Part Test 5 - NEET 2020


180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers | Part Test 5 - NEET 2020


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This mock test of Part Test 5 - NEET 2020 for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 180 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET Part Test 5 - NEET 2020 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Part Test 5 - NEET 2020 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this Part Test 5 - NEET 2020 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Part Test 5 - NEET 2020 extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

A uniform, horizontal parallel beam of light is incident upon a prism as shown. The prism is in the shape of a quarter cylinder, of radius R = 5 cm, and has the index of refraction n = 5/3. The width of the region at which the incident rays after normal incidence on plane surface and subsequent refraction at curved surface intersect on x  axis is (Neglect the ray which travels along x-axis as shown in figure)

Solution:

The ray just above x-axis shall after refraction at curved surface intersect x axis at (A) a distance x1 from O.


The critical angle for air-glass interface is  . the rays above the ray incident on curved surface at i = 370 shall suffer TIR and need not be considered.

The ray incident as curved surface at θ= 370 after refraction intersect curved surface at (B) a distance x2 from O.

In Δ PBC

QUESTION: 2

Inside a solid glass sphere of radius R , a point source of light lies at a distance x ( x < R) from centre of the sphere. The solid sphere is surrounded by air of refractive index 1. The maximum angle of incidence for  rays incident on the spherical glass- air interface directly from the point source is:

Solution:

Let O be the centre and A be the point source for ray incident at any point P thus for maximum angle of incidence i,

QUESTION: 3

Two transparent slabs are of equal length (thickness). One is made of a material A of R.I. 1.5 and the other is made of materials B and C, the ratio of their thickness being 1: 2. The R.I. of C is 1.6. When light passes through them, the two slabs have the same number of waves. The R.I. of B is (Light is incident normally)

Solution:

Given that 

Number of waves in A = Number of waves in B + Number of waves in C

 

Here C is constant (3 x 108 m/s) and frequency f does not depends om medium.

QUESTION: 4

An object moves in front of a fixed plane mirror. The velocity of the image of the object is 

Solution:

When object moves normal to the mirror, image velocity will be opposite to it. when object moves parallel to the mirror, image velocity will be in the same direction.

QUESTION: 5

An object and a plane mirror are shown in figure. Mirror is moved with velocity V as shown. The velocity of image is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

The rainbow formed after or during the rain is due to

Solution:

Due to T.I. R., light is returned back and due to dispersion light splitted into different colors.

QUESTION: 7

In the figure ABC is the cross section of a right angled prism and BCDE is the cross section of a glass slab. The value of θ so that light incident normally on the face AB does not cross the face BC is (given sin–1 (3/5) = 37º)

Solution:

  (Difination of critical angle)

r = μ of rarer  medium ; μd = μ of denser medium]

θc is the critical angle for the BC boundary 
Let us calculate θ when light ray just graes the boundary xy.

Since the ray should not cross  xy, so, 

QUESTION: 8

In the diagram shown, light is incident on the interface between media 1 (refractive index n1) and 2 (refractive index n2) at angle slightly greater than the critical angle and is totally reflected. The light is then also totally reflected at the interface between media 1 and 3 (refractive index n3) after which it travels in a direction opposite to its initial direction. The media must have a refractive indices such that  

Solution:

Let the critical angle of interface between media 1 and 2 is c1 and between 1 and 3 is C2

Then  and .

From TIR at second interface 90- C1 > C2. taking sin of both side we get

cos C1 > sin C2 or  or  

QUESTION: 9

A transparent cylinder has its right half polished so as to act as a mirror. A paraxial light ray is incident from left, that is parallel to principal axis, exits parallel to the incident ray as shown. The refractive index n of the material of the cylinder is :     

Solution:

⇒ 

QUESTION: 10

If a prism having refractive √2 index, has angle of minimum deviation equal to the angle of refraction of the prism, then the angle of refraction of the prism is: 

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

In the figure shown a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is shown. An object O is placed in front of this mirror. Its ray diagram is shown. How many mistakes are there in the ray diagram (AB is its  principal axis):

Solution:

Error -I

Error- II

QUESTION: 12

For a real object, all of the following statements are correct except :

Solution:

For a real object a convex mirror always form a virtual image.

QUESTION: 13

In the figure shown find the total magnification after two successive reflections first on M1 & then on M2

Solution:

For M: 1/v+1/u = 1/f;

1/v = -1/20 + 1/30;

1/v= -10/600; v= -60

m1 = -2

for M2: u= +20. f=10

QUESTION: 14

A particle revolves in clockwise direction (as seen from point A) in a circle C of radius 1 cm and completes one revolution in 2 sec. The axis of the circle and the principal axis of the mirror M coincide. Call it AB. The radius of curvature of the mirror is 20 cm. Then the direction of  revolution (as seen from A) of the image of the particle and its speed is 

Solution:

the image revolves in circle or radius 1/2 cm. image of a radius is erect ⇒particle will revolve in the same direction as the particle. The image will complete one revolution in the same time 2s.

velocity of image = 1.57 cm/s

QUESTION: 15

The relative refractive index of glass with respect to a material is 0.9 and the absolute refractive index of glass is 1.512. The refractive index of the material is

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

A lens of focal length 20.0 cm and aperture radius 2.0 cm is placed at a distance 30.0 cm from a point source of light. On the other side a screen is placed at a distance 50.0 cm from the lens. The radius of spot of light formed on screen is. (Neglect spherical abberation through lens)

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

A convex lens is cut into two parts in different ways that are arranged in four manners, as shown. Which arrangement will give maximum optical power ?

Solution:

Focal length is minimum in case I,therefore power is maximum. (P=(1/f))

QUESTION: 18

A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 45º on an equilateral prism and emerge at an angle 45º then the refractive index of the medium of the prism is : 

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

The distance of nth bright fringe to the (n+1)th dark fringe in Young's experiment is equal to:

Solution:

The distance between nth bright fringe and (n+1)th dark fringe is equal to half of fringe width=

QUESTION: 20

In a Young's double slit experiment, d = 1 mm, λ = 6000 Å and D = 1 m (where d, λ and D have usual meaning). Each of slit individually produces same intensity on the screen. The minimum distance between two points on the screen having 75 % intensity of the maximum intensity is :

Solution:

The intensity at distance x-from central order bright on screen is 
 

where I0 = maximum intensity
β = fringe width
Hence therequired distance 

QUESTION: 21

Let S1 and S2 be the two slits in Young’s double slit experiment. If central maxima is observed at P and angle S1PS2 = θ, then the fringe width for the light of wavelength λ will be. (Assume θ to be a small angle)

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Figure shows two coherent sources S1-S2 vibrating in same phase. AB is an irregular wire lying at a far distance from the sources S1 and S2.   = 0.12°. How many bright spots will be seen on the wire, including points A and B. 

Solution:

∴   The number of bright spots will be three
Hence (B)

QUESTION: 23

If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources is 4 then the visibility [(Imax-  Imin)/(Imax+  Imin)] of the fringes is

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

In Young’s double slit experiment, we get 60 fringes in the field of view of monochromatic light of wavelength 4000 A0. If we use monochromatic light of wavelength 6000 A0, then the number of fringes that would be obtained in the same field of view is :

Solution:

λ ∞ (Fringe width)

Higher 'λ' means wider fringes.

At higher wavelength, same space on the screen is occupied by wider fringes, and hence lesser number of fringes.


⇒ 
⇒ 

⇒ n = 40

QUESTION: 25

If the distance between the first maxima and fifth minima of a double slit pattern is 7mm and the slits are separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50 cm from the slits, then wavelength of the light used is 

Solution:

there are three and a half fringes

from first maxima to fifth minima as shown.

QUESTION: 26

The path difference between two interfering waves at a point on the screen is λ/6. The ratio of intensity at this point and that at the central bright fringe will be : (Assume that intensity due to each slit is same)    

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is d, distance between the  slit and screen is D (D >> d). In the interference pattern, there is a maxima exactly in front for each slit. Then the possible wavelengths used in the experiment are :

Solution:

For maxima at 'P' path different at 'P' should be ΔP = λ,2λ, 3λ ....

 

Hence (C) is possible

QUESTION: 28

A point source of light is kept at the centre of a solid transparent sphere. The sphere is surrounded by air . The refractive index of material of sphere for which the rays incident from point source on glass–air interface will suffer total internal reflection is: 

Solution:

All rays originating from point source are incident normally on glass air interface, hence no ray suffers total internal reflection.

QUESTION: 29

A point object ' O ' is at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The mirror starts to move at a speed u, in a direction perpendicular to the principal axis. Then the initial velocity of the image is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

In the figure shown an object ‘AB’ makes small angle with the normal line ‘PQ’. The length of ‘AB’ is l. The refractive index of the slab is ‘n’ and the surrounding medium is air. ‘AB’ is seen with the help of paraxial rays, from the left side of the slab. The size of the image of AB is 

Solution:

Every point of the image will be at distance  towards left of the object.The image will be parallel to 'AB' and of the same size.

QUESTION: 31

An opaque sphere of radius a is just immersed in a transparent liquid as shown in figure. A point source is placed on the vertical diameter of the sphere at a distance a/2 from the top of the sphere. One ray originating from the point source after refraction from the air liquid interface forms tangent to the sphere. The angle of refraction for that particular ray is 30º. The refractive index of the liquid is

   

Solution:

Rhe line CE will be angle bisector of ∠BCD

QUESTION: 32

A thin oil film of refractive index 1.2 floats on the surface of water ( m=4/3 ) . When a light of wavelength l = 9.6 × 10–7 m falls normally on the film from air, then it appears dark when seen normally. The minimum change in its thickness for which it will appear bright in normally reflected light by the same light is:    

Solution:

For normal incidence path difference between ray 1 and ray 2 is 2μ1 t

For minimum thickness increment 

⇒ 

QUESTION: 33

In a YDSE experiment if a slab whose refractive index can be varied is placed in front of one of the slits then the variation of resultant intensity at mid-point of screen with 'µ' will be best represented by (µ ³ 1).[ Assume slits of equal width and there is no absorption by slab; mid point of screen is the point where waves interfere with zero phase difference in absence of slab] 

Solution:

In absence of film or for μ=0 intensity is maximum at screen. As the value of μ is increased,intensity shall decrease and then increase alternately.Hence the correct variation is 

QUESTION: 34

Two blocks each of mass m lie on a smooth table. They are attached to two other masses as shown in the figure. The pulleys and strings are light. An object O is kept at rest on the table. The sides AB & CD of the two blocks are made reflecting. The acceleration of two images
formed in those two reflecting surfaces w.r.t. each other is:

Solution:



Acceleration of image in mirror AB   (∵ ViG = -VoG + 2VmG)

= 2 acceleration of mirror

Accekeration of image in mirror CD = 

∴ Acceleration of the two image w.r.t each other = 

QUESTION: 35

A ray is incident on the first prism at an angle of incidence 53º as shown in the figure. The angle between side CA and B'A' for the net deviation by both the prisms to be double of the deviation produced by the first prism, will be :

  

Solution:

Let be the angle of emergence from the first prism be 'e'

snell's law on surface AB

snell;s law on AC     

 

then for net deviation to be double, the incident ray on side A'B' of second prism should make angles i or e with normal.

Hene the angle between the given then will be 2e or i+e

QUESTION: 36

Light of wavelength 4000 Å is incident at small angle on a prism of apex angle 4º. The prism has nv = 1.5 & nr = 1.48. The angle of dispersion produced by the prism in this light is :    

Solution:

Dispersion will not occur for a light of single wave length λ = 4000Å

QUESTION: 37

Two plane mirrors are joined together as shown in figure. Two point objects O1 and O2 are placed symmetrically such that AO1 = AO2. The image of the two objects is common if : 

Solution:

As AB is common and O1B = BI

Δ O1BA and BAI and congurent

By symmetry AI is perpendicular to O1 to O2

and ∠O1BA = ∠BAI

∴ BAI = 450

and ∠BAC = 900

 

QUESTION: 38

Monochromatic light rays parallel to x-axis strike a convex lens AB. If the lens oscillates such that AB tilts upto a small angle q (in radian) on either side of y-axis, then the amplitude of oscillation of image will be (f = focal length of the lens) :

Solution:

From the figure :

Amplitude=x=f-fcosθ = f(1-cosθ)= (by binomial expansion)

 

QUESTION: 39

An interference is observed due to two coherent sources 'A' & 'B' having phase constant zero, separated by a distance 4 l along the y - axis where l is the wavelength of the sources. A detector D is moved on the positive x - axis. The number of points on the x - axis excluding the 
points, x = 0 & x = ¥ at which maximum will be observed are

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

The observer 'O' sees the distance AB as infinitely large. If refractive index of liquid is m1 and that of glass is m2, then   is :

 

Solution:

using formula of spherical surface taking 'B' as object

 
(R being the radius of the curved surface) = 

QUESTION: 41

An object of height 1 cm is kept perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm. If the distance of the object from the mirror is 20 cm then the distance between heads  of the image and the object will be:

Solution:

∴ the distance between tip of the object and image is 

QUESTION: 42

A thin linear object of size 1 mm is kept along the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The object is at 15 cm from the lens. The length of the image is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

An object approaches a fixed diverging lens with a constant velocity from infinity along the principal axis. The relative velocity between object and its image will be :

Solution:

as u increased Vrel decrease 

here u is negetive so when it approach lens it will increase.

QUESTION: 44

A ray of light falls on a plane mirror. When the mirror is turned, about an axis which is at right angle to the plane of the mirror through 20º the angle between the incident ray and new reflected ray is 45º. The angle between the incident ray and original reflected ray was therefore : 

Solution:

If mirror is turned, about an axis perpendicular to plane of mirror, then there will be no change in incident angle and reflected angle so angle between incident & reflected rays after rotation will be same as before

QUESTION: 45

The focal length of a lens of refractive index 3/2 is 10 cm in air. The focal length of that lens in a medium of refractive index 7/5 is:

Solution:

   ... (1)

When placed in medium of RI 7/5 

  .... (2)

Dividing (1) by (2) F' = 70 cm

QUESTION: 46

The compound X (C9H7ClO2) is optically active. It mainly exists in enolic form. It racemises due to enolisation. Its structure is : 

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

The correct nucleophilicity order is :

Solution:

Due to +m effects

QUESTION: 48

Arrange the following Alcohols for decreasing rate of reaction with conc. H2SO4 at 180ºC.

Solution:

It is an E1 reaction and rate  carbocation intermediate. 

QUESTION: 49

Identify Z in the following series

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following compound give methane  on treatment with CH3MgI

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

End product D of the following reaction will be

 

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

The product (C) of the following reaction is :

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 53

Solution:

QUESTION: 54

Solution:

Except C=C of cinnamyl like system, LiAlH4 doesnot reduce the C=C bonds. 

QUESTION: 55

  

No. of products and number of fraction are respectively:

Solution:

,

Total products are six and fractional distillates are five.

QUESTION: 56

Observe the following compounds

The incorrect order of reactivity is (towards electrophillic addition)

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

The correct relative rate of reaction of the given alkenes for any given electrophiles is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 58

Solution:

It is an electrophilic addition reaction.

QUESTION: 59

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Which of the following alcohol will be oxidised most readily by K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4 solution ?

Solution:

The 1º alcohol is most readily oxidised, because the a-H is abstracted in the slow step.

QUESTION: 61

The correct order of resonance energy of the compound is :

Solution:

More number of resonating structures in I as compare to II.

QUESTION: 62

Solution:

N-attached ring is more activated towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.

QUESTION: 63

  Y is : 

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 64

Phenol on reaction with Br2 in CS2 or non-polar aprotric solvent furnishes :

Solution:

in CS2 medium reactivity os  is less. hence Br is substituted at o & p

QUESTION: 65

Among the following which one will show maximum hydration ?

Solution:

Due to strong –I effects and formation of intramolecular H bonding.

QUESTION: 66

 

 

the product C is 

Solution:

Active methylene groups provides the carbanionic intermediate to facillate the nucleophilic substitution reaction.

QUESTION: 67

  What is the structure of P.

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

Cyanohydrin formation constant will be highest for     

Solution:

More is the electrophilicity of >C=O bond in the aldehyde, easier will be attack of CN, higher willl be cyanohydrin formation constant.

QUESTION: 69

CH3CHO + H2NOH → CH3- CH =NOH + H2O. the above reaction occur at 

Solution:

pH in this reaction is carefully controlled to maintain sufficient nucleophilicity of .

QUESTION: 70

Base catalysed aldol condensation occurs with :

Solution:

Ethanal as it contains α – H.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the follwoing carboxylic acids undergoes decarboxylation easily?            

Solution:

β-keto acid on heating easily undergo decarboxylation via a six membered cyclic transition state.

QUESTION: 72

When acetamide is treated with NaOBr, the product formed is?

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

Solution:

First calcium salt is formed, then CaCOis eliminated.

QUESTION: 74

Polymer which has amide linkage is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following is a non reducing sugar ?

Solution:

Sucrose does not have hemi-acetal carbon and hence it is non-reducing sugar

QUESTION: 76

The final product of the reaction is : 

Solution:

QUESTION: 77

  

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

On vigorous oxidation of (CH3)2C=CH—CH2 —CH3 by permanganate solution gives :    

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 80

The end product of follwing reaction sequence is

  

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 81

The major product formed in the following reaction is 

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

 

Product R is 

Solution:

1,4 addition atakes place initially.

QUESTION: 83

Solution:

   

QUESTION: 84

The compound 'X' is :

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

Observe the following reaction and identify the end product.

 

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 86

Product X will be : 

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

The major product of following sequence of reactions is

Solution:

In hofmann elimination the more acidic β-hdrogen is removed.

QUESTION: 88

P will be;

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

The final product of the following reaction is 

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

 

Give the product (P) of the above reaction sequence.

Solution:

 

 

   

Phenoxide ions are so strongly activated that they undergo electrophillic aromatic substitution with CO2​​​​

QUESTION: 91

Mark the incorrectly matched-

Solution:

Explanation- mint is example of stolon but strawberry is runner

QUESTION: 92

After fertilization Zygotic meiosis present in-

Solution:

Explanation- alage and fungi are haplontic show zygotic meiosis

QUESTION: 93

Which of the following have thickest cell wall-

Solution:

Explanation- zygote of haplontic alagae undergo resting stage so have thickest wall

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following is not  monocarpic -

Solution:

Explanation- bamboo is perennial but monocarpic

QUESTION: 95

Which is correct about chara-

Solution:

Explanation- chara is monoceious

QUESTION: 96

Meaning of heterothallism in fungi is-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 11

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following is not monoceious plant-

Solution:

Explanation- mulberry is dioceious plant

QUESTION: 98

Which is incorrect about bisexual  flower-

Solution:

Explanation- Castor is unisexual flower, mention in outbreeding device topice,NCERT page no- 31

QUESTION: 99

Ploidy of archegoniophore in marchantia is-

Solution:

Explanation- Archegoniophore is haploid

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following is false for oogamous –

Solution:

Explanation- Angiosperm and gymnosperm is oogamous but non-motile male gamete

QUESTION: 101

Which of the following is not composite fruit-

Solution:

Explanation- blackberry is aggregate fruit

QUESTION: 102

Which of the following can not show geitonogamy and xenogamy both-

Solution:

Explanation-  date palm is dioceious plant only show xenogamy

QUESTION: 103

Edible pollen grain present in –

Solution:

Explanation – edible pollen present in magnolia

QUESTION: 104

Pollination by wind is generally  absent in –

Solution:

Explanation- groundnut show underground flower so  generally self pollinated

QUESTION: 105

Bat pollinated have  feature all except -

Solution:

Explanation- wind pollinated flower are not bright colour

QUESTION: 106

If funicle  surround ovule completely than   -

Solution:

Explanation- circinotropus surround ovule completely

QUESTION: 107

Dioceious flower which prevent self pollination is-

Solution:

Explanation- dioceious flower promote cross pollination

QUESTION: 108

Dimorphic style present in –

Solution:

Explanation—primula have dimorphic style and lythrum have trimorphic style

QUESTION: 109

Xenogamy not occur in  -

Solution:

Explanation- pea show bud pollination

QUESTION: 110

Which of the following structure have pollen grain -

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 21

QUESTION: 111

Which of the following are  feature of vegetative cell of pollen grain-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 23

QUESTION: 112

Consider the following statement-                                          

(a)number of cells in male gametophyte is always fewer than female gametophyte in case of angiosperm

(b) Both male and female gametophyte have all cells as haploid

how many are correct-

Solution:

Explanation- pollen grain is one or two cell stage and female gametophyte is 8 cell stage

QUESTION: 113

Aggregate fruit not develop develop from-

Solution:

Explanation- multicarpellary apocarpus fruit give aggregate fruit

QUESTION: 114

Foul odour present in flower are pollinated by-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 30

QUESTION: 115

Rejection of pollen grain on stigma is because of –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 31-32

QUESTION: 116

If ploidy of antipodal is diploid and that of PEN is 8n then what is probable ploidy of zygote  -

Solution:

Explanation- ploidy of egg cell is 2n and male gamete 3n so zygote is 5n

QUESTION: 117

Minimum number of meiotic division require to form 400 seeds ,when all seeds is product of fertilization-

Solution:

Explanation- 100 meiosis give 400 pollen and 400 meiosis give 400 egg

QUESTION: 118

Give the number of chromosome in aleurone  layer of wheat if number of chromosome in male and female gamete is 14

Solution:

Explanation- aleurone layer is triploid

QUESTION: 119

In a single ovary multiple ovule present in –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 25

QUESTION: 120

Nucellus inside seed develop into embryo in –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 31

QUESTION: 121

Consider the following statement and mark the wrong  -

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 158-159

QUESTION: 122

Mark the correct ploidy and amount of DNA-

Solution:

Explanation- ovum form after meiosis I is haploid with 2c DNA

QUESTION: 123

Which of the following group of cells are haploid –

Solution:

Explanation- spermatozoa, ootid, second polar body, first polar body are haploid

QUESTION: 124

Mitochondria present in sperm in –

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

Which of the following hormone is not released by placenta-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 53

QUESTION: 126

Mark the wrongly matched-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 54

QUESTION: 127

Consider the following-

        (a)Inside tertiary follicle of ovary meiosis 1 completed

        (b) secondary oocyte have haploid content with 4c amount of DNA

 how many correct-

Solution:

Explanation- Inside tertiary follicle meiosis I complete ,

 NCERT page no- 48

QUESTION: 128

Which is not correct –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 54

QUESTION: 129

Mark the incorrect-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 157,159

QUESTION: 130

Mark the wrongly matched ploidy or amount-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 49

QUESTION: 131

Graffian follicle turns into corpus leuteum at that time-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 50,51

QUESTION: 132

Consider the following matched-

(1) salmonella typhi   -  lips ,finger and nails turn grey

 (2)Smack    –   diacetyl morphine

(3) spleen    -   secondary lymphoid organ

(4) physiological barrier   -    PMNL

How many are correctly matched-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 147,150,154 and158

Smack is diacetyl morphine and spleen is secondary lymphoid organ

QUESTION: 133

Q43Which of the following not binds on cannabinoid receptor on brain-                                  

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no-158

QUESTION: 134

Whiich of the following is not secondry lymphoid tissue-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 153-154

QUESTION: 135

Internal bleeding,fever and blockage of intestinal passage is symptom of-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 149

QUESTION: 136

What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans ?

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 50-51

QUESTION: 137

The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle in also called

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 50-51

QUESTION: 138

The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of ?

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 47

QUESTION: 139

Consider the following structure -

perisperm,seed coat, funicle,cotyledon,aleurone layer,endosperm,epicotyls,plumule,hypocotyls,radicle, hilum,integument

How many are genetically identical to zygote

Solution:

Explanation- cotyledon, epicotyls, plumule, hypocotyls and radicle are genetically identical to zyggote

QUESTION: 140

Which of following is  role of female reproductive system -

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 44

QUESTION: 141

Head of sperms are embedded in sertoli cell

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 47

QUESTION: 142

Which of the following development not occur at the end of second trimester-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 54

QUESTION: 143

Consider the event-

(a) formation of inner cell mass

(b) blastocyst become embedded

( c) uterine cells devide

(d) uterine cell cover blastocyst

(e) leads to pregnancy

Correct sequence is-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 53

QUESTION: 144

Mark the correct-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 158

QUESTION: 145

Mark the incorrect-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 160-161

QUESTION: 146

Which of the following is common symptom of typhoid and pneumonia –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no-146-147

QUESTION: 147

Consider the following-

        (a) In liver and RBC plasmodium reproduce asexually

        (b) Sexual stage of plasmodium develop inside mosquito

how many correct-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 148

QUESTION: 148

Epidermophyton and trichophyton is responsible for infection of all except-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 149

QUESTION: 149

Which of the following infection spread in body through blood-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 148

QUESTION: 150

Which of the following is wrongly matched-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 150

QUESTION: 151

Mark the incorrect –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 151-152

QUESTION: 152

Consider the following-

        (a) lower immunity make body more susceptible to allergens

        (b) allergy is due to both external substance and internal substance

 how many correct-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 153

QUESTION: 153

Which of the following is allergens –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 153

QUESTION: 154

After maturation the lymphocyte can move to –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 154

QUESTION: 155

Which step come first in infection cycle of HIV?

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 155

QUESTION: 156

Which process of retro virus not required host enzyme-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 155, retrovirus not require reverse transcriptase from host

QUESTION: 157

Which of the following method of treating cancer not involve killing cells –

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 158

QUESTION: 158

Which is not property of smack-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 158

QUESTION: 159

Mark the incorrect-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 156

QUESTION: 160

Conformers are maintaining constant internal conditions mainly by-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 224, conformer not regulate internal condition

QUESTION: 161

Consider the following statement-       

        (1) conformer performance decrease in change condition               

        (2) regulator energy requirement decrease in change condition

 how many correct-

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 224

QUESTION: 162

Carrying capacity of any habitat is least  affected by –

Solution:

Explanation- inter specific competition affect least to interspecific competition

QUESTION: 163

IN logisitic growth curve which is correct  -

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 231

QUESTION: 164

Which of the following is not example of commensalism -

Solution:

Explanation- smoother crops are example of ammensalism and plover bird and crocodile is mutualism

QUESTION: 165

A population of  orchid plant show 30 new plant in one week time and now become 60  plant in field than birth rate is  -

Solution:

Explanation- NCERT page no- 227

QUESTION: 166

Consider the following matched-

(1) thick cuticle   –    morphological adaptation

 (2) Blubber      –     physiological adaptation

(3) Desert lizard      –      behavioral

(4) Antifreeze protein    –     anatomical

How many are correctly matched -