m have maximum intensity wavelengths 300 nm, 400 nm and 500 nm, respectively. If the powers radiated by them are Qa, Qb and Qc, respectively, then

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 3

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

A small block is shot into each of the four tracks as shown below. Each of the frictionless tracks rises to the same height. The speed with which the block enters the tracks is the same in all the cases. At the highest point of the track, normal reaction is the maximum in

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 4
Since the block rises to the same heights in all the four cases, from conservation of energy, speed of the block at highest point will be same in all four cases. Say it is v0.

Equation of motion will be

R (the radius of curvature) in first case is minimum.

Therefore, normal reaction N will be maximum in first case.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 5

A uniform rod of length 'l' and mass 'm' is free to rotate in a vertical plane about 'A'. The rod, initially in horizontal position, is released. The initial angular acceleration of the rod is (Moment of inertia of rod about A is ml2 / 3.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 5

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

The extension in a string obeying Hooke's law is 'x'. The speed of sound in the stretched string is 'v'. If the extension in the string is increased to 1.5x, the speed of sound will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 6
Speed of sound in a stretched string v =

where T is the tension in the string and μ is mass per unit length.

According to Hooke's law, F ∝ x

∴ T ∝ x ...(ii)

From Eqs. (i) and (ii)

v ∝ √x

∴ v' = √1.5v = 1.22v

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 7

For a satellite moving in an orbit around Earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 7
Key idea: Kinetic energy of satellite is half of its potential energy.

Potential energy of satellite

U =

where Re is radius of Earth, Me the mass of Earth, m the mass of satellite and G the gravitational constant.

|U| =

Kinetic energy of satellite

K =

Thus,

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 8

An elastic ball is dropped from a height h and it rebounds many times from the floor. If the coefficient of restitution is e, the time interval between the second and the third impacts, is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 8
Time taken by the ball to strike first time is t

Velocity with which strikes the surface first time is v

Velocity with which it rebounds from surface first time is v1

h1 is the height gained after rebounding first time

From coefficient of restitution

Time taken by the ball to strike the second time

Where h2 is the height gained after rebounding second time

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 9

If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0oC and the hot junction is kept at ToC, then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and temperature of inversion (Ti) is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 9

Tn = = neutral temperature

Where Tc is cold junction temperature , here Tc = 0

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 10

A substance absorbs an amount of heat Q1 in going from one state to another and releases an amount of heat Q2 in coming back from the second state to the first state. How much work is done by the substance?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 10
Applying the first law of thermodynamics,

ΔQ = ΔU + W

Q1 - W12 = U2 – U1 ... (1)

-Q2 – W21 = U1 - U2 (As Q2 is released, it will be taken as negative)

Or W21 + Q2 = U2 – U1 ... (2)

Putting (2) in (1), we get

Q1 – W12 = Q2 + W21

Or Q1 – Q2 = W12 + W21 = W

Or W = Q1 – Q2

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 11

The equation of a progressive wave is given by Y = 0.2 cos . The distance is expressed in cm and the time in seconds. What will be the minimum distance between the two particles having the phase difference of π/2?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 11
Comparing with

y = A cos

We have

We know that 2π/λ x path difference = phase difference

⇒ Path difference = cm = 25 cm

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 12

The time period of a particle in simple harmonic motion is 8 seconds. At t = 0, it is at the mean position. The ratio of the distances travelled by it in the 1st second and the 2nd second is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 12
The equation of the simple harmonic motion for a particle is written as

x = Asinωt---(i)

Where ω is the angular frequency

And t is the time taken by the particle

Also it is known that ω = 2π/T

At t = 0 sec the particle is at its mean position.

Given T = 8 sec

When t = 1 sec

Substitute the value of sinπ/4 = 1/√2

The position of the particle at the 1st second is

Similarly when t = 2 sec

Substitute the value of sinπ/2 = 1

The position of the particle at the 2nd second is

⇒ x2 = A

The ratio of the distance travelled by the particle is given by

Option C is the right answer.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 13

A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb on its surface. If Φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 13

Sin

Where q is the total charge

As shown in the figure, flux associated with the curved surface B is Φ = ΦB

Let us assume flux linked with the plane surface A and C be ΦA = ΦC = Φ’

Therefore,

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 14

If 25 W, 220 V and 100 W, 220 V bulbs are connected in series across a 440 V line, then

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 14
As for an electric appliance R = (Vs2 / W), so for the same specified voltage Vs,

i.e. R25 = 4R with R100 = R

Now in series, potential divides in proportion to resistance.

So, V1 =

i.e. V25 = 4/5 x 440 = 352 V and V2 =

i.e. V100 = 1/5 x 440 = 88 V

From this, it is clear that voltage across 100 W bulb (= 88 V) is less than specified (220 V), while that across 25 W bulb (= 352 V) is greater than specified (220 V). So, 25 W bulb will fuse.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 15

The dipole moment of a short bar magnet is 1.25 ampere - metre2. The magnetic field on its axis at a distance of 0.5 metre from the centre of the magnet is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 15

B =

= 2 x 10-6 N/A -m

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 16

If the pressure due to liquid varies with the depth y as shown in figure, then the density of the liquid is (g = 10 m/s2)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 16
Slope of P – y graph = +ρg

= 0.075 kg/m3

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 17

A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius is halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 17

∴ q ∝ R2T4

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 18

A spherical body is thrown in a long column of viscous liquid with speed greater than terminal speed (vT). The correct variation of the speed (v) with time (t) is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 18

If v > vT

⇒ v decreases and will tend to attain a value equal to vT.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 19

The amount of liquid flowing per second in the tubes (1), (2) and (3) are 10 m3/s, 5 m3/s and 8 m3/s respectively. The velocity of liquid in the tube (4) having cross-section of 0.5 m2 is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 19

Q4 + 10 + 5 – 8 = 0

Q4 = 7 m3/s

∴ 0.5 v = 7

= 14 m/s

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 20

Water rises to a height 20 cm in a capillary tube of cross-sectional area A. If the cross-sectional area of tube is 4A, then the height to which water will rise in a tube is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 20

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 21

A U-tube containing a liquid is accelerated horizontally with a constant acceleration a. If the separation between the two vertical limbs is , then the difference in the heights of the liquid in the two arms is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 21

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 22

If a wire is stretched such that its length becomes double then

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 22

Strain in the wire is 50%.

When a wire is stretched such that its length becomes double, the strain is given by:

strain = change in length/original length

Since the original length has doubled, the change in length is equal to the original length. Therefore,

strain = original length/original length = 1

This means that the strain in the wire is 100%, or 1.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 23

On the Fahrenheit scale, the temperature rise of nine degree is equivalent to how much degree rise in Celsius scale?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 23

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 24

The excess of pressure inside the first soap bubble is √3 times that inside the second bubble. The ratio of volume of the first to that the second bubble is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 24

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 25

100 g ice at 0°C is mixed with 10 g steam at 100°C, then mixture has

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 25
Final temperature 0°C

ice melt = 8 (mass of steam)

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 26

Four identical metal rods are connected as shown in figure. Assume there is no heat loss through side walls of the rods and no radiation loss, the junction temperature in steady state is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 26

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 27

A metal wire of length L is suspended vertically from a rigid support. When a body of mass M is attached to the lower end of wire, the elongation of the wire is , then the incorrect statement is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 27
The decrease in potential energy is Mg

Elastic potential energy stored =

Heat produced =

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 28

The variation in potential energy U between two molecules as a function of the distance between molecule has been shown in figure. The two molecules are

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 28
When r lies between PQ, force,

is positive.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 29

The specific heat of substance varies with temperature according to equation C = 2T × 10–3 cal/g K (T is absolute temperature). The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g of substance from 27°C to 47°C is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 29

= 10-3 x 100[(32)2 - (30)2] = 1240 cal

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 30

Two different metal slabs of identical length are joined in parallel. Their cross-sectional areas are A and 2A. If their thermal conductivity coefficients are K1 and K2 as shown then their equivalent conductivity for one dimensional steady heat transfer is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 30

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 31

In an isobaric process of a diatomic gas 140 J of heat is added to N moles of the gas to increase its temperature from T1 to T2. The amount of work done by the gas in this process is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 31

QP = nCP (T2 – T1)

w = nR (T2 – T1)

= 40 J

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 32

An ideal monoatomic gas expands to twice its original volume such that its pressure where V is the volume, the molar heat capacity of the gas is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 32

PV5/3 = constant

= Zero

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 33

Directions: Some questions (Assertion – reason type) are given below. Each question contains Statement I (Assertion) and statement II (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which only one is correct. So, select the correct choice.

Statement I If the momentum of a system is changing then it is necessary that some non-zero net force is acting on system

Statement II Law of conservation of momentum holds good in all domains of physics.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 33

The correct option is C

Statement I is true, statement II is false

Assertion:

1. Forces can act on a system to conserve linear momentum, but their vector sum should be zero.
2. Hence if some external non-zero force is acting on the system, momentum changes. Statement I is true

Reason:

• For a system of moving particles, the law of conservation of linear momentum applies. It is not applicable to individual particles of a system.
• So the above statement II is not correct

Therefore, Statement I is true, and statement II is false. hence option (c) is the correct answer

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 34

Given below are two statements:

I: Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current-carrying conductor only.

II: Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q.

In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 34
Statement I is correct which says that Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only while statement II is incorrect as Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law.
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 35

Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 35
Find the dimensions of each quantity.

Dimensions of gravitational constant, [G] = [M-1L3T-2]

Dimensions of gravitational potential energy, [U] = [ML2T-2]

Dimensions of gravitational potential, [U] = [L2T-2]

Dimensions of gravitational intensity, [I] = [LT-2]

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 36

A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. The wave delivers momentum 'p' and energy 'E'. Which of the following is true according to the situation?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 36
A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. The wave delivers momentum 'p' and energy 'E'. Then, p ≠ 0, E ≠ 0
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 37

If the wavelength of incident light changes from 400 nm to 300 nm, then the stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted from a surface becomes (approximately)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 37
Stopping potential is given by

For the first case,

For ale second case,

V2 - V1 = 1.03 ≈ 1V

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 38

An electric pump is used to fill an overhead tank of capacity 9 m3 kept at a height of 10 m above the ground. If the pump takes 5 minutes to fill the tank by consuming 10 kW power, then the efficiency of the pump must be (take g = 10 ms-2)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 38
Work done in raising water = mgh

Or W = (volume x density) gh

= (9 x 1000) x 10 x 10

Or W = 9 x 105 J

∴ Useful Power = work / t = 9 x 105 / 5 x 60 = 3 kW

Hence,

Efficiency = useful power / consuming power

= 3/10 = 30%

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 39

Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 39
Inverted input NOR gate in AND gate.
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 40

The radius of first Bohr orbit is r. What is the radius of 2nd Bohr orbit?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 40

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 41

During the adiabatic expansion of 2 moles of a gas, change in internal energy was found to be equal to 100 J. Work done in the process will be equal to

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 41

dU = −100 J, in adiabatic expansion

∴ dW = −dU = 100 J

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 42

The frequency (Vm) corresponding to which energy emitted by a black body is maximum may vary with temperature T of the body as shown in figure. Which of the curves represents correct variation?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 42
According to Wien's displacement law,

λm ∝ 1 / T or c / vm ∝ 1 / T ie, vm ∝T

Hence, curve A represents the correct variation.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 43

Directions: Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

Assertion: Frictional forces are conservating forces.

Reason: Potential energy can be associated with frictional forces.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 43
We know that the energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position is the potential energy. Thus, potential energy is associated with conservative only, and since frictional forces are non-conservative forces, potential energy is not associated with them.
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 44

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: In an ac circuit, the current through a capacitor leads the voltage across it.

Statement-II: In ac circuits containing pure capacitance only, the phase difference between the current and the voltage is π

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 44
In capacitive ac circuits, the voltage lags behind the current.

In the case of a capacitor, the current leads the voltage by π/2.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 45

An observer is using an astronomical refracting telescope to observe planets in normal adjustment. The focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece used in the telescope construction are 20 m and 2 cm respectively. Consider the following statements about the telescope:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 45

Step 1: Find the length of the telescope.

Step 2: Find the magnification of the telescope.

= 2000

∴ The image formed is inverted.

Step 3: Compare the aperture eyepiece and objective.

The aperture of the eyepiece is smaller than that of the objective.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 46

Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 46
Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds.
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 47

Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 47
The most common unit for vapour pressure is torr.

1 torr = 1 mm Hg (one millimetre of mercury)

Most materials have very low vapour pressures. For example, water has a vapor pressure of approximately 20 torr at room temperature.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 48

The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the Cu2+/Cu couples is

[Given, = 0.34 V; Ksp[Cu(OH)2] = 1 x 10-19]

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 48

Given, pH = 14; pOH = 0 and [OH-] = 1 M

[Cu2+] [OH-]2 = Ksp = 1.0 x 10-19

[Cu2+] = 1.0 x 10-19 M

For the half-reaction,

Cu2+ + 2e- Cu

For the half-reaction,

ECu2+/Cu = -0.22 V

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 49

Which of the following statements is false for the reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr?

The rate law is dx/dt = k[H2][Br2]½ .

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 49
The given reaction H2 + Br2 2HBr is a bi-molecular reaction, hence the molecularity is 2.

The order can be determined as

Order = 1 + ½ = 3/2 = 1.5

If concentrate of Br2 is increased 4 times,

R2 = k[H2][4Br2]1/2

R2 = 2k[H2][Br2]1/2

R2 = 2R1

i.e., rate increases 2 times.

Hence, all the statements are correct.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 50

Which of the following solutes forms micelles in its aqueous solution when the concentration exceeds a certain value?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 50
Surfactant detergents, which have both hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends in their molecules, form micelles in their aqueous solutions at concentrations above their C.M.C (Critical Micelle Concentration). At any concentration below the C.M.C, they form true solutions.

Dodecyl trimethyl ammonium chloride is an example of surfactant (cationic surfactant), and hence it shows micelle formation.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 51

The factor of ?G values is important in metallurgy. The ?G values for the following reactions at 800oC are:

S2 (g) + 2O2 (g) → 2SO2 (g); ?G = - 544 kJ

2Zn (s) + S2 (g) → 2ZnS (s); ?G = - 293 kJ

2Zn (s) + O2 (g) → 2ZnO (s); ?G = - 480 kJ

G for the reaction, 2ZnS (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2ZnO (g) + 2SO2 (g), will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 51

S2 (g) + 2O2 (g) → 2SO2 (g); ?G = - 544 kJ

2Zn (s) + S2 (g) → 2ZnS (s); ?G = - 293 kJ

2Zn (s) + O2 (g) → 2ZnO (s); ?G = - 480 kJ

(i) + (iii) - (ii) will yield the following equation:

2ZnS (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2ZnO (g) + 2SO2 (g)

Hence, ?G for the reaction can be obtained by:

?G(i) + ?G(iii) - ?G(ii) = -544 + (-480) - (-293) = -731 kJ

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 52

Liquid ammonia and liquor ammonia are

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 52
Liquor ammonia is ammonia dissolved in water, i.e. NH4OH, and liquid ammonia means NH3 gas, which has been liquified under high pressure. Thus, they are different.
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 53

The composition of duralumin is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 53

Duralumin is an alloy of AI - (95%), Cu - (4%), Mn - (0.5%) and Mg - (0.5%).

Magnalium is the alloy of AI - (94%) and Mg - (6%).

German silver is an alloy of Cu - (56%), Zn - (24%) and Ni - (20%).

Aluminium bronze is an alloy of Cu - (95%) and AI - (5%).

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 54

An organic compound which produces a bluish-green coloured flame on heating in the presence of copper is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 54
The presence of halogens is revealed by the coloured flame produced when halogen-containing compounds are placed in a flame.

A green-blue flame is formed when the halogen contained in the organic compound is chlorine e.g. C6H5CI.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 55

The alcohol manufactured from water gas is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 55

Methanol is commercially obtained by catalytic hydrogenation of water gas (CO + H2).

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 56

Which of the following reagents converts both acetaldehyde and acetone to alkanes?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 56
Clemmensen reduction (conc. HCI/Zn-Hg) or Wolf-Kishner reduction (C2H5ONa / NH2NH2) can be used to convert > C = O group into > CH2 group.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 57

Match the enzymes given in Column I with the reactions they catalyse given in Column II.

Select the correct option.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 57
Amylase catalyses the breakdown of starch into glucose and maltose.

Pepsin catalyses the breakdown of proteins into amino acids at acidic pH.

A nuclease is an enzyme capable of cleaving the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides of nucleic acids.

Invertase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose into fructose and glucose.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 58

The sweetest artificial sugar among the following is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 58
Among the given sugars, sucrose is a natural sugar while the others are artificial. Among the artificial sugars, alitame is about 2000 times sweeter than cane sugar.
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 59

What is the weight of 1 mole of atoms of Ag?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 59

The mass of 1 atom of Ag = 107.9 u = 107.9 x 1.67 x 10-24 g

The mass of 1 mole of Ag = 107.9 x 1.67 x 10-24 6.022 x 1023 g = 107.9 g.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 60

Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the hydrogen atom?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 60
Hydrogen atom is a uni-electron element and exhibits degeneracy of all the orbitals belonging to a given shell, i.e. orbitals of the same shell have the same energy. The energy of an electron can be determined only from the value of the principal quantum number (n).

Therefore, 3s, 3p and 3d-orbitals will have the same energy with respect to the 1s-orbital of hydrogen.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 61

Match the species in Column I with bond orders in Column II.

Select the correct option.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 61
Bond order, as introduced by Linus Pauling, is defined as the difference between the numbers of bonds and antibonds.

Bond order of NO: 1/2(10 - 5) = 2.5

Bond order of CO: 1/2(10 - 4) = 3

Bond order of B2 : 1/2(6 - 4) = 1

Bond order of C2: 1/2(8 - 4) = 2

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 62

Given below are two statements:

I. Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.

II. Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 62
Primary aliphatic amines react with nitrous acid to form aliphatic diazonium salts which are unstable, and liberate nitrogen gas quantitatively and alcohols.

The reactions are as follows:

Primary aromatic amines form arenediazonium salts which are stable for a short time in solution at low temperatures (273-278 K). Thus, Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K is a wrong statement.

Thus, option 4th is the correct answer.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 63

Which of the following enzymes, converts glucose to alcohol?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 63

Glucose/Fructose

Last step during commercial preparation of alcohol from fermentation of sugar.

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 64

Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 64
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 65

End product (B) in below reaction is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 65

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 66

Product A will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 66

NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 67

Antibiotic which works as bacteriostatic

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 67
(Fact): Various bacteriostatic antibiotic are erythromycin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol.
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 68

Product (A) is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 68
Weak oxidising agents like PCC, PDC etc. oxidise 1° alcohol to aldehyde.
NEET Practice Test - 4 - Question 69

For the complete conversion of D-glucose (1 eq) into the corresponding osazone, the minimum number of equivalents of phenyl hydrazine required is