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NEET Practice Test - 8 - NEET MCQ


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180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series 2025 - NEET Practice Test - 8

NEET Practice Test - 8 for NEET 2024 is part of NEET Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The NEET Practice Test - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Practice Test - 8 MCQs are made for NEET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Practice Test - 8 below.
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NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 1

The velocity-time (v-t) graph for a moving object is shown in the figure. The total displacement of the object during the time interval when there is non-zero acceleration and retardation is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 1
Between time interval 20 s to 40 s, there is non-zero acceleration and retardation.

Hence, distance travelled during this interval = Area under v-t graph between time interval 20 s to 40 s

= 1/2 × 20 × 3 + 20 × 1 = 30 + 20 = 50 m

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 2

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:

Assertion : The velocity of flow of a liquid is smaller when pressure is larger and viceversa.

Reason : According to Bernoulli's theorem, for the stream line flow of an ideal liquid, the total energy per unit mass remains constant.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 2
According to Bernoulli's theorem, P + 1/2 Pv2 = a constant i.e. when velocity is large, the pressure is less in a stream line flow of an ideal liquid through a horizontal tube.
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NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 3

A projectile can have the same range 'R' for two angles of projection. If T1 and T2 are the time durations of flights in the two cases, the product of T1 and T2 will be directly proportional to

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 3

Let the angles of projection be

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 4

The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass m and radius R) rolling down an incline of angle without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 4
A solid sphere rolling without slipping down an inclined plane

In this Case,

For solid sphere, k2 = (2/5)R2

For a sphere slipping down an inclined plane,

a2 = g sinθ

= 5 : 7

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 5

The radius of an air bubble at the bottom of a lake is 'r' and it becomes '2r' when the air bubble rises to the top surface of the lake. If 'P' cm of water is the atmospheric pressure, what is the depth of the lake?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 5

Let depth of lake is x cm.

∴ P1V1 = P2V2

(P + x) r3 = P(8r3)

x = 8P - P

⇒ x = 7P

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 6

Two identical charges (Q each) are separated by a certain distance. A third charge q is placed on the line joining the two charges, such that all the three charges are in equilibrium. What is the magnitude of the third charge?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 6
Suppose the charge q is placed somewhere between the two charges.

For equilibrium of charge q, resultant force on q should be zero.

r1 = r2 = r

So, the charge q should be placed midway between the two charges.

For equilibrium of the system, resultant force on each charge is zero.

So, the resultant force on Q = 0

Magnitude of the charge q = Q/4

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 7

Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire, but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. What is the ratio of potential differences applied across them, so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 7

B1 = B2

For resistances of coils

= 2 × 2 = 4

or V1 : V2 :: 4 : 1

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 8

A pendulum bob has a speed of 3 m/s at its lowest position. The pendulum is 0.5 m long. The speed of the bob, when length makes an angle of 60o to the vertical, is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 8

Potential energy of the bob at point B

PE = mg(l - l cosθ)

From law of conservation of energy, we have

Total energy at point A = total energy at point B

9 = v2 + 2gl(1 - cos60°)

v2 = 4 m/s

∴ v = 2 m/s

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 9

An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a combination of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of this lens' combination is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 9
Power of the lens combination is

which is choice (b).

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 10

If the input and output resistances in a common-base amplifier circuit are 400Ω and 400 kΩ, respectively, what is the collector current when the emitter current is 2 mA and current gain α is 0.98?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 10
As

α = Ic / Ie

Ic = αIe

Ie = 2 mA,

α = 0.98

Ic = 1.96 mA

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 11

Which energy state of triply ionised beryllium (Be+++) has the same electron orbital radius as that of the ground state of hydrogen? Given Z for beryllium = 4.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 11
For an atom of atomic number Z, the radius of the nth orbit is given by

where K = is a constant.

For the ground state of hydrogen (Z = 1), n = 1 so that r1 = K

Let n be the energy state of Be+++ for which the orbital radius is r1.

Putting Z = 4 and rn = r1 = K is Eq.

(i) we get

or n2 = 4 or n = 2

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 12

Two masses m1 = 6 kg and m2 = 4 kg are connected by means of a string which passes over a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure.

When the masses are released, what is the acceleration of the masses? (Take g = 10 ms-2)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 12
The common acceleration of the masses is

Hence, the correct choice is (a).

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 13

A body moving in a straight line with constant acceleration of 10 ms-2 covers a distance of 40 m in the 4th second. How much distance will it cover in the 6th second?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 13
The distance covered in the nth second is given by

or 40 = u + 7/2 × 10 or u = 40 - 35

= 5 ms-1

which gives S6 = 60 m

Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 14

A tube, closed at one end containing air, produces, when excited, the fundamental note of frequency 512 Hz. If the tube is open at both ends, then the fundamental frequency that can be excited will be (in Hz)

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 14

For a closed tube,

For an ipen tube,

Hence v’ = 2v = 2 x 512 = 1024 Hz

Thus the correct choice is (a)

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 15

Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.

Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities.

Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 15
Step 1: Find the formula of each quantity.

(A) Velocity,

(B) J = σE

J = E/ρ

Electrical resistivity ρ = E/J

(C)

Relaxation time,

(D) i = neAvd

Current density, J = i / A = nevd

Hence, the correct option is (c).

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 16

Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.

A. A zener diode is connected in reverse bias when used as a voltage regulator.

B. The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.2 V to 0.3 V.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 16
Recall the concept of the voltage regulator.

(A) Zener diode operate under reverse bias in the breakdown region and is used as a voltage regulator.

(B) The potential barrier can be between (0.6 to 0.7 ) V.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 17

A proton of mass m and charge +e is moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic field with energy 1 MeV. What should be the energy of an α - particle (mass 4m and charge +2e) so that it revolves in a circular orbit of the same radius in the same magnetic field?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 17

Here ‘r’ and ‘ B’ are constants

⇒ Kα = 1 MeV.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 18

The graph between magnetic susceptibility and absolute temperature for a paramagnetic substance is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 18

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 19

At a certain place on earth, the true angle of dip is 60°, if the dip circle is oriented at an angle of 45º with the magnetic meridian, then the apparent angle of dip shown by the dip circle will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 19

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 20

A transformer with a power efficiency of 80% converts a 10 V primary input voltage (with a current of 10 A) to a voltage of 20 V. The current in the secondary coil will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 20

Pout = ղPin

i = 4 A

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 21

A Daniel cell is connected to the primary coil of a transformer. If the output voltage of the Daniel cell is 10 V, and the ratio of secondary to primary coil turns of transformer is 2, then the voltage in the secondary will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 21
Transformer does not work for DC.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 22

The average value of current i = (4t2) A from t = 0 to t = 4 s is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 22

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 23

An AC generator’s coil has 2000 turns and is rotated with angular speed of 500 rad/s. If the area of the coil is 10 cm2 and the magnetic field is 0.2 T, then the peak voltage in the coil will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 23

Vmax = NBAω

= 2000 × 0.2 × 10 × 10–4 × 500

= 200 V

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 24

The impedance of the following circuit at very high frequencies of source voltage between A and B, will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 24
At very high frequencies of the source voltage, the inductor would behave as an open circuit and the capacitor would have like a conducting wire.

Rnet = R + R = 2R

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 25

When 100 V DC is applied across a solenoid, a current of 1 A flows in it. When 100 V AC is applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5 A. If the frequency of the AC source is 50 Hz, the impedance and inductance of the inductor for the given AC circuit are

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 25

For DC,

For AC,

⇒ L = 0.55H

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 26

The power factor of the circuit shown in the figure is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 26

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 27

Consider the following two statements.

Statement-A: A hot wire ammeter reads the RMS value of current.

Statement-B: A hot wire ammeter can read AC but cannot read DC.

The correct statement(s) is/are

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 27
A hot wire instrument reads RMS values of both AC and DC.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 28

The ratio of respective capacitive reactance when connected with a source of frequency 40 Hz and 60 Hz is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 28

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 29

The network shown in the figure is part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant, the current i is 5 A and decreasing at a rate of 103 As−1 then potential difference between A and B (VB−VA ) is equal to 

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 29

VA−5+15+5=VB
⇒VB−VA=15 V

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 30

An AC circuit having supply voltage V, consists of resistor of resistance 4 and capacitor of reactance 3 as shown in the figure. The voltage across the capacitor at time t = π / ωs is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 30

= 12 V

As in capacitor current leads voltage.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 31

An inductor of inductance 20 mH is connected across the terminals of a capacitor of capacitance 2 μF which is initially charged to a potential

10√2V. The charge on the capacitor, when the energy stored in the capacitor becomes equal to the energy stored in the inductor is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 31

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 32

The phase difference between current and voltage in an AC circuit is π/4 radian. If the frequency of the AC used is 50 Hz, then the phase difference is equivalent to the time difference

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 32

ω = 2πf = 100π.

= 2.5 × 10–3 s

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 33

Variation of a current with time is shown in the graph below. The rms value of the current between time t = 0 to t = 4 s is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 33

= √3 A

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 34

In a series LCR circuit, at resonance, the bandwidth frequency can be represented as

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 34
Bandwidth frequency = R/2πL
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 35

A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates in vertical plane about one of its ends at angular velocity 5 radian per second. If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 × 10–4 T, then the emf developed between the two ends of the conductor is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 35

= 0.5 × 10–4 = 50 μV

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 36

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:

Assertion: The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than at the brain.

Reason: Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to height, density of liquid and acceleration due to gravity.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 36
Height of the blood column in the human body is more at feet than at the brain. As P=hρg, therefore the blood exerts more pressure at the feet than at the brain.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 37

I: The magnetic field of a circular loop at very far away point on the axial line varies with distance as like that of a magnetic dipole.

II: The magnetic field due to magnetic dipole varies inversely with the square of the distance from the centre on the axial line.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 37
Step 1: Find the magnetic field due to the circular coil on the axial line at a far away distance.

This is same as the magnetic field due to bar magnetic on axial line at a far distance.

Step 2: Find the magnetic field due to bar magnet on the axial line.

The magnetic field due to magnetic dipole varies inversely with the cube of the distance from the center on the axial line.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 38

A new system of units is evolved in which the values of μ0 and ε0 are 2 and 8, respectively. The speed of light in this system will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 38
A new system of units is evolved in which the values of μ0 and ε0 are 2 and 8, respectively. The speed of light in this system will be

= 0.25

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 39

If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm, respectively and the object is put 1.25 cm away from the objective lens, the final image is formed at infinity. The magnifying power of the microscope is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 39

Magnifying power

=

= 200

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 40

From the following figure describing photoelectric effect, we may infer correctly that

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 40
Kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is given by

where is the work function.

Stopping potential V is given by:

So, we can say that it is a straight line whose slope gives the ratio of Plank's constant to the charge on the electron and intercept gives the work function (in eV).

The maximum KE of the photoelectron is

Hence, maximum KE varies linearly with frequency.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 41

The energy released in the fission of a single 23592U nucleus is 200 MeV. The fission rate of a 23592U filled reactor operating at a power level of 5 W is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 41

Fission Rate =

= 1.56 1011 s-1

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 42

Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 42
The lighter nuclei combine together to form heavier nuclei in nuclear fusion reaction. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 43

Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 43

Find the correct wavelength of each wave.

AM radio waves - 102 m

Microwaves - 10−2m

Infrared radiations - 10−4 m

X-rays - 10−10 m

So the correct option is (A).

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 44

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 44
Efficiency of all reversible cycles depends upon temperature of source and sink which will be different.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 45

A photon will have less energy if its

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 45
The energy of a photon is given by

E = hc / λ

Where, h = Planck's constant = 6.62 × 10−34 J s

c = speed of light = 3 × 108 m s−1,

λ = wavelength

Therefore, E ∝ 1 / λ

If a photon has longer wavelength, it will have less energy.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 46

A gas X with disagreeable odour reduces silver nitrate solution to give metallic silver and is itself oxidised to Y. Y is a dibasic acid with reducing properties. It is slowly oxidised in air to a tribasic acid Z. Though Z is a tribasic acid, it behaves in aqueous solution mostly as a dibasic acid. When a mixture of X and N2O is subjected to electric spark, Z is obtained.

The gas X is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 46
Phosphine is a gas with disagreeable odour of rotten fish. It can reduce silver nitrate solution to metallic silver and is itself oxidised to H3PO3, a dibasic acid with reducing properties.

6AgNO3 + PH3 + 3H2O → 6Ag + H3PO3 + 6HNO3

Thus, option (b) is correct.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 47

Ozonolysis of C7H14 gives 2-methyl-3-pentanone. The alkene is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 47
Ozonolysis of 2-ethyl-3-methyl-1-butene gives 2-methyl-3-pentanone.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 48

Identify the major product that is formed in the following reaction.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 48

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 49

Two solutions of a substance are mixed in the following manner: 480 mL of 1.5 M first solution + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution. What is the molarity of the final mixture?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 49

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 50

Which of the following d-electronic configurations in an octahedral complex will give the maximum CFSE?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 50
In octahedral complexes, CFSE is given by the formula

CFSE = Value of t2g (n) + Value of eg (n) Dq

Now, CFSE for low spin d4 = -4(4) + 6(0) = -16 + 0 = -16 Dq

CFSE for high spin d4 = -4(3) + 6(1) = -12 + 6 = -6 Dq

CFSE for low spin d5 = -4(5) + 6(0) = -20 + 0 = -20 Dq

CFSE for high spin d5 = -4(3) + 6(2) = -12 + 12 = 0 Dq

CFSE for low spin d7 = -4(5) + 6(2) = -20 + 12 = -8 Dq

Hence, low spin d5 will give the maximum CFSE in an octahedral complex.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 51

A buffer solution contains 100 mL of 0.01 M CH3COOH and 200 mL of 0.02 M CH3COONa. 700 mL of water is added. The respective pH values before and after dilution are

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 51

= 4.74 + log 4 = 4.74 + 0.6 = 5.34

pH of buffer solution remains the same after dilution.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 52

Which of the following is/are correct according to the given adsorption isotherm?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 52
All the options are correct for 'Freundlich adsorption isotherm' at different pressures.

(At low pressure)

(At high pressure)

(At intermediate pressure)

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 53

The correct IUPAC name of

is?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 53

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 54

The major product in the following reaction is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 54

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 55

What is the product in the following reaction?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 55
Yes, (b), it is the correct answer.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 56

Which of the following salts does not get hydrolysed in water?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 56
Only salts of (weak acid + strong base) and (strong acid + weak base) get hydrolysed (i.e., show alkalinity or acidity in water).

KCIO4 a salt of strong acid and strong base, therefore, it does not get hydrolysed in water.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 57

Which of the following is not a secondary pollutant?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 57
A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. For example: Carbon dioxide

A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere. Examples of a secondary pollutant include ozone, which is formed when hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides (NOx) combine in the presence of sunlight; NO2, which is formed as NO combines with oxygen in the air; and acid rain, which is formed when sulphur dioxide or nitrogen oxides react with water.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 58

Which of the following compounds is an example of primary haloalkane?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 58
Bromoethane is an example of primary haloalkane.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 59

Identify the false statements regarding Castner-Kellner cell.

1. Castner-Kellner cell is used to manufacture sodium hydroxide.

2. Iron is used as a cathode in central compartment.

3. Mercury is used as an anode in side compartment.

4. Graphite rods are used as anodes in central compartment.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 59
Castner-Kellner cell is used to manufacture sodium hydroxide. In Castner-Kellner cell, iron is used as a cathode and mercury is used as an anode in central compartment. In the side compartment, graphite rods are used as anodes and mercury acts as a cathode.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 60

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding polyethylene?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 60
The low density polythene (LDPE) is obtained by using free radical initiator, and not by ionic catalysts.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 61

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the options given below each question.

Assertion (A) : Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with washing soda.

Reason (R) : Washing soda reacts with soluble magnesium and calcium sulphate to form insoluble carbonates.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 61
Permanent hardness of water can be removed by using washing soda. Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 62

Match column - I (types of colloids) and column - II (their examples).

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 62
Fog is an example of aerosol where liquid is dispersed phase and gas is dispersion medium.

Whipped cream is an example of foam where gas is dispersed phase and liquid is dispersion medium.

Hair cream is an example of emulsion where liquid is dispersed phase and liquid is dispersion medium.

Cheese is an example of gel where liquid is dispersed phase and solid is dispersion medium.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 63

Given below are two statements:

I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group.

II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 63
In substituted phenols, the presence of electron-withdrawing groups such as nitro group enhances the acidic strength of phenol. This effect is more pronounced when such a group is present at ortho and para positions.

It is due to the effective delocalization of negative charge in phenoxide ion when the substituent is at ortho or para position.

The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of the electron-withdrawing nitro group. Hence, the statement first is correct.

The pKa value of given acids are as follows:

o-nitrophenol = 7.2

m-nitrophenol = 8.3

p-nitrophenol = 7.1

phenol = 10.0

Hence, statement second is incorrect.

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 64

Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 64
Maltose is a disaccharide.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 65

Product (D) in below reaction series is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 65

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 66

Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of their reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 66
Benzyl halides are more reactive than Aryl halides due to more stability of benzyl carbocation /intermediate. Moreover, reactivity of aryl halides is increased by EWG like -NO2 so that order is II > III > IV > I.
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 67

Common example of Antihistamines is

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 67
Common antihistamines are brompheniramine (Dimetapp) and terfenadine (seldane).
NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 68

Which of the following isomerism is shown by the product formed in the given reaction?

Detailed Solution for NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 68

NEET Practice Test - 8 - Question 69

Product (B) is